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Raus IAS Prelims 2024 Test 36 (Upscmaterial - Online)
Raus IAS Prelims 2024 Test 36 (Upscmaterial - Online)
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Student ID and
Test ID carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the
OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each
item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark
on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained
therein.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following:
1. Increase in inflation leads to decrease in 1. Transfer payments.
imports and increase in exports. 2. Value of production for self-
2. Deflation benefits the creditors and consumption.
adversely affects the debtors. 3. The income earned through the sale
3. Negative real rate of interest encourages and purchase of second-hand goods.
the depositors to deposit more money 4. Imputed value of rent of self-occupied
with the banks during inflation. houses.
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above factors is/are
correct? included in the calculation of the GDP of an
(a) Only one economy?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Which among the following best describes
the concept of “Fiscal Drag” on the 5. Consider the following statements with
economy? reference to benefits of Urea Gold
(a) Decrease in tax collection due to introduced by the Government:
inflation.
1. It addresses the sulphur deficiency in
(b) Increase in tax collection due to the Indian soils.
inflation.
2. It ensures slow release of Nitrogen into
(c) Increase in inflation due to decrease in the soil and hence enhance fertiliser
tax collection.
efficiency.
(d) Decrease in inflation due to decrease in
3. It is more environment friendly as
tax collection.
compared to Normal Urea.
How many of the statements given above
3. Consider the following statements: is/are correct?
Statement-I: Increase in the Standing (a) Only one
Deposit Facility (SDF) by the Reserve Bank
(b) Only two
of India (RBI) would lead to decrease in
money supply in the economy. (c) All three
Statement-II: Increase in the Standing (d) None
Deposit Facility (SDF) may lead to increase
in the rate of interest on the loans given by 6. Consider the following scenario:
the banks. The US Fed Bank has adopted Fed
Which one of the following is correct in Tapering Policy to control rising Inflation in
respect of the above statements? USA. However, such a policy in USA has
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are led to adverse effect on the Indian
correct and Statement-II is the correct Economy.
explanation for Statement-I As an RBI Governor, which among the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following steps would you not take?
correct and Statement-II is not the 1. Sell Dollars to control Rupee
correct explanation for Statement-I Depreciation.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II 2. Reduce Policy Rates such as Repo.
is incorrect
3. Adopt tools to decrease the Bond Yields
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- to reduce Government's borrowing cost.
II is correct
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Select the correct answer using the code 9. Consider the following statements:
given below: 1. The debt raised by the Government or
(a) 1 only the corporates in rupee denomination
(b) 2 only from external sources are not
(c) 1 and 3 only considered a part of the overall external
(d) 2 and 3 only debt.
2. US dollar denominated debt forms the
7. Consider the following statements about largest component of India's external
the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR): debt.
1. The ICRR is a temporary measure Which of the statements given above is/are
employed to drain off the excess correct?
liquidity created due to sudden increase (a) 1 only
in bank deposits. (b) 2 only
2. The ICRR replaces the existing CRR for (c) Both 1 and 2
a given period.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Unlike the CRR, the ICRR balances
attract interest from the RBI.
10. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements is/are
the female labour market as per the
correct?
Periodic Labour Force Survey (2022-23):
(a) Only one
1. Female labour participation decreased
(b) Only two
over the last five years.
(c) All three
2. Service sector is the largest employer of
(d) None
female labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are
8. Consider the following statements about
correct?
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC),
(a) 1 only
2016:
Statement-1: The IBC has replaced the (b) 2 only
“debtor in possession” approach with a (c) Both 1 and 2
“creditor in control” regime in the corporate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
insolvency and resolution process.
Statement-II: Unlike the earlier regime, 11. Which of the following best describes the
the IBC allows only the creditors to initiate Cape Town Convention?
the insolvency resolution process.
(a) A treaty to promote global aviation
Which one of the following is correct in
safety.
respect of the above statements?
(b) A treaty that guarantees the rights of
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the lessors to repossess the leased
correct and Statement-II is the correct
aircrafts in case of payment defaults.
explanation for Statement-I
(c) A treaty to facilitate reducing
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
environmental footprint of the aviation
correct and Statement-II is not the
industry.
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (d) A treaty to encourage open sky
is incorrect partnerships among the member
countries.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
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12. Which one of the following is the best 15. Which among the following best describes
description of ‘Greedflation’, that was in the the concept of "Merchanting Trade", as
news recently? provided in the Foreign Trade Policy 2023?
