1.

All of the following statements about lignocaine are true except:

(AIIMS Nov 2012
(a) It blocks active sodium channels with more affinity than resting sodium
channels
(b) It can cause cardiotoxicity
(c) It is given orally for treatment of cardiac arrhythmias
(d) Adrenaline increases the duration of action of lignocaine when used for
infiltration anaesthesia
2. Maximum dose of lignocaine given with adrenaline for infiltration anaesthesia
is:
(AIIMS May 2012)
(a) 3 mg/kg
(b) 5 mg/kg
(c) 7 mg/kg
(d) 10 mg/kg
3. Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in?
(AI-2011)
(a) Digital block
(b) Spinal block
(c) Epidural block
(d) Regional anaesthesia
4. Methemoglobinemia is caused by:
(a) Prilocaine
(AIIMS May 2010)
(b) Ropivacaine
(AIIMS May 2009 Karnataka 2004)
(c) Bupivacaine
(d) Procaine
5. First local anesthetic used in clinical anaesthesia was:
(a) Bupivacaine
(AIIMS Nov 2009)
(b) Procaine
(c) Lidocaine
(d) Cocaine
6. From which of the following routes, absorption of local anaesthetic is
maximum?
(AIIMS Nov 2008)
(a) Intercostal
(b) Epidural
(c) Brachial
(d) Caudal
7.Blockade of nerve conduction by a local anesthetic is characterized by:
(DPG 2009)
(a) Greater potential to block a resting nerve as compared to a stimulated
nerve
(b) Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block
(c) Large myelinated fibers are blocked before the unmyelinated fibers
(d) Cause consistent change of resting membrane potential
8. In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between:
(DPG 2009)
(a) Dura and arachnoid
(b) Pia and arachnoid
(c) Dura and vertebra
(d) Into the cord substance
9. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lignocaine
doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to
the following reason:
(AI 2003)
(a) Lignocaine concentration is initially higher in relatively well perfused
tissues such as brain and heart
(b) Histamine receptors in brain and heart get suddenly activated in
circulatory failure
(c) There is a sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and
dopamine in brain and heart
(d) Lignocaine is converted to a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in the
liver
10. Bupivacaine poisoning is treated with all of the following except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Esmolol
(b) Sotalol
(c) Lignocaine
(d) Diazepam
11. All are vasodilators except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Procaine
(b) Lidocaine
(c) Cocaine
(d) Chlorprocaine
12. Which of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Procaine
(b) Bupivacaine
(c) Lignocaine
(d) Mepivacaine
13. The following statements about Bupivacaine are true except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Must never be injected into a vein
(b) More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
(c) 0.5 percent is effective for sensory block
(d) It produces methaemoglobinemia
14. Local anesthetics act by:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Affecting at the spinal level
(b) Affecting the Na
+ channels
(c) Affecting the K+ channels
(d) Blocking axonal transport
15. Local anesthetics:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Block the release of neurotransmitters
(b) Blocks the influx of sodium into the cell
(c) Increase the release of inhibitory neurotrans-mitters
(d) Inhibit the efflux of sodium from neurons
16. All are true about bupivacaine except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Less cardiotoxic than lignocaine
(b) Dose increases with adrenaline
(c) Long acting
(d) Cannot given in vein
17. Post dural (Spinal) puncture headache is due to:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Seepage of CSF
(b) Fine needle
(c) Toxic effects of the drugs
(d) Traumatic damage to nerve roots
18. True statement regarding Bupivacaine is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Used intravenously along with lignocaine
(b) More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
(c) Contraindicated in pregnancy
(d) All of the above
19. Percentage of lignocaine used in spinal anesthesia is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 0.5%
(b) 1%
(c) 2%
(d) 5%
20. The mechanism of action of local anesthetics is that they act on Na
+ channels
in their:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Activated state
(b) Inactivated state
(c) Resting state
(d) Any state
21. The most potent and longest acting anaesthetic agent is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Dibucaine
(b) Tetracaine
(c) Bupivacaine
(d) Lignocaine
22. Adrenaline is added to lignocaine to prolong its effect and decrease its
absorption into bloodstream in a ratio of:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 1:50,000
(b) 1:100,000
(c) 1:200,000
(d) 1:500,000
23. Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA) cream is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Bupivacaine 2.0% + Prilocaine 2.5%
(b) Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5%
(c) Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%
(d) Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5%
24. Cocaine overdose presents with all of the following except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Diaphoresis
(b) Hypertension
(c) Constricted pupils
(d) Agitation
25. All of the following are the true for post lumbar puncture headache except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Presents 12 hours after procedure
