Student's Solution Copy [Code - 19259]

NEET PATTERN TEST Brahmastra Major Test-03

13th NEET - Phase 12
KOTA

Date: 10-Mar-2024

Duration: 3 Hours 20 Mins

Max Marks: 720

Physics - Section A

1. 2.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Enet= –σ

2e0
ˆ
k–
2σ

2e0
ˆ
k–
σ

2ε0
ˆ
k =
2σ

ε0
ˆ
(– k )

Net pulling force

Acceleration a =
Total mass

30−10 2
a = = 5m/ sec
4

∴ Tension in string →

FBD of kg ⇒T − 10 = 1 × a

T = 15N

Now the young's modulus is given by

F

stress A
Y = =
ΔL
strain
L

or
A
Y = ΔL

or
ΔL T 15
= = −6 11
L A×Y 1×10 ×10

ΔL −4
= 1. 5 × 10
L
3. 7.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Work done by electric field :

w = PEi − PEf = q[Vi − Vf ]

o o
KPcos 45 KPcos 135
= q[ 2
− 2
]
−2 −2
(1×10 ) (2×10 )

5×1+3× ( −1 ) +2×2+4× ( −1 )
1
work done = 100

3
J
xcom = =
5+3+2+4 7

8.
6×5+3×5+2× ( −3 ) +4×(−4)
ycom =
14 Answer: 4
30+15−6−16 45−22
Sol:
23
ycom = = =
14 14 14

4. →
ν cm =
1× î +2×2 ĵ
=
î +4 ĵ

1+2 3

Answer: 3
∣→ ∣ 1
√1 2 + 4 2 =
√17
ν cm = = 1. 37 m/s
∣ ∣
Sol: 3 3

Resultant focal length = ∞ 9.

∴ It behaves as a plane slab of glass. Answer: 4

5. Sol:

For a compound microscope m ∝

1
Answer: 3 fo fe

Sol: So in a compound microscope magnification will

be large, if the focal length of the eye piece is
Electric charge is a derived quantity in SI
smaller.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3)

6.

Answer: 3

Sol:

We know that,

The Magnetic field on the axis of circular current

carrying wire:
2
μ0 2πnir
B = .
4π 2 2
3/2
(x +r )

2
nr
B ∝
3/2
2 2
(x +r )

Thus,

The option (3) is correct.

10. 12.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

[ax ]=[F]
2
The centripetal force provided by the magnetic
force is given as:
2 –2
[a][L ]=[MLT ] 2
mv
= qvB
r

mv p
–1 –2
[a]=[ML T ] ⇒ r = =
qB qB

[bt
1/2
]=[F]
Also, momentum can be written as:
2
p
2
2 KE =
[b t]= [F] 2m

2 ⇒ p = √2 mKE
2 –2
[b t][T]= [MLT ]
Here, KE and B are same for all the particle,
2
2
M L T
2 –4
so,
[b ]=
T
√m
2 2 –5 r ∝
=[M L T ] q

[b
2
] [M L T
2 2 –5
] Now the ratios are:
∴ =
[a] –1
–2
[ ML T ]
√m √2m √4m
rp : rd : rα =
e
:
e
:
2e
(Let the

=[ML
3
T
–3
]
mass of proton is m)

So, rα = rp < rd .
11.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1).
Answer: 1
13.
Sol:
Answer: 3
2
The initial area (A1 ) = πr
2
= (3 .14)(20 cm)
1
Sol:

= (3.14) (400cm2) = 1256cm2 U =

k×40×10
–
k×10×20

.02 .04

2
The final area (A2 ) = πr
2

2
= (3 .14)(20 .5 cm) U = 9 × 10 [2 × 10 – 5000]
9 4

12

= (3.14) (420.25cm2) = 1319.585 cm2 = 135 × 10 (J)

The change in area (ΔA) = 1319.585cm2 – 14.

1256cm2 = 63.585cm2
Answer: 2
Formula of the change in area : ΔA = βA ΔT
1
Sol:
63.585 = β(1256) (70°C)
Magnet A is allowing all the field lines
63.585 = β (87,920°C) passing through it , therefore it is
β = 63.585/ 87,920°C
ferromagnetic.
β = 0.00072/°C Magnet B is repelling the field lines therefore
β = 7. 2 × 10
−4
/°C it is diamagnet.
Magnet C is attracting the field lines
therefore it is paramagnet.
15. 18.

Answer: 4 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:
→ Volume of a liquid flowing per second is equal to
torque is the cross product of the force F and the product of area and velocity of liquid i.e., Q =
→
the position vector' r ' Av

→ →
→
According to Torricelli's Theorem velocity of efflux
τ = r × F
i.e. the velocity with which the liquid flows out of
so the angle between τ and F is 90° and between a hole is equal to √2 gh where h is the depth of
τ and r is 90°
the hole below the liquid surface. So we have
for example if we take dot product between two
Q = A√2 gh
vectors as θ = 90°

⟹ cos θ = cos 90° = 0

Hence volume of liquid flowing per second
depends upon the hight of the liquid above the
⟹
→ →
r . τ = 0 orifice the acceleration due to gravity the area of
the orifice and it is independent of the density of
→
→ the liquid
F. τ = 0

16. 19.

Answer: 3 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Only the central fringe is white all other Given

fringes are coloured. V1 = 26 Volt

17. A1 = 2 Amp .
Answer: 4 R ( Total resistance)
Sol: = (6 + 3 + x) = (9 + x)Ω

We know that - V 26
I = = = 2
R (9+x)
1 2
S = ut + at
2
13 = 9 + x
Given u=0 , then -
or x = 4Ω
1 2 1
S1 = a(10) = a(100)
2 2 20.

And S2 =
1
a(20)
2
=
1
a(400) Answer: 3
2 2

Hence, S2 = 4S1
Sol:

I
K = √
M

2
ML L
= √ =
3M √3
21. Sol:

Answer: 3

case (1) when there is no friction,

From Newton's second law , F = ma

⇒ mg sinθ = ma1

⇒ a1 = g sinθ _____ (1)

Now, as body starts from rest so initial velocity(u)

= 0 m/s.

Let, body travels 'x' distance in t1 time, so from

equation of motion.

x = ut + 1

2
at2

⇒ x= 1

2
a1t1 2 (from equation (1))

t2 = √
2x
=
2x

⇒ a1
√
g sin θ
______ (2)

case (2) : - When there is friction

From Newton's second law, F= ma

⇒ mgsinθ–μmg cosθ = ma2

⇒ a2 = gsinθ–μg cosθ ______ (3)

Now, as body starts from rest so initial velocity

(u) = 0 m/s.

Let, body travels 'x' distance in t2 time.

So from equation of motion.

x = ut + 2 at2
1
⇒

x = 2 a2 t
1
⇒ 2
2

⇒ t2 =√ 2x
a
= √
2x
------------ (4)
1 g sinθ–μg cosθ

It is given that t2 =2t1 -------------- (5)

So, =
2x 2x
√ 2√
g sinθ–μg cosθ g sinθ

Now, substituting θ = 45° and solving above

equation we get

√
1–μ
1
=2

= = 0.75
3
μ
4
22. 25.

