Motion Full Test 02 New Pattern

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
Motion Full Test-02 New Pattern
Bio-organic and Medicinal Chemistry (Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology,

Delhi)
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lOMoARcPSD|21985723
BRAHMASTRA TEST SERIES

NEET PATTERN TEST
FULL TEST - 2
FOR 12th + 13th STUDENTS
Date :– 22– 07 – 2021 Duration: 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Question paper is divided in to four parts botany, zoology, physics chemistry and each
part is further divided into two sections
Section A contains 35 Questions Section B contains 15 Questions. Please
ensure that the Questions paper you have received contains ALL THE QUESTIONS in
each Part.
2. In Section A all the 35 Questions are compulsary and in Section B Contain 15 Questions,
Out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
Each Question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct & carry 4
marks each. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Use only blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darkening the bubble.
2. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your OMR
answer sheet.
3. The Answer sheet will be checked through computer hence, the answer of the question must
be marked by shading the circles against the question by dark blue/black pen.
4. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and
Electronic Gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
Motion Education Pvt. Ltd., 394 - Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota-5 (Raj.)
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lOMoARcPSD|21985723
NEET PATTERN | Full Test-02

PART – I [BOTANY]
1. Which of the following statement is true 1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku ijh{k.kkFkZ ØkWl ds
about test cross : ckjs esa lgh gS :
(a) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
(a) F1ladj dk ,d nksgjs vizHkkoh thu izk:i ds
recessive genotype
(b) To determine whether F1 plant is
lkFk ladj.k
(b) ;g fu/kkZfjr djus ds fy, fd F1ikni
homozygous or heterozygous
(c) Cross between a homozygous le;qXeth gS ;k fo"ke;qXeth
dominant and heterozygous dominant (c) le;qXeth izHkkoh o fo"ke;qXeth izHkkoh ikni ds
plant.
eè; ladj.k
(d) Same phenotypic and genotypic
(d) leku y{k.k izk:i o thu izk:i vuqikr
ratio
(A) a and c only (B) b and c only (A) a vkSj c dsoy (B) b vkSj c dsoy
(C) a and b only (D) All except c (C) a vkSj b dsoy (D) c dks NksM+dj lHkh
2. In Mirabilus jalapa,RR × rr gives rise to 2. fejkfcfyl tykik esa RR × rr, Rr-xqykch iq"iks
Rr-pink flower. Characteristic pink dks c<+kok nsrs gSA Rr ikniksa ds vfHkyk{kf.kd xqykch
colour of Rr plants is due to : jax dk dkj.k gS :
(A) Partial expression of r (A) r dh vkaf'kd vfHkO;fDr
(B) Partial expression of R
(B) R dh vkaf'kd vfHkO;fDr
(C) Amount of pigment produced half as
(C) RR ikS/ks dh rqyuk esa o.kZd dh ek=k dk vk/kk
compare to RR plant.
mRiknu
(D) Red colour produced by R, get
(D) R }kjk mRikfnr yky jax] r }kjk mRikfnr
diluted by white pigment produced by r.
'osr o.kZd }kjk efUnr gksrs gSA
3. which following statement is not true, 3. nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk
for Sickle - cell anaemia :
dFku lR; ugha gS :
(A) This is an autosome linked recessive
(A) ;g ,d vfyaxlw=h lgyXu vizHkkoh y{k.k gSA
trait.
(B) The disease is controlled by a single (B) jksx ,yhy ds ,dy tksM+s HbArFkk HbS }kjk
pair of allele, HbA and HbS fu;fer gksrk gSA

(C) Out of the three possible genotypes (C) rhuks lEHko thuksVkbi esa ls HbSds fy,
usually homozygous individuals for HbS le;qXeth O;fDr;k¡ jksx n'kkZrh gSA
show's the disease. (D) ;g nks " k gheks X yks f cu v.kq dh chVkXyks f cu
(D) The defect is caused by substitution
J` a [kyk ds NBs LFkku ij os y hu ds LFkku ij
of valine (val) by glutamic acid (glu) at
Xyq V kfed vEy ds iz f rLFkkiu }kjk gks r k gS A
the sixth position of the beta globin
chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
Motion Education Pvt. Ltd.| 394-Rajeev Gandhi Nagar | : 1800-212-1799, 8003899588 | url : www.motion.ac.in | Page #2

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
4. In the following human pedigree, the 4. fuEufyf[kr ekuo oa'kkoyh es]a Hkjs gq, ladsr izHkkfor
filled symbols represent the affected O;fDr;ksa dk fu:i.k djrs gSaA nh x;h oa'kkoyh ds
individuals. Identify the type of given izdkj dks igpkfu, :
pedigree : I
I
II
II
III
III
IV
IV (A) X-lgyXu izHkkoh
(A) X-linked dominant (B) vfyaxlw=h izHkkoh
(B) Autosomal dominant (C) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh
(C) X-linked recessive
(D) vfyaxlw=h vizHkkoh
(D) Autosomal recessive
5. In a test cross involving F2 dihybrid 5. ijh{kkFkZ izladj.k es]a ftlesa F1f}ladj efD[k;k¡ 'kkfey
flies, more parental-type offspring were Fkh] iqu;ksx
Z t izdkj dh larfr;ksa dh rqyuk esa iSr`dh;
produced than the recombinant-type izdkj dh larfr;k¡ vf/kd mRiUu gqbZA blesa ladsr
offspring. This indicates : feyrs gSa fd :
(A) The two genes are located on two (A) nks thu nks vyx xq.klw=ksa ij fLFkr gSaA
different chromosomes (B) v/kZlw=.k ds nkSjku xq.klw= i`Fkd ugha gks ik,A
(B) Chromosomes failed to separate (C) nks thu lagyXu gS vkSj ,d gh xq.klw= ij
during meiosis fo|eku gSaA
(C) The two genes are linked and (D) nksuksa gh y{k.kksa dk fu;a=.k ,d ls vf/kd
present on the same chromosome thuksa }kjk gksrk gSA
(D) Both of the characters are
controlled by more than one gene
6. Incorrect statement is/are : 6. vlR; dFku gS :

(A) If two charged tRNAs are brought (A) ;fn nks vkosf'kr tRNA dks vR;Ur lehi
close enough, the formation of peptide
bond between them would be favoured yk;k tkrk gS ] rks muds chp isIVkbM cU/k dk
energetically. fuekZ.k ÅtkZRed :i ls vuqdqfyr gksxkA
(B) UTRs are required for efficient (B) dq'ky vuqoknu izfØ;k ds fy, UTRs
translation process.
(C) Operator sequence and repressor vko';d gksrs gSA.
proteins may be common for more than (C) vkWijsVj vuqØe rFkk laned izksVhu ,d ls
one operons vf/kd vkWisjksu ds fy, leku gks ldrk gSA
(D) Addressing of ELSI (Ethical, Legal,
(D) ELSI (uSfrd, oS/k, lkekftd eqn~ns) dks
Social Issues) is one of the important
lacksf/kr djuk HGP dk ,deq[; mnn~s'; gSA
goals of HGP

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
7. How many phosphodiester bonds are 7. 1000 bp {kkj ;qXe okys IykfTeM DNA esa fdrus
present in plasmid DNA having 1000 bp QksLQksMk,LVj cU/k gksrs gS \
?
(A) 1000 (B) 2000 (A) 1000 (B) 2000
(C) 999 (D) 1998 (C) 999 (D) 1998
8. One of the hallmarks of the proposition 8. f} dq.Mfyr ekWMy (okWVlu rFkk fØd) ds izLrko
of double Helix Model (Watson and dh ,d fo'ks"krk Fkh %
crick) was : (A) N-XykbdksflfMd vuqcU/k
(A) N-Gycosidic linkage
(B) ikWyh&U;wfDy;ksVkbM Jà[kyk dh nksuks LVªs.Ml
(B) Base pairing between the two
ds chp {kkj ;qXeu
strands of polynucleotide chains
(C) U;qfDyd vEy dh mRizsjdh; izd`fr
(C) Catalytic nature of nucleic acid
(D) C-eku
(D) C-value
9. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate 9. fMvkWDlh jkbcks U;wfDy;kslkbM VªkbQkWLQsV DNA

serves the dual purpose of ________ izfr d`rh;u dh izfØ;k es]a _______ rFkk______
and ________ in the process of ds nksgjs mís'; dh rjg iz;qDr gksrk gS :
replication of DNA : (A) ,Utkbe] lClVªsV
(A) Enzyme, substrate (B) mRizsjd] lClVªsV
(B) Catalyst, substrate (C) lClVªsV] ÅtkZnsusokyk
(C) Substrate, energy provider (D) ÅtkZ] mRifjorZu djus okyk
(D) Energy, mutage provider
10. Which suspect would you charge with the 10. vki fdldks vijk/k ds fy, vfHk;qDr ekuksxs ?
crime?
(A) 1 o 2 nksuksa lafnX/k

(A) Both suspect 1 and 2 (B) dsoy 1 lafnX/k
(B) Only suspect 1 (C) dsoy 2 lafnX/k
(C) Only suspect 2 (D) ukrks 1 lafnX/k uk gh 2 lafnX/k
(D) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2
11. -
11. Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs
in (A)
(A) Presence of light (B)
(B) Absence of light (C)
(C) Absence and presence of light (D)
(D) None of the above
12. Assimilatory power required for the

12. C4 6 CO2
assimilation of 6 CO2 in C4 plants is -
-
(A) 6 ATP, 6 NADPH2
(A) 6 ATP, 6 NADPH2
(B) 5 ATP, 2 NADPH2
(B) 5 ATP, 2 NADPH2
(C) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH2
(C) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH2
(D) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH2
(D) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH2

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
13. During the seed germination the activity 13.

of stored food hydrolyzing enzymes is
induced by
(A) ABA (B) Gibberellin (A) ABA (B)
(C) Auxin (D) Cytokinin (C) (D)
14. Formation of which tissue is example of 14.

dedifferentiation – (A)
(A) Inter fascicular cambium (B)
(B) Apical meristem
(C)
(C) Intra fascicular cambium
(D)
(D) Inter calary meristem
15. How many TCA cycles are required 15.

duiring the complete oxidation of one TCA
sucrose molecule ? (A) 4 (B) 2
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3
(C) 1 (D) 3
16. According to chemiosmotic theory of P. 16. Mitchell (1978)

Mitchell (1978), ATPs are synthesised ATP
on membranes due to the :
(A) Proton gradient (A)
(B) Electron gradient (B)
(C) Osmosis (C)
(D) From H2SO4 (D) H2SO4
17. As we go from species to kingdom in a 17.

taxonomic hierarchy, the number of
common characteristics (A)
(A) will decrease (B)
(B) will increase
(C)
(C) remain same
(D) may increase or decrease. (D)
18. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms 18.
belong to (A)
(A) Monera ( B)
(B) Protista
(C)
(C) Fungi
(D)
(D) Bacteria.

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
19. Syncytium mycelium is 19.