(b) Pain is relieved in standing position
(c) Pain is worsened by headshaking
(d) Pain is occipito-frontal in location
26. Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
(a) Bupivacaine
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) Lignocaine
(c) Cocaine
(d) Chlorprocaine
SKELETAL MUSCLE RELAXANTS
27. Which of the following drug undergoes Hoffman’s elimination?
(AIIMS May, 2016)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Pancuronium
(c) Mivacurium
(d) Vecuronium
28. Which of the following drug does not act on neuromuscular junction?
(AIIMS May, 2016)
(a) Succinylcholine
(b) Dantrolene
(c) Vecuronium
(d) Mivacurium
29. Muscle relaxant of choice in a patient with serum bilirubin of 6 mg/dl and
serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dl is:
(AIIMS May, 2015)
(a) Vecuronium
(b) Atracurium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Mivacurium
30. Which of the following skeletal muscles is relaxed first by tubocurarine?
(AIIMS Nov, 2013)
(a) Respiratory
(b) Fingers
(c) Limbs
(d) Head and neck
31. Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used
in the management of seizure caused by overdose of a local anesthetic?
(AIIMS May 2012)
(a) Baclofen
(b) Dantrolene
(c) Diazepam
(d) Tizanidine
32. Which one of the following skeletal muscle relaxants causes pain on injection?
(AIIMS Nov 2011) (AI 2012)
(a) Succinyl choline
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Rocuronium
(d) Pancuronium
33. Cis-atracurium is preferred over atracurium, because:
(AIIMS May 2011)
(a) It has rapid onset of action
(b) It causes less release of histamine
(c) It has short duration of action
(d) It has less depressant action on heart
34. Laudanosine is a metabolite of:
(AIIMS May 2011)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Cis-atracurium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Vecuronium
35. Muscular rigidity caused by opioids is due to the agonistic effect on which
receptor?
(AIIMS May 2011)
(a) Mu
(b) Kappa
(c) Delta
(d) Sigma
36. A 70-kg young athlete was planned for surgery. During anaesthesia,
vecuronium was not available, so repeated doses of succinylcholine
was given intermittently up to 640 mg. During recovery, patient was
not able to spontaneously respire and move limbs. What is the cause?
(AIIMS Nov 2010)
(a) Pseudocholinesterase deficiency
(b) Phase II blockade
(c) Muscle weakness due to repeated fasciculations
(d) Undiagnosed muscular dystrophy
37. The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to appearance
of dysarrythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most
likely cause is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Anaphylaxis
(d) Hypermagnesemia
38. Muscle relaxant of choice in liver disease is?
(AI 2010)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Pipecuronium
(c) Rocuronium
(d) Vecuronium
39. Which of the following is a metabolite of cariso-prodol?
(AIIMS Nov 2009)
(a) Doxylamine
(b) Meprobromate
(c) Dimethadione
(d) Amphetamine
40. A child presents with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure. The muscle
relaxant of choice to be used during surgery of exstrophy in this child is:
(AIIMS Nov 2009)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Mivacurium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Rocuronium
41. All of the following can aggravate Myasthenia gravis except:
(AIIMS May 2009)
(a) Azathioprine
(b) d- Tubocurarine
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Aminoglycoside
42.Shortest acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant is:
(AIIMS May 2008)
(a) Succinyl choline
(b) Rapacuronium
(c) Atracurium
(d) Pancuronium
43. d-Tubocurarine acts by:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
(b) Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
(c) Producing depolarizing block
(d) By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
44. Muscle relaxant of choice in renal and hepatic failure is:
(AIIMS May 2007)
(a) Cis-atracurium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Rocuronium
(d) Rapacuronium
45. Neostigmine antagonizes non-depolarizing blockade by all of the following
mechanisms except:
(AIIMS May 2006)
(a) Decreasing the breakdown of acetylcholine at the motor end plate
(b) Preventing the K+ efflux from the cell
(c) Increasing the release of acetylcholine at the motor end plate
(d) Depolarization at the motor end plate
46. Bradycardia is common after injection of:
(AIIMS Nov, 2005)
(a) Midazolam
(b) Succinylcholine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Isoprenaline
47. The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Decamethonium
(b) Tubocurarine
(c) Gallamine
(d) Suxamethonium
48.Hoffman’s elimination is seen with:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Rocuronium
49. Non-depolarizing blockade is potentiated by:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypomagnesemia
(c) Chronic phenytoin therapy
(d) Quininidine