Answer: 4 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

By theory of angle of contact & capillary

We know that the capillary rise is given by the

formula ; h = ρgr
2Tcosθ

Where,
T, is the surface tension,
θ is the contact angle,
Therefore, the correct answer is (3)
ρ is the density of the liquid,

g is the acceleration due to gravity 26.

r is the radius of the capillary tube. Answer: 3
From the equation we have, the capillary rise
inversely proportional to the radius of the Sol:
capillary tube. Therefore, if the radius of the
Distance from centre x = A −
A 2A
=
capillary tube is halved then the capillary rise is 3 3

doubled. 2

So potential energy =
1 2 1 2A
= Kx = K( )
23. 2 2 3

Answer: 2 2
PE = 4 1 4E
( kA )=
9 2 9

Sol:
27.
Induced emf
dϕ
Answer: 2
ε =
dt
Sol:
1 dϕ
i =
R dt
Given :
3
ΔQ 1 Δϕ ϕ = 5t − 100t + 300
=
Δt R Δt

dϕ
Δϕ e =–
So, Q =
R
dt

2
e =–[15t – 100]
24.
e =–[60– 100]
Answer: 1
e = 40

Sol:
28.
Unit of stefan's constant
Answer: 1
The Net power radiated is
Sol:
4
P = σAT
Apply ΔQ = msΔT
P watt
σ ⇒
4
=
2
m −K
4
ΔQ = 5 × 4200 × (100 − 20)
AT

ΔQ = 1680 KJ
29. 32.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

When a person is standing on a weighning D

machine, and the machine is going downward
with acceleration 'a'

then, the Normal reaction is given by,

N = M(g– a)

So, N < Mg

So, the measured weight is less than the

true weight.

30.

Answer: 2

Sol:

When block in air m3g – T2 = m3a ............ (1)

n1 = 260 =
1
√
1×g m2g + T2 – T1 = m2a ............ (2)
2L M

T1 – m1g = m1a ............. (3)

When block is immersed in a liquid of density 1.2,
then (m3+m2–m1)g = (m1+m2+m3)a

weight in liquid = weight in air - loss in weight a =

(m3 +m2 +m1 )g

m1 +m2 +m3

1.2
Tension = Mg (1 − )
1.8 put this value in eq. (1)
g
= Mg =
3
m3g – T2 = m3a
(m3 +m2 −m1 )g
1 g n1 m3 g − m3 = T2
n2 = √ = (m1 +m2 +m3 )
2L 3M √3

( m3 +m2 –m1 )
260
n2 = = 150 Hz. m3 g[1– ]= T2
( m1 +m2 +m3 )
√3

31.
2m1 m3 g
∴ T2 =
m1 +m2 +m3

Answer: 1
33.
Sol:
Answer: 3
XL = ωL
Sol:
=2πfL
Curve represent incident radiation of same
Therefore, the correct answer is (1) frequency & different intensities.
34. 35.

Answer: 3 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The proces of changing a liquid into the vapours 1

= Rz (
2 1
–
1
)
is called the vaporization. The process involves λ 1
2
2
2

the absorption of heat energy. 1 2

∝ z
λ
Phase change is a isobaric process.
1
λ ∝
2
z

1 1 1
λ1 : λ2 : λ3 = : :
9 4 1

4:9:36
= 4 : 9 : 36
36

Therefore, the correct answer is (3)

 Physics - Section B

36. 38.

Answer: 2 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Given :

n = 2×1021

l = 10mm

Vd = 0.25mm/sec

Total charge Q = ne = 2×1021×1.6×10-19 = 320

Path difference on the circle of radius R around O C
on the wall will be same hence concentric circle.
Drift velocity(Vd) =0.25 =
distance 10
=
Therefore, the correct answer is (2). time T

37. T = 40 sec

Answer: 1
Q
now current I = T
=
320

40
= 8A
Sol: 39.

Answer: 1

Sol:

The Root mean square velocity is given by

3 RT
vrms = √
M

As we know, Where, M = molecular mass

V
I = 3 RT
Req VrmsH = √
2

2
P = I R
3 RT
VrmsO = √
32
For maximum power dissipation, I should be
maximum. 3R(320)
Vrms = √
For maximum I, Req should be minimum. 32
O

Hence, for given condition, Rmin = 2Ω when Vrms

O
= √3R(10)

Rp (shown in diagram) became zero (i.e. Rp = 0) Given : VrmsH = VrmsO

Now, 3 RT
∴ √ = √3R(10)
2
12
I = = 6A
2
T
= 10
Maximum power dissipation in is
2
∴ 2Ω

T = 20K
Pmax = (6)2 (2)
40.
Pmax = 36×2 = 72 W
Answer: 4

Sol:

h ≥ 5r/2
41. 44.

Answer: 1 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

mg(h1 – h2 ) = ms Δ T

10(2. 5– 0. 5) = 25. 2 × ΔT
f
20
a =
m
Δ T =
25.2

V = u + at
Δ T = 0. 79 K
F
42. V = 0 +
m
t

Answer: 3 K. E. =
1
mv
2
=
1
m ×
F
2
2
t =
2
F t
2

2
2 2 m 2m

Sol:
45.
Apparent acceleration due to gravity because of
force of buoyancy Answer: 2

ρi
Sol:
g' = g(1 − )
ρs
2 2
A R = √A + A + 2A1 . A2 . cos(Δϕ)
1 2
ρi = ρs /10

2 2 2
1 0 = A + A + 2A cos(Δϕ)
⇒ g' = g (1 − )
10
2 2
⇒ −2A = 2A cos(Δϕ)
9
= g
10
⇒ cos(Δϕ)= −1
1
T ∝
√g
⇒ Δϕ = π

10 2π
⇒ T' = √ T ⇒ . Δx = π
9 λ

λ
43. Δx =
2

Answer: 1 46.
Sol: Answer: 4
As no external force is there so its angular Sol:
momentum will remain conserved.So,
In a because reactor, useful fuel obtained from
angular momentum
is Pu .
238 239
U
→
L = Iω = constant 47.
since mass gets stick to the periphery its mass Answer: 3
will increase and to get it conserved its
ω decreases. Sol:

Net MOI increases. ΔP

× 100 =[2(
Δα
)+(
Δβ
)+4(
Δγ
)]×100
P α β γ

Therefore, the correct answer is (1)

=(2 × 0. 1 + 0. 2 + 4 × 0. 4)×100

= 2. 0 %

48.

Answer: 1

Sol:

PN-junction diode conducts when the value of

forward bias is more than the potential barrier.
49. 50.

Answer: 4 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The maximum efficiency that can be obtained by A B Y

the half-wave rectifier is 40. 6%
0 0 0
So, according to the question, option (4) is
0 1 1
incorrect.
1 0 1

1 1 0

¯
¯¯ ¯
¯¯
Y = (A ⋅ B)(B ⋅ A)

Therefore, the correct answer is (3)

 Chemistry - Section A

51. 55.

Answer: 4 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

H2O(l) ➝
+ −
Haq + OHaq

ΔH = 57.32kJ

H2 + 1

2
O2 ➝H2O (l)

ΔH = –286.2 kJ

57.32 = ΔH0f + ΔH0f – ΔH0f H2O

+ −
Haq OHaq

= 0 + ΔH0fOH– = 57.32 – 286.2

= –228.88 kJ.

