1

Prelims Wallah Test 2.0 - 2024

Test 28: Full Length Test- 6- Synopsis
1. A 26. D 51. C 76. A

2. D 27. C 52. B 77. B

3. D 28. D 53. C 78. D

4. A 29. C 54. D 79. D

5. A 30. C 55. B 80. C

6. D 31. D 56. B 81. A

7. D 32. C 57. A 82. B

8. C 33. B 58. B 83. A

9. C 34. A 59. C 84. A

10. B 35. C 60. A 85. C

11. D 36. C 61. A 86. A

12. B 37. D 62. C 87. C

13. D 38. C 63. D 88. B

14. A 39. A 64. A 89. D

15. C 40. D 65. C 90. A

16. D 41. C 66. B 91. B

17. C 42. A 67. A 92. D

18. D 43. B 68. C 93. A

19. D 44. B 69. B 94. D

20. A 45. C 70. A 95. A

21. D 46. D 71. B 96. A

22. C 47. A 72. B 97. B

23. C 48. A 73. B 98. A

24. C 49. A 74. C 99. A

25. A 50. C 75. D 100. B


1. Ans: A
Exp: The doctrine of 'sovereignty of
Parliament' is associated with the British
Parliament. That supreme power in Great
Britain lies with the Parliament. There
are no 'legal' restrictions on its authority
and jurisdiction.
Statement-I is correct: The Indian
Parliament cannot be regarded as a
sovereign body as there are 'legal'
restrictions on its authority and
jurisdiction.
Statement-II is correct: The factors that
limit the sovereignty of Indian
Parliament are:
● Written Nature of the
Constitution: The Constitution has
defined the authority and
jurisdiction of all the three organs of
the Union government and the
nature of interrelationship between
them. Hence, the Parliament has to
operate within the limits prescribed
by the Constitution.
● Federal System of Government:
India has a federal system of
government with a constitutional
division of powers between the
Union and the states. Both have to
operate within the spheres allotted
to them.
● System of Judicial Review: The
adoption of an independent
Judiciary with the power of judicial
review also restricts the supremacy
of our Parliament. Both the
Supreme Court and high courts can
declare the laws enacted by the
Parliament as void and ultra vires
(unconstitutional), if they
contravene any provision of the
Constitution. On the other hand,
there is no system of judicial review
in Britain.
2
● Fundamental Rights: The authority
of the Parliament is also restricted
by the incorporation of fundamental
rights under Part III of the
Constitution.
Thus both the statements are correct,
and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I.
2. Ans: D
Exp: The Finance Bill of 2017
introduced Electoral Bonds as interest-
free bearer instruments for the first
time in India. It is touted as an
alternative to cash donations made to the
political parties. It aims to bring clean
money and substantial transparency into
the political funding system.
The salient features of the scheme are:
(i) The electoral bond means a bond
issued in the nature of a promissory note
which is a bearer banking instrument and
does not carry the name of the buyer or
payee.
(ii) The electoral bonds may be
purchased by a citizen of India or entities
incorporated or established in India.
(iii) The electoral bonds can be used
for making donations to only those
registered political parties which have
secured not less than one per cent of
the votes polled in the last general
election to the Lok Sabha or the State
legislative Assembly. Hence, statement
1 is incorrect.
(iv) The electoral bonds can be encashed
by an eligible political party only through
a bank account with the authorized bank.
Electoral bonds are available for
purchase in January, April, July, and
October. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.

(v) The electoral bonds are issued in the
denomination of ₹1,000, ₹10,000,
₹1,00,000, ₹10,00,000 and ₹1,00,00,000.
(vi) The information furnished by the
buyers is treated confidential by the
authorized bank and is not to be
disclosed to an authority for any purpose
except when demanded by a competent
court or upon registration of a criminal
case by any law enforcement agency.
In the 2018 budget, the receiving of
foreign funds by the political parties
has been allowed. In other words, the
political parties can now receive funds
from the foreign companies.
Accordingly, the Foreign Contribution
(Regulation) Act, 2010, has been
amended. Under this amendment, the
definition of a foreign company has been
modified. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect
3. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The
appointment, posting and promotion
of District judges in a state are made
by the Governor of the state in
consultation with the high court.
A person to be appointed as a district
judge should have the following
qualifications:
● He/she should not already be in the
ser- vice of the Central or the state
government.
● He/she should have been an
advocate or a pleader for seven
years.
● He/she should be recommended by
the high court for appointment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The pardoning
power of the Governor is outlined in
the Constitution of India, particularly
in Article 161.
The pardoning powers and functions of
the governor are:
3
● He/she can grant pardons, reprieves,
respites and remissions of
punishment or suspend, remit and
commute the sentence of any person
convicted of any offense against any
law relating to a matter to which the
executive power of the state
extends.
● He/she cannot pardon a death
sentence. Even if a state law
prescribes for a death sentence,
the power to grant pardon lies
with the President and not the
governor. But, the governor can
suspend, remit or commute a
death sentence.
4. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement-I is correct: The Aam
Aadmi party is the most recently
declared national party by the
Election Commission of India. This
decision was based on AAP’s strong
performance in Delhi, Punjab, Gujarat,
and Goa. Currently, there are six national
parties in India viz. BJP, Congress, CPI
(Marxist), AAP, BSP, and National
People’s Party (NPP).
Statement-II is correct: At present, a
party is recognised as a national party if
any of the following conditions are
fulfilled:
● If it secures six per cent of valid
votes polled in any four or more
states at a general election to the
Lok Sabha or to the legislative
assembly; and, in addition, it wins
four seats in the Lok Sabha from
any state or states; or
● If it wins two per cent of seats in the
Lok Sabha at a general election, and
these candidates are elected from
three states or

● If it is recognised as a state party
in four or more states.
Hence, both the statements are correct
and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I
5. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 129 and
Article 215 of the Indian Constitution
grant the Supreme Court of India and the
High Courts the authority to be Courts of
Record, respectively.
As a Court of Record, the Supreme
Court has two powers:
● The judgements, proceedings and
acts of the Supreme Court are
recorded for perpetual memory and
testimony. These records are
admitted to be of evidential
significance and cannot be
questioned when produced before
any court. They are recognised as
legal precedents and legal
references.
● It has the power to punish for
contempt of itself. In 1991, the
Supreme Court ruled that it has
power to punish for contempt not
only of itself but also of high
courts, subordinate courts and
tribunals functioning in the entire
country.
● Article 215 of the Indian
Constitution states that every High
Court shall be a court of record and
shall have all the powers of such a
court, including the power to punish
for contempt of itself.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The prior
consent of the Attorney General (AG)
of India is not required to suo motu
initiate the inherent contempt powers
4
of the Supreme Court. The Contempt of
Court Act of 1971 cannot limit this
power of the court. The statute only
provides the procedure in which such
contempt is to be initiated. The suo motu
contempt powers of the top court are
drawn from Article 129 of the
Constitution, which says the Supreme
Court, as a court of record, has the power
to punish for contempt of itself.
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to
the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971,
contempt of court can either be civil
contempt or criminal contempt
(Constitution does not define
contempt of court explicitly though it
is mentioned).
Two Types of Contempt:
Civil Contempt: It is committed when
someone wilfully disobeys a court order,
or wilfully breaches an undertaking
given to court.
Criminal Contempt
It consists of three forms:
● words, written or spoken, signs and
actions that “scandalize” or “tend to
scandalize” or “lower” or “tends to
lower” the authority of any court
● prejudices or interferes with any
judicial proceeding and
● interferes with or obstructs the
administration of justice.
6. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Constitution (Article 165) has provided
for the office of the advocate general for
the states. He/she is the highest law
officer in the state. Thus he/she
corresponds to the Attorney General of
India. The advocate general is
appointed by the governor of the state.

He/she must be a person who is qualified
to be appointed as a judge of a high court.
In other words, he/she must be a citizen
of India and must have held a judicial
office for ten years or been an advocate
of a high court for ten years
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of
office of the advocate general is not
fixed by the Constitution. Further, the
8.
Constitution does not contain the
procedure and grounds for his/her
removal. He/she holds office during the
pleasure of the governor. This means that
he/she may be removed by the governor
at any time. He/she may also quit his/her
office by submitting his/her resignation
to the governor. Conventionally he/she
resigns when the government (council of
ministers) resigns or is replaced, as
he/she is appointed on its advice. The
remuneration of the advocate general is
not fixed by the Constitution. He/she
receives such remuneration as the
governor may determine.
7. Ans: D
Exp: Article 200 of the Indian
Constitution deals with the powers of the
Governor with regard to assent given to
bills passed by the State legislature and
other powers of the Governor such as
reserving the bill for the President's
consideration. The Governor of India
enjoys absolute veto, suspensive veto
(except on money bills) but not the
pocket veto.
Statement-I incorrect: Qualified veto is
a type of veto in which the veto can be
overridden by a special majority vote of
the legislature (as in the case of the
President of the United States of
America). However, neither the
Governor of a State nor the President
of India has the power of Qualified
Veto.
5
Statement-II is correct: The Governor
can reject, withhold, grant assent to the
bill or reserve the bill for the assent by
the President. The Constitution of India
does not provide any time limit for the
Governor to act on a bill passed by the
state legislature. However, in practice,
Governors are expected to act on bills
within a reasonable amount of time.
Ans: C
Exp:
The constitutional values are reflected in
the entire Constitution of India, but the
Preamble embodies ‘the fundamental
values and the philosophy on which the
Constitution is based’. The values
expressed in the Preamble are expressed
as objectives of the Constitution, which
are:
Sovereignty Socialism Secularism Democracy
Republican Justice Liberty Equality
character of
the Indian
State
Fraternity Human Unity and
Dignity Integrity
of the
Nation
Liberty: It means the absence of
restraints on the activities of individuals
and at the same time, providing
opportunities for the development of
individual personalities.
Liberty, as elaborated in the Preamble, is
very essential for the successful
functioning of the Indian democratic
system. However, liberty does not
mean ‘license’ to do what one likes,
and has to be enjoyed within the
limitations mentioned in the Constitution
itself, i.e., liberty conceived by the

Preamble or Fundamental Rights is
not absolute but qualified.
Fraternity: Fraternity means a sense of
brotherhood. The Preamble declares
that fraternity has to assure two
things:
• The dignity of the individual.
• The unity and integrity of the
nation.
The word ‘integrity’ has been added to
the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment (1976).
9. Ans: C
Exp:
Gopal Baba Walangkar, also known as
Gopal Krishna, was a pioneer in the
cause of uplifting the Dalits from socio-
economic oppression. Walangkar
subscribed to Phule’s idea of the Aryan
invasion theory.
Statement 1 is correct: The Anarya
Dosh-Parihar Mandali was a social
reform organisation founded by
Walangkar in 1890 to promote the
interests of the Dalits. The organisation
worked to address the social and
economic oppression faced by the Dalits
and to promote their education and
empowerment.
It was through this society that a
petition was sought to be raised
against the policy of the government to
discontinue the recruitment of Mahars
in the army.
Statement 2 is correct: Walangkar's
most significant work is "Hindu
Dharma Darpan," which was published
in 1894. In this work, Walangkar
criticised the caste system and advocated
for the social and economic upliftment of
the Dalits. He also argued that the Dalits
were the original inhabitants of India and
that the Brahmins were Aryan invaders.
6
10. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The press
ordinance was issued in 1823 by
Governor General John Adams. It laid
down stringent regulations for the editors
and heavy penalties and fines were
prescribed for infringement. In 1835
when Charles Metcafe became the
Governor-General, he relaxed several
restrictions previously imposed on the
press and repealed the obnoxious
ordinance of 1823 and earned the
epithet of ‘Liberator of Indian Press’.
Statement 2 is correct: The disaffection
created by Lord Curzon's policies
resulted in the growth of an Extremist
Party. The newspaper of the time often
commented adversely on the government
policies. According to the Newspaper
(incitement to Offence) Act, 1908
magistrates were given power to
confiscate printing presses and
properties.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In March 1947
Government of India appointed a Press
Enquiry Committee and was charged
with the duty of examining the press laws
in the light of fundamental rights
formulated. The committee recommended
the repeal of the Indian Emergency
Power Act of 1931.
11. Ans: D
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrect: Gopalhari
Deshmukh was known by his pen name
"Lokahitawadi." He was associated
with the periodical "Hitechhu," not
"Sudharak." Gopalhari Deshmukh was a
social reformer and rationalist who
advocated for social reform and modern,
humanistic, secular values in
Maharashtra. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
started his own periodical, Sudharak,