50. The drug causing curare like effect are all, except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Polymyxin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Streptomycin
51. Which of the following muscle relaxants is free of cardiovascular effects over
the entire clinical dose range?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Pancuronium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Atracurium
(d) Pipecuronium
52. Suxamethonium is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Non depolarizing muscle relaxant
(b) Depolarising muscle relaxant
(c) Direct acting muscle relaxant
(d) All of the above
53. Baclofen is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Centrally acting muscle relaxant
(b) Peripherally acting muscle relaxant
(c) Both centrally and peripherally acting muscle relaxant
(d) Direct acting muscle relaxant
54. True statement regarding depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) The depolarized muscles fibres are unresponsive to other stimuli
(b) Causes muscular fasciculations
(c) Not reversed by neostigmine
(d) All of the above
55. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocker is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Gallamine
(b) Pancuronium
(c) Succinylcholine
(d) d-TC
56. Long acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxants is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Succinylcholine
(b) Mivacurium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Phenylephrine
57. In case of spasticity, the drug not used is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Diazepam
(b) Baclofen
(c) Tizanidine
(d) Amitriptyline
58. The drug inactivated in plasma by spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Atracurium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Pipecuronium
(d) Pancuronium
59. Which one of the following drugs is not a long acting neuromuscular blocking
agent?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Doxacurium
(b) Mivacurium
(c) Pancuronium
(d) Pipecuronium
60. The following is the feature of depolarizing blockade:
(a)Tetanic fade
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) Post tetanic potentiation
(c) Progression to dual blockade
(d) Antagonism by anticholinesterases
61. Drug not acting on neuromuscular junction is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Baclofen
(b) Carisoprodol
(c) Haloperidol
(d) All of the above
62. Short acting non-depolarizing blocker is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Rocuronium (b) Suxamethonium
(c) Mivacurium (d) Pancuronium
63. In pseudocholinesterase deficiency, drug to be used cautiously is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a Barbiturate (b) Succinylcholine
(c) Halothane
(d) Gallamine
64. Mechanism of action of curare is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Reducing end plate potential
(b) Reducing presynaptic potential
(c) Inhibits K+ channels
(d) Inhibits Na
+ channels
65. Baclofen is used in the treatment of:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Schizophrenia
(b) Depression
(c) Anxiety
(d) Spasticity
66. Regarding muscle relaxants which one of the following is true:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Atracurium is contraindicated in renal failure
(b) Pancuronium causes bradycardia
(c) Cis–atracurium is a depolarizing muscle relaxant
(d) Vecuronium induced muscle relaxation can be reversed by neostigmine
GENERAL ANAESTHESIA
67. A female presents with placenta previa with active bleeding and blood pressure
of 80/50 mm Hg and pulse rate of 140 bpm. The choice of anaesthesia for
emergency cesarean section in this female is?
(AIIMS Nov 2015)
(a) General anaesthesia with intravenous propofol
(b) General anaesthesia with intravenous ketamine
(c) Spinal anaesthesia
(d) Epidural anaesthesia
68. Color of oxygen cyclinder is?
(AIIMS Nov 2015)
(a) Black body with white shoulder
(b) Black body with grey shoulder
(c) Grey body with white shoulder
(d) Grey body with black shoulder
69. Which of the following agents can be used in day care surgery?
(AIIMS May 2015)
(a) Fentanyl, midazolam and propofol
(b) Morphine, midazolam and propofol
(c) Midazolam, alfentanil and propofol
(d) Morphine, diazepam and ketamine
70. Anaesthetic agent causing pain on intravenous administration is:
(AIIMS May 2015)
(a) Thiopentone
(b) Propofol
(c) Ketamine
(d) Midazolam
71. Which of the following agents is used for day care surgery?
(AIIMS Nov 2014)
(a) Propofol
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Diazepam
(d) Ketamine
72. The plane of surgical anesthesia during ether anesthesia is defined as:
(AIIMS May 2014)
(a) Loss of consciousness
(b) Loss of consciousness to the onset of spontaneous respiration
(c) From onset of regular respiration to cessation of spontaneous
breathing
(d) Absence of reflexes
73. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is contraindicated in
epileptic patients posted for general anesthesia?