(A) Uninucleated, septate (A) ,
(B) multinucleated, aseptate ( B) ,
(C) multinucleated, septate (C) ,
(D) (A) And (B) Both (D) (A) (B)
20. Study the given figure of structure of 20. TMV ( )

TMV (tobacco Mosaic Virus) and select
the option that correctly identifies the
labellings A and B.
A B
A B
A B
(A) ssDNA Capsomeres
(B) dsDNA Capsomeres (A) ssDNA
(B) dsDNA
(C) ssRNA Capsomeres
(C) ssRNA
(D) dsRNA Tail fibres
(D) dsRNA
21. Causal organisms of sleeping sickness 21.

and kala-azar belong to which of the
following groups of protozoan protists?
(A) Amoeboid protozoans (A)
(B) Flagellated protozoans ( B)
(C) Ciliated protozoans (C)
(D) Sporozoans (D)
22. At least a half of the total CO2 fixation 22.

on earth is carried out through CO2
photosynthesis by
(A) angiospherms (B) gymnoperms
(C) algae (D) bryophytes. (A) ( B)
(C) (D)
23. Which out of the following does not 23.
belong to brown algae? (A)
(A) Gelidium, Batrachospermum
( B)
(B) Ectocarpus, Dictyota
(C) Laminaria, Fucus
(C)
(D) Sargassum, Ectocarpus (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
24. Which one of the following cannot fix 24.

nitrogen?
(A) Nostoc (A)
(B) Azotobacter ( B)
(C) Spirogyra (C)
(D) Anabaena (D)
25. Choose the option in which given life 25.

cycle pattern is correctly matched with
the plants in which it occurs :
(A) Haplontic Volvox, spirogyra

(A)
(B) Haplontic Gymnosperms, spirogyra
(C) Diplontic Bryophytes, pteridophytes (B)
(D) Diplontic Gymnosperms, Angiosperm (C)
(D)
26. Tetradynamous (2 short and 4 long 26. (2 4 )
stamens) condition is seen in - -

(A) Salvia (B) Mustard (A) (B)
(C) Datura (D) China rose (C) (D)
27. 27.
In the above diagram, (i) represents (i)

(A) Stipular tendril (A)
(B) Leaflet tendril (B)
(C) Stem tendril (C)
(D) Petiolar tendril (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
28. Some plants of arid regions modify their 28.

stems which contain chloroplast and
carry out photosynthesis. In this respect
Opuntia possess_______ stem and
Euphorbia possess _______stem.
(A) Cylindrical, flattened (A)
(B) Flattened, cylindrical (B)

(C) Broad leafy, broad leafy (C)
(D) Spinuous, broad leafy
(D)
29. Which of the following is false - 29.

I. Endosperm formation starts prior to I.
first division of zygote
II. Angiospermic endosperm is mostly II. 3N
3N while gymnospermic one is N. N
III. The most common type of III.
endosperm is nuclear.
IV. Coconut has both liquid nuclear IV.
(multinucleate) and cellular endosperm.
V. Milky water of green tender coconut V.
is liquid female gametophyte.
(A) I and II only (B) III only (A) I and II only (B) III only
(C) III and V (D) V only (C) III and V (D) V only
30. In cucumber and coconut autogamy is 30.

prevented but geitonogamy occurs
because - (A)
(A) Plants are dioecious
(B)
(B) Flowers are unisexual
(C)
(C) Flowers are bisexual
(D) Plants are monoecious (D)
31. Process in which embryo formation 31.
occur without formation of female

gametophyte - (A)
(A) Diploid parthenogenesis (B)
(B) Haploid parthenogenesis
(C)
(C) Apospory
(D)
(D) Adventive embryony

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
32. The given kind of age pyramid, the 32.

population is -
(A) Declining (B) Stable

(A) (B)
(C) Expanding (D) Extincting
(C) (D)
33. _______% of incidient solar radiation or 33.
______% of PAR is captured by plants

for the synthesis of organic matter _______% PAR _______%
(gross primary production)
(A) 2-10, 1-5 (B) 6-8, 12-16
(A) 2-10, 1-5 (B) 6-8, 12-16
(C) 30-35,60-75 (D) 1-5,2-10
(C) 30-35,60-75 (D) 1-5,2-10
34. On the basis of below diagram, select 34. a, b, c d

the correct option for a, b, c & d.
(A) a Reptiles, b Mammals, (A)a , b , c , d

cAmphibians, d Birds
(B) a , b , c ,
(B) a Amphibians, b Mammals,
d
c Reptiles, d Birds
(C) a Reptiles, b Birds, (C) a , b ,
c Amphibians, d Mammals c ,d

(D) aMammals, b Reptiles, (D) a , b , c ,
c Birds, dAmphibians
d
35. The extinction of passenger pigeon was 35.

due to (A)
(A) increased number of predatory birds
(B)
(B) over exploitation by humans
(C)
(C) non- availability of the food
(D)
(D) bird flu virus infection

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
Section B Botany 1. FkSyl

s hfe;k ,oa nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk nksuksa Xyksfcu
1. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are v.kq ds la'ys"k.k esa leL;k ds dkj.k gksrs gSaA mfpr
caused by a problem in globin molecule dFku dk p;u dhft,A
synthesis, select the correct statement
(A) nksuksa Xyksfcu Jà[kyk la'ys"k.k dh xq.kkRed =`fV
(A) Both are due to a qualitative defect
ds dkj.k gksrs gSaA
in globin chain synthesis
(B) nksuksa Xyksfcu Jà[kyk la'ys"k.k dh ifj.kkRed
(B) Both are due to a quantitative
defect in globin chain synthesis =`fV ds dkj.k gksrs gSaA
(C) Thalaseemia is due to less synthesis (C) FkSyl
s hfe;k Xyksfcu v.kq ds vYi la'ys"k.k ds
of globin molecules dkj.k gksrk gSA
(D) Sickle cell anaemia is due to (D) nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk Xyksfcu v.kq esa
quantitative problem of globin ifjek.kkRed leL;k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
molecules.
2. Name the enzyme that facilitates 2. vuqy[s ku ds le; Mh-,u-,- dh dqM

a yh dks [kksyus esa
opening of DNA helix during dkSulk ,atkbe enn djrk gS
transcription. (A) DNA gsyhdst
(A) DNA Helicase (B) DNA ikWyhejst
(B) DNA Polymerase (C) RNA ikWyhejst
(C) RNA polymerase (D) DNA ykbxst
(D) DNA ligase
3. As compared to a C3-Plant how many 3. C3- C4-

additional molecules of ATP are ATP
neededfor net production of one
molecule of hexose sugar by C4-Plants :
(A) (B)
(A) two (B) Six
(C) Zero (D) twelve (C) (D)
4. The transpiration is regulated by the 4. ok"iksRltZu dk fu;eu fuEu esa ls fdldh xfr ls
movements of gksrk gS
(A) Subsidiary cells of the leaves
(A) ifÙk;ksa dh lclhfM;jh dksf'kdk,¡
(B) Guard cells of the stomata
(B) LVksesVk dh xkMZ dksf'kdk,¡
(C) Mesophyll tissue cells
(C) ehtksfQy mÙkd dh dksf'kdk,¡
(D) Epidermal cells of the leaves
(D) iÙkh dh ckáRoph; dksf'kdk,¡
5. Facilitated diffusion can not cause net 5.

transport of molecules from a low to a
high concentration. because
(A)
(A) This would require output of energy
(B)
(B) This would require input of energy
(C) (A) (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
6. Nitrogen cycle involves many compounds. 6. ukbVªkstu pØ esa vusd ;kSfxd gSa lgh ukbVªkstu
Which illustration correctly depicts the pØ gS&
nitrogen cycle?
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
7. Cyanobacteria are classified under 7. lkbukscSDVhfj;k fuEu ds varxZr oxhZdr̀ fd, x,

(A) Protista (B) plantae gSa&
(C) Monera (D) Algae. (A)s izksfVLVk (B)s Iyk.Vh
(C) ekssusjk (D) 'kSokyA

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
8. Cells of this tissue are living and show 8.

angular wall thickning. They also
provide mechanical support. The tissue is
(A) xylem (B) sclerenchyma (A) ( B)
(C) collenchyma (D) epidermis. (C) (D)
9. Figures X and Y represent the 9. X Y
transverse sections of and
respectively.
X Y
X Y
(A)
(A) dicot root dicot stem
(B) monocot root monocot stem ( B)
(C) dicot stem monocot stem (C)
(D) monocot stem dicot stem (D)
10. Casparian strips are the bands of 10.
thickenings present on walls of
endodermis.
(A) radial (B) tangential (A) ( B)
(C) central (C)
(D) both (A) and (B) (D) (A) (B)
11. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of 11.

numers. What could be one of the
possibilities about certain organisms at
some of the different levels?
TC 10
TC 10
SC 50
SC 50
PC 500
PC 500
PP 1
PP 1
(A) Level PC is ''insects" level SC is
"small insectivorous birds" (A) PC '' " SC "
(B) level PP is "phytoplankton" in sea "
and "Whale" on top level TC (B) PP "
(C) Level one PP is "pipal trees" and the " TC
level SC is "Sheep".
(C) SC
(D) Level PC is "rats" and level SC is
(D) PC " " SC " "
"cats".

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
12. During process of ecological succession 12.

– (A)
(A) Species diversity decreases
(B)
(B) Niche becomes specialised
(C)
(C) Structural complexity decreases
(D) Food chain relationship becomes (D)
simple
13. Which of the following trophic levels are 13. xkSjs;k] fuEu esa ls fdu iks"kh Lrjksa esa vf/kf"Br gksrh
occupied by sparrow?
gS\
(A) Primary consumer, primary
producer (A) izkFkfed miHkksDrk] izkFkfed mRiknd
(B) Secondary consumer, top carnivore (B) f}rh;d miHkksDrk] loksPZ p ekalkgkjh
(C) Primary producer, secondary (C) izkFkfed mRiknd] f}rh;d mRiknd
producer
(D) izkFkfed miHkksDr] f}rh;d miHkksDrk
(D) Primary consumer, secondary
consumer
14. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical 14. ,d jklk;fud izks|ksfxd laLFkku ds fudkl esa yxk
industrial plant removes: gqvk LØcj gVkrk gSA
(A) particulate matter of the size 5 (A) 5 ekbZØksehVj ;k blls cMs d.kdh; inkFkZ
micrometer or above
(B) vkstksu rFkk ehFksu tSlh xSls
(B) gases like ozone and methane
(C) 2.5 ekbØksehVj ;k blls NksVs d.kdh; inkFkZ
(C) particulate matter of the size 2.5
micrometer or less (D) lYQj MkbZvkWDlkbM tSlh xSls
(D) gases like sulphur dioxide
15. Amount of inorganic substances present 15. fdlh ifjra= esa fo|eku vdkcZfud inkFkksZ dh ek=k]
in an ecosystem is ________. Energy ________ dgykrh gSA ÅtkZ izokg ikfjra= dh
flow is a ______ feature of ecosystem. ______ fo'ks"krk gSA
(A) Standing crop, structural (A) [kM+h Qly] lajpukRed
(B) Standing state, functional
(B) LFkk;h voLFkk] dk;kZRed
(C) Standing crop, functional
(C) [kM+h Qly] dk;kZRed
(D) Standing state, structural
(D) LFkk;h voLFkk] lajpukRed

lOMoARcPSD|21985723

PART – II [ZOOLOGY]
1. In human females, the eggs are 1. ?

liberated from ovary ? (A)
(A) Ovum (B)
(B) Primary oocyte (C)
(C) Oogonia (D)
(D) Secondary oocyte
2. Which of the following dipicts the 2.

correct presentation of various events (menstrual cycle)
during a menstrual cycle :- :-
(A) Menses  Secretory phase  (A)   
Ovulation  Follicular phase
(B) Follicular phase  Ovulation 
(B)   
Menses  Luteal phase
(C) Luteal phase  Ovulation 
(C)  
Follicular phase  Menstruation

(D) Menstruation  Proliferative phase
 Ovulation  Secretory phase (D)  

3. Cleavage is : 3. Cleavage
(A) The mitotic division starts as the
(A)
zygote moves towards the uterus
through Infundibulum of the fallopian
tube.
(B) The meiosis division starts as the (B) meiosis division
through the isthmus of the oviduct
oviduct
(C) The mitotic division starts as the
through the isthmus of the fallopian (C) mitotic division
tube. zygote
(D) The meiosis division starts as the isthmus of
zygote moves towards the uterus the fallopian tube
through the infundibulum of the oviduct
(D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
4. Select the correct matching in given 4.

column -I -II
Column -I Column - II i. A.
I. Non-Medicated A. Lippes loop IUDs
IUDs ii. B. 375
II. Hormone releasing B. Multiload 375 IUDs
IUDs iii. C. CuT
III. Copper releasing C. CuT
IUDs
IUDs
D. Cu7
D. Cu7
E. LNG - 20
E. LNG-20
F.
F. Progestasert
(A) I-B; II-E; F; III-A; C, D
(A) I-B; II-E; F; III-A; C, D
(B) I-B; II-A; F; III-C; D, E
(B) I-B; II-A; F; III-C; D, E
(C) I-A; II-B; F; III-C; D, E
(C) I-A; II-B; F; III-C; D, E
(D) I-A; II-E; F; III-B; C, D
(D) I-A; II-E; F; III-B; C, D
5. Fill in the blanks : 5. :