which spoke against untouchability and
the caste system.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Gopal Krishna
Gokhale was a prominent political
leader and social reformer during the
Indian freedom movement. Gopal
Krishna Gokhale was associated with
'Hitwada’ and not with the periodical
"Hitechhu." Gokhale was known for his
efforts in the political and social spheres,
including advocating for educational
reforms and civil rights.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Gopal Ganesh
Agarkar was a notable social reformer
and educationist, but he was not
associated with "Satyarth Prakash."
"Satyarth Prakash" was a significant
work authored by another social
reformer, Swami Dayanand
Saraswati. Agarkar is known for his role
in the field of education and his work
with periodicals such as "Kesari."
12. Ans: B
Exp:
Narkelberia Uprising: Mir Nithar Ali
(1782–1831) or Titu Mir inspired the
Muslim tenants in West Bengal to rise
against landlords, mainly Hindu, who
imposed a beard-tax on the Faraizis and
British indigo planters. Often considered
the first armed peasant uprising against
the British, this revolt soon took on a
religious hue. The revolt later merged
into the Wahabi Movement.
Champaran Satyagraha (1917): It was
led by Gandhiji to look into the problems
of the farmers in context of indigo
planters of Champaran in Bihar. The
European planters had been forcing the
peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of
the total land (called tinkathia system).
Eka Movement (1921): Towards the
end of 1921, peasant discontent
7
resurfaced on issues of high rent and
oppression in revenue collection, in some
northern districts of the United
Provinces, which resulted into Eka
movement. The grassroot leadership of
the Eka Movement came from Madari
Pasi and other low-caste leaders, and
many small zamindars.
Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): The
Bardoli satyagraha February 1928,
during India’s national movement was
led by Sardar Vallabhai Patel, against the
payments of the revised assessment until
the government appointed an
independent tribunal or accepted the
current amount as full payment.
13. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Following the
unceremonious decision of the British
Govternment to go ahead with Partition
of Bengal, the Indian National
Congress approved the Swadeshi and
Boycott Movements in its Benaras
session in 1905, with GK Gokhale acting
as the president. The Indian National
Congress explicitly demanded Swaraj
for the first time in the Calcutta session
in 1906, with Dadbhai Naoroji acting as
the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The first non-
Indian to preside over the annual
session of the Indian National
Congress was George Yule. He
presided over the session in 1888, held in
Allahabad. George Yule was a Scottish
merchant based in India, and his
presidency marked the first time a non-
Indian held this position in the
Congress's history. This was significant
as it illustrated the Indian National
Congress's early inclusivity and its
appeal to supporters of Indian self-
governance from various backgrounds. It

was Womesh Chunder Bonarjee, the first
Congress President, who convinced Yule
to accept the invitation to chair the
Allahabad session.
14. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The civil
disobedience Movement is a non-violent
movement engaged in by individuals
who refuses to obey a law for moral or
philosophical reasons. It implies the
wilful and deliberate violation of certain
law, civil rule and political authority in
resistance to some real or perceived
injustice. The Rich peasants were
supporters of the civil disobedience
movement. They were hit hard by the
trade depression and falling prices. With
their income decreasing rapidly, they
found it impossible to pay the
government’s revenue demand. The
government also refused to reduce the
revenue demand which led to widespread
resentment among the rich peasants.
Statement 2 is correct: Lord
Willingdon (1931-36) was the viceroy
of India when following events
happened:
● Second & Third Round Table
Conference
● Poona pact was signed
● Communal award was started
Third Round Table Conference was
organised in 1932. It was presided over
by Ramsay MacDonald. The White
Paper released by the British
Government in March 1933 outlined
proposals that set the direction for the
formulation of the new Constitution of
India. Subsequently, the Government of
India Act of 1935 was passed based on
these proposals.
First Round Table Conference
occurred during the tenure of Lord
Irwin.
8
15. Ans: C
Exp:
Government of India Act 1919 was based
on what are popularly known as the
Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. In
August 1917, the British government for
the first time declared that its objective
was to gradually introduce responsible
government in India, but as an integral
part of the British Empire.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the 1919
Act, the Indian Legislative Council at
the Centre was replaced by a
bicameral system consisting of a
Council of State (Upper House) and a
Legislative Assembly (Lower House).
Each house was to have a majority of
members who were directly elected. So,
direct election was introduced, though
the franchise was much restricted being
based on qualifications of property, tax,
or education.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The principle
of communal representation was
extended with separate electorates for
Sikhs, Christians, and Anglo-Indians,
besides Muslims. It was during the
Government of India Act of 1935, the
principles of ‘communal electorates’ and
‘weightage’ were further extended to
depressed classes, women, and labour.
Statement 3 is correct: The Provincial
Budget was separated from the Central
Budget, and Provinces were allowed to
enact their own Budget.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Indian
Councils Act 1909 allowed an Indian
member to be taken for the first time
in the Executive Council of the
Governor General. Satyendra Prasad
Sinha was the first Indian to join the
Governor General’s—or Viceroy’s—
Executive Council, as law member.

16. Ans: D
Exp:
Maharishi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(1873–1944) was born into a Marathi
family in Karnataka. Tukaram,
Eknath, and Ramdas' works all had an
impact on his spiritual journey. He
grew up in a liberal intellectual
environment and was influenced by Hari
Narayan Apte, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar,
Mahadev Govind Ranade, Ramakrishna
Gopal Bhandarkar, and G.B. Kotkar,
among other thinkers. He joined the
Prarthana Samaj and worked to
eliminate untouchability in India. In
1905, he established an untouchable
children's night school in Pune. He
founded the Depressed Classes
Mission in Bombay in 1906. The
mission aimed to eliminate
untouchability, provide educational
facilities for untouchables, and solve
their problems. He spoke out against the
caste system, idol worship, and
inequities imposed on women and the
poor, as well as meaningless rituals,
hereditary priesthood's dominance, and
the need for a priest to act as a go-
between for a devotee and God. He
participated in the Civil Disobedience
Movement and was imprisoned at the
Yerawda Central Jail. Shinde was the
18.
author of the Bharatiya Asprushyatecha
Prashna.
17. Ans: C
Exp:
Pair 1 is correct: The history of the
Yadava dynasty may be traced to the 9th
century. For around 300
years, they ruled as the feudatories of the
Rashtrakutas and the Chalukyas. With
the decline of the latter, they emerged as
independent rulers with a big territory
under their control. Bhillama V (1175-
1191), the feudatory of the Chalukya
9
ruler, Somesvara IV (1181- 1189),
acquired independent status in CE 1187
and laid the foundation of the Yadava
rule.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Kakatiyas were
the feudatories of the Chalukyas of
Kalyani. Kakati Rudradeva
(Prataprudra I), the founder of the
Kakatiya state, succeeded in
overpowering the Chalukya ruler,
Tailapa III, during the second half of the
12th century (c. 1162).
Pair 3 is correct: Kadungon (A.D.590-
620) was the founder and the first
great ruler of the Pandyas. He freed
Madurai from the clutches of Kalabhras.
Velvikkudi copper plates designate him
as the Kalabhra power.
Pair 4 is correct: The Hoysalas ruled
over parts of the present Karnataka and
most of the Tamil region. The founder
of the dynasty was Nripa Kama II who
was the feudatory of Western Gangas.
The first independent ruler of the
kingdom was Ballala II (1173-1220).
The kingdom achieved independent
status by the close of the 12th century but
its end came at the beginning of the 14th
century.
Ans: D
Exp:
Firoz Shah Tughlaq, the third ruler of the
Tughlaq dynasty. He ascended the throne
in 1351 and ruled until 1388. Important
developments during his reign included:
● He established the Diwan-i-
Khairat, or Department of Charity,
to take care of orphans and widows.
The department also provided for
the marriage of poor girls.
● He established Diwan-i-Bundaga
(Department of slave).

● He founded four New Town viz.
Firozabad, Fatehabad, Jaunpur and
Hissar.
Firoz Tughlaq had the unique distinction
of being chosen as sultan by the nobles.
He appointed Khan-i-Jahan Maqbal, a
Telugu Brahmin convert as wazir (prime
minister). Firoz patronized scholars like
Barani and Afif. As he was guided by the
ulemas, he was intolerant towards Shia
Muslims and Sufis. He treated Hindus as
second grade citizens and imposed
Jiziya. In this respect he was the
precursor of Sikandar Lodi and
Aurangazeb.
19. Ans: D
Exp:
Agriculture during Mughal period was
organised around two major seasonal
cycles, the kharif (autumn) and the rabi
(spring). Most regions, except those
terrains that were the most arid or
inhospitable, produced a minimum of
two crops a year (do-fasla), whereas
some, where rainfall or irrigation assured
a continuous supply of water, even gave
three crops. This ensured an enormous
variety of produce. However, the focus
on the cultivation of basic staples did not
mean that agriculture in medieval India
was only for subsistence. We often come
across the term jins-i kamil (literally,
perfect cash crops) in our sources. The
Mughal state also encouraged peasants to
cultivate such crops as they brought in
more revenue. Crops such as cotton and
sugarcane were jins-i kamil par
excellence. Cotton was grown over a
great swathe of territory spread over
central India and the Deccan plateau,
whereas Bengal was famous for its sugar.
Such cash crops would also include
various sorts of oilseeds (for example,
mustard) and lentils.
10
20. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The greatest
of the Vijayanagar rulers, Krishna Deva
Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. He
possessed great military ability. His
imposing personality was accompanied
by high intellectual quality. His first task
was to check the invading Bahmani
forces. By that time the Bahmani
kingdom was replaced by Deccan
Sultanates. The Muslim armies were
decisively defeated in the battle of
Diwani by Krishna Deva Raya.
Krishna Deva Raya’s Orissa campaign
was also successful. He defeated the
Gajapathi ruler Prataparudra and
conquered the whole of Telungana. He
maintained friendly relations with the
Portuguese. Albuquerque sent his
ambassadors to Krishna Deva Raya.
Statement 2 is correct: A large number
of inscriptions of the kings of
Vijayanagara and their nayakas
recording donations to temples as well as
describing important events have been
recovered. Several travellers visited the
city and wrote about it. Notable among
their accounts are those of an Italian
trader named Nicolo de Conti, an
ambassador named Abdur Razzaq sent
by the ruler of Persia, a merchant named
Afanasii Nikitin from Russia, all of
whom visited the city in the fifteenth
century, and those of Duarte Barbosa,
Domingo Paes and Fernao Nuniz from
Portugal, who came in the sixteenth
century. Domingos Paes arrived in India
during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, the
most powerful king the Vijayanagara
Empire has ever had. Domingo Paes, a
Portuguese traveller, visited the
Vijayanagara Empire around 1520.