56.

Answer: 2
52.
Sol:
Answer: 4

Sol:

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used as a group

reagent for the zero group.

53.

Answer: 1 57.

Sol: Answer: 2

If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason Sol:
is a correct explanation of the Assertion
The elements in Lanthanide series are
La,Ce,Pr,Nd,Pm,Sm,Eu,Gd, Tb, Dy, Ho, Er, Tm, Y b
and Lu. In Lanthanides ( Ce−Lu), the atomic and
54. ionic radii decrease steadily.
Answer: 2 This steady decrease in atomic and ionic radii is
known as Lanthanide Contraction.
Sol:
Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to the
BaSO4 is Colourless.
imperfect shielding of nuclear charge (nuclear
attractive force on electrons) by 4f electrons on
outer electron.

58.

Answer: 3

Sol:

Facts & Zn can reduce Cu+2

59. 65.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:
Al2 O3 /P t Fact
n- hexane −−−−−→ benzene + H2
66.
0
500 C

When vapour of n-hexene are passed over but Answer: 4

supported on Al2O3 at 500°C benzene is formed
and the reaction involved is aromatisation. Sol:

60. N, O & F do not have vacant orbitals to promote

electron.
Answer: 4
67.
Sol:
Answer: 2
When we add one more electron in X– ion, there
will be repulsion for upcoming electron. Therefore Sol:
energy is required to add 2nd electron.
r = K[A] [B]
nd
∴ II electron affinity is always endothermic.
1×10–2 = k×1×1 ……..(i)
61. r2 =1×10–2 ×.1×.1
Answer: 1 = 1×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
Sol: 68.
It is based on law of mass action
Answer: 3
62. Sol:
Answer: 2

Sol:

The reactivity of the alkyl halide in SN2 reaction is

decided by the ease with which the halide leaves
the substrate. Larger the size of the halide ion,
more is the leaving ability.
As per the leaving ability, the order is I− > Br−
69.
> Cl− > F−.
Answer: 2
Hence reactivity order is RI > RBr > RCl > RF.
Sol:
63.
cis − 1, 2− dichloro ethene
Answer: 3

Sol:

70.
64. Answer: 3
Answer: 3 Sol:
Sol: 1 g atm phosphorus = 31g
%S character↑ EN↑ 2 mol water = 2×18 = 36g

22.4 L of CO2 gas at NTP = 44g

6.02×1023 atoms of sulphur = 32g

71. 74.

Answer: 1 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Victor Meyer Test is used to differentiate between

primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols. They
give different colour on reacting with victor Meyer
reagent whereass 3° alcohol do not give any
colour.

75.

Answer: 3

Sol:

72.
76.
Answer: 1
Answer: 2
Sol:
Sol:
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is correct for the Assertion. [MA3B3]- 2 geometrical isomers
[MA2B4]- 2 geometrical isomers
73.
[MA4B2] - 2 geometrical isomers
Answer: 2 The complexes of general
formula [MA6] and [MA5B] octahedral geometry
Sol: do not show geometrical isomerism.
Molar conductance of strong electrolytes
increases slightly on dilution while that of weak
electrolytes increases exponentially on dilution.
77. 79.

Answer: 3 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

On mixing the two solution Log Kp =7. 282– 8500

+ .01
[Ag ] = = 0. 005M
0=
8500
2 7. 282–
T

– .01
[Cl ] = = 0. 005M 8500
2 ⇒ T =
7.282

IP of AgCl = 0.005×0.005 = 2.5×10–5 T = 1167 .26 K

∴ IP > Ksp t + 273 = 1167.26
Precipitate occur t= 1167.26–273
78. t = 894°C
Answer: 2 80.
Sol: Answer: 1
Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] Cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] Sol:

81.

No plane of Presence of plane Answer: 4

of
Sol:
symmetry optically symmetry optically
active Inactive Mn
2+
and O2
Trans-[Co(en)2Cl2] Trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

82.

Answer: 3

Sol:
–3
+ 2.0×10
[H ] =
2
Presence of POS Presence of
POS pH = –log (1×10–3) = 3
optically Inactive Presence of COS
83.
Optically Inactive
Answer: 3

Sol:

The common oxidation state of Lanthanides is

(+3).

Ce+4 and Tb+4 gains electron and reduces

into Ce+3 and Tb+3 and oxidises others and
therefore, these are good oxidising agents.
84. 85.

Answer: 2 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

Chemical properties depends on elecronic
configuration and isotopes haev same electronic
configuration
In that sense, it is difficult to say what an orbital
looks like. On the other hand, it is certainly
convenient to think of orbitals in terms of specific
shapes, particularly in discussing the formation of
chemical bonds between atoms.
 Chemistry - Section B

86. 89.

Answer: 2 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

CH3–CH2–C≡CH+AgNO3+NH4OH → CH3CH2C≡​
CAg↓

1–Butyne having acidic hydrogen gives silver

acetylide precipitate.

CH3–C≡C–CH3+AgNO3+NH4OH→NO reaction
87.
2–Butyne has no acidic hydrogen, so it does not
Answer: 2 give a ppt.
Sol: 90.
Functional isomers: that have the same Answer: 4
molecular formula but with the atoms connected
in different ways and therefore falling into Sol:
different functional groups.

91.

Answer: 1

88. Sol:

Answer: 3 Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

Sol: Basic nature of oxide ∝ Metallic character ∝

1

EN

The chocolate colored precipitate is EN ↓ Basic Nature ↑

Cu2 [Fe (CN) ].
6

92.
Potassium ferrocyanide precipitates red-brown
copper(II) ferrocyanide from Cu2+ solutions : Answer: 3

2+ 4−
Sol:
2Cu (aq)
+ [Fe (CN) ] (aq)
6

First law fails to develop any criterion for the

→ Cu2 [Fe (CN) ](s)
6 spontaneity of a process because the energy of
the universe is constant in both natural and
unnatural directions.
93. 95.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

According to Henry's law, the solubility of gas in a

given solution increases with the increase of
pressure of the undissolved gas above the
solution, Since the process of dissolution of gas is
exothermic. The amount of gas dissolved
decreases with increase of temperature.

In H2O (polar solvent) dibromophenol derivative 96.

and in CS2 (non-polar) solvent momeobromo Answer: 4
phenol derivative is obtained.
Sol:
94.
The complex [Co(SCN)2(NH3)4]Cl exhibits
Answer: 4 ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism as
Sol: well as linkage isomerism.