In animals like a , organs have a ,
associated to form functional system,
,
each system is concerned with a specific
physiological function. This pattern is
called b of organisation. b :
Options : :
Phylum Pattern
(A) (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Organ level
(A) (a) (b)
(B) (a) Aschelminthes (b) Organ level
(B) (a) (b)
(C) (a) Annelids (b) Organ
(C) (a) (b)
system level
(D) (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Organ (D) (a) (b)
system
6. Which of the following statements is 6. ?
wrong ? (A)
(A) Body of reptiles is covered by dry
and cornified epidermal scutes.
(B) Calotes is commonly called as tree
lizard. (B)
(C) Birds are homeothermic with sound
producing organ as syrinx. (C)
(D) Bat differs from bird by containing
diaphragm and ear pinna.
(D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
7. Sucking and Circular mouth without jaw 7.

is feature of :-
:-
(A) Urochordata
(B) Cephalochordata (A) (B)
(C) Cyclostomata (C) (D)
(D) Chondrichthyes
8. Which points are correct about 8. :-

cyclostomata class :- (a)
(a) Circulation is open type
(b) Devoid of scales and paired fins (b)
(c) Circular mouth with Jaw (c)
(d) Cranium and vertebral column are
(d)
cartilagenous
Options :- :-
(A) a, b, c, d (B) b, c, d (A) a, b, c, d (B) b, c, d
(C) b, d (D) Only b
(C) b, d (D) b
9. Which of the following is a correct 9.

match of animals and its two feature ? ?
Animal Feature
(Animal) (Feature)
True coelom, open type
(A) Nereis (true coelom)
circulatory system
present (A)
Pseudocoelom,
(B) Fasciola
circulatory system absent
False coelom, closed (Pseudocoelom)
(C) Ascaris type circulatory system (B)
present
Dioecious, open type
(D) Balanoglossus
circulatory system (false coelom)
present
(C)
(dioecious)
(D)
10. PTH regulates the homeostasis of 10. PTH

Calcium and Phosphates by :
(A) By decreasing blood calcium and (A)
increasing blood phosphate
(B) By increasing blood caclium and (B)
decreasing blood phosphate
(C) By increasing blood Magnesium and
(C) Ca++
decreasing blood Ca++
(D) By increasing blood Magnesium and
(D)
decreasing blood phosphate

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
11. Which of the following hormone is 11. (unorganized

secreted by unorganized endocrine endocrine gland)
gland.
(A) PTH (B) ACTH
(A) PTH (B) ACTH
(C) ANF (D)
(C) ANF (D) Somatostatin
12. In which of the following animals is 12.

correctly matched with its waste
?
product and excretory structures ?
Animal Waste Excretory (animal) (waste product) (excretory
product structure structure)
(1) Frog NH3 Kidney (1) NH3
(2) Earthworm Urea Protonephridia
(2)
(3) Cockroach Uric acid Malpighian
tubules (3)
(4) Prawn NH3 Nephridia (4) NH3
13. ANF is secreted by : 13. ANF :-

(A) Heart
(A)
(B) Kidney
(B)
(C) Neurohypophysis
(D) Adrenal gland (C)
(D)
14. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of
14.
skeletal system, may occur due to
:
(A) Immune disorder affecting
neuromuscular junction leading to (A)
fatigue
(B) high concentration of Ca++ and (B) Ca++ Na+
Na+ (C)
(C) decreased level of estrogen (D)
(D) accumulation of uric acid leading to
inflammation of joints.
15. What is true about RBCs in humans? 15. RBCs

(A) They do not carry CO2 at all
(A) CO2
(B) They carry about 20-25 per cent of
CO2
(B) CO2 20-25
(C) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2

(D) They transport about 80 percent (C) 99.5 O2
oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of
(D) 80
it is transported in dissolved state in
blood plasma 20

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
16. Given figure is showing spirogram of 16.

pulmonary volumes and capacities
6,000 ml
6,000 ml
B 5,000 ml
B 5,000 ml
4,000 ml
4,000 ml
A 3,000 ml
A 3,000 ml
C 2,000 ml
C 2,000 ml
D 1,000 ml
D 1,000 ml
Which represent expiratory reserve volume :

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
17. In which of the following disorder, the 17.

alveoli get filled with fluid leading to
severe problems in respiration?
(A) Common cold (A)
(B) Whooping cough (B)
(C) Diphtheria (C)
(D) Pneumonia (D)
18.
18. Which af the fallowing statement is not
correct regarding malarial infection?
(A) Plasmodium enters the human body (A)
as sporozoites through the bite of
freshly maulted female Anopheles
mosquito
(B)
(B) High fever recurring every three to
four days
(C) Sporozoites initially multiply within (C)
the liver cells and then attack the RBCs
resulting in their rupture
(D) When a female Anopheles masquito
(D)
bites an infected person, these parasites
enter the masquito's body and undergo
further development

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
19. The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline 19.

and steroids quickly reduces the ______
symptoms of
(A)
(A) Fungal diseases
(B) Viral diseases (B)
(C) Allergy (C)
(D) Helminthic diseases (D)
20. Smoking increases ___content in blood 20. ___

and reduces the concentration of
haembound oxygen. fill the blank
suitably
(A) Carbon dioxide (A)
(B) Carbaminohaemoglobin (B)
(C) Carbon monoxide (C)
(D) Carboxylic acid (D)
21. Which one of the following couple were 21.

suggested by Doctors to not have more
than one child
(A) Rh+ male and Rh– female (A) Rh+ Rh–
(B) Rh– male and Rh+ female (B) Rh– Rh+

(C) Rh+ male and Rh+ female (C) Rh+ Rh+
(D) Rh– male and Rh– female (D) Rh– Rh–
22. Match the column - I with Column-II: 22. -I -II :

Column-I Column-II -I -II
(a) P-wave (i) Depolarisation
(a) P- (i)
of ventricles
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation (b) QRS (ii)
of ventricles (c) T- (iii)
(c ) T-wave (iii) coronary
ischemia (d) T- (iv)
(d) reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation (v)
size of T-wave of atria
(v) Repolarisation
of atria (a) (b) (c) (d)
select the correct options: (A) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(A) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
23. Which statement is false regarding 23.

nerve
?
impulse?
(A) After applying a stimulus on (A)
polarised membrane, that site become Na+
freely permeable to Na+ and leads to
Na+
rapid out flux of Na+.
(B) The rise in the stimulus induced (B) Na+
permeability to Na+ is extremely short

lived.
(C) K+
(C) After depolarization K+ diffuses
outside the membrane and restores the
resting potential. (D)
(D) Ionic gradients across the resting
ATPase Na+ – K+
membrane are maintainined by the Na+
– K+ ATPase pump.
24. The cerebrum wraps around a structure 24.

called thalamus, which is- -
(A) A major coordinating centre for
(A)
sensory signal only
(B) A major coordinating centre for
motor signaling (B)
(C) A major coordinating centre for (C)
sensory and motor signaling
(D) Not a nervous part of a brain (D)
25. The genetic material of bacterial cell is 25.

localized within a discrete region, called as
(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (A) (B)
(C) Plasmid (D) Nucleoid (C) (D)
26. RER is well developed in cells engaged in the 26. RER

synthesis of :
(A) Nucleotides (A)
(B) Proteins (B)
(C) Lipids (C)
(D) Secretory products (D)
27. Autolysis is associated with 27.

(A) Ribosome (B) Kinetosome (A) (B)
(C) Lysosome (D) Golgi apparatus
(C) (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
28. The following diagram shows 28. –I

modification of the meiosis–I. Identify A, B, C, D
A, B, C, D.
(A) A – Telophase I, B –Anaphase I,

(A) A – I, B – I,
C – Metaphase I, D – Prophase I
C– I, D – I
(B) A – Prophase I, B – Metaphase I,
(B) A – I, B – I,
C – Anaphase I, D – Telophase I C– I, D – I
(C) A – Metaphase I, B – Telophase I, (C) A – I, B – I,
C – Prophase I, D – Anaphase I C– I, D – I
(D) A – Anaphase I, B – Prophase I, (D) A – I, B – I,
C – Telophase I, D – Metaphase I C– I, D – I
29. Chromosomes are arranged at 29.

equatorial plate of division spindle in
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase
(A) (B)
(C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
(C) (D)
30. Which of the following is not a 30.

vectorless method of gene transfer?
(A) Chemical mediated method of gene (A)
transfer
(B) Biolistics (B)
(C) Microinjection (C)
(D) ‘Disarmed pathogen’ (D) ‘ ’
31. The microorganism grown on molasses 31.

and sold as a food flavouring substance
is :
(A) Saccharomyces (A)
(B) Rhizopus (B)
(C) Acetobacter (C)
(D) Lactobacillus (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
32. To be a cloning vector, an artificial 32.

plasmid requires
(A) An origin of replication (A)
(B) An antibiotic resistance marker (B)
(C) Restriction sites (C)
(D) All the these (D)
33. Which of the following is used as vector 33.

for cloning genes into animal cells?
(A) Cosmid
(A)
(B) Retroviruses
(B)
(C) Ti- plasmid of Agrobacterium
tumefaciens (C) Ti
(D) Mycobacterium (D)
34. Which of the following technique is now 34.

routinely being used to detect HIV in AIDS HIV
suspected AIDS patients?
(A) ELISA
(A) ELISA
(B) PCR
(B) PCR
(C) Western blotting
(C)
(D) Molecular diagnosis
(D)
35. What is laevorotatory? 35.

(A) Fructose (B) Glucose (A) (B)
(C) Maltose (D) Sucrose (C) (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
Section B 1.
1. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide :-
an evidence in favour of :- (A)
(A) Special Creation
(B)
(B) Evolution due to Mutation
(C) Retrogressive Evolution (C)
(D) Biogeographical Evolution (D)
2.
2. Adaptive radiation refers to :- (A)
(A) Adaptations due to Geographical (B)
isolation.
(C)
(B) Evolution of different species from a
common ancestor
(C) Migration of members of a species to (D)
different geographical areas
(D) Power of adaptation in an individual
to a variety of environments
3. The concept of chemical evolution is 3.

based on : (A)
(A) Crystallization of chemicals
(B)
(B) Interaction of water, air and clay
under intense heat
(C) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals (C)
(D) Possible origin of life by combination (D)

of chemicals under suitable
environmental conditions
4. Connective tissue which stores fats and 4.

present under skin is :
(A) Areolar tissue (A)
(B) Adipose tissue (B)
(C) Dense regular tissue (C)
(D) Dense irregular tissue (D)
5. Cellular junction which helps to stop 5.

substances from leaking across tissue is
:
(A) Gap junction (A)
(B) Adhering junction (B)

(C) Tight junction (C)
(D) Desmosome
(D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
6. A group of animals related by descent 6.

and similar in most characters like
general apperance, features, size
configuration, etc., are said to belong to
(A) (B)
a:
(A) Variety (B) Species (C) (D)
(C) Strain (D) Breed
7. The given figure is a duct system of 7.

liver, gall bladder and pancreas.
a d
Identify the names of ducts from a to d
a
a
b
b
c
c
d
d
(A) a-Cystic duct; b-Pancreatic duct; c-
Bile duct; d-hepato-pancreatic duct (A) a- ; b- ; c-
(B) a-Cystic duct; b-Bile duct; c- ; d-
hepato-pancreatic duct; d-Pancreatic
(B) a- ; b- ; c-
duct
(C) a-Bile duct; b-Cystic duct; c- ; d-
Pancreatic duct; d-hepato-pancreatic
(C) a- ; b- ; c-
duct
(D) a-Cystic duct; b-Bile duct; c- ; d-
Pancreatic duct; d-hepato-pancreatic (D) a- ; b- ; c-
duct
; d-
8. The given figure shows a section of 8.