22.
21. Ans: D
Exp:
Correct chronological sequence of the
events is 1-2-4-3:
In 1191, Prithviraj Chauhan defeated
Muhammad Ghori in the First Battle of
Tarain, near Delhi. However, Ghori
returned in 1192 and won decisively in
the Second Battle of Tarain, marking a
turning point in the conflict between the
Ghurids and the Rajput Confederacy.
The Battle of Chandawar took place in
1194 CE between Muhammad of Ghor
and Jayachandra of the Gahadavala
dynasty on the banks of the Yamuna
River near Agra. The battle was fought
fiercely and resulted in Jayachandra's
death and the defeat of his army. This
victory gave Muhammad control of
much of North India.
Iltutmish was the first who introduced
the Arabic coinage into India and the
silver tanka weighing 175 grams became
a standard coin in medieval India. The
silver tanka remained the basis of the
modern rupee. Iltutmish had also created
a new class of ruling elite of forty
powerful military leaders, the Forty.
Iltutmish (1211–1236) became sultan
in 1211 after defeating Aram Baksh.
The Persian festival of Navroz, or
Nowruz, is celebrated by the Parsi
community in India on March 21st
every year. The festival is a celebration
of new beginnings and the victory of
light over darkness. This festival was
introduced by Ghiyas ud din Balban.
Ghiyas-ud-din Balban was the ruler of
Delhi Sultnate during the period reigning
from 1266 to 1287 AD. He was known
for his authoritarian rule and patronage
of art and culture.
11
Ans: C
Exp:
Option a is correct: Babur (1526-1530)
was the founder of the Mughal Empire in
India. His original name was Zahiruddin
Muhammad. By the end of 1525, Babur
started from Kabul to conquer India. He
occupied Lahore easily by defeating its
governor, Daulat Khan Lodi. Then he
proceeded against Delhi where Ibrahim
Lodi was the Sultan. On 21st April 1526
the first Battle of Panipat took place
between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, who
was killed in the battle. In 1528, Babur
captured Chanderi from another Rajput
ruler Medini Rai. In the next year, Babur
defeated the Afghans in the Battle of
Gogra in Bihar. By these victories,
Babur consolidated his power in India.
Babur died at Agra in 1530 at the age of
forty.
Option b is correct: Akbar’s Rajput
policy was combined with a broad
religious toleration. He abolished the
pilgrim tax and later the jiziya. The
Rajput policy of Akbar proved to be
beneficial to the Mughal state as well as
to the Rajputs. The alliance secured to
the Mughals the services of the bravest
warriors. On the other hand it ensured
peace in Rajasthan and a number of
Rajputs who joined the Mughal service
rose to important positions.
Option c is incorrect: Aurangazeb was
one of the ablest of the Mughal kings.
He assumed the title Alamgir, World
Conqueror. His military campaigns in his
first ten years of reign were a great
success. He suppressed the minor
revolts. To contain the spread of the
Marathas, Aurangazeb decided to
invade Bijapur and Golkonda. He
defeated Sikandar Shah of Bijapur and
annexed his kingdom. Then, he
proceeded against Golkonda and

eliminated the Kutb Shahi dynasty. It
was also annexed by him.
Option d is correct: The contribution of
Mughals to the art of painting was
remarkable. The foundation for the
Mughal painting was laid by
Humayun when he was staying in
Persia. He brought with him two
painters – Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdal
Samad to India. These two painters
became famous during Akbar’s reign.
23. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Zabt
System, introduced by Todar Mal
(Akbar’s Finance Minister) during
Akbar's reign, assessed money revenue
rates based on the area of land and the
crops cultivated. This approach allowed
for a more consistent and predictable
revenue collection system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mughal
administration determined the
productivity of the land and assessed the
tax based on the total measurement.
Under the Zabt System, revenue rates
were fixed on each unit of area
according to the crops cultivated.
Statement 3 is correct: The schedules
containing revenue rates for different
localities under the Zabt System were
known as "dasturs". These dasturs
played a crucial role in determining the
specific rates applicable to various
regions, and they were used year after
year to ensure uniform revenue
assessment and collection.
12
24. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Nizam Shāhī
dynasty were rulers of the kingdom of
Ahmadnagar in the Deccan of India from
1490 to 1633. Malik Ahmad Nizam
Shah I, the founder, established his
capital on a newly designated site
named Ahmadnagar in 1490, named
after himself. The kingdom lay in the
northwestern Deccan, between the states
of Gujarat and Bijapur. It secured the
great fortress of Daulatabad in 1499 and
added Berar in 1574.
Statement 2 is correct: Battle of
Talikota also known as that of
Rakkasagi–Tangadagi was the
confrontation in the Deccan region of
southern India between the forces of
the Hindu raja of Vijayanagar and the
four allied Muslim sultans of Bijapur,
Bidar, Ahmadnagar, and Golconda.
The battle was fought on January 23,
1565, at a site southeast of Bijapur, in
what is now northern Karnataka state.
Statement 3 is correct: Mohammed
Adil Shah was the seventh sultan of
Bijapur, ascending the throne in 1627.
Mohammed Adil Shah of Bijapur
partnered with the Mughals in their
conquest of Ahmednagar. Mohammed
maintained friendly relations with Shah
Jahan and made a peace treaty of 1636,
after the extinction of Ahmednagar.
25. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Greeks
were the first to introduce the concept
of military governance in India.
Military governors, called strategos,
were appointed to maintain the power of
the rulers over the conquered people.
They established a system where military
leaders had significant authority and
control over regions, marking a departure

from traditional forms of governance in
the Indian subcontinent.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indo-
Greeks were the first to issue gold
coins in India. The Indo-Greeks were
also the first rulers in India to issue coins
that can be definitively attributed to
particular kings. In contrast, early punch-
marked coins do not offer the same level
of certainty regarding their attribution to
any particular dynasty.
26. Ans: D
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrect: ‘Mahavastu’ is a
cornerstone of Mahayana Buddhist
literature. The development of
Mahayana Buddhism spurred the
creation of various avadanas, which are
texts detailing the life stories and
teachings of the Buddha. These texts
were primarily composed in Buddhist
hybrid Sanskrit to convey the principles
of Mahayana Buddhism to a broader
audience. One significant example of this
genre is the Mahavastu. The term
"Mahavastu" translates to "great story"
or "great event," emphasising its
comprehensive nature.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Greeks
introduced the practice of military
governorship in India, and the
military governors were called
strategos. Military governors were
necessary to maintain the power of the
new rulers over the conquered people.
Pair 3 is incorrect: The ‘Kamasutra’ of
Vatsyayana mentions the term
‘Nagaraka’. Nagaraka was referred to
as a city-based individual living during
a period of flourishing urbanism.
Attributed to the third century AD, the
Kamasutra is a work on erotics, and it
explores aspects of sex and lovemaking.
13
27. Answer: C
Exp: The Chalcolithic culture, also
termed the "stone-copper phase," was
marked by the utilization of both copper
and stone resources.
Statement 1 is correct:The Ahar
culture is also known as the Banas
culture. The latter term is derived from
the name of the valley in which most of
the sites of this culture are located. It is
among the earliest Chalcolithic cultures
of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Ahar culture,
kayatha culture and Malwa culture are
associated with Chalcolithic culture.
The Kayatha culture: Chalcolithic
culture was named after the type site
Kayatha, in Ujjain district, Madhya
Pradesh. Located in Chambal and its
tributaries, the sturdy red slipped ware
with chocolate designs is the main
feature.
The Malwa culture is the most
predominant chalcolithic culture of
central India, with a wide distribution of
sites almost all over Malwa region. It was
first Neolithic and Chalcolithic Cultures
identified in the excavations at
Maheshwar, on river Narmada.
Maheshwar was identified with the
ancient Mahishmati of the Puranas.
The Ahar culture is among the earliest
Chalcolithic cultures of India. This is
seen from the calibrated radio-carbon
dates available from many of the sites.
The culture has been named after the
type site Ahar, in District Udaipur,
Rajasthan. Aahar (Rajasthan), balathal,
Gilund etc are some of the sites under
this culture. The distinctive feature is
black and red ware.

28. Ans: D
Exp:
There were at least three different kinds
of people living in most villages in the
southern and northern parts of the
subcontinent. In the Tamil region, large
landowners were known as vellalar,
ordinary ploughmen were known as
uzhavar, and landless labourers,
including slaves, were known as
kadaisiyar and adimai.
In the northern part of the country, the
village headman was known as the grama
bhojaka. Usually, men from the same
family held the position for generations.
In other words, the post was hereditary.
The grama bhojaka was often the largest
landowner. Generally, he had slaves and
hired workers to cultivate the land.
Besides, as he was powerful, the king
often used him to collect taxes from the
village. He also functioned as a judge,
and sometimes as a policeman. Apart
from the gramabhojaka, there were other
independent farmers, known as
grihapatis, most of whom were smaller
landowners. And then there were men
and women such as the dasa karmakara,
who did not own land, and had to earn a
living working on the fields owned by
others. In most villages there were also
some crafts persons such as the
blacksmith, potter, carpenter and weaver.
29. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The best known
of the Kushana kings was Kanishka,
who is thought to have ruled from 78
CE till 101 or 102 CE. Ironically, 78 CE
is held to be the beginning of the “Saka
era” in the Indian calendar.
14
Statement 2 is correct: Kanishka
embraced Buddhism in the early part of
his reign. However, his coins exhibit the
images of not only Buddha but also
Greek and Hindu gods. He patronised
Buddhist scholars like Vasumitra,
Asvagosha and Nagarjuna.
● He convened the Fourth Buddhist
Council to discuss matters relating
to Buddhist theology and doctrine.
It was held at the Kundalavana
monastery near Srinagar in Kashmir
under the presidentship of
Vasumitra. About 500 monks
attended the Council. The Council
prepared an authoritative
commentary on the Tripitakas and
the Mahayana doctrine was given
final shape.
● Asvaghosha is known for his
Buddhacharita and is celebrated as
the author of the first Sanskrit play,
Sariputraprakarana, in nine acts.
● Nagarjuna from south India adorned
the court of Kanishka.
● The famous physician of ancient
India Charaka was also
patronized by him.
30. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Vedic Age,
or Vedic period, was a major civilization
in ancient India that lasted from
approximately 1500–600 BC. It occurred
after the Indus Valley Civilization
declined around 1400 BC. In the Rig
Vedic period the post of the tribal chief
was not hereditary and the tribe generally
elected him. In the Later-Vedic Period
the post of tribal chief had become
hereditary. The idea of the divine nature
of kingship gets mentioned in the
literature of this period.
Statement 2 is correct: The Rig Vedic
society was patriarchal. The basic unit of
 15

society was family or graham. The head cemetery in and around the town, but no
of the family was known as grahapathi. major habitation has been discovered
Monogamy was generally practiced near Juna Khatiya. The site demonstrates
while polygamy was prevalent among the transition from earth-mound burials
the royal and noble families. The wife to stone graves.
took care of the household and
participated in all the major ceremonies.
Women were given equal opportunities 32. Ans: C
as men for their spiritual and intellectual Exp:
development. There were women poets Indus civilization, also called Indus
like Apala, Viswavara, Ghosa and valley civilization or Harappan
Lopamudra during the Rig Vedic period.
civilization, the earliest known urban
Women could even attend the popular
culture of the Indian subcontinent. The
assemblies. There was no child
marriage and the practice of sati was Indus civilization is known to have
absent. consisted of two large cities, Harappa
and Mohenjo-daro, and more than 100
towns and villages, often of relatively
31. Ans: D
small size. Following figure shows the
Exp:
exact location of IVC sites.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The earliest
excavations in the Indus valley were
done at Harappa in the West Punjab and
Mohenjodaro in Sind. Both places are
now in Pakistan. The findings in these
two cities brought to light a civilization.
Specialized groups of artisans include
goldsmiths, brick makers, stone cutters,
weavers, boat-builders and terracotta
manufacturers. Bronze and copper
vessels are the outstanding examples of
the Harappan metal craft. Gold and silver
ornaments are found in many places.
Pottery remains plain and in some
places red and black painted pottery is Map: Indus Valley Civilization Sites.
found. Beads were manufactured from a
wide variety of semi-precious stones. 33. Ans: B
Statement 2 is incorrect: Juna Khatiya Exp:
is located in Kutch district, Gujarat. It
The emergence of the Gupta Empire in
is one of the biggest Harappan burial the 4th century AD is described as the
sites with the possibility of 500 graves. “Golden Age of India”. The earlier
The burials discovered at this site date Gupta rulers were Buddhists. Temple
from 3,200 BCE to 2,600 BCE, predating architecture flourished under the
Dholavira and several other Harappan patronage of Hindu rulers during the later
sites in Gujarat. The site is important Gupta phase. During the Gupta period,
because others like Dholavira have a architectural development of the caves
remained constant. However, the use of