Configuration of the C2 molecule Linkage isomerism is possible as SCN ligand is

2 ∗ 2 2 ∗ 2 2 2 ambidentate ligand and has two donor atoms N
σ1s σ 1s σ2s σ 2s π2px = π2py
and S.
Therefore bond order = Ionization isomerism is possible due to exchange
Number of bonding electron−number of antibonding electron

2
of ions inside and outside the coordination
sphere.
= =2
8−4

Two geometrical isomers cis and trans are

The last two paired sets of electrons enter the possible.
degenerate (identical energy) pi-bonding set of
orbitals, i.e. π2px and π2 py according to In the cis isomer, the two SCN ligands are
Molecular Orbital theory. adjacent to each other and in the trans isomer,
they are opposite to each other.
Because these four electrons are in the pi
orbitals, the C2 molecule's two bonds will be pi 97.
bonds alone, with no sigma bonds.
Answer: 1

Sol:

NaNO3(s) ⇌ NaNO2(s) + O2(g)

Decomposition is an endothermic reaction and a

temperature increase favors an endothermic
reaction. In heterogeneous equilibrium such as
this, the active masses of pure solids (being
constant) do not appear in the reaction quotient
expression (Q). Thus, the addition of NaNO3(s) or
the addition of NaNO2 (s) does not change the
value of Q. Hence, equilibrium is not disturbed.
For this equilibrium. Dng is +ve. Thus, increase in
pressure favors backward reaction as it leads to
decrease in the number of moles of gas.
98. 99.

Answer: 1 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

This reaction is called Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky

reaction

More basic because availability of l.p. on Nirogen

because of steric hinderance from two methyl
groups.
100.

Answer: 3

Sol:
This reaction is called stephen's reaction
Phenolphthalein turns pink in the basic solution
while methyl orange turns yellow in the basic
solution

This reaction is called Perkin's reaction

 Biology - Section A

101. 104.

Answer: 1 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Regions of roots are-
Root cap region - The root is covered at the
apex by a thimble-like structure called the root
cap.
Region of cell division - A few millimetres
above the root cap is the region of meristematic
activity. They divide repeatedly.
Region of elongation - The cells proximal to
this region undergo rapid elongation and
enlargement and are responsible for the growth
of the root in length. This region is called the
region of elongation.
105.
Region of maturation - The cells of the
elongation zone gradually differentiate and
mature. Hence, this zone, proximal to region of
elongation, is called the region of maturation.
A 1:1 ratio for monohybrid and 1:1:1:1 for
dihybrid among progeny suggest one gene is
involved in the phenotype, which would involve a
cross between a heterozygous (F1 hybrid) and
homozygote recessive parent. This is called a test
cross. In a typical test, an organism (pea plants
here) showing a dominant phenotype (and whose
genotype is to be determined) is crossed with the
recessive parent instead of self-crossing. The
progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed
to predict the genotype of the test organism.
Thus we find that the dominant organism was
hetesozygous.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is the
amount of light available for photosynthesis,
which is light in the 400 to 700 nanometer
wavelength range. PAR changes seasonally and
varies depending on the latitude and time of day.
Levels are greatest during the summer at mid-
day.

102.

Answer: 3

Sol:

Albuminous seed retain a part of endosperm as it

is not completely used up during embryo
development. For example, maize, wheat and
barley.

103.

Answer: 3

Sol:

As we go higher from species to kingdom, the

number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing. Lower the taxa more are the
characteristics that the members within the taxon
share. So, order is more character, comparison to
family, genus, subspecies and species.

Hence, the correct answer is Order.

106.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Detritivores (eg. earthworm) break down
detritus into smaller particles. This process is
called fragmentation.
Degradation of large organic nutrient into simple
and small in-organic materials known as
Decomposition.
Decomposition process yields inorganic nutrients
and humus formation.Formation of humus is
called humification.
Bacteria and fungi secrete digestive enzymes
over the detritus. It helps in the formation of
simple and soluble organic and inorganic
substances, the process is known as Catabolism
107.
Answer: 2
Sol:
A tuber is swollen or oval underground modified
stem lacking adventurous roots. It has a number
of spirally arranged depressions called eyes. Each
eye represents axillary buds developing at nodes/
eyes in which grow into new plants during
favourable conditions. Unlike other underground
stems, tubers do not give off adventitious roots.
For example: potato.
Hence, the correct answer is axillary bud.
108.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Seed germination is a process in which dormant
embryo of seed resumes metabolic activities and
grows to produce a seedling. Vivipary is special
type of seed germination is characteristics of
mangrove vegetation found in muddy, saline
condition. There is no resting period of embryo
and germination occurs inside the fruit, while it is
attached to the parent plant i.e. in-situ
germination. The seedling is separated in the mud
with the help of lateral roots developing from
basal end of radicle this process is known as
viviparous germination or vivipary.
Epigeal germination is a type of germination in
which the seed leaves or the cotyledons are
brought on to the surface or above the soil along
with the shoot during germination.
Hypogeal germination is a type of germination in
which the seed leaves or the cotyledons remain
below the soil surface during germination.
Hence, the correct answer is vivipary.
109.
Answer: 2
Sol:
As we go higher from species to Kingdom, the
number of common character goes on decreasing.
Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics
which the members within the taxon share.
Polymoniales, poales and sapindales represent an
order and other one belongs to family, genus and
species. So, order have less similarities than
family, genus and species.
110.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Genetic maps are widely used as a starting point
in the sequence of whole genomes. Wherein, in a
genetic map, the frequency of recombination
between genes pairs on the same chromosomes
is a measure of the distance between genes, and
their positions are ‘mapped’ on the chromosomes.
A map unit refers to a unit of distance between
genes on chromosomes that represent 1%
crossover.
111.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Assimilatory power is the power of plants in the
form of ATP & NADPH (produce during light
reactions) to obtain food in the form of
carbohydrates from the reduction of CO2
during photosynthesis. In C4 ​ plant one CO2 ​
molecule needs 5 ATP molecule as the process
occurs in mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells
and came back to mesophyll cells again requires
more energy so in six turns of cycle 30 ATP and
12 NADPH are required. Hence, the correct
answer is 30 ATP and 12 NADPH2
112.
Answer: 4
Sol:
The biodiversity shows a latitudinal and altitudinal
gradient. The higher temperatures in the tropics
cause higher rates of metabolism, ecological
dynamics and coevolutionary processes, which
generate and maintain higher biodiversity. This
ranks among the broadest and most notable
biodiversity patterns on Earth. Biodiversity
increases the resistance of ecosystem productivity
to climate extremes. In the temperate region, the
climate is severe with the short growing period
for plants while in tropical rain forests the
conditions are favourable for growth throughout
the year. This makes it possible for a large
number of species to occur and grow.
113.
Answer: 1
Sol:
In Pisum sativum, terminal leaflets is modified
into tendrils i.e. a slender wiry and coiled
structure made for support known as leaf tendrils.
Conical root is a modified tap root. In carrot,
roots are thicker at their upper side and tapering
at basal end.
Tuber is an underground modification of stem in
which tips of branches become swollen in the soil.
Hence, the correct answer is Pisum sativum.
114.
Answer: 3
Sol:
The radicle and plumule are present at the two
ends of the embryonal axis.
115.
Answer: 2
Sol:
In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin
overlapping shells, which fit together as in a
soapbox. The walls are embedded with silica and
thus the walls are indestructible. Thus, diatoms
have left behind large amount of cell deposits in
their habitat; this accumulation over billions of
years is referred to as 'diatomaceous earth'.
116.
Answer: 1
Sol:
In pedigree analysis, half shaded circle and
square are used for heterozygous for autosomal
recessive. Full shaded circle and square are used
for affected individuals. A square with a diagonal
line is used for death. a dot in a circle shows
the carrier individual for sex linked recessive.
117.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Class 11th NCERT Page No.212
118.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Species diversity is the diversity at the species
level. For example, the western Ghats have a
greater amphibian species diversity than the
eastern Ghats. Although India has only 2.4 per
cent of the world's land area, its share of the
global species diversity is an impressive 8.1 per
cent. That is what makes our country one of the
12 mega diversity countries of the world.
Megadiversity refers to the diversity in various life
forms. India is one of the megadiverse countries
where diversity of global species is found. There
are 4 biodiversity hotspots (the area where large
species diversity is present) in India.
119.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Sclereids are spherical, oval, or cylindrical,
highly thickened dead cells with a narrow lumen.
Sclereids are found in the fruit walls of nuts,
the pulp of fruits like guava, pear, and
sapota, and the seed coats of legumes. In tea
leaves, sclereids, also known as stone cells, are
also developed.
th
11 NCERT Page No.: 86 & 87
120.
Answer: 2
Sol:
A virus is an infectious agent that replicates only
inside the living cells of an organism. It lacks
their own metabolic machinery, so they infect
host cells and use the host's machinery to
reproduce. Viruses are obligate parasites because
they cannot multiply outside the living cells.
Hence, the correct answer is Virus.
121.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Transformation is a phenomenon by which DNA
isolated from one type of cell when introduced
into and able to give some of its properties.
A deoxyribonuclease (DNase) is an enzyme that
catalyses the hydrolytic cleavage of
phosphodiester linkages in the DNA backbone,
thus degrading DNA. So digestion with DNase did
inhibit transformation. Digesting enzymes
(proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes (RNases)
did not affect transformation, so the transforming
substance was not a protein or RNA.
122.
Answer: 3
Sol:
The glycolysis is common phase for aerobic &
anaerobic respirations both. Glycolysis involves a
series of ten biochemical reactions in cytoplasm.
In glycolysis, neither consumption of oxygen nor
liberation of CO2 take place. In glycolysis, 1
glucose, produces 2mol. of pyruvic acids (3C)
2NADH2 (equal to 8 ATP) & 2ATP are generated in
glycolysis.
123.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Scotoactive stomata are the stomata that open at
night due to organic acid metabolism and close
during the day. The stomata are found on the
lower surface of the leaves. eg. xerophytes.
124. 127.