small intestinal mucosa showing villi. a d
Identify a to d
a
a b
b
c
c
d
d

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
(A) a-Crypts;b-Lacteal; c-Capillaries; d- (A) a- ; b- ; c- ; d-

Villi
(B) a- ; b- ; c- ; d-
(B) a-Villi; b-Lacteal; c-Crypts; d-
Capillaries (C) a- ; b- ; c- ; d-
(C) a-Lacteal; b-Villi; c-Capillaries; d-
(D) a- ; b- ; c- ; d-
Crypts
(D) a-Villi; b-Lacteal; c-Capillaries; d-
Crypts
9. Match the columns I and II, and choose 9. I II

the correct combination from the
options given.
Column I Column II
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
(A) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–5, e–4
(A) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–5, e–4
(B) a–1, b–4, c–2, d–5, e–3 (B) a–1, b–4, c–2, d–5, e–3
(C) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1, e–5
(C) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1, e–5
(D) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–5, e–2
(D) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–5, e–2
10. Match the columns and choose correct

10. Match the columns and choose correct
options.
options.
Column I Column II
(a) ANF (p)
(b) MSH (q)
(C) GIP (r)
(d) TCT (s)
(A) a–q, b–r, c–s, d–p (A) a–q, b–r, c–s, d–p
(B) a–s, b–p, c–q, d–r (B) a–s, b–p, c–q, d–r
(C) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r (C) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(D) a–s, b–p, c–r, d–q (D) a–s, b–p, c–r, d–q
11. Parturition is the process of giving birth 11.

to a baby.
(A)
it is controlled by
(B)
(A) Neural mechanism only
(C)
(B) Endocrine mechanism only
(C) Physical mechanism only (D)
(D) Neuro-endocrine mechanism

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
12. Which of the following is not a surface 12.

structure in becteria (A)
(A) Flaglla
(B)
(B) Pilli
(C)
(C) Fimbrae
(D) Cilia (D)
13. RNA interference is used for which of 13. RNA

the following purposes in the field of
biotechnology ?
(A)
(A) To reduce post harvest losses
(B) To develop a plant tolerant to
(B)
abiotic stresses
(C) To develop a pest resistant plant
against infestation by nematode (C)
(D) To enhance the mineral usage by
the plant.
(D)
14. In hardening process:

14.
(A) Plantlet is placed in reduced light (A)
and high humidity for short time
(B) Plantlet is placed in favourable (B)
conditions for long time
(C) Plantlet is transfered from lab to (C)
field conditions
(D)
(D) Plantlet is placed in highlight
intensity
15. Which of the following vegetative 15.

propagule represents large size fleshy
bud ?
(A) (B)
(A) Bulbil (B) Bulb (C) (D)
(C) Sucker (D) Rhizome

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
NEET PATTERN | FULL TEST -02)
PART - III [PHYSICS]
SECTION - A SECTION - A
1. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration
1. ,d oLrq A, a1 Roj.k ls fojke ls izkjaHk gksrh gSAa 2 lSd.M
a 1 . After 2 seconds, another body B starts
i'pkr~ vU; oLrq B, a2 Roj.k ls fojke ls izkjaHk gksrh gSA ;fn
from rest with an acceleration a 2 . If they travel
equal distances in the 5th second, after the
os 5 osa lSd.M esa leku nwjh r; djrh gS (A ds izkjaHk gksus ds
start of A, then the ratio a1 : a 2 is equal to i'pkr~), rc a1 : a 2 dk vuqikr fuEu ds cjkcj gksxk &
(A) 5 : 9 (B) 5 : 7 (A) 5 : 9 (B) 5 : 7
(C) 9 : 5 (D) 9 : 7 (C) 9 : 5 (D) 9 : 7
2. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s 2. ,d fi.M dks {kSfrt ls 45o ds dks.k ij 20 ehVj@lSd.M
making an angle of 45o with horizontal. The
ds osx ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ç{ksi iFk dk lehdj.k
equation for the trajectory is h = Ax – Bx2 where
h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are h = Ax – Bx2 gS] tgk¡ h-Å¡pkbZ] x-{kSfrt nwjh rFkk A vkSj
constants. The ratio A : B is (g = 10 ms–2) B fu;rkad gSA A : B dk vuqikr gksxk (g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 1 : 5 (B) 5 : 1 (A) 1 : 5 (B) 5 : 1
(C) 1 : 40 (D) 40 : 1 (C) 1 : 40 (D) 40 : 1
3. A 20 kg block is initially at rest on a rough 3. 20 kg æO;eku dk ,d xqVdk ,d [kqjnjs {kSfrt ry ij

horizontal surface. A horizontal force of fojkekoLFkk esa j[kk gSA xqVds dks xfreku djus ds fy, 75
75 N is required to set the block in motion.
N ds {kSfrt cy dh vko';dRkk gksrh gSA blds xfr esa gksus
After it is in motion, a horizontal force of 60
N is required to keep the block moving with
ds i'pkr~ xqVds dks fu;r pky ls xfreku j[kus ds fy,
constant speed. The coefficient of static 60 N ds ,d {kSfrt cy dh vko';drk gksr h gSA LFkSfrd
friction is ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad gksxk
(A) 0.38 (B) 0.44 (A) 0.38 (B) 0.44
(C) 0.52 (D) 0.60 (C) 0.52 (D) 0.60
4. A block of mass m initially at rest is dropped from 4. m æO;eku dk ,d xqVdk, tks çkjaHk esa fojkekoLFkk esa gSa, h
a height h on to a spring of force constant k.
Å¡pkbZ ls cy fu;rkad k okyh fLçax ij fxjk;k tkrk gSA
the maximum compression in the spring is x then
;fn fLçax esa vf/kdre laihMu x gS, rc
1 2
(A) mgh  kx 1 2
(A) mgh 
2 h
kx h
2
1 2
(B) mg(h  x)  kx 1 2
2 (B) mg(h  x)  kx
2
1
(C) mgh  k(x  h) 2 1
2 (C) mgh  k(x  h) 2
2
1
(D) mg(h  x)  k( x  h) 2 1
2 (D) mg(h  x)  k( x  h) 2
2
5. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a 5. 30 xz keds ,d d.k ij ,d cy bl çdkj dk;Z djrk gS
way that the position of the particle as a
fd le; ds Qyu ds :i esa d.k dh fLFkfr x  3t  4 t 2  t 3
function of time is given by x  3t  4 t 2  t 3 ,
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
ls nh tkrh gS tgk¡ x ehVj esa rFkk t lSd.M esa gSA çFke
work done during the first 4 seconds is pkj lSd.M esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk
(A) 5.28 J (B) 450 mJ (A) 5.28 J (B) 450 mJ
(C) 490 mJ (D) 530 mJ (C) 490 mJ (D) 530 mJ
: info@motion.ac.in, url : www.motion.ac.in, : 1800-212-1799, 8003899588 | Page # 27

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
6. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v 6. m nzO;ekudh ,d xksyh v osx ls pyrs gq, fojke ij fLFkr
strikes a block of mass M at rest and gets M nzO;eku ds ,d CykWd ls Vdjkrh gS rFkk bles /
embedded into it. The kinetic energy of the kal(embedded) tkrh gSA la;qDr CykWd dh xfrt mtkZ
composite block will be -
gksxh&
1 m 1 M
(A) mv2 × (B) mv2 × (m  M) 1 m 1 M
( m  M) (A) mv2 × (B) mv2 × (m  M)
2 2
2 (m  M) 2
1 ( M  m) 1 m 1 ( M  m) 1 m
(C) mv2 × (D) Mv2 × (M  m) (C) mv2 × (D) Mv2 × (M  m)
2 M 2 2 M 2
7. A 500 g ball is released from a height of 4 7. 500 g dh ,d xsUn 4 m dh Å¡pkbZ ls NksMh tkrh gSA
m. Each time it makes contact with the izR;sd le; ;g tehu ds lkFk lEidZ cukrh gS] ;g
ground it loses 25% of its energy. Find the bldh mtkZ dk 25% [kksrh gSA 3rd VDdj ds i'pkr~
KE it possess after 3rd hit : blds }kjk izkIr xfrt mtkZ gksxh&
(A) 15 J (B) 11.25 J (A) 15 J (B) 11.25 J
(C) 8.44 J (D) none of these (C) 8.44 J (D) bues ls dksbZ ugh
8. The force acting on a 4gm mass in the 8. foHko (Potential) {ks=k U = 8x2 essa x = –2 lseh- fcUnq
potential field U = 8x2 at x = –2cm is : ij j[ks 4 xzke ds æO;eku ij dk;Zjr cy dk eku gksxk%
(A) 8 dyne (B) 4 dyne (A) 8 MkbZu (B) 4 MkbZu
(C) 16 dyne (D) 32 dyne
(C) 16 MkbZu (D) 32 MkbZu
9. The density of the material of a wire used in 9. ,d Lojekih ds rkj ds inkFkZ dk ?kuRo 7.5 × 103 kg/m3
sonometer is 7.5 × 103 kg/m3. If the stress gSA ;fn rkj ij izfrcy (stress) 3.0 × 108 N /m2 gS]
on the wire is 3.0 × 108 N /m2, the speed of rks rkj esa vuqizLFk rjax dh pky gksxh -
transverse wave in the wire will be -
(A) 100 m/s (B) 200 m/s
(A) 100 m/s (B) 200 m/s
(C) 300 m/s (D) 400 m/s
(C) 300 m/s (D) 400 m/s
10. A ball is allowed of fall from a height 1.0 m. 10. ,d xsan 1.0 ehVj Å¡pkbZ ls i`Foh ij fxjkbZ tkrh gSA ;fn
If the value of the coefficient of restitution izR;koLFkku xq.kkad 0.6 gks rks VDdj ds ckn xsan fdl
is 0.6, then after the impact ball will go up
Å¡pkbZ rd Åij mBsxh&
to-
(A) 0.16 m (B) 0.36 m
(A) 0.16 m (B) 0.36 m
(C) 0.40 m (D) 0.60 m
(C) 0.40 m (D) 0.60 m
11. A ring and a solid sphere of same mass and 11. leku nzO;eku vkSj f=kT;k dh ,d Oky; vkSj ,d Bksl
radius are rotating with the same angular xksyk muds O;kl v{k ds ifjr% leku dks.kh; osx ls
velocity about their diameteric axes then :- ?kw.kZu djrs gSa rc%&
(A) it is easier to stop the ring (A) oy; ds :dus esa vklkuh gksrh gSA
(B) it is easier to stop the solid sphere
(B) Bksl xksys ds :dus esa vklkuh gksrh gSA
(C) it is equally difficult to stop both of them
(D) it is not possible to stop a rotating body (C) nksuksa ds :dus esa leku :i ls dfBurk gksrh gSA
(D) ?kw.kZu djrh gqbZ oLrq dks jksduk laHko ugha gSA
12. The rotational kinetic energy of a body is 12. ,d OkLrq dh ?kw.kZu xfrt ÅtkZ E gSA ckâ; cyk?kw.kZ
E. In the absence of external torque, if mass dh vuqifLFkfr esa] ;fn oLrq dk nzO;eku vk/kk gksrk gS
of the body is halved and radius of gyration
rFkk ifjHkze.k dh f=kT;k nksxquh gksrh gS rc bldh ?kw.kZu
doubled, then its rotational kinetic energy
will be :- xfrt ÅtkZ gksxh%&
(A) 0.5E (B) 0.25E (A) 0.5E (B) 0.25E
(C) E (D) 2E (C) E (D) 2E
Corporate Office : Motion Education Pvt. Ltd., 394 - Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota | | Page # 28