mural paintings on the walls of the
caves became an added feature. It was
not present in the earlier ages like
neolithic, Harappan and Mauryan.
The finest examples of mural paintings
are found in the caves of Ajanta and
Ellora. Hence, option B is the correct
answer.
34. Ans: A
Exp:
Option A is correct: Adi Granth was
compiled by Bhai Gurdas under the aegis
of Guru Arjan Dev in 1604. It is a
predecessor to Guru Granth Sahib. Adi
Granth contains the teachings of the
Sikh Gurus and 15 Bhagats of Bhakti
and Sufi traditions.
Option B is incorrect: Guru Granth
Sahib is regarded as the 11th and final
spiritual authority of the Sikhs. It is
written in Gurmukhi script and is in a
language called ‘Sant Bhasha’. Sant
Bhasha contains words from various
languages like Punjabi, Apabhramsa,
Hindi, Braj Bhasha, Sanskrit, Khadiboli
and Persian.
Option C is incorrect: It is believed that
the hymns written by Guru Gobind
Singh are compiled in the book called
‘Dasam Granth’. Some hymns of the
book are supposed to be offered in the
daily prayers called Nitnem.
Option D is incorrect: Janamsakhis
contain the mythological and
exaggerated stories of the first guru,
Guru Nanak. The most popular book is
Bhai Bala Janamsakhi. Sikh literature
didn’t avoid the mention of mythological
and exaggerated stories of their gurus.
16
35. Ans: C
Exp:
Historian William Dalrymple is
compiling a material on a story of Indian
sociocultural influence. He named it the
‘Indosphere’, which is a zone of
influence that preceded the Silk Road
and allowed subcontinental arts, cultures
and sciences to spread in other countries.
● William Dalrymple described a
document called ‘Muziris
Papyrus’ which details the items
bought by a Greek shipper from a
Cochin merchant, spanning spices,
elephant tusks, and nard (a holy
perfume). According to him, a third
of the Roman empire came from the
customs.
● Muziris Papyrus is a document that
was taken out by an Alexandria-
based Egypto-Roman financier. It
was for the purchase of goods from
an Indian merchant based in far-
away Muziris on the coast of
Kerala. Hence, option C is the
correct answer.
36. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: First Sangam
was held in Madurai under Pandya
kingdom. The chairman of the sangam
was Agastya or Shiva. No book of this
sangam has survived. There is a
reference to the Agattiyam, regarded as
the earliest known book on Tamil
grammar. Traditionally attributed to the
sage Agathiyar, it is thought to have been
irretrievably lost.
Statement 2 is correct: During the
Pandya Kingdom, the second or middle
Sangam was hosted in Kapatapuram. At
first, it was headed by Agastya, but then
his student Tolkappiyar assumed the

responsibility.During the second
sangam, around 2,000 poems were
collected and compiled into
Tolkappiyam. A Tamil grammar
textbook called Tolkappiyam provides
information about word inflection,
syntax, and classification of habitats and
animals.
Statement 3 is correct: Third Sangam
was held in Madurai under Pandya
kingdom. The chairman of the sangam
was Nakkirar. The third sangam saw the
creation of the majority of Sangam
literature's existing corpus.
37. Ans: D
39.
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jainism taught
five doctrines: do not commit violence,
do not speak a lie, do not steal, do not
acquire property and observe continence
(brahmacharya). Only the fifth doctrine
(observe continence) was added by
Mahavira and the other four doctrines
including non-violence were taken
over by him from previous teachers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The doctrine
of Brahamcharya was propounded by
24th jain tirthankara i.e, Mahavira. It
was not propounded by 1st jain
tirthankara Rishabanath.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Parsva was the
predecessor of Mahavira. He had asked
his followers to cover the upper and
lower portions of their body whereas
Mahavira asked them to discard clothes
completely.
38. Ans: C
Exp:
Vajrayana school developed as a result
of royal courts which sponsored both
Buddhism and Shaivism. It means its
origin is influenced by Hinduism. The
17
main deity of Vajrayana Buddhism is
a female deity named Tara. Vajrayana
is based on Mahayana Buddhist
philosophy.
● This school believes in Tantra’s,
Mantras and Yantras superiority as
being a faster vehicle to liberation
containing many skillful methods of
tantric ritual. It does not believe in
the concept of vibhajjavada i.e.,
“teaching of analysis”.
● Theravada Buddhism believes in
the concept of vibhajjavada i.e.,
“teaching of analysis”. Hence,
option C is the correct answer.
Ans: A
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrect: Nagasena answered
questions about Buddhism asked by
Menander I (or Milinda), the Indo-Greek
king. Their conversation is recorded in
the book ‘MilindaPanho’ which dates
back to around 150 BC.
Nagarjuna lived around 150-250 AD
and was the founder of the
Madhyamaka School of Mahayana
Buddhism.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Vasubandhu was a
proponent of Mahayana Buddhism in
4th-5th century AD from Gandhara. He
wrote from the perspectives of the
Sarvastivada and Sautrantika schools.
Sautrantika school emerged as an
offshoot of the Sarvastivada school. It
rejected the authority of the Abhidharma.
Whereas Sarvastivada propounded ‘All
is real’ doctrine. Bodhidharma lived
around the 5th or 6th century AD and
transmitted Chan Buddhism to China.
Pair 3 is correct: Buddhaghosa was a
5th century Indian Theravada Buddhist
commentator and scholar. He was
famous for his work ‘Visuddhimagga’
means Path of Purification.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Padmasambhava
was an 8th century monk and is
contemplated as ‘Second Buddha’
across Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, and the
Himalayan States of India. Vasubandhu
wrote from the perspectives of the
Sarvastivada and Sautrantika schools.
40. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Recently Kapda
Ganda Shawl from State of Odisha
received the Geographical Indication
(GI) tag under the Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act,1999.
Statement 2 is correct: The shawl is
woven and embroidered by women of
the Dongria Kondh which is a
particularly vulnerable tribal group
that resides in the Niyamgiri hills,
Odisha. There are 58 Dongria-inhabited
villages under Muniguda and Bissam
Cuttack blocks of the district and women
in almost all the villages are into weaving
Kapda Ganda.
Statement 3 is correct: The handcrafted
motifs in the shawl are mainly lines and
triangular shapes that reflect the
importance of mountains for the
community. The motifs are
embroidered on an off-white coarse
cloth by a needle using red, green and
yellow threads.
41. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: An earthquake
is the sudden release of strain energy in
the Earth's crust, resulting in waves of
shaking that radiate outwards from the
earthquake source. The earthquake in
Morocco, like most earthquakes, was
caused by tectonic activities, particularly
the movement along faults within or
between tectonic plates, not by volcanic
18
activity. The earthquake was caused by
the convergence of the African and
Eurasian plates at a complex plate
boundary. The faulting mechanism of
the earthquake was classified as
"oblique-reverse," which indicates
movement along the fault plane as the
upper block moves up and over the lower
block within the Moroccan High Atlas
Mountain range.
Statement 2 is correct: The Strait of
Gibraltar is a natural waterway that
separates Spain and Morocco,
connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the
Mediterranean Sea. The strait is 36 miles
long and narrows to 8 miles in width
between Point Marroquí (Spain) and
Point Cires (Morocco).
42. Ans: A
Exp:
If you travel by road from Aizwal, which
is the capital of Mizoram, to Shimla,
which is the capital of Himachal Pradesh,
you have to travel through Mizoram,
Assam,West Bengal,Bihar, Uttar
Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh. So the
minimum number of states within India
through which you can travel is eight.
Map: India Political

43. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rip current
is a narrow, powerful current of water
that flows perpendicular to the beach
and out into the ocean. They typically
extend from the shoreline to the surf zone
and beyond the line of breaking waves.
Rip currents move along the water's
surface, pulling one straight out into the
ocean. They are caused when longshore
currents, which flow parallel to the
shoreline, encounter coastal structures
like jetties, piers, or groins and are
deflected offshore. Rip currents can also
form around low spots or breaks in
sandbars. Rip currents are not longshore
currents and they do not flow parallel to
the beach.
Statement 2 is correct: Rip currents can
be more than 150 feet wide, but most are
less than 30 feet wide, and can move at
speeds of up to 5 miles per hour. Because
rip currents move perpendicular to shore
and can be very strong, beach swimmers
need to be careful. A person caught in a
rip can be swept away from shore very
quickly. The best way to escape a rip
current is by swimming parallel to the
shore instead of towards it, since most
rip currents are less than 80 feet wide. A
swimmer can also let the current carry
him or her out to sea until the force
weakens, because rip currents stay close
to shore and usually dissipate just beyond
the line of breaking waves.
44. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cyclone
Mandous was a severe cyclonic storm
that originated in the Bay of Bengal
19
and made landfall in Mamallapuram,
India in December 2022. It was the third
most intense tropical cyclone of the 2022
North Indian Ocean cyclone season. The
cyclone caused heavy rainfall and
squally winds in coastal Tamil Nadu,
Puducherry and Andhra Pradesh.The
'Mandous' was a name submitted by
WMO member United Arab Emirates
and is pronounced as 'Man-Dous.' It
means 'treasure box' in Arabic.
Statement 2 is correct: The World
Meteorological Organization (WMO)
maintains rotating lists of names for each
tropical cyclone basin. Tropical cyclones
are named by specialized regional
meteorological centers (RSMCs) and
Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres
(TCWCs) across the world. Worldwide
there are six Regional Specialised
Meteorological Centres (RSMCs) and
five regional Tropical Cyclone Warning
Centres (TCWCs) mandated for issuing
advisories and naming of tropical
cyclones. The tropical cyclones forming
over different Ocean basins are named by
the concerned RSMCs & TCWCs.
India Meteorological Department is one
of the six RSMCs to provide tropical
cyclone and storm surge advisories to 13
member countries under WMO/ESCAP
Panel including Bangladesh, India, Iran,
Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Sri Lanka,
Thailand, United Arab Emirates and
Yemen. RSMC, New Delhi is also
mandated to name the Tropical
Cyclones developing over the north
Indian Ocean (NIO) including the Bay
of Bengal (BoB) and the Arabian Sea
(AS).

45. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: An atmospheric
river is a long, narrow band of moist
air that transports water vapor from
the tropics to higher latitudes. When an
atmospheric river makes landfall, it can
produce heavy rainfall, snowfall,
flooding, and landslides, depending on
the temperature and terrain. The
'Pineapple Express' is one of the most
well-known and impactful atmospheric
rivers, as it originates near Hawaii and
travels across the Pacific Ocean, bringing
warm and humid air to the US west coast.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While
atmospheric rivers do occur more
frequently in certain seasons depending
on the region, they are not responsible
for the formation of polar ice caps. In
fact, they primarily contribute to
significant rainfall and snowfall in the
regions they impact, which can include
mid-latitude coastal areas, not
necessarily Polar Regions. On the other
hand, when atmospheric rivers cross
over newly formed sea ice, their heat
and rainfall can melt the thin, fragile
ice cover away. Ice will start to regrow
fairly quickly, but episodic atmospheric
river penetrations can easily melt it
again. The increasing frequency of these
storms means it takes longer for stable
ice cover to become established.
46. Ans: D
Exp:
Natural gas is a mixture of hydrocarbons
primarily Ethane and methane. It is
formed during the formation of
petroleum so it is often found dissolved
in crude oil. Some of the world’s largest
gas fields occur in the Arctic, Russia,
Iran and USA.
20
In India natural gas reserves are found in
• Krishna Godavari Basin
• Brahmaputra valley
• Gulf of Khambhat and Barmer
district of Rajasthan.
• Andaman and Nicobar islands are
also important areas having large
reserves of natural gas.
Sometimes, pressure of natural gas
forces oil up to the surface. Such natural
gas is known as associated gas or wet
gas. Some reservoirs contain gas and no
oil. This gas is termed non-associated gas
or dry gas. Often natural gases contain
substantial quantities of hydrogen sulfide
or other organic sulfur compounds. In
this case, the gas is known as “sour gas.”
Coalbed methane is called ‘sweet gas’
because of its lack of hydrogen sulfide.
On the market, natural gas is usually
bought and sold not by volume but by
calorific value.
47. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian
Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the
difference in sea surface temperature
between two areas (or poles, hence a
dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian
Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an
eastern pole in the eastern Indian
Ocean south of Indonesia. The IOD
affects the climate of Australia and other
countries that surround the Indian Ocean
Basin, and is a significant contributor to
rainfall variability in this region.
Statement 2 is correct: IOD, sometimes
referred to as the Indian Nino, is a similar
phenomenon, playing out in the
relatively smaller area of the Indian
Ocean between the Indonesian and
Malaysian coastline in the east and the
African coastline near Somalia in the
west. One side of the ocean, along the