(AIIMS May 2014)
(a) Ketamine (b) Thiopentone
(c) Propofol (d) Midazolam
74. A patient with ruptured spleen is taken for laparotomy. His blood pressure is
80/50 and heart rate is 125/min. Induction agent of choice for this patient is:
(AIIMS May 2012)
(a) Sodium Thiopentone
(b) Fentanyl
(c) Ketamine
(d) Halothane
75. Which of these can be safely stopped before an abdominal surgery?
(AI 2012)
(a) ACE inhibitors
(b) Beta blocker
(c) Statins
(d) Steroids
76. Xenon anesthesia all are true accept:
(AI 2012)
(a) Slow induction and recovery
(b) Non explosive
(c) Minimal cardiovascular side-effects
(d) Low blood solubility
77. A 32-year-old male is a known hypertensive and is being planned for
cholecystectomy. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated
in this person?
(AI-2011)
(a) Propofol
(b) Ketamine
(c) Midazolam
(d) Etomidate
78. Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?
(AI-2011), (AIIMS May 2010)
(a) General Anaesthesia
(b) Brachial Plexus Block
(c) Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia
(d) Spinal Anaesthesia
79.Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is:
(AI-2011)
(a) Desflurane
(b) Sevoflurane
(c) Ether
(d) Halothane
80. A patient with mitral stenosis had to undergo surgery. Pre-anaesthetic checkup
revealed the increased liver enzymes. Which of the following inhalational
agent should be preferred in this patient?
(AIIMS Nov 2010)
(a) Xenon
(b) Enflurane
(c) Halothane
(d) Sevoflurane
81. Which of the following intravenous induction agent suppress steroidogenesis?
(AIIMS Nov 2010)
(a) Thiopentone
(b) Propofol
(c) Ketamine
(d) Etomidate
82. The following causes increased intra ocular pressure:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Thiopentone
(b) Althesin
(c) Ketamine
(d) Barbiturate
83. Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with pneumothorax,
pneumopericardium or intestinal obstruction, because it:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Depresses an already compromised myocardium
(b) Permits the use of limited FIO2 only
(c) Is less soluble than nitrogen
(d) Causes the expansion of air filled body cavities
84. Anaesthesia contraindicated in volvulus of gut is:
(a) Halothane
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ketamine
(d) Pancuronium
85. A 5 years old child is suffering from cyanotic heart disease. He is
planned for corrective surgery. The induction agent of choice would
be:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Thiopentone
(b) Ketamine
(c) Halothane
(d) Midazolam
86. Which of the following induction agent produce cardiac stability?
(AIIMS May 2009)
(a) Ketamine
(b) Etomidate
(c) Propofol
(d) Midazolam
87. Anaesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Ether
(c) Trilene
(d) Halothane
88. Best uterine relaxation is seen with:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Chloroform
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ether
(d) Halothane
89. Hallucinations are seen after …………… anaesthesia:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ketamine
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Fentanyl
(d) Nitrous oxide
90. Anaesthetic that has a smooth induction is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Diethyl ether
(b) Isoflurane
(c) N2O
(d) Halothane
91. Which of the following drugs are believed to be effective in the treatment of
post operative shivering?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ondansetron
(b) Diclofenac sodium
(c) Pethidine
(d) Paracetamol
92. “MAC” of desflurane is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 1.15
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
93. Which of the following should be considered as the cause of generalized
convulsions 20 minutes postoperatively?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Halothane
(b) Enflurane
(c) Isoflurane
(d) Sevoflurane
94. Ketamine should be avoided in:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) The presence of increased arterial pressure
(b) Pregnancy
(c) Hypovolemic shock
(d) Asthmatic
95. The drug for OPD analgesia is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Morphine
(b) Pethidine
(c) Fentanyl
(d) Alfentanil
96. “Shivering” is observed in the early part of postoperative period due
to:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Chloroform
(b) Halothane
(c) Trichloroethylene
(d) Ether
97.Following accidental intra-arterial injection of thiopentone, which
should not be done?