(a) It is a condition in which slow economic (a) Import of Goods into India for further
growth is coupled with rising exports to other countries after
unemployment. undertaking value addition.
(b) It is a rapid, excessive and out-of- (b) Export of Goods from India to a country
control general price increase in an through another intermediary country.
economy. (c) Shipment of goods from one foreign
(c) It refers to price inflation caused by the country to another foreign country
corporates keeping their profit margins without entering India's Domestic Tariff
high. Area.
(d) It refers to reformulating or reducing (d) Shipment of Goods from Special
the quality of products while keeping Economic Zones (SEZs) to Domestic
their prices same. Tariff Area.
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18. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements is/are
reference to ‘MAA’ (Mothers’ Absolute correct?
Affection): (a) Only one
1. MAA programme envisages the (b) Only two
promotion of breastfeeding in health (c) Only three
facilities as well as communities.
(d) All four
2. Carrying out of village level mothers’
meeting by ASHAs is one of the key
21. Consider the following places:
activities of MAA programme.
1. Rajula Mandagiri
3. ‘MAA’ has been launched in 2021.
2. Jatinga Rameshwar
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Gavimath
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24. With reference to the Shaka rulers, 1. The Lodhi Sultans used the
consider the following statements: construction of the tombs on a raised
1. The Shakas, who came from Central platform, so that they can appear to be
Asia, were regarded as mlechchhas. lofty and huge.
2. Rudradaman, the famous Shaka ruler, 2. Some tombs of the Lodhi period were
rebuilt the Sudarshana lake. octagonal.
3. Satavahanas had marriage alliance with 3. In their buildings, they used balconies,
Shakas. caves and Mandaps in the Rajasthani
How many of the above statements is/are and Gujarati styles.
correct? 4. 'Moti ki Masjid', built by the Wazir of
(a) Only one Sikandar Lodhi, is the finest specimen
of the architecture of the Lodhis.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
25. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three
1. Mangalesha, the Chalukya ruler,
(d) All four
patronized the excavation of the Badami
caves.
2. The paintings at the Kanchipuram 28. Consider the following pairs:
temple were patronized by the Pallava S.N. Bhakti saints Work
king, Rajsimha. 1. Madhavacharya Subodhini
3. The inscription at Mandagapattu
2. Jnanesvara Bhavartha Dipika
mentions Mahendravarman-I with titles
such as Vichitrachitta and Chaityakari. 3. Ramdas Dasabodha
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above pairs is/are
correct? correctly matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) All three pairs
(d) None (d) None of the pairs
26. ‘The stream of gold flows through the 29. Recently, the Prime Minister of India
majestic city of Delhi. However, every pearl referred to the Uttaramerur inscription in
in the royal crown is but the crystallized Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu), while
drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of discussing India’s democratic history.
the poor peasant.’ Which of the following statements is/are
The above excerpt, with reference to the correct with reference to the working of a
Delhi Sultanate’s economic condition, was Sabha according to the Uttaramerur
written by whom of the following? inscription?
(a) Ziauddin Barani 1. All those who wish to become the
(b) Malik Muhammad Jaisi members of the Sabha should be the
owners of the land from which land
(c) Ibn Batuta
revenue is collected.
(d) Amir Khusrau
2. They should have the knowledge of the
Vedas.
27. Consider the following statements with
3. There was no age criteria for being
reference to the Lodhi architecture:
member of Sabha.
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35. With reference to the Indian national 3. ‘Gandhi marriages’ were celebrated
movement, consider the following during the Movement.
statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. ‘Bandi Jiwan’ by Sachindranath Sanyal correct?
inspired younger revolutionaries. (a) Only one
2. ‘Hindustan Republic Association’ aimed (b) Only two
to establish ‘Federal Republic of United
(c) All three
States of India’ through armed struggle.
(d) None
3. ‘Kakori Conspiracy case’ was associated
with assassination of colonial officer
Saunders by the revolutionaries. 38. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the statements given above S.N. Place Country
is/are correct?
1. Haifa Israel
(a) Only one
2. Al Ghuwaifat Jordan
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. Piraeus Italy
(d) None 4. Haradh UAE
How many of the above pairs is/are
36. Consider the following statements: correctly matched?
Statement-I: The Congress ministries in (a) Only one
provinces formed after 1936-1937 elections
(b) Only two
could not completely eliminate the
(c) Only three
Zamindari System.