equator, gets warmer than the other. IOD
is said to be positive when the western
side of the Indian Ocean, near the
Somalia coast, becomes warmer than
the eastern Indian Ocean. It is negative
when the western Indian Ocean is cooler.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It has been
observed that during the period of
positive IOD, the Indian summer
monsoon rainfall is considerably good as
compared to the negative IOD period.
Despite 1994 and 2006 being El Nino
years, India did not witness a drought as
IOD was significantly positive. Thus, in
some ways a strong positive phase of
IOD tries to counter the negative effects
of El Nino.
48. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Atlantic
Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC) is a large system of ocean
currents. It is the Atlantic branch of the
ocean conveyor belt or Thermohaline
circulation (THC), and distributes heat
and nutrients throughout the world’s
ocean basins. AMOC carries warm
surface waters from the tropics
towards the Northern Hemisphere,
where it cools and sinks. It then returns
to the tropics and then to the South
Atlantic as a bottom current. From there
it is distributed to all ocean basins via the
Antarctic circumpolar current.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A collapsed
AMOC would cause widespread cooling
across the northern hemisphere and
less precipitation in places such as
Europe, North America, China and
some parts of Russia in Asia. “AMOC is
a kind of ‘switch’ for climate in the
northern hemisphere, especially Europe.
In its current state, with warm water
flowing far to the north in the Atlantic
21
Ocean, Europe is warm and the ice sheets
over Scandinavia and North America are
small.
Statement 3 is incorrect: AMOC plays
a central role in long-term climate
variations through its heat and freshwater
transports, which can collapse under a
rapid increase of greenhouse gas
forcing in climate models. Climate
models suggest that the AMOC will
weaken over the 21st Century as
greenhouse gases increase. This is
because as the atmosphere warms, the
surface ocean beneath it retains more of
its heat. Meanwhile increases in rainfall
and ice melt mean it gets fresher too. All
these changes make the ocean water
lighter and so reduce the sinking in the
‘conveyor belt’, leading to a weaker
AMOC.
49. Ans: A
Exp:
The Wetlands (Conservation and
Management) Rules of 2017 give state
governments more authority to identify
and define wetlands within their
jurisdictions. River channels, paddy
fields, man-made water bodies,
aquaculture, salt production, recreational
areas, irrigation projects, wetlands, and
protected regions located within
territories governed by the Indian Forest
Act, 1927, Forest (Conservation) Act,
1980, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
and the Coastal Regulation Zone
Notification, 2019 are excluded from
notification under the Wetlands Rules
2017.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National
Wetland Committee serves as an
advisory body, providing
recommendations to the Central
Government on wetland conservation
and management strategies; it does not

act as an enforcement body with the
power to penalize violators.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State
Wetlands Authority is responsible for
identifying and designating wetlands
for notification under the Wetlands
(Conservation and Management)
Rules, 2017. The rules mandate the State
Wetland Authorities to inventorize and
notify wetlands. The Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) advises and
facilitates this process by providing
services such as capacity building,
engagement of knowledge partners, and
rolling out of wetland portal.
Statement 3 is correct: Activities such
as converting wetlands for purposes
other than wetland usage, establishing
new industries or expanding existing
ones, handling or storing hazardous
substances, managing construction and
demolition waste, dumping solid waste,
releasing untreated waste and effluents
from various human settlements, as well
as encroachment, poaching, or
permanent construction (with the
exception of boat jetties), are strictly
prohibited under the Rules.
50. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union
Ministry of Environment, Forests, and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) releases the
India State of Forest Report (ISFR)
every two years. The Forest Survey of
India (FSI), an organization under the
MoEFCC, assesses India's forest cover
and tree assets every two years, and
publishes the findings in the ISFR. The
first ISFR was published in 1987, and the
2021 edition was the 17th edition of the
survey. The total forest and tree cover of
the country is 80.9 million hectare which
22
is 24.62 percent of the geographical area
of the country. As compared to the
assessment of 2019, there is an increase
of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree
cover of the country. Out of this, the
increase in the forest cover has been
observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree
cover is 721 sq km. Increase in forest
cover has been observed in open forest
followed by very dense forest. Top
three states showing increase in forest
cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km)
followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and
Odisha (537 sq km).
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the
report, an increase of 17 sq Km in
mangrove cover has been observed as
compared to the previous assessment of
2019. Top three states showing
mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8
sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq
km) and Karnataka (3 sq km).
Statement 3 is correct: Area-wise
Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest
cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of
forest cover as percentage of total
geographical area, the top five States are
Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh
(79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur
(74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). 17
states/UT’s have above 33 percent of the
geographical area under forest cover. Out
of these states and UT’s, five states/UTs
namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram,
Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Arunachal
Pradesh and Meghalaya have more than
75 percent forest cover while 12
states/UTs namely Manipur, Nagaland,
Tripura, Goa, Kerala, Sikkim,
Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra &
Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Assam,
Odisha, have forest cover between 33
percent to 75 percent.

51. Ans: C
Exp:
Secondary pollutants are pollutants
which form in the atmosphere. These
pollutants are not emitted directly from a
source (like vehicles or power plants).
Instead, they form as a result of the
pollutants emitted from these sources
reacting with molecules in the
atmosphere to form a new pollutant.
Pollutants that are emitted into the
environment from a source are called
primary pollutants. Secondary pollutants
are concerning as they can be formed
from many different compounds. The
phenomena of photochemical smog is a
result of the interactions of primary
pollutants with other molecules in the air
such as molecular oxygen, water, and
hydrocarbons. These combine to form
yellow clouds that are harmful to
humans. Photochemical smog is made up
of various secondary pollutants like
ozone, peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs), and
nitric acid.
Different types of secondary pollutants
include: Ozone (O3), Sulphuric acid
and nitric acid (component of acid
rain), Peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs), and
more. For example, ozone is formed
when hydrocarbons (HC) and nitrogen
oxides (NOx) combine in the presence of
sunlight.
52. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gambusia
fish or Gambusia affinis (G affinis) is
also known as mosquito fish. It is native
to the waters of the southeastern
United States.
Statement 2 is correct: The fish has a
high breeding capacity. The fish can also
survive in diverse environments. It is this
adaptability that has allowed the fish to
survive on six out of seven continents
and has made the International Union
23
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
declare Gambusia one of the 100 worst
invasive alien species in the world.
Statement 3 is correct: Gambusia fish
has been part of various malaria control
strategies in India since 1928, including
the Urban Malaria Scheme. It is widely
used as a biological agent for
controlling mosquito larvae. It was
recently released by the Andhra Pradesh
government into the state’s water bodies
to combat mosquito-borne diseases like
malaria and dengue.
53. Ans: C
Exp:
● Community reserves fall under
protected areas, along with marine
protected areas, national parks,
wildlife sanctuaries and conservation
reserves, according to the Wild Life
(Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972.
● It provided for a mechanism to
provide recognition and legal
backing to the community initiated
efforts in wildlife protection. It
provides for a flexible system
wherein wildlife conservation is
achieved without compromising the
community needs.
● Conservation reserves and
community reserves are protected
areas of India which typically act as
buffer zones between established
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries
and reserved and protected forests
of India.
● These protected area categories
were first introduced in the Wild
Life (Protection) Amendment Act
of 2002 — the amendment to
WLPA, 1972.

54. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: E-Waste
Management Rules, 2022 came into
effect on 1st April 2023 and are
applicable to manufacturers, producers,
refurbishers, dismantlers, and recyclers if
they are involved in the manufacturing,
sale, purchase, transfer, dismantling,
refurbishing or processing of E-Waste.
The term E-Waste refers to electrical and
electronic equipment including solar
photo-voltaic models, panels and cells
that are discarded as waste and cannot be
used in refurbishing, repairing and
manufacturing. Some equipment is
regulated by other rules and hence is
exempted from the application of E-
Waste Management Rules, 2022. For
Instance Waste batteries as covered
under the Battery Waste Management
Rules, 2022.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the E-
Waste Management Rules, 2022, there is
no provision that mandates consumers to
pay a recycling fee at the time of
purchase of electronic goods. The 2022
rules focus on the concept of Extended
Producer Responsibility (EPR), which
places the responsibility for managing e-
waste on manufacturers, importers, and
brand owners. The rules also emphasize
collection mechanisms and E-Waste
Exchange Platforms to facilitate the
exchange, sale, and donation of used
electronic devices.
Other provisions under the E-Waste
Management Rules, 2022
● Under the E-Waste Management
Rules, provision for reduction of
hazardous substances in
manufacturing of Electrical and
Electronic Equipment (EEE) has
been provided.
● It mandates that every producer of
EEE and their components shall
24
ensure that their products do not
contain lead, mercury and other
hazardous substances beyond the
maximum prescribed concentration.
● The E-Waste (Management) Rules
also provide for recognition and
registration, skill development,
monitoring and ensuring safety and
health, of workers involved in
dismantling and recycling of e-
waste.
● The new provisions would facilitate
and channelize the informal sector
to formal sector for doing business
and ensure recycling of E-waste in
environmentally sound manner.
● Provisions for environmental
compensation and verification &
audit has also been introduced.
● These rules also promote Circular
Economy through EPR regime and
scientific recycling/disposal of the
e-waste.
55. Ans: B
Exp:
The white nest swiftlet/ edible-nest
swiftlet (Aerodramus fuciphagus) is a
small bird that builds nests out of its own
saliva, which hardens when exposed to
air. The nests are made of concentric
layers of salivary cement and are the
main ingredient in bird's nest soup, a
delicacy in Chinese cuisine. The nests
are also featured in Lunar New Year
festivities in January and February.
56. Ans: B
Exp:
‘Children displaced in a changing
climate: Preparing for a future already
underway’, published by United
Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF),
analyses the most common weather-
related hazards that lead to the largest

number of displacements viz. floods,
storms, droughts and wildfires. The
report notes that there were 43.1 million
internal displacements of children linked
to weather-related disasters over a six-
year period – the equivalent to
approximately 20,000 child displacements
per day. Almost all – 95 per cent – of
recorded child displacements were driven
by floods and storms.
57. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: All expenditures
incurred by the government are either of
revenue kind or capital kind. The basic
identity of revenue expenditures is that
they are of consumptive kind and do not
involve creation of productive assets.
They are either used in running of a
productive process or running a
government. A broad category of things
that fall under such expenditures in India
are:
● Interest payment by the
government on the internal and
external loans.
● Salaries, Pension and Provident
Fund paid by the government to
government employees
● Subsidies forwarded to all sectors
by the government;
● Defence expenditures by the
government;
● Postal Deficits of the government;
● Law and order expenditures (i.e.,
police & paramilitary);
● Expenditures on social services
(includes all social sector
expenditures as education, health
care, social security, poverty
alleviation, etc.) and general services
(tax collection, etc.);
● Grants given by the government to
Indian states and foreign countries.
25
Statement 2 is incorrect: Effective
revenue deficit (ERD) is the difference
between revenue deficit and grants for
the creation of capital assets. It was
introduced in the Union Budget of 2011-
12 to distinguish between grants-in-aid
used to finance current expenditure and
those used to create capital assets.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Primary
deficit is defined as fiscal deficit minus
interest payments on previous
borrowings. Primary deficit shows the
borrowing requirements of the govt. for
meeting expenditure excluding interest
payment.
58. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The
government can overrule the Reserve
Bank of India's (RBI) decisions if there
is a disagreement between the RBI and
the Ministry of Finance (MoF). Section
30 of the RBI Act allows the government
to supersede the central bank. The
Constitution of India also gives the
central government the right to issue
directions to the RBI in the public
interest. Institutionally, once a
disagreement between the RBI and the
MoF crosses the Rubicon, the
government has the power to overrule the
central bank’s decisions. Moreover, such
a structure is not restricted to the RBI but
applies to all regulators, whether
financial or non-financial.
Statement 2 is correct: Deposit
Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly-
owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI). It provides deposit
insurance that works as a protection
cover for bank deposit holders when the
bank fails to pay its depositors. The
agency insures all kinds of deposit
accounts of a bank, such as savings,
current, recurring, and fixed deposits up