(a) Remove the needle
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) Intra-arterial heparin
(c) Intra-arterial papaverine
(d) Do a stellate ganglion block
98. An anaesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75°C is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ether
(b) Halothane
(c) Cyclopropane
(d) Methoxyflurane
99.True statement about sevoflurane is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) It is nephrotoxic at high doses
(b) It has maximum risk of causing convulsions
(c) It is cardiostable
(d) It can cause fulminant hepatitis
100. Which of the following does not have analgesic action:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ether
(b) Ketamine
(c) Halothane
(d) Morphine
101. Induction agent of choice in day care surgery is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ketamine
(b) Propofol
(c) Methohexitone
(d) Thiopentone sodium
102. True statements regarding halothane is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Hepatitis occurs in susceptible individuals after repeated dose
(b) It potentiates competitive neuromuscular blockers
(c) Causes respiratory depression
(d) All of the above
103. Which of the following agents is most commonly used to induce anaesthesia?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Thiopentone sodium
(b) Methohexitone sodium
(c) Propofol
(d) Etomidate
104. All of the following are halogenated anaesthetic agents except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Halothane
(b) Propofol
(c) Enflurane
(d) Isoflurane
105. In raised ICT, anesthetic agent of choice is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Enflurane
(b) Isoflurane
(c) Ketamine
(d) Ether
106. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated in epilepsy?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Xenon
(b) Enflurane
(c) Halothane
(d) Ether
107. In patients with liver disease, anesthetic of choice is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Halothane
(b) Ether
(c) Isoflurane
(d) None
108. Dissociative anesthesia is seen on administration of:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Ether
(b) Halothane
(c) Enflurane
(d) Ketamine
109. Profound analgesia is produced by which parenteral anesthetic?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Thiopental
(b) Propofol
(c) Ketamine
(d) Etomidate
110. Thiopental sodium is administered intravenously as:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 25% solution
(b) 2.5% solution
(c) 0.25% solution
(d) 0.025% solution
111. Which of the following increase the speed of induction with an inhalational
agent?
(a) Opiate pre-medication
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) Increased alveolar ventilation
(c) Increased cardiac output
(d) Reduced FIO2
112. The recommended time for prophylactic antibiotic is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 30 min prior to induction of anaesthesia
(b) 15 min after the initiation of surgery
(c) At the time of induction
(d) At the time of skin incision
113. Trilene when used with sodalime causes:
(a) Renal damage
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(b) ARDS
(c) Myocardial depression
(d) Reaction with rubber tubing of closed circuit
114. Drug used in day care anaesthesia is:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Propofol (b) Enflurane
(c) Xenon (d) Thiopentone
115. Which opioid does not require kidney and liver for metabolism?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Remifentanil (b) Sufentanil
(b) Alfentanil (d) Fentanyl
116. The term “balanced anaesthesia” has been given by:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Simpson
(b) Fischer
(c) Lundy
(d) Mortan
117. Regarding propofol, which one of the following is false:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) It is used as an intravenous induction agent
(b) It causes severe vomiting
(c) It is painful on injecting intravenously
(d) It has no muscle relaxant property
118. Ketamine produces:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Emergence delirium
(b) Pain on injection
(c) Bronchoconstriciton
(d) Depression of cardiovascular system
119. Which one of the following inhalational anesthetics is most likely to cause
fluoride ion nephrotoxicity?
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Methoxyflurane
(b) Enflurane
(c) Halothane
(d) Isoflurane
120. Pin index of oxygen is which one of the following:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) 2, 5
(b) 3, 5
(c) 1, 5
(d) 3, 6
121. All of the following are intravenous anesthetic induction agents except:
(Recent NEET Pattern Question)
(a) Thiopentone sodium
(b) Ketamine
(c) Etomidate
(d) Bupivacaine
RECENT QUESTIONS
122. Injection of all of the following drugs is painful except?
(Recent Question 2019)
(a) Propofol
(b) Etomidate
(c) Ketamine
(d) Methohexitone
123. Which intravenous anaesthetic agent does not cause cardiac depression?
(Recent Question 2019)
(a) Etomidate
(b) Midazolam
(c) Propofol
(d) Thiopentone
124. Advantage of cisatracurium over atracurium is?
(Recent Question 2019)
(a) Short duration of action
(b) Rapid onset
(c) Less allergic
(d) Releases less histamine
125.Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agent causes
maximum respiratory irritation?
(Recent Question 2019)
(a) Enflurane
(b)` Halothane
(c) Sevoflurane
(d) Desflurane
126. Mechanism of action of curare type drugs is:
(Recent Question 2019)
(a) Competitive inhibitor of ACh receptors
(b) Calcium channel blockade
(c) Persistent depolarization of receptors
(d) Blocking release of ACh
127. Centrally acting muscle relaxant with alpha 2 adrenergic agonist activity is:
(Recent Question 2017-2018)
(a) Chlorzoxazone
(b) Baclofen
(c) Tizanidine
(d) Pirenzepine
128. Mechanism of action of tubocurarine is:
(Recent Question 2017-2018)
(a) Cholinesterase inhibitor
(b) Cause membrane depolarization
(c) Competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptor
(d) Inhibit opening of chloride channels