Statement-II: The constitutional structure (d) All four
of the Government of India Act, 1935,
restricted the powers and financial 39. With reference to the Organization of the
resources of the provincial ministries. Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC),
Which one of the following is correct in consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements? 1. It is a permanent and
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are intergovernmental organization created
correct and Statement-II is the correct by the Baghdad Conference.
explanation for Statement-I. 2. The approval of a new member country
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are requires agreement by three-quarters of
correct and Statement-II is not the the OPEC's existing members, including
correct explanation for Statement-I. all of the founding members.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II 3. The OPEC Fund for International
is incorrect. Development is the only globally
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- mandated development institution that
II is correct. provides financing from the member
countries to the non-member countries
37. With reference to the Quit India Movement, exclusively.
consider the following statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. The socialist members of the Indian correct?
National Congress were active in the (a) Only one
underground resistance.
(b) Only two
2. During this Movement, Seba Dals and
(c) All three
Tufan Dals were organized in Bihar.
(d) None
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40. Consider the following statements 3. Though all the Annex 2 countries have
regarding the United Nations Relief and signed the Treaty, a few countries are
Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the yet to ratify the same.
Near East (UNRWA): How many of the above statements is/are
1. It is funded almost entirely by voluntary correct?
contributions, and serves for the cause (a) Only one
of the Palestine refugees only.
(b) Only two
2. It manages the refugee camps and
(c) All three
provides security to the refugees.
(d) None
3. The UNRWA has a mandate to resettle
the Palestine refugees.
43. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements is/are
regarding the Global Biofuel Alliance:
correct?
1. Only national governments are part of
(a) Only one
this Alliance.
(b) Only two
2. All G20 countries are members of this
(c) All three
Alliance.
(d) None
3. India is the largest producer of biofuels
in the world.
41. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements is/are
reference to the International Court of correct?
Justice (ICJ):
(a) Only one
1. It can decide on the cases involving
(b) Only two
breaches of the international law on its
(c) All three
own.
(d) None
2. For the judges, the elections are
conducted every three years, and the
retiring judges are not eligible for re- 44. Consider the following countries:
election. 1. Saudi Arabia
3. For the first time under the Genocide 2. Yemen
Convention, South Africa filed a case 3. Somalia
against Israel in the ICJ. 4. Djibouti
How many of the above statements is/are 5. Egypt
correct?
How many of the above-mentioned
(a) Only one countries share border with the Red Sea?
(b) Only two (a) Only two
(c) All three (b) Only three
(d) None (c) Only four
(d) All five
42. Consider the following statements
regarding the ‘Comprehensive Nuclear-
45. The ‘Three Brotherhood Alliance’ was in the
Test-Ban Treaty’ (CTBT):
news recently. It is associated with which of
1. It is a multilateral Treaty that bans all the following countries?
nuclear explosions, whether for military
(a) Syria
or peaceful purposes.
(b) Sudan
2. For the Treaty to enter into force, it
(c) Myanmar
must be signed and ratified by nuclear
technology holder countries, known as (d) Yemen
the Annex 2 countries.
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46. Consider the following pairs: How many of the above statements is/are
S.N. Area of conflict Country correct?
mentioned in the where it is (a) Only one
news. located. (b) Only two
1. Khan Yunis Lebanon (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Panjgur Iran
3. Erbil Iraq
49. With reference to the Green Credit Rules,
How many of the above pairs is/are 2023, consider the following statements:
correctly matched?
1. It is an initiative within the
(a) Only one
government’s Lifestyle for the
(b) Only two
Environment, or the ‘LiFE’ Movement.
(c) All three
2. It has been notified under the
(d) None
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
3. Under it, voluntary tree plantation is
47. With reference to the Forest (Conservation)
Amendment Act, 2023, consider the envisaged on degraded land, waste
following statements: land, watershed area etc., under the
1. The Amendment Act covers only the control and management of the Forest
land that was declared or notified as a Departments.
forest under the Indian Forest Act, 4. The generation of ‘Green Credit’, under
1927. the Green Credit Rules, 2023, is
2. It exempts strategic national security independent of the ‘Carbon Credit’,
projects on the land situated within 200
under the Carbon Credit Trading
kilometres of the international borders
Scheme, 2023.
from environmental clearances.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above statements is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four
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51. Consider the following countries: How many of the above statements is/are
1. Bolivia correct?
2. Uruguay (a) Only one
3. Suriname (b) Only two
4. Ecuador (c) All three
How many of the above countries is/are the (d) None
member(s) of the Amazon Cooperation
Treaty Organization (ACTO)? 54. With reference to the High Seas Treaty,
(a) Only one consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. The Treaty aims at strengthening
(c) Only three resilience, and contains provisions
(d) All four based on the ‘polluter-pays principle’.