to a limit of Rs. 5 lakh per account holder
per bank. In case an individual's deposit
amount exceeds Rs.5 lakh in a single
bank, only Rs.5 lakh, including the
principal and interest, will be paid by
DICGC if the bank becomes bankrupt.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Financial
Stability and Development Council
(FSDC) is a non-statutory apex council
under the Ministry of Finance,
established by Executive Order in 2010.
The formation of the FSDC was first
proposed by the Raghuram Rajan
committee on financial sector reforms in
2008. It is chaired by the Finance
Minister and comprises the heads of all
Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI,
PFRDA, and IRDA), the Finance
Secretary, the Secretary of the
Department of Economic Affairs (DEA),
the Secretary of the Department of
Financial Services (DFS), and the Chief
Economic Advisor.
59. Ans: C
Exp:
Demutualization refers to the process
by which a mutual company converts
into a public share company. A mutual
company is an institution owned by its
mutual owners who enjoy exclusive use
of its productive assets. Essentially, the
company is owned by its users. When a
mutual company decides on a legal
ownership restructuring process, the
owners may choose to acquire a listing
on the public stock exchange as an initial
public offering (IPO).
After demutualization, a company will
achieve a distinct separation of legal
liability between the owners and its new
non-owner customers. The legal
structure after demutualization allows
the company to gather new customers
with limited legal liability. With limited
legal liability, new customers will no
26
longer be exposed to unlimited risks
from the mutual form of legal liability.
The new legal structure allows the
company to pursue more new customers.
60. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Payment
banks are differentiated and not universal
banks. These operate on a smaller scale.
It needs to have a minimum paid-up
capital of Rs. 100 crores. Payment banks
receive a ‘differentiated’ bank license
from the RBI and hence cannot lend.
Payment banks cannot issue credit
cards, accept time deposits or NRI
deposits and issue loans. These cannot
set up subsidiaries to undertake non-
banking financial activities as well.
Statement 2 is correct: Small Finance
Banks are niche banks with a minimum
net worth of Rs 200 crore and a focus on
financial inclusion. They are required to
provide credit and other financial
services to small businesses, farmers,
micro and small industries, and other
unbanked or underserved sections. Small
Finance Banks (SFBs) are required to
lend at least 75% of their Adjusted Net
Bank Credit (ANBC) to priority
sectors, as compared to 40% for other
scheduled commercial banks. The
priority sectors are identified by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and include
small, medium, and micro enterprises,
agriculture, export credit, social
infrastructure, renewable energy, and
microcredit.
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
guidelines, payments banks were
allowed to apply for a conversion into
Small Finance Bank post five years of
operations along with meeting other
guidelines mandated by the RBI. The
bank must also have a minimum paid-

up voting equity capital or net worth
of Rs 200 crore.
Statement 4 is incorrect: All
cooperative banks (UCBs) and multi-
state cooperatives are under the
supervision of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI). The RBI regulates
cooperative banks under the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949 and Banking Laws
(Application to Cooperative Societies)
Act, 1965. In 2020, all UCBs and multi-
state cooperatives came under the direct
supervision of the RBI. The RBI
announced a four-tiered regulatory
framework for categorizing UCBs in
December 2022. The Urban Banks
Department of the Reserve Bank of India
is vested with the responsibility of
regulating and supervising primary
(urban) cooperative banks, which are
popularly known as Urban Cooperative
Banks (UCBs).
61. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Governments
grant infrastructure status to sectors to
attract investment, promote innovation,
and ensure efficient service delivery to
citizens. Grant of infrastructure status to
a sector or project typically provides
several financial benefits, which include
making it easier to access longer-term
financing at more favorable
terms,higher limits on external
commercial borrowings and sometimes,
tax incentives. These benefits help in
reducing the overall cost of financing of
infrastructure projects, thus encouraging
investment and development in these
sectors.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Granting
infrastructure status to a project does not
mean that it can bypass/ face lesser
restrictions with respect to
27
environmental clearances. All
infrastructure projects must still comply
with environmental regulations and
obtain the necessary clearances as
mandated by law. The Environmental
Clearance (EC) process for most projects
has a maximum of four stages:
Screening, Scoping, Public Consultation,
and Appraisal.
62. Ans: C
Exp:
The Socio Economic and Caste Census
(SECC) 2011 was a door-to-door
enumeration of households in India to
gather information on social and
economic indicators. It was the first
caste-based census since 1931 and the
first paperless census in India.SECC
allows ranking of households based on
their socio economic status. SECC-2011
provides the government the names and
number of families in each Panchayat
and details their status on seven
deprivation parameters. The advantage
of SECC is that it provides for
programme specific customized priority
list to suit programme objective and
budget space to address specific
deprivation.
Government of India is using SECC data
for:
1. Ayushman Bharat Scheme;
Hence, option 2 is correct
2. Swachh Bharat Mission (for
building toilets);
3. Preparing labour budgets under
MGNREGA;
4. Electricity connection under the
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Power
Scheme;
5. Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana -
National Rural Livelihoods
Mission; Hence, option 3 is correct

6. Low cost housing for the poor
under PM Awas Yojana; Hence,
option 1 is correct
7. To give free LPG connections to the
poorest households under Pradhan
Mantri Ujjwala Yojana etc.
63. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Collective
Investment Management Company is a
company incorporated under the
provisions of the Companies Act, 1956
and registered with SEBI under the SEBI
(Collective Investment Schemes)
Regulations, 1999, whose object is to
organise, operate and manage a
Collective Investment Scheme. A
Collective Investment Scheme (CIS) is a
scheme where investors pool their
money into an asset and the returns are
divided among the group based on their
investment proportion.
An existing CIS cannot launch any
new scheme or raise money from the
investors even under the existing
scheme, unless a certificate of
registration is granted to it by SEBI. In
other words, after notification of
regulations an existing collective
investment scheme, even after obtaining
provisional registration as well as after
obtaining credit rating cannot mobilise
funds from the public unless a certificate
of registration is granted to it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Nidhi
companies are indeed a type of NBFC,
but they are not regulated by the RBI.
Instead, they are regulated by the
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
under the Nidhi Rules, 2014. The
primary oversight of Nidhi companies
involves ensuring that they function for
the mutual benefit of their members,
without engaging in the commercial loan
28
and investment business typical of other
NBFCs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Alternative
Investment Fund or AIF means any fund
established or incorporated in India
which is a privately pooled investment
vehicle which collects funds from
sophisticated investors, whether Indian
or foreign, for investing it in accordance
with a defined investment policy for the
benefit of its investors. Hedge funds are
mutual funds that are privately managed
by experts and use advanced investment
techniques. They are known for seeking
higher returns through riskier strategies,
and are not suitable for every investor
due to their minimum investment of Rs 1
crore. Hedge funds, classified under
Category III of Alternative
Investment Funds, also fall under the
purview of SEBI and must comply
with the SEBI (Alternative Investment
Funds) Regulations, 2012.
64. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: An asset
reconstruction company is a special type
of financial institution that buys the debt
of the bank at a mutually agreed value
and attempts to recover the debts or
associated securities by itself. The asset
reconstruction companies or ARCs are
registered under the RBI and regulated
under the Securitisation and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Securities Interest Act,
2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002). The ARC
can take over only secured debts which
have been classified as a non-
performing asset (NPA). In case
debentures / bonds remain unpaid, the
beneficiary of the securities is required to
give a notice of 90 days before it
qualifies to be taken over.

Statement 2 is correct: The SARFAESI
Act allows banks and financial
institutions to auction properties for loan
recovery, reducing NPAs. It enables
seizure of property without court
intervention, except for agricultural
land. Applicable to secured loans, it
covers enforcement of securities like
hypothecation and mortgage, bypassing
court orders unless security is deemed
invalid or fraudulent. Unsecured assets
require court proceedings for recovery.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The the
Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)
framework is applicable to all Deposit
Taking NBFCs (NBFCS-D) and all Non-
2. Viral vector - The most effective
Deposit Taking NBFCs in Middle, Upper
and Top layers (NBFCs-ND). The PCA
framework came into effect in October
2022, based on the financial position of
NBFCs. The framework has been
reviewed and it has been decided to
extend the same to Government NBFCs
(except those in Base Layer) with effect
from October 1, 2024.
65. Ans: C
Exp:
There are four major types of molecular
vectors, each helping with a different
sector of the duplication process:
1. Cloning vector – Cloning vectors
provide a framework for the
replication and propagation of DNA
inserts in bacteria; however, these
vectors are only useful for storing a
66.
genetic sequence. They are unable
to allow transcription and
translation of the gene into a
functional protein product on their
own.
a. A bacterial artificial
chromosome (BAC) is a DNA
molecule that has been
engineered to clone DNA
sequences in bacterial cells
29
(for example, E. coli). BACs
are frequently used in the
context of DNA sequencing.
b. The artificial chromosome
vectors are self-replicating
DNA sequences. Artificial
chromosomes have been
proposed as potential vectors
for transferring extremely long
DNA sequences into animals.
c. Plasmids are cloning vectors
that replicate themselves as
circular double-stranded DNA
molecules in cells.
method of gene transfer for modifying
specific cell types or tissues is the viral
vector, which can be manipulated to
express therapeutic genes. Several
virus types are currently being studied
for their potential use in delivering
genes to cells for either transient or
permanent transgene expression.
3. Expression vector - An expression
vector, otherwise known as an
expression construct, is generally a
plasmid that is used to introduce a
specific gene into a target cell.
4. Shuttle vector– Shuttle vectors that
can replicate in both eukaryotic and
prokaryotic cells are effective tools
for studying DNA rearrangement
and mutagenesis in cellular systems.
Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Perovskite solar
cells are thin-film devices built with
layers of materials, either printed or
coated from liquid inks or vacuum-
deposited. Producing uniform, high-
performance perovskite material in a
large-scale manufacturing environment
is difficult, and there is a substantial

difference in small-area cell efficiency
and large-area module efficiency.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Perovskite
solar cells have demonstrated
competitive power conversion
efficiencies (PCE) with potential for
higher performance, but their stability is
limited compared to leading
photovoltaic (PV) technologies.
Perovskites can decompose when they
react with moisture and oxygen or
when they spend extended time exposed
to light, heat, or applied voltage.
Statement 3 is correct: Indian scientists
have indigenously developed highly
stable, low-cost Carbon-based
perovskite solar cells with superior
thermal and moisture stability which
can help overcome the challenges of
degradation during operation. It is the
first indigenous perovskite-powered
niche product developed in India and can
pave the way for futuristic stable
perovskite solar cells. While Carbon-
based perovskite solar cells (CPSCs)
have been successful in minimizing
device stability issues and fabrication
costs, the sensitivity of perovskite
materials toward humidity and thermal
stress is a major obstacle for practical
implementation.
67. Ans: A
Exp:
A US woman recently gave birth to two
pairs of identical twins. Such twins,
known scientifically as ‘MoMo‘, an
abbreviation for monoamniotic-
monochorionic, are some of the rarest
types of twins. Such MoMo twin
pregnancies have a high risk of foetal
complications.
Option A is correct: In a MoMo
pregnancy, the twins are known to
30
share the same placenta, amniotic sac
and fluid. But they have different
umbilical cords.They share everything
except umbilical cords, which can easily
become entangled in a single sac.
Unfortunately, there is a high rate of
stillbirths associated with MoMo twins.
A mother gives birth to MoMo twins
when a single fertilised ovum or egg
leads to identical twins and these twins
share the same placenta and amniotic
sac. MoMo twins are mainly identified
by ultrasound in the early pregnancy
months.
A complete molar pregnancy occurs as
a result of the placenta forming in the
uterus without a foetus to support it. A
partial molar pregnancy occurs when two
sperm fertilise one egg, but two foetuses
do not develop. The placenta is
abnormal, and the foetus has too many
chromosomes which always results in a
spontaneous abortion as the foetus
cannot develop safely.
Tubal pregnancy is a type of ectopic
pregnancy. This type of pregnancy
occurs when a fertilized egg implants in
the fallopian tube instead of the uterus.
This type of pregnancy is not viable and
must be terminated if a miscarriage does
not occur naturally on its own.
Singlet pregnancy is a pregnancy in
which one egg meets one sperm and one
fetus develops.
68. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: A photonic
crystal is a structure in which the
refractive index changes periodically,
making it possible to confine light in a
small area and improve the interaction
between light and material. Using
nanofabrication technology,