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
13. If the length of the day is T, the height of 13. ;fn fnu dh yEckbZ T gksa] rks TV mixzg tks fd i`Foh lrg
that TV satellite above the earth's surface ds Åij] i`Foh ls lnSo fLFkj fn[kkbZ nsrk gS] dh i`Foh dh
which always appears stationary from earth,
lrg ls Å¡pkbZ gksxh (R = i` Foh dh f=kT;k, M = i`Foh dk
will be : (R = radius of earth, M = Mass of
earth, G = Gravitational constant) nzO;eku, G = xq:Roh; fu;arkd) %&
1\3
 4 2GM 
1\3
 4 2GM 
(A) h    (A) h   2 
 T
2
  T 
1/ 2
 4  GM 
1/ 2
 4  GM 
(B) h    –R (B) h    –R
 T2   T2 
1 /3
 GMT 2 
1 /3
 GMT 2 
(C) h   2  –R (C) h   2  –R
 4   4 
1 /3
 GMT 2 
1 /3
 GMT 2 
(D)h   2  +R (D) h   2  +R
 4   4 
14. Poisson's ratio of a certain material is 0.2 . 14. fdlh inkFkZ dh ikWblkau fu"ifRr 0.2 gSA ;fn ml
If a longitudinal strain of 4 × 10–3 is inkFkZ dh le:i NM+ esa 4 x 10–3 dh vuqnS/;Z fod`
fr
produced in a uniform rod or this material,
mRiUu gksrh gS rks mlds vk;ru esa izfr'kr ifjorZu
the percentage change in its volume will
gksxk -
be-
(A) 0.24% (B) 0.32%
(A) 0.24% (B) 0.32%
(C) 0.48% (D) 0.56%
(C) 0.48% (D) 0.56%
15. A large tank is filled with water (density = 15. ,d cM+k VSad ikuh ¼?kuRo = 103 kg/m3) ls Hkjk
103 kg/m3). A small hole is made at a depth "B ls 10m uhps ,d N¨Vk fNæ fd;k
gSaA ikuh ds i`
10m below water surface. The range of
tkrk gSA fNæ ls fudyus okys ikuh dh tehu ij
water issuing out of the hole is R on ground.
What extra pressure must be applied on the ijkl R gSaA ikuh ds i`"B ij vfrfjDr nkc fdruk
water surface so that the range becomes yxkuk pkfg, ftlls ijkl 2R g¨ tk;s (1 atm =
2R 105 Pa v©j g = 10 m/s2):
(take 1 atm = 105 Pa and g = 10 m/s2) :
(A) 9 atm (B) 4 atm

(A) 9 atm (B) 4 atm (C) 5 atm (D) 3 atm
(C) 5 atm (D) 3 atm

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
16. Water from a tap emerges v erti cal l y 16. ,d uy ls ty 1.0 ehVj@lsd.M dh çkjfEHkd pky ls Å/
downward with an initial speed of 1.0 ms–1.
The cross-section area of the tap is 10–4m2. okZ/kj uhps dh v¨j fxjrk gSA uy dk ifjPNsn&{¨=kQy
Assumed at the pressure i s constant 10–4m2 gSA eku yhft, fd ty dh iwjh /kkjk esa nkc fu;r
throughout the stream of water and that the
flow is steady. The cross-sectional area of jgrk gS rFkk çokg LFkk;h gSA uy ls 0.15 ehVj uhps /kkjk
the stream 0.15 m below the tap is (g = 10 dk ifjPNsn&{¨=kQy gSA ( g=10 m/s2)
m/s2)
(A) 5.0 × 10–4 m2 (B) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
(A) 5.0 × 10–4 m2 (B) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
(C) 5.0 × 10–5 m2 (D) 2.0 × 10–5 m2 (C) 5.0 × 10–5 m2 (D) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
17. 5 gm of steam at 100ºC is passed into six gm 17. 100ºC ij 5 gm Hkki dks 0ºC ij 6 gm cQZ esa xqtkjk
of ice at 0ºC. If the latent heats of steam tkrk gSA ;fn Hkki rFkk cQZ dh xqIr Å"ek dSyksjh izfr xzke
and ice in cal per gm are 540 and 80
respectively, then the final temperature is - esa Øe'k% 540 rFkk 80 gS] rks vfUre rki gS &
(A) 0ºC (B) 100ºC (A) 0ºC (B) 100ºC
(C) 50ºC (D) 30ºC (C) 50ºC (D) 30ºC
18. The pressure of given mass of an ideal gas is 18. fdlh fuf'pr nzO;eku dh vkn'kZ xSl dk nkc P1 rFkk
P1 and its volume is V1. It is compressed vk;ru V1 gSA bls lerkih izØe ls laihfMr djds #)ks"e
isothermally and then expanded adiabatically #i ls izlkfjr djrs gSa tc rd xSl dk nkc izkjfEHkd nkc
till its pressure restores to initial value P1 and
P1 u gks tk;s rFkk xSl blds izkjfEHkd vk;ru V1 ij jgrh
then the gas remains its initial volume V1. The
above process can be correctly represented gSA mijksDr izØe dks fuEu lwpd vkjs[k esa lgh :i ls
in the following indicator diagram O;Dr dj ldrs gSA
P P P P
(A) P 1 (B) P 1 (A) P 1 (B) P 1
V1 V V1 V V1 V V1 V
P P P P
(C) P 1 (D) P 1 (C) P 1 (D) P 1
V1 V V1 V V1 V V1 V
19. The sensitiveness of a moving coil galvanom- 19. ,d pydq.My /kkjkekih dh lqxzkfgrk c<+kus ds fy;s
eter can be increased by decreasing fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks de djuk pkfg;s
(A) The number of turns in the coil (A) dq.Myh esa Qsjksa dh la[;k
(B) The area of the coil (B) dq.Myh dk {ks=kQy
(C) pqEcdh; {ks=k
(C) The magnetic field
(D) fuyacu dk çfr ,dkad ,Bu ;qXe
(D) The couple per unit twist of the suspension
(couple per unit twist)
20. A current carrying rectangular coil is placed 20. ,d /kkjkokgh vk;rkdkj dq.Myh dks ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks=k
in a uniform magnetic field. In which orienta-
esa j[kk x;k gSA fdl vfHkfoU;kl esa] dq.Myh esa ?kw.kZu dh
tion, the coil will not tend to rotate
ço` fÙk ugha gksxh
(A) The magnetic field is parallel to the plane
(A) pqEcdh; {ks=k] dq.Myh ds ry ds lekUrj gSA
of the coil
(B) pqEcdh; {k=k] dq.Myh ds ry ds yEcor~ gSA
(B) The magnetic field is perpendicular to the
plane of the coil (C) pqEcdh; {ks=k] dq.Myh ds ry ls 45° ij gSA
(C) The magnetic field is at 45o with the plane (D) lnSo fdlh Hkh vfHkfoU;kl esa gksxh
of the coil
(D) Always in any orientation

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
21. An iron rod of length L and magnetic moment 21. L yEckbZ o M pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ dh yksgs NM+ dks eksM+dj
M is bent in the form of a semicircle. Now its v)Z-o` Ùkkdkj cuk;k x;k gS] rks vc bldk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ
magnetic moment will be
gksxk &
2M
2M (A) M (B)
(A) M (B) 

M M
(C) (D) M (C) (D) M
 
22. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform 22. ,d pqEcdh; lqbZ dks ,d vleku pqEcdh; {ks=k esa j[kk tkrk
magnetic field. It may experiences gSA ;g vuqHko dj ldrh gS &
(A) A force and a torque (A) ,d cy vkSj ,d cy vk?kw.kZ
(B) A force but not a torque (B) ,d cy ysfdu ,d cy vk?kw.kZ ugha
(C) A torque but not a force (C) ,d cy vk?kw.kZ ysfdu ,d cy ugha
(D) Neither a torque nor a force (D) u cy vk?kw.kZ vkSj u gh cy
23. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of con- 23. ysUt dk fu;e fdlds laj{k.k dk ifj.kke gS
servation of (A) vkos'k (B) laosx
(A) Charge (B) Momentum (C) nzO;eku (D) ÅtkZ
(C) Mass (D) Energy
24. A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar 24. ,d rk¡cs dh oy; dks {kSfrt j[kk tkrk gS rFkk ,d NM+
magnet is dropped through the ring with its pqEcd dks oy; ds v{k dh fn'kk esa bldh yEckbZ ds lkFk
length along the axis of the ring. The accel- oy; esa fxjk;h tkrh gSA fxjrs gq, pqEcd dk Roj.k tc og
eration of the falling magnet while it is pass- oy; esa ls xqtj jgk gS] gksxkA
ing through the ring is
(A) xq#Roh; Roj.k ds cjkcj gksxkA
(A) Equal to that due to gravity
(B) xq#Roh; Roj.k ls de gksxkA
(B) Less than that due to gravity
(C) xq#Roh; Roj.k ls vf/kd gksxkA
(C) More than that due to gravity
(D) oy; ds O;kl vkSj pqEcd dh yEckbZ ij fuHkZj djrk
(D) Depends on the diameter of the ring and
gSA
the length of the magnet
25. A 20 volts ac is applied to a circuit consist- 25. 20 volts dk çR;korhZ foHko Js.khØe esa tqM+s çfrjks/k o
ing of a resistance and a coil with negligible çsjdRo ¼ux.; izfrjks/k½ ds lkFk tksM+k x;k gSA ;fn çfrjks/
resistance. If the voltage across the resis- k ds fljksa ij oksYVrk 12 V gks rks çsjdRo ds fljksa ij
tance is 12 V, the voltage across the coil is foHkokUrj gksxk
(A) 16 volts (B) 10 volts (A) 16 volts (B) 10 volts
(C) 8 volts (D) 6 volts (C) 8 volts (D) 6 volts
26. An alternating current is given by the 26. ,d izR;korhZ /kkjk i  i1 cos  t  i2 sin  t ds fy;s oxZ
equation i  i1 cos  t  i2 sin  t . The r.m.s. ek/; ewy /kkjk gksxh
current is given by 1 1
(A) (i1  i2 ) (B) (ii  i2 )2
1 1 2 2
(A) (i1  i2 ) (B) (ii  i2 )2
2 2
1 1 2 2 1/2
(C) (i12  i22 )1/2 (D) (i1  i2 )
1 1 2 2 1/2 2 2
(C) (i12  i22 )1/2 (D) (i1  i2 )
2 2

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
27. An  particle is accelerated through a p.d 27. ,d  d.k dks 10 6 V ds foHkokUrj ls Rofjr djus ij
6
of 10 volt then K.E. of particle will be d.k dh xfrt ÅtkZ gksxh
(A) 8 MeV (B) 4 MeV (A) 8 MeV (B) 4 MeV
(C) 2 MeV (D) 1 MeV (C) 2 MeV (D) 1 MeV
28. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle ac- 28. 150 oksYV foHko ls Rofjr ,d d.k dh Mh-czksXyh rjaxnS/;Z
celerated with 150 volt potential is 1010 m.
10 10 mgS rks 600 oksYV foHkokUrj ls Rofjr djus ij
If it is accelerated by 600 volts p.d., its wave-
length will be bldh rjaxnS/;Z gksxh &
(A) 0.25 Å (B) 0.5 Å (A) 0.25 Å (B) 0.5 Å
(C) 1.5 Å (D) 2 Å (C) 1.5 Å (D) 2 Å
  
29. An electric dipole of moment P is lying 29. P vk?kw.kZ dk ,d oS|qr f}/kzqo] ,dleku oS|qr {ks=k E ds

along a uniform electric field E . The work vuqfn'k fLFkr gSaA f}/kqo dks 90° dks.k }kjk ?kw.kZu djkus esa
done in rotating the dipole by 90° is : fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk &
pE pE
(A) 2 pE (B) (A) 2 pE (B)
2 2
(C) 2pE (D) pE (C) 2pE (D) pE
30. Electric bulb 50 W–100V glowing at full 30. 50 W–100V dk oS|qr cYc iw.kZ 'kfDr ij ped jgk gSA
power is to be used in parallel with battery bls 120 V, 10dh csVªh ds lkFk lekUrj Øe esa iz;qDr
120 V, 10. Maximum number of bulbs that
can be connected so that they glow in full fd;k tkrk gSA cYcksa dh vf/kdre la[;k D;k gksxh ftudks
power is tksM+us ij ;s iw.kZ 'kfDr ls pedsA
(A) 2 (B) 8 (A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) 4 (D) 6
31. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a 31. ,d lekUrj IysV ok;q la/kkfj=k dks V oksYV ds foHkokUrj ls
potential difference of V volts. After discon- vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA vkosf'kr cSVªh dks gVkus ds i'pkr~
necting the charging battery the distance la/kkfj=k dh IysVksa ds e/; nwjh dqpkyd gS.My dks iz;qDr
between the plates of the capacitor is in-
creased using an insulating handle. As a re- djrs gq, c<+kbZ tkrh gSA ifj.kkeLo:i IysVa ks ds e/; foHkokUrj
sult the potential difference between the (A) ?kV tk,xkA
plates. (B) ifjofrZr ugh gksxkA
(A) decreases (B) does not change (C) 'kwU; gks tk,xkA
(C) becomes zero (D) increases (D) c<+ tk,xkA
32. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are