2. Under the Treaty’s provisions, the
parties must assess potential
52. Consider the following statements:
environmental impacts of any planned
1. Ecologically, North-east India forms a
activities beyond their jurisdictions.
part of the South-Asian tropical rain
3. Treaty provisions recognize the rights
forest belt.
and traditional knowledge of the
2. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is the
indigenous people and the local
only home of the marsh-dwelling brow-
communities.
antlered deer, ‘Sangai’ of Manipur.
How many of the above statements is/are
3. Shirui Lily, a rare species of lily on the
correct?
verge of extinction, is found in
(a) Only one
Arunachal Pradesh.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? (c) All three
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56. Consider the following statements: 2. It comes under the Energy Conservation
1. Bio-CNG’s calorific value is significantly Act, 2001.
less than that of Compressed Natural 3. It has been accredited by the Energy
Gas (CNG). Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).
2. The SATAT scheme aims at encouraging How many of the above statements is/are
entrepreneurs to set up Compressed correct?
Bio-Gas (CBG) production plant. (a) Only one
3. Press mud can be used to produce Bio- (b) Only two
CNG.
(c) All three
How many of the statements given above
(d) None
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
60. Consider the following:
(b) Only two
1. The Vienna Convention
(c) All three
2. The Montreal Protocol
(d) None
3. The Kigali Amendment
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62. The term ‘Qanat System’ is often seen in 65. Consider the following statements
the news, in the context of which of the regarding ‘Rhododendrons’:
following? 1. They are herbaceous plants with
(a) Exploration/extraction of shale gas. colourful flowers.
(b) Restoration of damaged coral reefs. 2. In India, Western Himalayas account
(c) Waste-to-energy technology. for most biodiversity of rhododendrons.
(d) Water conservation technology. 3. They are found in both evergreen and
deciduous vegetation.
63. With reference to the Convention on How many of the above statements is/are
Migratory Species (CMS), consider the correct?
following statements: (a) Only one
1. It is the only global Convention (b) Only two
specializing in the conservation of
(c) All three
migratory species, their habitats and
migration routes. (d) None
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Arctic warming sometimes shifts the
correct and Statement-II is the correct sub-tropical westerly jet-stream
explanation for Statement-I northwards.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the above statements is/are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I (a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) 2 only
is incorrect (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
II is correct
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68. Consider the following statements 71. Consider the following statements about
regarding the ‘Himalayas’: Mines and Minerals (Development and
1. The Indian Himalayan Region is spread Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957:
across 13 Indian States/Union 1. Mining and exploration of minerals
Territories. listed as 'atomic minerals' in the MMDR
2. The Red Panda is a mammal species Act can be done by Private and
native to the Eastern Himalayas. government entities.
3. The forest varieties found over the 2. The Centre and State Governments can
Himalayas are tropical deciduous, award mining lease for minerals listed
temperate, as well as alpine. as 'critical minerals' in the MMDR Act
How many of the above statements is/are to both private and public sector
correct? entities.
(a) Only one 3. Minerals such as all rare earth metals,
(b) Only two lithium, potash and phosphate have
(c) All three been placed in the list of 'critical
(d) None minerals' under the MMDR Act.
4. The Central Government has launched
69. With reference to the Lakshadweep Islands, auction for lithium mining at Katghora
consider the following statements: in Chattisgarh.
1. The Islands have a total area of 52 sq How many of the statements given above
km. is/are correct?
2. The Islands have no inland lake. (a) Only one
3. The Kavaratti Island is at a distance of (b) Only two
218 nautical miles from Kochi. (c) Only three
How many of the above statements is/are (d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one
72. Which of the following processes takes
(b) Only two
place by alternate wetting and drying of
(c) All three rocks?
(d) None
(a) Slaking
(b) Sheeting
70. Consider the following statements:
(c) Slumping
1. The Equator receives more insolation
(d) Flaking
than the Tropics.