semiconductors can be microfabricated
to create light-manipulating structures
from these crystals.
Statement 2 is correct: Using this
structure, it is possible to realize various
phenomena not possible with ordinary
materials, such as extremely strong
light confinement, slow light states, and
unusual negative refraction phenomena.
69. Ans: B
Exp:
NASA's SWOT, short for Surface Water
and Ocean Topography is the advanced
radar satellite.
Statement 1 is incorrect: SWOT is
being jointly developed by NASA and
Centre National D'Etudes Spatiales
(CNES) with contributions from the
Canadian Space Agency (CSA) and
the United Kingdom Space Agency.
Statement 2 is correct: It is the first
mission to observe nearly all of the
water on Earth's surface. One of the
mission's main goals is to investigate
how oceans absorb atmospheric heat and
carbon dioxide in a natural mechanism
that helps to regulate world temperatures
and climate change.
Statement 3 is incorrect: SWOT's radar
sensor works at the microwave
spectrum's Ka-band frequency,
allowing scans to pierce cloud cover and
darkness across large areas of the Earth.
This allows scientists to map their
findings in two dimensions correctly
regardless of weather or time of day,
and to cover enormous geographic
regions much faster than before.
Previously, studies of water bodies
depended on data collected at specific
sites, such as river or ocean gauges, or
from satellites, which can only follow
measurements along a one-dimensional
31
line, forcing scientists to fill in data gaps
by extrapolation.
70. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Neutrinos are
incredibly small and light. They have
a little amount of mass. They are the
lightest of all the subatomic particles.
They're also extremely common—in
fact, they're the universe's most abundant
particle. Neutrinos occur from a variety
of sources and are frequently the result of
heavy particles decaying into lighter
particles, a process known as "decay."
They only interact via gravity and the
weak force. Because this weak force is
only meaningful over very short
distances, small neutrinos may pass
through the atoms of big things without
interacting. The vast majority of
neutrinos will travel past Earth without
engaging in any way.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The electron’s
antiparticle is the positron. Similarly,
neutrinos have anti-neutrinos. Neither
neutrinos nor anti-neutrinos have
electric charge, nor any other properties
to really differentiate between them.
71. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Syngas is
primarily composed of carbon
monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2),
carbon dioxide (CO2), methane
(CH4), and water vapor (H2O),
generated from coal and water, along
with air and/or oxygen.Syngas is used
primarily in the production of
hydrocarbon fuels, such as diesel fuel
and methanol, and in the production of
industrial chemicals, particularly
ammonia.

Statement 2 is correct: Syngas
produced from waste materials and
other biomass is considered a form of
renewable energy. Today, most syngas
is generated via the thermal conversion
of biomass by gasification, particularly
by steam reforming of methane or by
partial oxidation. At high temperatures
and in the presence of steam or oxygen,
gasification converts carbon-containing
materials into hydrogen, carbon
monoxide, and carbon dioxide, without a
need for combustion.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Syngas is
associated with reduced carbon
emissions relative to other energy-
generation technologies, and can
effectively convert problematic wastes
into fuel. However, hydrogen levels and
the presence of moisture and tars in the
starting components for gasification can
be problematic. Hydrogen gas is highly
combustible—more so than other fuels
used to power internal combustion
engines. Thus, to run on syngas, such
engines must be modified to minimize
the risk of phenomena such as
preignition and backfiring, and, even
with such modifications, engine output
may be reduced significantly.
72. Ans: B
Exp:
White-fi refers to utilizing Wi-Fi
technology within the unused
spectrum of TV, also known as TV
white space. The main benefit of white
space-based Wi-Fi is its ability to cover
a much longer distance than traditional
Wi-Fi. On average, a White-Fi signal can
blanket a surrounding area of around
seven miles which means that
establishing a network can be much
cheaper and would require less effort and
equipment to develop..
32
73. Ans: B
Exp:
A group of scientists affiliated with
research institutes in China and Japan
have reported finding a sign of
superconductivity in a material.
The Meissner effect is the expulsion of a
magnetic field from the interior of a
material when it becomes a
superconductor. This occurs as the
material cools below its transition
temperature, near absolute zero, causing
it to lose resistance to electrical currents.
It is one of a few ‘effects’ certain
materials exhibit when they’re able to
conduct electric currents without any
resistance – i.e. when they become
superconductors. The researchers have
reported in their paper that they observed
the Meissner effect in a compound called
copper-substituted lead apatite
All superconductors exhibit the Meissner
effect, which was discovered by German
physicists W. Meissner and R.
Ochsenfeld in 1933.
74. Ans: C
Exp:
Karnataka has imposed a ban on the use
of specific harmful colouring agents in
cotton candy and gobi manchurian,
following a public health department
survey revealing their unsafe presence in
food samples.
Rhodamine B is not one of the
permitted food colouring agents under
the country’s food safety regulation. It
is a chemical colour used in dyeing
clothes, paper, leather, printing, and
plastics. It is used to give red and pink
colours. Exposure to the chemical may
also damage the eye and cause irritation
 33

in the respiratory tract. Rhodamine B is a management system, a

common red dye; it is even used in Holi power management system,
colours. However, it is thought to be a and a high-powered
carcinogen and its use is not permitted in external firefighting system.
food products. ■ Capable of operating one
twin-engine ALH/Chetak
helicopter.
75. Ans: D
76. Ans: A
Exp:
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme
Samudra Paheredar is
aims to accelerate the adoption of
Specialised Pollution Control
Electric Vehicles (EVs) in the country.
Vessel (PCV) of the Indian Coast
The scheme primarily targets e-2W and
Guard. It is Second PCV in India,
e-3Ws registered for commercial
following Indian Coast Gaurd Ship
purposes, aligning with the goal of
(ICGS) Samudra Prahari. providing affordable and
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It was environmentally friendly public
Indigenously built by ABG transportation options. Additionally,
Shipyard, Surat. privately or corporate-owned
registered e-2Ws are also eligible. It
○ It was Commissioned in 2012.
has a fund limit of Rs. 500 crores for
○ It is stationed on the East Coast the period from 1st April 2024 to 31st
of India in Vishakhapatnam, July 2024.
Andhra Pradesh. ● Statement 2 is incorrect: This
○ Features: scheme is being introduced by
■ Can stay at sea for 20 Ministry of Heavy Industries,
days. Government of India with the
approval of Department of
■ Primary role is pollution
Expenditure, Ministry of Finance to
response at sea.
further accelerate the adoption of
■ Equipped with advanced EVs in the country..
pollution response and
control equipment: ● Statement 3 is correct: Incentives
under the scheme will be provided
● Containment only to vehicles equipped with
equipment like hi-
advanced batteries, encouraging
sprint booms and
the adoption of advanced
river booms.
technologies in EVs.
● Recovery devices
like skimmers and
side sweeping arms. 77. Ans: B
■ Capable of unhindered Exp:
oil-recovery operations ● Statement 1 and 3 are correct:
with a storage capacity of The Acing Development of
502 kilolitres. Innovative Technologies with
■ Special features include iDEX (ADITI) scheme is part of
an integrated platform

the iDEX (Innovations for Defence
Excellence) framework under the
Department of Defence Production,
Ministry of Defence. It aims to
foster innovations in critical and
strategic defence technologies by
developing approximately 30 deep-
tech solutions within the specified
timeframe.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Under
this scheme, start-ups can receive a
grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore
to support their research,
development, and innovation efforts
in defence technology.
○ The ADITI scheme worth Rs
750 crore for the period 2023-
24 to 2025-26 falls under the
iDEX (Innovations for
Defence Excellence)
framework of Department of
Defence Production (DDP),
Ministry of Defence.
○ It aims to develop about 30
deep-tech critical and strategic
technologies in the proposed
timeframe.
○ It also envisages to create a
‘Technology Watch Tool’ to
bridge the gap between the
expectations and requirements
of the modern Armed Forces
and the capabilities of the
defence innovation ecosystem.
○ In the first edition of ADITI,
17 challenges – Indian Army
(3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air
Force (5) and Defence Space
Agency (4) - have been launched.
78. Ans: D
Exp:
● A recent study emphasizes the
potential of a new waste management
34
technology, BioTRIG, to transform
life in rural India.
● Utilizing pyrolysis at the
community level, this innovative
system aims to mitigate indoor air
pollution, improve soil health, and
generate clean electricity, offering
numerous advantages to below
poverty line (BPL) rural
communities.
● Pyrolysis is a process that involves
heating organic materials in the
absence of oxygen. Hence, Option D
is correct.
79. Ans: D
Exp:
● The 'Global Resource Outlook' is
the flagship publication of the
International Resource Panel under
the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
● This year's report highlights the
crucial role of resources in
effectively implementing Agenda
2030 and various multilateral
environmental agreements aimed at
addressing the triple planetary
crisis. The report compiles the most
comprehensive data, models, and
assessments from 180 countries,
seven global regions, and four
income categories to examine
trends, impacts, and the
distributional effects of resource
utilization.

80. Ans: C
Exp:
● The Gorsam Kora festival,
symbolizing the enduring friendship
between India and Bhutan,
commenced on March 7th and
concluded on March 10th this year.
● It is celebrated in the Indian state
of Arunachal Pradesh, specifically
in Zeminthang Valley along the
Nyanmjang Chu River.
● History:
○ This annual festival takes place
at Gorsam Chorten, a 93-foot
tall Stupa constructed during
the 13th century AD by a local
monk named Lama Pradhar.
○ Gorsam Chorten is historically
significant as it served as the
first resting place for the 14th
Dalai Lama upon fleeing Tibet
in 1959.
○ The festival includes cultural
performances and Buddhist
rituals at Gorsam Chorten,
which predates the Tawang
Monastery.
○ Numerous devotees, including
a significant number of
Bhutanese nationals, visit
during the Gorsam Kora
festival, marking the
auspicious occasion on the last
day of the first month of the
Lunar calendar.
81. Ans: A
Exp: The Supreme Court has recently
ruled that default bail cannot be claimed
merely because the investigation is
ongoing against other accused
individuals.
35
● Statement 1 is correct: When a
person is arrested and the police fail
to complete the investigation within
the specified period, it is considered
their default, and the arrested
individual cannot be detained
beyond this timeframe. This
entitlement is known as default bail.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The
Supreme Court, while addressing an
appeal concerning default bail,
emphasized that default bail under
the first proviso of Section 167(2) of
the CrPC is a fundamental right, not
just a statutory right. This is because
it is a procedure established by law
under Article 21 of the Constitution.
● Statement 3 is correct: The default
bail cannot be revoked even after
the investigation is finalized and the
charge sheet is filed. It can only be
cancelled based on the same
grounds and considerations as
regular bail.
82. Ans: B
Exp:
● The Defence Technology Council
is envisioned as a high-level body
chaired by the Prime Minister,
with the Defence Minister and the
National Security Advisor serving
as its Vice Presidents.
○ It is proposed to have an
executive committee led by
the Chief of Defence Staff.
○ The council will also feature
representation from academia
and industry, with two
members from each sector.
● The committee, led by the former
principal scientific advisor, Prof
K Vijay Raghavan, has recently
submitted its final report on the
Defence Technology Council.