32. izR;sd 4 F /kkfjrk ds rhu la/kkfj=kksa dks bl izdkj tksM+k
to be connected in such a way that the ef-
fective capacitance is 6 F. This can be done tkrk gS fd izHkkoh /kkfjrk 6 F gksA ;g lEHko gS &
by
(A) Connecting them in parallel (A) budks lekUrj Øe eas tksM+dj
(B) Connecting two in series and one in par-
(B) nks dks Js.khØe esa rFkk ,d dks lekUrj Øe esa tksMd
+ j
allel
(C) Connecting two in parallel and one in se- (C) nks dks lekUrj Øe esa rFkk ,d dks Js.khØe esa tksM+dj
ries
(D) Connecting all of them in series (D) lHkh dks Js.khØe esa tksM+dj

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
33. What is the dimension of the physical quantity ?kuRo

33. fuEu lehdj.k P = esa HkkSfrdh; jkf'k  dh foek
 in the equation, P = density , where P is 

D;k gksxhS] tgk¡ P nkc gS ?
the pressure ?
(A) ML2T–1 (B) ML2T–2
(A) ML2T–1 (B) ML2T–2
(C) L–3T2 (D) L–2T2
(C) L–3T2 (D) L–2T2
34. A fish is vertically below a flying bird moving 34. ,d eNyh Åij mM+ jgs ,d i{kh ds Bhd m/okZ/kj uhps gS
vertically down towards water surface. The i{kh m/okZ/kj uhps ty lrg dh vksj xfr'khy gSA eNyh dks
bird will appear to the fish to be i{kh mM+rk gqvk fn[kkbZ nsxk &
(A) bldh okLrfod pky ls vf/kd pky ls xfr'khy rFkk

(A) moving faster than its real speed and
also farther away from the real position.
mldh okLrfod fLFkfr ls nwj tkrk gqvkA
(B) moving faster than its real speed and (B) bldh okLrfod pky ls vf/kd pky ls xfr'khy rFkk
nearer than its real position. mldh okLrfod fLFkfr lss fudV A
(C) moving slower than its real speed and (C) bldh okLrfod pky ls de pky ls xfr'khy rFkk
also nearer than its real position. mldh okLrfod fLFkfr lss fudV A
(D) moving slower than its real speed and (D) bldh okLrfod pky ls de pky ls xfr'khy rFkk
farther away from the real position. mldh okLrfod fLFkfr ls nwj tkrk gqvk A
35. A nearsighted man can clearly see object 35. ,d fudV n` f"Vnks"k ;qDr O;fDr dsoy 1 m dh nwjh rd
only upto a distance of 1 m and not beyond Li"V ns[k ldrk gS] blls vkxs ughA bl nks"k ds fuokj.k
this. The power of the spectacles lens (in D)
necessary for the remedy of this defect will ds fy, mls fdruh 'kfDr ds p'es dh ysal dh (D esa)
be vko';drk gksxhA
(A) + 1 (B) –1 (A) + 1 (B) –1
(C) +3 (D) none of these (C) +3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
SECTION - B SECTION - B
1. The correct graph between v2 (square of 1. v2 (/ofu dh pky dk oxZ) vkSj xSl ds ije rki T ds e/
t he s pe ed of sound) and abs ol ut e
; lgh xzkQ gS -
temperature T of the gas is
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
2. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer 2. 1 kg nzO;eku rFkk 1.8 ?kuRo okys ,d CykWd dks lksuksehVj
wire carrying a block of mass 1 kg and density
rkj ls yVdkus ij 260 Hz ewy vko`
fÙk izkIr gksrh gSA tc
1.8 is 260 Hz. When the block is completely
CykWd dks 1.2 ?kuRo ds nzo esa iw.kZr;k Mwcks;k tkrk gS] rks
immersed in a liquid of density 1.2 then what
will be its new frequency ?
fÙk D;k gksxh ?
bldh ubZ vko`
(A) 300 Hz (B) 150 Hz (A) 300 Hz (B) 150 Hz
(C) 450 Hz (D) None of these (C) 450 Hz (D) bues a ls dksbZ ugha
3. A car moving at 20 m/s with its horn blowing 3. ,d dkj (n = 1200 Hz) gkWuZ ctkrh gq;s 20m/s ls]
(n = 1200 Hz) is chasing another car going at 15 m/s ls xfr'khy ,d vU; dkj dk ihNk dj jgh gSA
15 m/s. What is the apparent frequency of ftl dkj dk ihNk fd;k tk jgk gS mlds MªkbZoj }kjk lquh
the horn as heard by the driver being chased ? fÙk D;k gS? /ofu dh pky 340
xbZ gkWuZ dh vkHkklh vko`
Take the speed of the sound to be 340 m/s: m/s ysus ij:
(A) 1219 Hz (B) 1183 Hz (A) 1219 Hz (B) 1183 Hz
(C) 1275 Hz (D) 1083 Hz (C) 1275 Hz (D) 1083 Hz
4. Monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic gases

4. ,d ijek.kqd] f}ijek.kqd rFkk f=kijek.kqd xSlksa dks] ftudk
whose initial volume and pressure are same,
izkjfEHkd vk;ru rFkk nkc leku gS] muds vkjfEHkd vk;ru
are compressed till their volume becomes half
the initial volume. ds vkèks vk;ru rd laihfM+r fd;k tkrk gS A
(A) If the compression is adiabatic then
(A) ;fn laihMu :}ks"e gS rks ,d ijek.kqd xSl dk vafre
monoatomic gas will have maximum final
pressure. nkc vf/kdre gksxkA
(B) If the compression is adiabatic then
(B) ;fn laihMu :}ks"e gS rks f=kijek.kqd xSl dk vafre
triatomic gas will have maximum final
pressure. nkc vf/kdre gksxkA
(C) If the compression is adiabatic then their
(C) ;fn laihMu :}ks"e gS rks muds vfUre nkc leku gksxa sA
final pressure will be same.
(D) If the compression is isothermal then their (D) ;fn laihM+u lerkih; rks muds vfUre nkc fHkUu gksxa sA
final pressure will be different.
5. 8 gm O2, 14gm N2 and 22gm CO2 is mixed in a 5. 10 yhVj vk;ru 27ºC rkiØe okys ,d ik=k esa 8 xzke
container of 10 litre capacity at 27º C. The vkWDlhtu] 14 xzke ukbVªkstu o 22 xzke dkcZu Mkb&
pressure exerted by the mixture in terms of
vkWDlkbM fefJr dh tkrh gSA ok;qe.Myh; nkc ds inksa esas
atmospheric pressure will be –
feJ.k }kjk yxk;k x;k nkc gksxk -
(A) 1 (B) 3
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 18
(C) 9 (D) 18

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
6. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g 6. ;fn i`Foh dh f=kT;k R gS] rks i`
Foh ds dsUæ ls d nwjh ds lkFk
with distance d from centre of the earth is xq:Roh; Roj.k g ds ifjorZu dks fuEukafdr esa ls d©ulk d{k
best represented by (R = Earth’s radius) :
vkjs[k ¼xzkQ½ lgha n'kkZrk gS \
g g
g g
(A) (B)
d d (A) (B)
O R O d d
O R O
g g
g g
(C) (D)
d d (C) (D)
O R O R d d
O R O R
7. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft 7. fdlh eqyk;e inkFkZ }kjk cus gq, r f=kT;k dk ,d Bksl xksyk]
material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a ftldk vk;ru izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad ¼cYd ekikad½ K gS] ,d
liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless csyukdkj crZu esa fdlh nzo }kjk f?kjk gqvk gSA a {ks=kQy
piston of area a floats on surface of the liquid,
dk ,d nzO;ekufoghu fiLVu] csyukdkj crZu ds laiw.kZ
covering entire section of cylindrical container.
When a mass m is placed on the surface of
vuqizLFkdkV dks <drs gq,] nzo ds lrg ij rSjrk gSA nzo ds
piston to compress the liquid, the fractional laihM+u gsrq tc fiLVu ds lrg ij ,d nzO;eku m j[kk
 dr   dr 
decreament in the radius of the sphere  r  , is - tkrk gS] rks xksys dh f=kT;k esa gksus okyk vkaf'kd deh  r 
   
gksxh %
mg Ka
(A) (B) mg Ka
Ka mg (A) (B)
Ka mg
Ka mg Ka mg
(C) (D) (C) (D)
3mg 3Ka 3mg 3Ka
8. A ° at rest decays into 2 rays °  +. 8. ,d fLFkj °, -fdj.kksa esa fuEu izdkj fo?kfVr gksrk gS(
Then which of the following can happen °  + rc fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k gks ldrk gS &
(A) The two 's move in same direction
(A) nksuksa -fdj.ksa leku fn'kk esa xfr'khy gksrh gSaA
(B) The two 's move in opposite direction
(B) nksuksa -fdj.ksa foijhr fn'kk esa xfr'khy gksrh gSA
(C) Both repel each other
(C) nksuksa ,d nwljs dks izfrdf"kZr djrh gSaA
(D) Both attract each other
(D) nksuksa ,d nwljs dks vkdf"kZr djrh gSaA
9. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The con- 9. ,d (Ge) tesZfu;e fØLVy uewus esa Al v'kqf) ds :i
centration of acceptor atoms i s ~10 2 1
esa ekfnr fd;k tkrk gSA xzkgh (Acceptor) ijek.kqvksa
atoms/m3. Given that the intrinsic concen-
dh lkUnzrk ~1021 atoms/m3 gSA ;fn 'kq) voLFkk esa
tration of electron hole pairs is ~ 1019 / m3 ,
bysDVªkWu-gksy ;qXe dh uSt lkUnzrk ~ 1019 / m3 gks rks
the concentration of electrons in the speci-
men is uewus esa bysDVªkWuksa dh lkUnzrk gksxh &
(A) 1017 / m3 (B) 1015 / m3 (A) 1017 / m3 (B) 1015 / m3
(C) 104 / m3 (D) 102 / m3 (C) 104 / m3 (D) 102 / m3

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
10. The PN junction diode is used as 10. P-N laf/k Mk;ksM dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
(A) An amplifier (B) A rectifier (A) izo/kZd esa (B) fn"Vhdj.k ds fy,
(C) An oscillator (D) A modulator (C) nksfy=k ds fy, (D) ekWM~;wy's ku ds fy,
11. In case of NPN-transistors the collector 11. NPN-VªkfUtLVj ds fy;s laxkz gd /kkjk dk eku ges'kk mRlZtd
current is always less than the emitter current /kkjk ls de gksrk gS] D;ksafd
because: (A) laxzkgd Hkkx] i'p vfHkufr esa ,oa mRltZd Hkkx vxz
(A) Collector side is reverse biased and vfHkufr esa gksrk gSA
emitter side is forward biased
(B) vk/kkj Hkkx] esa bysDVªkWuksa ds [kRe gksus ds ckn 'ks"k Hkkx
(B) After electrons are lost in the base and
laxzkgd {ks=k esa igaqprk gSA
only remaining ones reach the collector
(C) laxzkgd Hkkx] vxz vfHkufr esa ,oa mRltZd Hkkx i'p
(C) Collector side is forward biased and
vfHkufr eas gksrk gSA
emitter side is reverse biased
(D) laxzkgd i'p vfHkufr esa gksus ds dkj.k de
(D) Collector being reverse biased attracts
bysDVªkWuksa dks vkdf"kZr djrk gSA
less electrons
12. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the 12. t = 0 ij fdlh jsfM;ks&

a ,fDVo inkFkZ esa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k
number of atoms is 8 ×10 . Its half life period
4
8 ×104 gSA mldk v)Z&vk;qdky 3 o"kZ gS] rc fdrusa
is 3 years. The number of atoms 1 ×104 will le; i'pkr~ 1 ×104 ijek.kq 'ks"k cpsaxsA
remain after interval
(A) 9 years (B) 8 years (A) 9 o"kZ (B) 8 o"kZ
(C) 6 years (D) 24 years (C) 6 o"kZ (D) 24 o"kZ
13. A carbon resistance has a following color code. 13. dkcZu izfrjks/k dk fuEu jax dksM gS] izfrjks/k dk eku D;k
What is the value of the resistance ? gksxk ?