2. At the same latitude, the insolation is
more over the oceans, than over the 73. Consider the following statements:
continents. 1. During the El-Niño events, nutrient-rich
3. Maximum insolation is received over the water, off the north-west coast of South
sub-tropical deserts. America, remains very deep.
How many of the above statements is/are 2. The El-Niño years are always
correct? characterised by drought-like situations
(a) Only one in India.
(b) Only two 3. The presence of strong trade winds alter
(c) All three the thermal and pressure situation
(d) None during the El-Niño times.
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How many of the above statements is/are 76. Which of the following statements
correct? regarding “Codified Constitution” is
(a) Only one incorrect?
(b) Only two (a) A Codified Constitution is more rigid,
and may therefore, be less responsive
(c) All three
and adaptable than an uncodified one.
(d) None (b) With a Codified Constitution, the
constitutional supremacy resides with
74. Consider the following statements: the non-elected judges, rather than with
1. The Right to Equality is available only the publicly accountable politicians.
within the territory of India. (c) Non-political judges are able to police
the Constitution to ensure that its
2. The State shall not discriminate against
provisions are upheld by other public
any person in any manner on the
bodies.
grounds of descent.
(d) Individual liberty is absolutely protected
3. The Freedom of Speech and Expression and authoritarianism is kept at bay.
is available to all the citizens, even
outside the territory of India.
77. With reference to the Preamble to the
How many of the above statements is/are Indian Constitution, consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) Only one 1. The Preamble does not grant
(b) Only two substantive rights.
(c) All three 2. The Preamble came into force on
(d) None November 26th, 1949.
3. The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act
introduced the words “Socialist Secular”
75. Consider the following statements between the words “Liberty” and
regarding ‘education’ as a Fundamental “Equality”.
Right: How many of the above statements is/are
Statement-I: The Supreme Court held the correct?
Right to Education as a part of Article 21, (a) Only one
even before it was added as a part of Article (b) Only two
21A. (c) All three
Statement-II: The Supreme Court held (d) None
that without education, the dignity of the
individual cannot be upheld.
78. Consider the following provisions of the
Which one of the following is correct in Indian Constitution:
respect of the above statements? 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The Fundamental Duties
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. The Seventh Schedule
explanation for Statement-I
4. The Ninth Schedule
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are The provisions related to ‘forests’ can be
correct and Statement-II is not the found in how many of the above provisions
correct explanation for Statement-I of the Indian Constitution?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (a) Only one
is incorrect (b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (c) Only three
II is correct (d) All four
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79. Consider the following statements with 2. All Bills reserved for the Presidential
reference to Article 3 of the Constitution of assent can be asked by the President to
India: be presented to the State Legislature for
1. No Bill for the creation of States shall be reconsideration.
introduced in either House of 3. When a reserved Bill, which has been
Parliament except on the asked by the President for
recommendation of the President. reconsideration by the State
2. Whenever there is creation of a new Legislature, is passed again, the Bill is
State or UT, there is a mandatory need presented to the Governor for his
for the President to ascertain the view of consideration.
the State or UT legislature. How many of the above statements is/are
3. If the State Legislature fails to express correct?
its views within the stipulated time, (a) Only one
Parliament is free to proceed with the (b) Only two
matter as it likes.
(c) All three
How many of the statements given above
(d) None
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
82. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two
1. Lok Sabha Speaker's decision on
(c) All three
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is
(d) None final and not subject to judicial review.
2. A Money Bill can only be introduced
80. Consider the following statements about after the recommendation of the
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: President.
1. The word 'sedition' has explicitly been 3. The President's recommendation is
defined as a crime against the State in required for moving any amendment for
the Act. making reduction or abolition of any
2. 'Organised crime' has been explicitly tax.
defined as a gang indulging in 4. A Bill, which mandates expenditure
continuing unlawful activity. from the Consolidated Fund of India,
3. 'Hate speech' has been explicitly defined should be passed by either House only
as a crime under the Act. after the recommendation of the
4. 'Terrorist Act' has been explicitly President for consideration of the Bill to
defined as a crime under the Act. both the Houses.
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above statements is/are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four (d) All four
81. Consider the following statements about 83. Consider the following statements about
the office of the Governor: the Armed Forces Tribunal:
1. The Governor is not bound by the 1. The Armed Forces Tribunal has
Constitution to reserve any Bill on any jurisdiction over all persons under the
subject for the reservation of the Army, Navy, Air Force and the Central
Presidential assent. Armed Police Forces.