○ This committee was set up by
the government to review the
functioning of the Defence
Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and
believes that the Defence
Technology Council, headed
by the Prime Minister, will
play a crucial role in
identifying the right entities for
specific defence technologies.
83. Ans: A
Exp:
● Cycas circinalis is facing the threat
of extinction in northern Kerala due
to a rapid and unidentified plant
disease.
● Statement 1 is correct: Cycas
circinalis is an evergreen, palm-
like tree that can grow up to 25 ft
tall. It is typically found in dense,
seasonally dry scrubby woodlands
in hilly regions and can become
deciduous during extremely dry
periods.
● Statement 2 is correct: This plant
serves as a nutraceutical resource
for numerous indigenous
communities in the Western Ghats.
A nutraceutical is described as a
food or a component of food that
offers the body medicinal or health
advantages, encompassing both the
prevention and treatment of
diseases.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: It is
endemic to India, limited to the
Western Ghats, spanning the states
of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
and southern Maharashtra. Of the
nine cycad species recognized in
India, six are endemic.
36
84. Ans: A
Exp:
● Enhancing Nature-based Solutions
for an Accelerated Climate
Transformation (ENACT) was
launched by Germany and Egypt in
collaboration with the International
Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN). Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect
○ It was inaugurated at the
Conference of Parties
(COP27) held in Sharm el-
Sheikh, Egypt, in 2022.
● The International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
hosts the ENACT secretariat.
Hence, statement 2 is correct
● ENACT aims to:
○ Bolster the protection and
resilience to climate impacts
for at least 1 billion vulnerable
people. Hence, statement 3 is
correct
○ Safeguard up to 2.4 billion
hectares of healthy, natural,
and sustainable ecosystems
and significantly boost global
mitigation efforts by
protecting and restoring
carbon-rich ecosystems.
○ Member countries include
Canada, European Union,
France, Japan, Malawi,
Norway, Republic of Korea,
Slovenia, Belgium, Pakistan,
Spain, the Netherlands,
Switzerland, and the United
States.
85. Ans: C
Exp: The increasing demand for
Pressmud has led to higher prices, and
 37

without government intervention, the unclaimed deposits (in value

situation could become more
complicated.
● Pressmud, also known as filter cake
or press cake, is a residual by-
product of the sugar industry.
Hence, statement 1 is correct
● Key points about Pressmud:
○ Indian sugar mills can generate
extra revenue by using
Pressmud as a feedstock for
biogas production through
anaerobic digestion, followed
by purification to produce
compressed biogas (CBG).
Hence, statement 2 is correct
○ Pressmud is an organic
material that can reduce the
need for anaerobic digesters,
resulting in lower gas output.
○ It eliminates pre-treatment
costs due to the absence of the
organic polymer lignin, unlike
agri residue.
terms) in the Depositor
Education and Awareness
(DEA) Fund of RBI.
87. Ans: C
Exp:
● Statement 2 is correct: CDP-
Suraksha is government's new
digital platform for disbursing
subsidies to horticulture farmers
under the Cluster Development
Programme (CDP).
○ SURAKSHA stands for
“System for Unified
Resource Allocation,
Knowledge, and Secure
Horticulture Assistance.”
● Statement 1 is correct: It enables
instant subsidy disbursal to farmers'
bank accounts using e-RUPI
vouchers from the National
Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI).
● Key Features:

○ Pressmud has a higher ○ Database Integration: Links

conversion efficiency compared with PM-KISAN.
to agricultural residue. ○ Server Space: Utilizes cloud-
based server space provided by
86. Ans: A NIC.
Exp: ○ Validation: Includes UIDAI
● UDGAM, which stands for validation.
Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to
○ Payment Mechanism:
Access inforMation, is an online
Integrates with e-RUPI for
portal developed by the Reserve
subsidy payments.
Bank of India (RBI).
● It allows registered users to search ○ Directory & Management:
for unclaimed deposits or accounts ■ Local government
across multiple banks in a directory (LGD).
centralized manner. However, the
■ Content management
unclaimed deposits can only be
claimed directly from the respective system.
bank. ■ Geotagging and geo-
○ Currently, 30 banks are part of fencing.
the UDGAM portal, covering ● e-RUPI:
approximately 90% of the

○ It is a one-time payment
mechanism provided by NPCI.
○ It can be redeemed without a
card, digital payments app, or
internet banking.
○ It is shared with beneficiaries
for specific purposes or
activities by organizations or
the government via SMS or
QR code.
88. Ans: B
Exp: The Financial Action Task Force
(FATF) functions as the global watchdog
for money laundering and terrorist
financing. Established in 1989, FATF
comprises 39 member countries and is
headquartered in Paris. India is among
the member nations.
● Countries listed on Black List:
○ Democratic People's Republic
of Korea
○ Iran
○ Myanmar. Hence, option 2 is
incorrect
● Countries listed on Grey List:
○ Barbados, Bulgaria, Burkina
Faso, Cameroon, Croatia,
Democratic Republic of
Congo, Gibraltar, Haiti,
Jamaica, Mali, Mozambique,
Nigeria, Philippines, Senegal,
South Africa, South Sudan,
Syria, Tanzania, Türkiye,
Uganda, United Arab Emirates,
Vietnam, and Yemen. Hence,
option 3 and 4 are correct
○ Cayman Islands, Jordan,
Panama, and Albania were
recently removed from the
FATF Grey List. Hence,
option 1 is incorrect
38
89. Ans: D
Exp:
● Australia’s Reef Restoration and
Adaptation Program are exploring the
potential of cloud brightening to
alleviate coral bleaching
● Statement 1 is correct: Cloud
brightening is a phenomenon where
aerosols are injected into clouds by
natural events like volcanic eruptions.
It has inspired the concept of Marine
Cloud Brightening.
● Statement 2 is correct: Proposed by
John Latham in 1990, marine cloud
brightening is a solar geo-engineering
technique aims to mitigate global
warming by altering Earth’s energy
balance. It involves spraying sea salt
into low-lying clouds to enhance their
reflectance, reducing incoming solar
radiation. This process creates
additional droplets in the cloud, making
it brighter, while the sea salt scatters
light directly, providing extra shade.
90. Ans: A
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
PRATUSH (Probing Reionization
of the Universe using Signals from
Hydrogen) is a radio telescope.
○ Optical telescopes collect
visible light at longer
wavelengths and radio
telescopes collect radio waves
with the shortest wavelengths.
● Statement 2 is correct:
PRATUSH will be located on the
far side of the moon.
○ Main Objectives:
■ Detect signals from the
first stars and galaxies.

■ Uncover the cosmic dawn
of the universe.
■ Determine when the first
stars formed and their
nature.
■ Investigate the light
emitted by the first stars.
○ Instrumentation:
■ Equipped with a wideband
frequency-independent
antenna.
■ Features a self-calibrating
analog receiver.
■ Includes a digital correlator
to capture radio noise from
the Dark Ages.
● Statement 3 is correct: It is being
developed by the Raman Research
Institute (RRI) in Bengaluru in
active collaboration with the Indian
Space Research Organisation
(ISRO).
91. Ans: B
Exp:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has
granted the Uttar Pradesh government a
four-week deadline to provide updates
on the status of obtaining the Ramsar tag
for the Dhanauri Wetland.
● The Dhanauri Wetland, set to be
designated as Balmiki Ramsar
Wetland and Sarus
Sanctuary/Conservation Reserve,
awaits approval from the Uttar
Pradesh Wetland Authority.
● It is located in Greater Noida, Uttar
Pradesh.
● It serves as a significant roosting
site for Sarus Cranes in northern
India.
● Additionally, it plays a crucial role
in groundwater recharge and
supports local agricultural practices.
39
● Recognized as an Important Bird
Area by BirdLife International
and recorded by the BNHS (Bombay
Natural History Society), it holds
considerable ecological importance.
92. Ans: D
Exp:
● A newly discovered dragonfly
species, the Red-rumped Hawklet
(scientific name: Epithemis
wayanadensis), is named after the
lush and biodiverse Wayanad
plateau in the Western Ghats
region. It inhabits shaded
streamside marshes near Wayanad's
forested areas and parts of the
Nilgiri Coorg landscapes.
● Features:
○ The species is profoundly
seasonal, typically observed in
October skies, while spending
the rest of the year in the
aquatic larval stage.
○ It bears a resemblance to the
Ruby-tailed Hawklet.
● Significance: The discovery is
significant as it presents a 12%
genetic difference, marking the first
instance of an Indian dragonfly
being documented with genetic
evidence supporting morphological
distinctions.
93. Ans: A
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
Previously known as the Directorate
General of Anti-Evasion (DGAE),
it was established in 1979 as an
autonomous wing under the
Directorate of Revenue
Intelligence, New Delhi, with
regional units in Chennai, Delhi,
Kolkata, and Mumbai.

○ In 1988, it was elevated to the
status of Directorate General,
led by a Director General.
● Statement 2 is correct: The key
responsibilities of the Directorate
General of GST Intelligence
(DGGI) include: Intelligence
Gathering, Investigation,
Enforcement, Collaboration and
Awareness and Education.
● Statement 3 is correct:
Directorate General of GST
Intelligence Operates under the
Department of Revenue within the
Ministry of Finance.
94. Ans: D
Exp:
● The Orkney Islands, an archipelago
comprising 70 individual islands, with
only 20 inhabited, are situated
approximately 10 miles off the north
coast of Scotland. Recently, Orkney
voted on whether to explore altering its
relationship with the United Kingdom.
95. Ans: A
Exp:
Long before the first sharks appeared,
large predator worms were the “terror
beasts” of the seas more than 500
million years ago, according to new
research.
Researchers discovered fossils of large
predator worms, named Timorebestia,
during expeditions in North Greenland.
These worms, nearly 1 foot (30
centimeters) long, were some of the
earliest carnivorous animals, thriving
over 500 million years ago during the
early Cambrian Period. Equipped with
fins, long antennae, and massive jaws,
they were among the largest swimming
creatures of their time. Previously
unknown, these worms reshaped
scientists' understanding of the ancient
40
marine food chain, challenging the
notion that primitive arthropods like
Anomalocaris dominated. Timorebestia
played a crucial role in the ecosystem
around 518 million years ago, suggesting
they were close to the top of the food
chain. This significant discovery was
detailed in a study published in the
journal Science Advances.
96. Ans: A
Exp:
Pusa-2090 was developed by ICAR-
Indian agricultural research institute
through a cross between Pusa-44 and
CB-501, an early-maturing Japonica rice
line. CB-501 is known for its sturdy
stems and increased grain production and
Pusa-44 has high yield characteristic.
Pusa-2090 retains characteristics of both
and matures within 120-125 days. This
short maturation period helps address the
issue of stubble burning. Farmers have
ample time to prepare for the next wheat
crop, further reducing stubble burning.
Hence, Option A is correct.
97. Ans: B
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: On Earth,
phosphine is naturally generated by
bacteria residing in environments
with very low oxygen levels. These
bacteria assimilate phosphate from
minerals or organic matter and
combine it with hydrogen.
Phosphine, also known as hydrogen
phosphide, is a colourless,
flammable, highly toxic gas with a
pungent odor resembling garlic.
● Statement 2 is correct: It finds
applications in the semiconductor
and plastics industries, as well as in
flame retardant production and as a
pesticide for stored grain.

98. Ans: A
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: IIT
Bombay researchers have developed
carbon nanoflorets capable of
converting incident sunlight into heat
with an efficiency of 87%. These
unique nanoflorets have the
exceptional ability to absorb sunlight
across multiple frequencies. This
process is known as solar-thermal
conversion.
○ Carbon nanoflorets, resemble
tiny marigold flowers composed
solely of carbon.
○ The carbon cone-shaped
structure minimizes reflection,
ensuring that a minimal amount
of light is bounced back.
○ Different parts of the structure
exhibit varied physical
properties, preventing heat
waves from traveling long
distances within the material
and reducing heat dissipation.
● Statement 2 is correct: Unlike
common materials that only absorb
visible and ultraviolet light, the
nanoflorets can absorb frequencies in
100. Ans: B
infrared, visible light, and ultraviolet
spectra
Thus, Both the statements are correct
and statement II explains statement I
99. Ans: A
Exp: Researchers recently identified 20
new species of Sea lettuce along the
Baltic and Scandinavian coasts.
● Statement 1 is correct: Sea lettuce
(Ulva lactuca), commonly known
as seaweed, is a green algae genus
primarily found on rocky shores of
seas and oceans worldwide.
41
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It serves
as an indicator of nutrient pollution
when present in large quantities.
○ In some regions, Sea lettuce is
consumed in soups and salads.
○ Resembling green lettuce
leaves, sea lettuce exhibits
varying shades of green and
can have narrow or broad,
single or multi-lobed leaves
with ruffled edges and
perforations.
○ It is a rich source of iodine and
vitamins A, B, and C.
● Statement 3 is correct: Certain Sea
lettuce species can thrive in
brackish water with organic matter
or sewage, capable of accumulating
heavy metals.
○ It typically attaches to rocks
and shells via a small discoid
holdfast but can also grow
freely, often forming prolific
masses.
Abundant sunlight is essential for Sea
lettuce growth, and it is perennial, with
peak blooms occurring in summer.
Exp:
● At the G7 Summit hosted by Japan,
leaders launched the "Hiroshima
AI Process" (HAP) to establish
common rules for governing
artificial intelligence.
● Participants recognized the need to
swiftly assess the benefits and risks
of generative AI, like ChatGPT.
● Plans include ongoing discussions
on copyright protection and
combating misinformation.
 42

● Ministers from G7 countries aim to

convene by year-end to compile
basic opinions toward establishing
common rules for trustworthy AI.
● HAP will collaborate with the
OECD and GPAI to discuss
generative AI by year-end.
Therefore, Option B is the correct
answer.