(G = green, O = orange, Y = yellow) (G = gjk, O = ukjaxh, Y = ihyk)
(A) 5.3 M  ± 5 % (B) 64 k ± 10 % (A) 5.3 M  ± 5 % (B) 64 k ± 10 %

(C) 6.4 M  ± 5 % (D) 530 k ± 5 %
(C) 6.4 M  ± 5 % (D) 530 k ± 5 %

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
14. Two coherent sources A & B emitting light of 14. nks dyk lEc) L=kksr A rFkk B Øe'k% fLFkfr (–D, 0) rFkk
wavelength  are placed at position (–D, 0) (–D, 3) ij fLFkr gS rFkk  rjaxns/;Z dk izdk'k
and (–D, 3) respectively. Here D >> . The mRlftZr djrs gSA ;gk¡ D >>  gSA y-v{k ij fufEu"B
number of minima on y-axis and maxima on
rFkk x v{k ij mfPp"B dh la[;k Øe'k% gksxhA
x-axis respectively are
(A) 6, 5 (B) 5, 6
(A) 6, 5 (B) 5, 6
(C) 4, 3 (D) 3, 4
(C) 4, 3 (D) 3, 4
15. Three coherent, equal intensity light rays

15. rhu dyklEc) leku rhozrk okyh izdk'k fdj.ksa insZ ds P
arrive at a point P on a screen to produce
an interference minimum of zero intensity. If fcUnq ij igq¡p dj 'kwU; rhozrk okyk O;frdj.k fufEu"B
any two of the rays are blocked, the inten- cukrh gSA ;fn fdUgha nks fdj.kksa dks jksd fn;k tk, rks P ij
sity of the light at P is I1. What is the inten- izdk'k dh rhozrk I1 gks tkrh gSA P ij izdk'k dh rhozrk
sity of the light at P if only one of the rays fdruh gksxh] ;fn fdlh ,d fdj.k dks jksdk tk, \
is blocked? (A) 0 (B) I1/2
(A) 0 (B) I1/2 (C) I1 (D) 2I1
(C) I1 (D) 2I1

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
PART - IV [CHEMISTRY]
SECTION_A SECTION_A
1. Which of the following kinds of catalysis 1.
can be explained by the adsorption
theory?
(A)
(A) heterogeneous catalysis
(B)
(B) enzyme catalysis
(C) homogeneous catalysis (C)
(D) acid base catalysis (D)
2. Which of the following reactions is 2.

associated with the most negative
change in entropy ?
(A) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
(A) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
(B) C2H4 (g) + H2 (g)  C2H6 (g)
(B) C2H4 (g) + H2 (g)  C2H6 (g)
(C) C (s, graphite) + O2  CO2(g) (C) C (s, graphite) + O2  CO2(g)
(D) 3C2H2 (g)  C6H6 (g) (D) 3C2H2 (g)  C6H6 (g)
3. H = 30 kJ mol–1 , S = 75 J / k / mol. 3. H = 30 kJ mol–1 , S = 75 J / k / mol

Find boiling temperature at 1 atm. 1 atm.
(A) 400 K (B) 300 K (A) 400 K (B) 300 K
(C) 150 K (D) 425 K (C) 150 K (D) 425 K
4. Which statement comparing solutions 4.

with pure solvent is not correct
(A) A solution containing a non-volatile
solute has a lower vapour pressure (A)
than pure solvent

(B) A solution containing a non-volatile
(B)
solute has a lower boiling point than
pure solvent
(C) A solution containing a non-volatile (C)
solute has a lower freezing point
than pure solvent
(D) A solution will have a greater mass (D)
than an equal volume of pure
solvent if the solute has a molar
mass greater than the solvent
Motion Education Pvt. Ltd. | 394-Rajeev Gandhi Nagar | : 1800-212-1799, 8003899588 | url : www.motion.ac.in | Page #38

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
5. Which of the following azeotropic 5.

solutions has the b.p. less than b.p. of A B
the constituents A and B?
(A) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 (A) CHCl3 CH3COCH3
(B) CS2 and CH3COCH3 (B) CS2 CH3COCH3
(C) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3 (C) CH3CH2OH CH3COCH3
(D) CH3CHO and CS2 (D) CH3CHO CS2
6. A piece of copper and another of Ge are 6. 80 K Ge

cooled from room temperature to 80 K.
The resistance of:
(A) each of them increases (A)
(B) Cu increases and that of Ge
(B) Cu Ge
decreases
(C) Cu decreases and that of Ge (C) Cu Ge
increases
(D)
(D) each of them decreases
7. Hydrogen peroxide in aqueous solution 7.

decomposes on warming to give oxygen
according to the equation:
2H2O2(aq)  2H2O() + O2 (g)
2H2O2 (aq)  2H2O() + O2 (g)
under conditions where 1 mole of gas
1 24 dm3
occupies 24 dm3. 100 cm3 of X M
H2O2 X M 100 cm3,
solution of H2O2 produces 3 dm3 of O2.
Thus, X is : O2 3 dm3 X
(A) 2.5 (B) 1 (A) 2.5 (B) 1
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.25 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25
8. Common salt obtained from sea - water 8.

contains 96% NaCl by mass. The 96% NaCl 10.0 g
approximate number of molecules of
NaCl
NaCl present in 10.0 g of the common
salt is : (At. wt. Na = 23) ( Na = 23)
21
(A) 1021 (B) 1022 (A) 10 (B) 1022
(C) 1023 (D) 1024 (C) 1023 (D) 1024
9. The ratio of dissociation constant of two 9. HA HB

weak acids HA and HB is 4. At what 4
molar concentration ratio, the two acids
pH
will have same pH in separate solutions:
(A) 2 (B) 0.5
(A) 2 (B) 0.5
(C) 4 (D) 0.25
(C) 4 (D) 0.25

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
10. Which of the following is most soluble in 10.

water: (A) MnS (KSP = 8 ×10–37 )
(A) MnS (KSP = 8 ×10–37 ) (B) ZnS (KSP = 7 × 10–16)
(B) ZnS (KSP = 7 × 10–16) (C) Bi2S3 (KSP = 5 × 10–70)
(C) Bi2S3 (KSP = 5 × 10–70) (D) Ag2S (KSP = 6 × 10–51)
(D) Ag2S (KSP = 6 × 10–51)
11. If most probable velocity is represented 11. 'a'

by 'a' and fraction possessing it by 'f ' , ' f ',
then with increase in temperature which
one of the following is correct ?
(A) a increases, f decreases (A) a f
(B) a decreases, f increases (B) a f
(C) both a & f decrease (C) a f
(D) both a & f increase
(D) a f
12. If for a particular reversible reaction at :

12.
KC = 57 at 355ºC and KC = 69
355º KC = 57 450ºC KC = 69
at 450ºC then :
(A) H < 0
(A) H < 0
(B) H > 0
(B) H > 0
(C) H = 0
(C) H = 0
(D) H whose sign can’t be determined (D) H
13. Which one of the following on treatment with 13. fuEu esa ls fdls 50% tyh; NaOH ls mipkfjr
50% aq. NaOH yields the corresponding
djkus ij laxr ,YdksgkWy rFkk vEy yo.k izkIr
alcohol and acid salt
gksrk gS :
(A) C6H5CHO (B) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(A) C6H5CHO (B) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH3CHO
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH3CHO
14. Among the following sets of reactants
which one produces anisole? 14. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vfHkdkjd lewg ,sfulksy nsrk gS\
(A) CH3CHO ; RMgX (A) CH3CHO ; RMgX
(B) C6H5OH ; NaOH ; CH3I (B) C6H5OH ; NaOH ; CH3I
(C) C6H5OH ; neutral FeCl3 (C) C6H5OH ; mnklhu FeCl3
(D) C6H5 –CH3 ; CH3COCl ; AlCl3 (D) C6H5 –CH3 ; CH3COCl ; AlCl3
15. Compound [X], whose MF is C4H8O 15. ;kSfxd [X], ftldk v.kq lq= C4H8O gS tks
gives positive haloform test but not /kukRed gsyksQkWeZ ifj{k.k nsrk gS ijUrq 2, 4-DNP
gives 2, 4-DNP derivative, is O;qRiUu ugha nsrk gS] gksxk %
(A) (A)
(B) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO (B) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(C) (C)
(D) (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
16. Which of the following reagents cannot 16. izkFkfed ,sYdksgkWy dks ,sYMhgkbM esa ifjofrZr djus
be used to oxidise primary alcohols to ds fy;s dkSuls vfHkdeZd dk mi;ksx ugha fd;k tk
aldehydes? ldrk gS \
(A) CrO3 in anhydrous medium (A) vtyh; ek/;e esa CrO3
(B) KMnO4 in acidic medium (B) vEyh; ek/;e esa KMnO4
(C) Pyridinium chlorochromate (C) fifjfMfu;e DyksjksØksesV
(D) Heat in the presence of Cu at 573 K (D) Cu dh mifLFkfr esa 573 K ij xeZ djds
Me Me Me Me
H H
17. H H
Me 17. Me
H H
Hydrogenation of the above compound
fo"kSys isysfM;e mRizsjd dh mifLFkfr esa mijksDr
in the presence of poisoned paladium
catalyst gives
;kSfxd dk gkbMªkstuhdj.k nsrk gS :
(A) An optically active compound (A) ,d izdkf'kd lfØ; ;kSfxd
(B) An optically inactive compound (B) ,d izdkf'kd fu"Øh; ;kSfxd
(C) A racemic mixture (C) ,d jslsfed feJ.k
(D) A diastereomeric mixture (D) ,d foofje leko;oh feJ.k
18. Chlorination of toluene in the presence

18. izdk'k rFkk Å"ek dh mifLFkfr esa VksywbZu dk
of light and heat followed by treatment Dyksfjfudj.k rRi'pkr tfy; NaOH ds lkFk
with aqueous NaOH gives : mipkfjr djus ij nsrh gS:
(A) o-cresol (A) o-Øhlksy
(B) p-cresol (B) p-Øhlksy
(C) 2,4–dihydroxytoluene (C) 2,4–MkbZgkbMªksDlh VkWyb
w Zu
(D) Benzoic acid (D) csUtksbd vEy
19. In the following reaction : 19. fuEu vfHkfØ;k es :

H O/H

2
 A  B 2H O/H

 A  B
Major product Minor product Major product Minor product
The major product is :- eq[; mRikn gS :-
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
20. Number of Br atom in the final product 20. vfUre mRikn es Br ijek.kq dh la[;k gS&
is NH2
NH2
(i) Br2/H2O
(i) Br2/H2O (ii) NaNO2, H2SO4(0–5°C)
(ii) NaNO2, H2SO4(0–5°C) (ii) CuBr
(ii) CuBr
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
21. CH3CONH2, Br2 & KOH give CH3NH2 as 21. CH3CONH2, Br2 rFkk KOH eq[; mRikn ds :i esa
the product. The intermediates of the CH3NH2 nsrk gSA vfHkfØ;k ds e/;orhZ gksxs&
a
reaction are O
O (a)
(a) CH3 – C – NHBr
CH3 – C – NHBr (b) CH3 – N = C = O
(b) CH3 – N = C = O (c) CH3NHBr
(c) CH3NHBr O
O Br
Br (d) CH – C – N
3
(d) CH3 – C – N Br
Br lgh mÙkj gS :
The correct answer is: (A) a, b (B) a, c
(A) a, b (B) a, c (C) b, d (D) c, d
(C) b, d (D) c, d
22. Which of the following organic 22.
compounds has same hybridization as CO2
its combustion product CO2? (A) (B)
(A) Ethane (B) Ethyne
(C) (D)
(C) Ethene (D) Ethanol
23. Which of the following conformers for 23.