Answer: 1 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The Fucus plant body is differentiated into three
regions; holdfast, stipe, and frond. Air bladders
are present that helps in providing buoyancy.
128.
The Dictyola plant body is in a flat shape which is
usually a ribbon-like structure with well-
developed branching.
Polysiphonia is a multicellular branched structure
that is filamentous too.
Porphyra has a thalloid form of structure.
Hence, the correct option is "1" - a -
Porphyra, b - Ficus, c - Dictyola, d -
Polysiphonia.
125.
Answer: 1
the physical position and functional role of a
species within the community
Answer: 2
Sol:
This is the "clover leaf-like" two dimensional
structure of tRNA in which (A) represents amino
acid binding side facilitated by OH group and (B)
represents tyc loop (Thymine-pseudouridine
residues) for binding with ribosome. D)
represents DHU loop. It is the binding site for
aminoacyl synthetase enzyme. C) Anticodon loop.
It has three bases that form anticodon for
recognizing and attaching to the codon of mRNA.

Sol:

Chargaff's equivalency rule - In a double stranded

DNA amount of purine nucleotides is equals to
amount of pyrimidine nucleotides.

Purine = Pyrimidine

[A]+[G] = [T]+[C]

Base ratio = A + T / C + G = constant for a given

species.

126.

Answer: 4

Sol:

When respiration is aerobic, pyruvic acid enters

into mitochondrial matrix. where pyruvic acid
(3C) is oxidised to form 2C compound Acetyl Co-
A. It occurs in presence of O2 and CO2 is released
first time during it.

Acetyl Co-A is a connecting link between

glycolysis & Krebs-cycle. Decarboxylation and
dehydrogenation (Oxidative decarboxylation) take
place during formation of acetyl Co-A.

Acetyl Co-A is formed in perimitochondrial space

by enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
(Mg++, LA (Lipoic Acid), TPP (Thiamine
pyrophosphate), NAD, CoA).
129.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic
catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol after it
enters the mitochondrial matrix undergoes
oxidative decarboxylation by a complex set of
reactions catalysed by pyruvate
dehydrogenase.
The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustav
Embden, Otto Meyrhof, and J. Parnas and is
often referred to as the EMP pathway.
In the electron transport system, the energy
of oxidation-reduction is utilised for the
production of proton gradient required for
phosphorylation; thus, this process is also called
oxidative phosphorylation.
The TCA (tricarboxylic acid cycle) starts with
the condensation of the acetyl group with
oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and water to yield citric
acid. The reaction is catalysed by the enzyme
citrate synthase. Thus, Option C is correct.
11th NCERT Page No – 228, 231, 232, 233
130.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Thallophytes lack differentiation of plant body into
the stem and leaves. The plant body is called as a
thallus. They lack vascular tissue, the sex organs
are unicellular and when multicellular, all are
fertile. So, the correct option is D.
131.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Population density in a given habitat is influenced
by four processes: mortality, emigration, natality,
and immigration.
Mortality is the number of deaths in
population during a given period of time.
Emigration: The number of people who leave a
given population in a given time period.
Mortality and emigration will, therefore,
decrease the population density while
natality and immigration will increase it.
132.
Answer: 3
Sol:
12th NCERT Page No. - 105
133.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Class 11th NCERT Page No.249,250
134.
Answer: 3
Sol:
The surface features of the earth are called
topography. Topographic influence on the
climate of any area is determined by the
interaction of solar radiation, temperature,
humidity, rainfall, latitude, and altitude. It
affects the vegetation through climatic variations
in small areas (microclimate) and even changes
the soil conditions. Topographic factors include
latitude, altitude, direction of the mountain,
steepness of the mountain, etc.
Biotic factors are the living parts of an
ecosystem.
The edaphic factors are the soil properties that
affect the diversity of organisms living in the soil
environment. These include soil structure,
temperature, pH, and salinity. Some of them are
influenced by man, but most are independent of
human activity.
Climatic factors are the temperature of the
region (climatic warming), the duration of the
ablation season, the proportion of winter and
summer precipitation, etc.
135.
Answer: 4
a
Sol:
Gibberellin was first isolated from
fungus Gibberella fujikuroi thus it was given
gibberellin name. It is a plant growth regulator. It
is involved in various processes like stem
elongation, germination, dormancy, leaf and fruit
senescence. Kinetin is a type of cytokinin, a plant
hormone. It was first isolated from sperm DNA
of herring fish. It helps in cell division.
 Biology - Section B
136.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Structure of Microsporangia-
A microsporangium appears to have a circular
outline when viewed transversely. It is
surrounded by four layers .The wall layers from
periphery to centre consist of:
A single layer of epidermis
A single layer of endothecium
One to three middle layers
A single layer of tapetum
The outer three layers protect the pollen and help
in the splitting of anther to release the pollen.
The tapetum nourishes the pollen grain. The cells
of the tapetum are multinucleated and have
dense cytoplasm. A young anther comprises of a
group of compactly arranged homogenous cells
called sporogenous tissue.
137.
Answer: 4
Sol:
In conjoint vascular bundles Xylem and phloem
are together. Collateral means both are present
on same axis and closed means absence of
cambium and hence no secondary growth. In
open type cambium is present which leads to
secondary growth of tissues.
138.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Layer of cell which is present in between
endodermis and vascular tissue is pericycle. The
pericycle is located between the endodermis and
phloem (vascular tissue) in plant roots. In dicot
stems, it is situated around the ring of vascular
bundles in the stele.
139.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Class 11th NCERT Page No.16
140.
Answer: 3
Sol:
Class 11th NCERT Page No.29
141.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Variable number tandem repeat (or VNTR) is not
associated with human genome project HGP.
A variable number tandem repeat (or VNTR) is a
location in a genome where a short nucleotide
sequence is organized as a tandem repeat. These
can be found on many chromosomes, and often
show variations in length (number of repeats)
among individuals.
Bioinformatics is useful in human genome project
as it identifies genes and their functions
While carrying out the procedure of HGP, DNA
fragments are inserted into cloning vectors BAC
and YAC to get them cloned.
Given a sample of DNA, an automated DNA
sequencer is used to determine the order of the
four bases: G (guanine), C (cytosine), A
(adenine) and T (thymine). Hence, it is very
useful in this project.
142.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Artificial ecosystem is characterised by high
productivity due to the human intervention. For
example, the weeds in a crop field are removed
and the crops are taken care of for high
productivity by treating them with fertilizers.
143. 148.

Answer: 4 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

Transcription ends in a process called termination. Through photosynthesis, certain organisms

Termination depends on sequences in the RNA, convert solar energy (sunlight) into
which signal that the transcript is finished. After chemical energy, which is then used to build
transcription takes place, the DNA molecule re- carbohydrate molecules. Producers such as
associates to form its original structure. plants, algae, and cyanobacteria use
the energy from sunlight to make organic matter
144. from carbon dioxide and water.
Answer: 1 Organisms release energy back into the biosphere
Sol: as heat. Energy also enters the ecosystem from
the interior of the Earth. Energy is different in
PEP carboxylase plays a key role of binding CO2 in that it comes into the biosphere and then leaves.
the form of bicarbonate with PEP to create
oxaloacetate in the mesophyll tissue. But Decomposers are organisms that break down
in rubisco, an oxygen molecule can bind in the dead or decaying organisms; they carry out
site are bind to carbon dioxide. decomposition, a process possible by only certain
kingdoms, such as fungi.
Kranz anatomy and C4 metabolism are found
dicots in hot climate. 149.

145. Answer: 3

Answer: 2 Sol:

Sol: Phenotypically females having rudimentary

ovaries, underdeveloped breasts, short stature,
The amount of energy at each trophic level webbed neck, abnormal intelligence suggests
decreases as it moves through an ecosystem. As Turner's syndrome.
little as 10 percent of the energy at any trophic
level is transferred to the next level; the rest is This syndrome occurs because of monosomy. Two
lost largely through metabolic processes as heat. conditions persist:
The efficiency with which energy or biomass is
transferred from one trophic level to the next is a) Fusion of abnormal egg with normal sperm.
called as the ecological efficiency. Consumers at
each level convert on average only about 10% of b) Fusion of abnormal sperm with normal egg.
the chemical energy in their food to their own
In normal conditions, there are 46 chromosomes,
organic tissue (the ten-percent law).
but in this condition, 45 chromosomes are
146. present.
Answer: 4 Persons who have 45 chromosomes develop
symptoms like rudimentary ovaries,
Sol:
underdeveloped breasts, abnormal intelligence,
Colour blindness is an X-linked disease. So, and face problems with hearing.
woman whose father was color blind will be
carrier for the disease. Hence, the correct option is "3" - Turner's
syndrome.
After looking at the crosses, the daughter born to
them can be either normal or carrier for the
disease, but the possibility of colour blindness is
zero percent.

147.

Answer: 3

Sol:

Class 11th NCERT Page No.228,231

150. Sol:

Answer: 3 (A) Sea anemone and Clawn fish-Commensalism

(B) Ophrys orchid and Ophrys bee-Mutualism

(C) Human liver fluke and Human-Parasitism

(D) Monarch butterfly and bird- Predation

(E) Parthenium and other plants-Amensalism

 Biology - Section C

151. 155.

Answer: 1 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

Class-11th NCERT-Page No.135 Heteropolymer is the polymer which is composed

of different types of monomers or it can be said
152. that the polymer can be formed by the two or
Answer: 4 more than different kinds of monomers. Proteins
are heteropolymers made of different type of
Sol: amino acids.
Protein primary structure is the linear sequence of
(ii) (iii) (v) amino acids in a peptide or protein. By
convention, the primary structure of a protein is
11th NCERT Page No. 40, 41 (Phylum porifera)
reported starting from the amino-terminal (N)
153. end to the carboxyl-terminal (C) end.
The C-terminus (also known as the carboxyl-
Answer: 4 terminus, carboxy-terminus, C-terminal tail, C-
terminal end, or COOH-terminus) is the end of an
Sol:
amino acid chain, terminated by a free carboxyl
NCERT 11th Page No.116 group (-COOH). When the protein is translated
from messenger RNA, it is created from N-
154. terminus to C-terminus. The convention for
writing peptide sequences is to put the C-terminal
Answer: 1
end on the right and write the sequence from N-
Sol: to C-terminus.so this statement is given in
antagonistic form .
Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory The long protein chain is also folded upon itself
structures in Platyhelminthes. like a hollow woollen ball, giving rise to the
tertiary structure. This gives us a 3-dimensional
Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of
view of a protein.
earthworms and other annelids. It help to remove
nitrogenous wastes and maintain a fluid and ionic
balance.

Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of

most of the insects including cockroaches. It help
in the removal of nitrogenous wastes and
osmoregulation.

Antennal glands or green glands perform the

excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.
156.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Red muscle fibres are dark red in colour due to
the presence of red haemoprotein called
myoglobin. Myoglobin binds and stores oxygen as
oxymyoglobin in the red fibres. Oxymyoglobin
releases oxygen for utilization during muscle
contraction.
Mitochondria are more in number . Red muscles
have less sarcoplasmic reticulum . They carry out
aerobic oxidation without accumulating much
lactic acid. Thus, red muscle fibres can contract
for a longer period without fatigue .
160.
Example: Extensor muscles of the human back,
Flight muscles of kites .
161.
157.
Answer: 4
Sol:
Class-11th NCERT-Page No.132 & 133
158.
Answer: 4
162.
Sol:
b and d
11th NCERT Page No. 42, 43 (platyhelminthes &
aschelminthes)
163.
159.
Answer: 4
Sol:
(A) In cockroach (Arthropoda) open blood
vascular system is found with colorless
haemolymph.
(B) 10 pair of spiracles are present on lateral side
of body.
(C) Fat body/urate cells, nephrocytes and uricose
gland are acessory excretory structures.
(D) 9 gangllia are found on ventrail nerve cord
i.e. 3 in thorax & 6 and abdomen
Answer: 2
Sol:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Class 11th NCERT Page No.298
Answer: 3
Sol:
The adrenal medulla produces norepinephrine in
response to low blood pressure and stress.
Norepinephrine promotes vasoconstriction, which
is a narrowing of the blood vessels, and this
increases blood pressure. Like epinephrine,
norepinephrine also increases the heart rate and
blood sugar levels
Answer: 1
Sol:
Class 11th NCERT Page No.311
Answer: 4
Sol:
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune,
neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in
the skeletal muscles that worsens after periods of
activity and improves after periods of rest. These
muscles are responsible for functions involving
breathing and moving parts of the body, including
the arms and legs
164. 169.