ethylene glycol is most stable :- :-
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
24. 24.
Br Br
Aq.AgNO3
Aq.AgNO3
(a)
(a)
Br Br
Aq.AgNO3
Aq.AgNO3
(b)
(b)
Rate of reaction (a) and (b) is : (a) (b) :

(A) a > b (B) a = b
(A) a > b (B) a = b
(C) b > a (D) None
(C) b > a (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
25. Choose the correct order of the 25.

following: (A) N–H > P–H > As–H > Sb–H
(A) N–H > P–H > As–H > Sb–H :
: Polarity order
(B) Mg2+(aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Ba2+ (aq)
2+ 2+ 2+
(B) Mg (aq) > Sr (aq) > Ba (aq)
:
: Hydrated radius order
(C) Mg2+(aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Ba2+ (aq)
(C) Mg2+(aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Ba2+ (aq)
:
: Ionic mobility order
(D) NaF > MgO > SrO (D) NaF > MgO > SrO
: Lattice energy order :
26. The bond order of X–O bond in HPO32– 26. HPO32– ClO4¯ X–O
and ClO4¯ are respectively.
(A) 1.25 and 1.75 (B) 1.33 and 1.25 (A) 1.25 1.75 (B) 1.33 1.25
(C) 1.33 and 1.33 (D) 1.33 and 1.75 (C) 1.33 1.33 (D) 1.33 1.75
27. Find out the incorrect order of the 27.

dipole moment among the following pair
of compound (A) NH3 > NF3
(A) NH3 > NF3 (B) p- < o-
(B) p-nitrophenol < o-nitrophenol
(C) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2
(C) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2
(D) SiF4 < SF4
(D) SiF4 < SF4
O OO O
O OO O
N — N 2
y
28. N—
x N 
N — N 2
y
N—
x N  1
28. 1
O O O
O O O
Choose correct option :
(A) x > y (B) x = y (A) x > y (B) x = y
(C) 1 > 2 (D) 1 < 2 (C) 1 > 2 (D) 1 < 2
29. Li does not resemble other alkali metals 29. Li

in following properties : :
(A) Li2CO3 decomposes into oxides while
(A) Li2CO3
other alkali metal carbonates are
thermally stable (B) LiCl
(B) LiCl is predominantly covalent (C) Li3N

(C) Li3N is stable
(D)
(D) all are correct

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
30. Which of the following species is/are 30. / :

diamagnetic.
(I) O2 (II) O2
(I) O2 (II) O2
(III) O2 (IV) O22 
(III) O2 (IV) O22 
(V) O3
(V) O3
(A) O2 , O2 (B) O2 O22 
(A) O2 , O2 (B) O2 and O22 
(C) O22  only (D) O2 , O3 (C) O22  (D) O2 , O3
31. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only 31.

in presence of :
(A) dry air (B) moisture (A) (B)
(C) sunlight (D) pure oxygen (C) (D)
32. Which of the following is a high spin 32.

complex ? (A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]4– (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [FeF6]3–
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [FeF6]3–
2+
2+ 33. [Pt(NH3)4]
33. The complex [Pt(NH3)4] has .....
structure : (A) (B)
(A) square planar (B) tetrahedral (C) (D)
(C) pyramidal (D) pentagonal
34. Which of the following factor may be 34.

regarded as the main cause of
Lanthanide contraction ? (A)
(A) Poor shielding of 4 f-electrons in
4 f-
compare to other electrons in the
sub-shell.
(B) Effective shielding of one of the 4 f- (B) 4 f-
electrons by another in the sub-
shell.
(C) 4f- 5 d
(C) Poorer shielding of 5 d electron by 4
f- electrons.
(D) Greater shielding of 5 d electron by (D) 4f- 5 d
4 f- electron.
2+ 2+ 3+
35. Of the ions Zn , Ni and Cr (atomic 2+ 2+ 3+
35. Zn , Ni Cr (
number Zn = 30, Ni = 28, Cr = 24) :
2+ 2+
Zn = 30, Ni = 28, Cr = 24)
(A) only Zn is colourless and Ni and 2+ 2+ 3+
3+
(A) Zn Ni Cr
Cr are coloured.
(B) all three are colourless.
(B)
(C) all three are coloured.
2+ 2+ (C)
(D) only Ni is coloured and Zn and 2+ 2+ 3+
3+ (D) Ni Zn Cr
Cr are colourless.

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
SECTION_B SECTION_B
1. The resistance of a solution ‘A’ is 40 1. ‘A’ 40 ‘B’
ohm and that of solution ‘B’ is 70 ohm, 70
both solutions being taken in the same
‘A’
conductivity cell. If equal volumes of
solutions ‘A’ and ‘B’ are mixed, what will ‘B’
be the resistance of the mixture using

the same cell ? (Assume that there is no ( ‘A’ ‘B’
increase in the degree of dissociation of
)
‘A’ and ‘B’ on mixing.)
(A) 50.9 (B) 101.8
(A) 50.9 ohm (B) 101.8 ohm
(C) 110 ohm (D) 50 ohm (C) 110 (D) 50
2. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is stirred 2. CuSO4

with a silver spoon. The following will
happen -
+
(A) Cu+
(A) Cu will be formed
(B) Ag+
(B) Ag+ will be formed
(C) Cu will be precipitated (C) Cu
(D) Nothing will happen (D)
3. If uncertainty in position and 3.

momentum are equal, then uncertainty
in velocity is ?
h 1 h h 1 h
(A) (B) (A) (B)
π 2m π π 2m π
h 1 h h 1 h
(C) (D) (C) (D)
2π m π 2π m π
4. Which one of the following is incorrect 4.

for ideal solution ?
(A) Gmix = 0 (A) Gmix = 0
(B) Hmix = 0 (B) Hmix = 0
(C) Umix = 0 (C) Umix = 0
(D) P = Pobs – Pcalculated by Rault's law = 0 (D) P = Pobs – Pcalculated by Rault's law = 0
5. Lithium metal crystallises in a body 5.

centred cubic crystal. If the length of
the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 351 pm
pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will
be :-
(A) 300.5 pm (B) 240.8 pm
(A) 300.5 pm (B) 240.8 pm
(C) 151.8 pm (D) 75.5 pm
(C) 151.8 pm (D) 75.5 pm

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
6. Mechanism involved and product 6. tc 3-vk;ksMks-3-,sFkhyisUVsu dks esFksukWy es

obtained when 3-iodo-3-ethylpentane is lksfM;e feFkkWDlkbM ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k tkrk
treated with sodium methoxide in gS] rks izkIr mRikn rFkk fØ;kfof/k gksxh :
methanol is :
(A) bZFkj, SN1 (B) ,Ydhu, E1
(A) Ether, SN1 (B) Alkene, E1
(C) bZFkj, E1 (D) ,Ydhu, E2
(C) Ether, E1 (D) Alkene, E2
7. Select the incorrect statement about 7. ukbykWu-2-ukbykWu-6 ds fy;s vlR; dFku gSA
Nylon-2-nylon-6. (A) ;g lgcgqyd gS
(A) It is a copolymer (B) ;g tSofuEuhdj.kh; cgqyd gS
(B) It is biodegradable (C) ;g ,d ,dkUrj ikWfy,ekbM gS
(C) It is an alternating polyamide
(D) ;g rFkk H2N(CH2)5
(D) It is made up of
COOH dk cuk gksrk gS
and H2N(CH2)5COOH.
8. Veronal, a barbituric drug is used as a : 8. osjksuy] ,d ckchZV;wfjd vkS’kf/k fdl fy, iz;qDr
(A) Anaesthetic (B) Sedative gksrh gS &
(A) fu”psrd (B) “kked
(C) Antiseptic (D) Antipyretic.
(C) iqfrjks/kh (D) Tojuk”kh
9. Which of the nitrogen of histidine is first 9. fgLVhMhu dk dkSulk ukbVªkstu igys izksVksuhd`r
protonated ? gksxk ?
(A)  (B)  (A)  (B) 

(C) nksuks (D) dksbZ ugh
(C) Both (D) None
10. Which of the following is not the product 10. ds futZyhdj.k dk fuEu esa ls
of dehydration of ?
dkSulk mRikn ugha gS?
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)

lOMoARcPSD|21985723
11. High purity copper metal is obtained 11.

by :
(A) carbon reduction (A)
(B) hydrogen reduction (B)
(C) electrolytic reduction (C)
(D) thermite reduction (D)
12. The decrease in stability of higher 12. p-

oxidation state in p–block with
increasing atomic number is due to :
(A) increase in bond energy as going (A)
down the group.
(B) the reluctance of s-sub shell
(B) s-
electrons to participate in the
chemical bonding.
(C) both are correct. (C)
(D) none is correct. (D)
13. Which of the following is the correct 13. ?

order of ionisation energy ? 2– – + 2+
(A) O < F < Na < Mg
2– – + 2+
(A) O < F < Na < Mg – 2– + 2+
– 2– + 2+
(B) F < O < Na < Mg
(B) F < O < Na < Mg 2– + – 2+
2– + – 2+ (C) O < Na < F < Mg
(C) O < Na < F < Mg
2+ + – 2–
2+ + – 2– (D) Mg < Na < F < O
(D) Mg < Na < F < O
14. The solubilities of carbonates decrease 14. Mg

down the magnesium group due to a
decrease in :
(A) hydration energies of cations (A)
(B) inter ionic interaction (B)
(C) entropy of solution formation (C)
(D) lattice energies of solids. (D)
15. IE(I) and IE(II) of Mg are 178 and 348 15. Mg IE(I) IE(II) 178 348
kcalmol-1. The energy required for the kcalmol-1 Mg  Mg2+ + 2e–
reaction Mg  Mg2+ + 2e– is :
(A) + 170 kcal (B) +526 kcal
(A) + 170 kcal (B) +526 kcal
(C) – 170 kcal (D) –526 kcal
(C) – 170 kcal (D) –526 kcal

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Bio-organic and Medicinal Chemistry (Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology,

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BRAHMASTRA TEST SERIES

Date :– 22– 07 – 2021 Duration: 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720

part is further divided into two sections

Section A contains 35 Questions Section B contains 15 Questions. Please

Out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.

marks each. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

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pair of allele, HbA and HbS fu;fer gksrk gSA

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6. Incorrect statement is/are : 6. vlR; dFku gS :

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9. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate 9. fMvkWDlh jkbcks U;wfDy;kslkbM VªkbQkWLQsV DNA

(A) 1 o 2 nksuksa lafnX/k

12. Assimilatory power required for the

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13. During the seed germination the activity 13.

14. Formation of which tissue is example of 14.

15. How many TCA cycles are required 15.

16. According to chemiosmotic theory of P. 16. Mitchell (1978)

17. As we go from species to kingdom in a 17.

18. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms 18.

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19. Syncytium mycelium is 19.

20. Study the given figure of structure of 20. TMV ( )

21. Causal organisms of sleeping sickness 21.

22. At least a half of the total CO2 fixation 22.

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24. Which one of the following cannot fix 24.

25. Choose the option in which given life 25.

(A) Haplontic Volvox, spirogyra

26. Tetradynamous (2 short and 4 long 26. (2 4 )

stamens) condition is seen in - -

In the above diagram, (i) represents (i)

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28. Some plants of arid regions modify their 28.

(B) Flattened, cylindrical (B)

29. Which of the following is false - 29.

30. In cucumber and coconut autogamy is 30.

31. Process in which embryo formation 31.

occur without formation of female

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32. The given kind of age pyramid, the 32.

(A) Declining (B) Stable

33. _______% of incidient solar radiation or 33.

______% of PAR is captured by plants

34. On the basis of below diagram, select 34. a, b, c d

20. Smoking increases _content in blood 20. _