Answer: 3 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

During G1, most of the cell organelles increase
in number, and the cell rapidly synthesizes
different types of RNA and non-histone proteins.
In the s phase, replication of nuclear DNA
and synthesis of histone proteins take place.
Special materials required for this phase are
synthesized in the G2 phase. e.g., tubulin
protein, which is required for the formation of
spindle fibers. With that, some organelles and
non-histone proteins are also synthesized while
cell growth continues.
The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the
tendency of the recombined homologous
chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from
each other except at the sites of crossovers.
These X-shaped structures are called chiasmata.
During diakinesis, the terminalization of this
chiasmata occurs.
During zygotene, chromosomes start pairing
together, and this process of association is called
synapsis.

Hence, during the G2 phase, DNA is not Pachytene is distinguished by the appearance of
synthesized. recombination nodules, which are the sites of
cross-over.
165.

Answer: 4

Sol:

b and c only

11th NCERT Page No. 42, 43 (Ctenophora,

platyhelminthes & aschelminthes)

166.

Answer: 2
170.
Sol:
Answer: 4
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). Sol:

Class 11th NCERT Page No.282 Pila ( phylum mollusca) : The mouth contains a
file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.
167.
Bombyx (phylum arthopoda) : Respiratory organs
Answer: 4 are gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal
system.
Sol:
Pleurobrachia (Ctenophora) : The body bears
The midbrain is located between the
eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which
thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and pons
of the hindbrain. A canal called the cerebral help in locomotion
aqueduct passess through the midbrain. The ​ aenia (platyhelmithis) : Specialised cells called
T
dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion.
four round swellings (lobes) called corpora
quadrigemina. 11 ncert page 53

168.

Answer: 4

Sol:

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Pressure gradient less higher contraction increases
171. 174.

Answer: 2 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Neanderthal and Homo sapiens have a common Both statement I and Statement II are correct
ancestor, that most people think of as Homo
heidelbergensis. However, since Neanderthal and 11th NCERT Page No. 332 (Hypothalamus)
Homo sapiens interbred, so another way to think 175.
of this is to simply say that we are both just a
sub-species of Homo heidelbergensis. Answer: 1
Australopithecus was an immediate ancestor of
Homo erectus, the ancient form from Sol:
which modern humans arose. Homo erectus, In population genetics, directional selection, or
an ancestor to modern humans, arose at least 1.8
"positive selection," is a mode of natural selection
million years ago. Cro-Magnon man is the direct
in which an extreme phenotype is favored over
ancestor of the Homo sapiens. Cro-Magnon man's other phenotypes, causing the allele frequency to
fossils have been found in Africa. shift over time in the direction of that phenotype.
172. When DDT was not used, the DDT-sensitive
Answer: 2 mosquitoes dominated the DDT-resistant
mosquitoes. Their DDT-resistant property spread
Sol: to more and more members of the population, so
now the mosquito population is dominated by
When a stimulus is applied at a site on the DDT-resistant ones. It is also an example of
polarised membrane, the membrane at the directional selection.
site becomes freely permeable to Na+. This leads
to a rapid influx of Na+ followed by the reversal of 12th, NCERT, CH-7, Pg. No.- 137
the polarity at that site, i.e., the outer surface of
the membrane becomes negatively charged and 176.
the inner side becomes positively charged. The
Answer: 3
polarity of the membrane at the stimulus site is
thus reversed and hence depolarised. The Sol:
electrical potential difference across the plasma
membrane at the site is called the action Only statement A is correct
potential, which is in fact termed as a nerve
Class 11th NCERT Page No.337
impulse.
177.
173.
Answer: 2
Answer: 1
Sol:
Sol:
Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
After G2 phase of interphase prophase occurs -
Class 12th NCERT Page No.54
178.
Answer: 1
Sol:
• Diaphragms are barrier methods of
contraception. They cover the cervix and block
the entry of sperms.
• Contraceptive pills are preparations
containing either progestogens alone or
combination of progestogen and oestrogen.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well
as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent entry of sperms.
• Intra uterine devices increase the
phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
• Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural
method of contraception and it is based on the
fact that the ovulation and therefore menstrual
cycle do not occur during the period of intense
lactation following parturition.
179.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Glomus helps in the absorption of phosphorus
from the soil by plants. It is an arbuscular
mycorrhiza. Phosphorus is a major nutrient
required for the growth of plants.
Anabaena is a genus of nitrogen-fixing blue-green
algae, with beadlike or barrel-like cells and
interspersed enlarged spores (heterocysts), found
as plankton in shallow water and on moist soil.
There are both solitary and colonial forms, the
latter resembling a closely related genus, Nostoc.
In temperate latitudes during the summer
months, Anabaena may form water blooms.
180.
Answer: 2
Sol:
pBR322 is a plasmid and widely used E. coli
cloning vectors. pBR322 contains the ampR gene,
encoding the ampicillin resistance protein, the
tetR gene, encoding the tetracycline resistance
protein, and the rop gene, encoding a restrictor of
plasmid copy number. The plasmid has unique
restriction sites for more than forty restriction
enzymes. 11 of these 40 sites lie within the tetR
gene. There are 2 sites for restriction enzymes
HindIII and ClaI within the promoter of the tetR
gene. There are 6 key restriction sites inside the
ampR gene.
181.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Biolistics is one of the methods of transformation.
It is one of the methods of direct gene delivery
into host cells. It is also known as a gene gun. In
this method, plant cells are bombarded with
high-velocity microparticles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA. Gold or tungsten
are inert in nature, so they do not alter the
chemical composition of cells.
182.
Answer: 2
Sol:
In the separation of DNA fragments by gel
electrophoresis isolation of desired DNA
fragment: The separated bands of DNA are cut
out from the agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece. This step is known as elution. The DNA
fragments purified in this way are used in
constructing recombinant DNA by joining them
with cloning vectors.
183.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Actually, the Bt toxin protein exists as inactive
protoxins, but once an insect ingests the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut,
which solubilizes the crystals. The activated
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
cells and creates pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually cause the
death of the insect. The inactive protoxin in the
Bt toxin is converted into an active form in the
insect gut.
184.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains:
chain A and chain B, that are linked together by
disulphide bridges.
Insulin is in pro-hormone form( it contains
extra stretch called c-peptide) and needs to be
processed before it becomes fully functional
hormone(C-peptide is not present).
The main challenge for production of insulin using
rDNA techniques was getting insulin assembled
into a mature form.
Hence, the correct answer is option "1".
185.
Answer: 4
Sol:
1) The procedure for chemical safety testing /
toxicity is the same as that used for testing
toxicity of drugs - is correct
Chemical safety testing is known as
toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same
as that used for testing toxicity of drugs.
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in
testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on humans.
2) Transgenic animals are more sensitive to the
toxic substances than non-transgenic animals - is
correct
Transgenic animals are made to carry genes
which make them more sensitive to toxic
substances than non-transgenic animals. They
are then exposed to the toxic substances and the
effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals
will allow us to obtain results in less time.
3) Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice has
high vitamin A (retinol) content- is correct
Golden rice is Vitamin A and Fe – rich.
So answer is all of the above.
 Biology - Section D
186.
Answer: 3
Sol:
This overall ability of the host to fight the
disease-causing organisms, conferred by the
immune system is called immunity.
It can be of two types-Innate immunity
and Acquired immunity.
Innate immunity is non-specific type of
defence, that is present at the time of
birth.Innate immunity consist of four types of
barriers-Physical barriers(Skin
and Mucus),Physiological barriers(Acid,saliva
and tears),) Cellular barriers(PMNL-
neutrophils,monocytes and natural
killer),Cytokine barriers(interferons).
Acquired immunity, on the other hand, is
pathogen specific. It is characterised by
memory.The primary and secondary immune
responses are carried out with the help of two
special types of lymphocytes present in our blood,
i.e., B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
Hence correct option is C
187.
Answer: 4
Sol:
The diffusion membrane is made up of three
major layers namely, the thin squamous
epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar
capillaries and the basement substance
(composed of a thin basement membrane
supporting the squamous epithelium and the
basement membrane surrounding the single layer
endothelial cells of capillaries) in between them.
However, its total thickness is much less than a
millimetre.
188.
Answer: 1
Sol:
Health does not simply mean ‘absence of disease’
or ‘physical fitness’. It could be defined as a state
of complete physical, mental and social well-
being.
Health is affected by –
(i) Genetic disorders – deficiencies with which
a child is born and deficiencies/defects which the
child inherits from parents from birth;
(ii) Infections, and
(iii) Life style - That includes food and water we
take, rest and exercise we give to our bodies,
habits that we have or lack etc.
Hence, the correct answer is option "1" -
Only (ii).
189.
Answer: 4
Sol:
A transmembrane protein (TP) is a type of
integral membrane protein that spans the entirety
of the cell membrane. Many transmembrane
proteins function as gateways to permit the
transport of specific substances across the
membrane. Some integral proteins traverse the
complete thickness of membrane. These types of
protein are called as tunnel protein which passage
water soluble material across the membrane.
Glycocalyx is a highly charged layer of
membrane-bound biological macromolecules
attached to a cell membrane. Glycocalyx is also
involved in development and progression of many
diseases.
Extrinsic proteins are entirely outside of the
membrane, but are bound to it by weak molecular
attractions (ionic, hydrogen or Van der Waals
bonds). Hence, the correct answer is tunnel
protein.
190. 192.

Answer: 1 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
11th NCERT Page No. 334 (The Pituitary Gland)
191.
In eukaryotic cells, the cell cycle is divided into
two phases; the interphase and the M phase. The
M phase refers to mitotic division while the
interphase is the duration between two successive
mitosis divisions.

Answer: 4 Interphase It is the time during which a cell is

preparing for its division by undergoing cell
Sol: growth and DNA replication. There are three
phases in interphase: G1 phase, S phase, and
Blood coagulation occurs in the following G2 phase.
sequence:
Sl.
Whenever there is rupture of blood vessels or Phase Key event
No
damage is caused to blood, a complex of There is no DNA
substances called prothrombin activator
1 G1 phase replication in this
complex is formed.
phase.
The activators convert prothrombin into
During this process, DNA
thrombin.
replication occurs, and
Thrombin acts as an enzyme and converts the amount of DNA in the
fibrinogen into fibrin threads. 2 S phase cell doubles. However,
the chromosome
Fibrin threads accumulate and clump to form number in the cell
blood clot at the wound site. remains the same.

In this phase protein

synthesis
occurs to prepare the
3 G2 phase cell for mitosis division
and the cell continues
to grow.

It is given that the number of chromosomes in

the G1 phase in fruitfly = 8.

To find the number of chromosomes after the S

phase.

Since the number of chromosomes doesn't

change after the S phase, the number of
chromosomes in the fruitfly after the S phase will
be 8.
193. 196.

Answer: 3 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa) also known as 1) Cerebrum - voluntary activities. It is correct

posterior pituitary, stores and releases two
hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin,
which are actually synthesised by the
hypothalamus and are transported axonally to
neurohypophysis.
Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our
body and stimulates their contraction. In females,
it stimulates a vigorous contraction of uterus at
the time of child birth, and milk ejection from the
mammary gland.
Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and
stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes by
the distal tubules and thereby reduces loss of
water through urine (diuresis). Hence, it is also
called as anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
The two main types of cells in the Islet of
Langerhans are called α-cells and β-cells. The
α-cells secrete a hormone called glucagon,
while the β-cells secrete insulin.
Glucagon is a peptide hormone, and plays an
important role in maintaining the normal blood
glucose levels. Glucagon acts mainly on the liver
cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis 197.
resulting in an increased blood sugar
(hyperglycemia).
194.
Answer: 1
198.
Sol:
The ancestors were Australopithecus and they were also
having bipedal locomotion and their evolution is also very
complex as they did not evolve until 5 million years ago, there
were two evolutionary periods of hominins as they descended
from early Australopithecines.
199.
Australopithecines ate fruits and hunted with the help of
stones. They had small brains and a jaw which is protruding in
appearance.
Hence, the correct answer is option "1"
- Australopithecines.
195.
match
It is the most important part of brain because it
controls and regulates different part of brain. All
the body's voluntary actions are controlled by the
motor cortex in the frontal lobe of the cerebrum.
2) Cerebellum - body Balance. It is correct match
The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements
such as posture, balance, coordination, and
speech, resulting in smooth and balanced
muscular activity. It is also important for learning
motor behaviours.
3) Medulla oblongata - pneumotaxic centre. It is
incorrect match
In the pons, the pontine respiratory group
includes two areas known as the pneumotaxic
centre and the apneustic centre.
4) Spinal cord - reflex action. It is correct match
Spinal cord regulates and conducts the reflex
action.
Answer: 2
Sol:
Class 12th NCERT Page No.48
Answer: 2
Sol:
NCERT Page No. 64
Answer: 4
Sol:
1) Indian Basmati was crossed with semi-
dwarf varieties and claimed as an invention
or a novelty.

Answer: 3 2) Indian traditional herbal medicines, e.g.,

turmeric and neem, were also once attempted
Sol: to be patented by western countries because
of their curable or healing nature.
(A) is true statement but (R) is false.
Hence, the correct answer is option "D"—all of
Class 11th NCERT Page No.297
these.
200. Sol:

Answer: 3 Apparatus- Sparged stirred tank; Function-

Carry out fermentation bioreactor process