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2. The Appeal on the ruling of the Armed 2. The Lok Sabha set up its Ethics
Forces Tribunal lies directly with the Committee before the setting up of
Supreme Court and no lower court. Ethics Committee in the Rajya Sabha.
3. The Armed Forces Tribunal has been 3. The Ethics Committee can take up only
established by a Presidential cases of misconduct that involve MPs.
notification and has no statutory How many of the statements given above
backing. is/are correct?
How many of the above statements is/are (a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
87. Consider the following statements about
the Election Commission of India:
84. Which of the following is the most
1. Any person of integrity, having
important rationale for the ‘Rule of Law’ in
experience in public life, can be
modern polities?
appointed as an Election Commissioner
(a) Protection of the rights of the citizens
(EC) or the Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Prevention of arbitrary use of power (CEC).
(c) To ensure justness of laws 2. The Selection Committee for the
(d) Protection of the minorities appointment of the Chief Election
Commissioner and other Election
85. Consider the following statements about Commissioners consists of the Prime
the Contempt of Court: Minister; the Chief Justice of India; and
1. The Constitution defines the Contempt the Leader of Opposition in the Lok
of Court. Sabha.
2. Criminal Contempt of Court is the wilful 3. The salaries, allowances and other
disobedience of any judgement, decree conditions of service of the CEC and
or order of a court. other ECs shall be the same as that of a
3. All courts and tribunals have been judge of the Supreme Court.
conferred the power to punish for their 4. The procedure for the removal of the
contempt by the Constitution. CEC and other ECs is similar.
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above statements is/are
correct? incorrect?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four
86. With reference to ‘Ethics Committee’ of the 88. Consider the following statements about
Lok Sabha, consider the following the Panchayat Development Index:
statements:
1. The Panchayat Development Index will
1. It is the only committee that probes any help in assessing the progress made in
citizen's complaints against lawmakers
realization of the SDGs (Sustainable
of the Lok Sabha.
Development Goals) in the rural areas.
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2. The Index will be based on 9 themes, 91. Consider the following statements:
which are covered under the Local 1. Genetically modified organisms may
Indicator Framework for the localization include plants, animals and micro-
of the SDGs. organisms.
3. The Index has been developed and 2. Genetically engineered crops necessarily
released by NITI Aayog. involve inter-species gene transfer.
How many of the above statements is/are 3. Commercial release of transgenic crops
correct? in India requires mandatory clearance
(a) Only one of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
89. Consider the following statements about (c) All three
the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act,
(d) None
2023:
1. Horizontal reservation for women has
92. Consider the following pairs:
been made for the women belonging to
the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled S.N. Terms related Description
Tribes and Other Backward Classes. to Artificial
Intelligence
2. Reservation for women has not been
(AI)
introduced in the Legislative Councils in
the States. 1. Multimodal AI AI systems
capable of
3. There will be no rotation of seats
processing and
reserved for women in the Lok Sabha
understanding
and the State Assemblies.
information from
How many of the above statements is/are multiple data
correct? sources, such as
(a) Only one text, images,
(b) Only two audio and video.
(c) All three 2. Artificial Machine learning
(d) None Neural algorithm where
Network two neural
networks compete
90. Which of the following is not a fundamental
against each
duty provided for in the Indian
other.
Constitution?
3. Generative Machine learning
(a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
Adversarial algorithm
unity and integrity of India.
Network consisting of
(b) To strive towards excellence in all inter-connected
spheres of individual and collective nodes organized
activity. in layers modelled
(c) To have compassion towards living on the human
creatures. brain.
(d) To abjure the practice of untouchability.
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How many of the above statements is/are 99. "Phonotaxis" is best described by which of
correct? the following statements?
(a) Only one (a) A revolutionary technology for encoding
(b) Only two information, using sound-waves in
(c) All three communication devices.
(d) None (b) High-frequency sound emitted from the
supersonic missiles.
(c) A form of acoustic levitation used in
98. With reference to the Controller of
advanced transportation systems.
Certifying Authorities (CCA), consider the
following statements: (d) The movement or orientation of an
organism in response to sound stimuli.
1. The Controller of Certifying Authorities
is a non-statutory body.
2. It has established the Root Certifying 100. Consider the following statements with
Authority of India. reference to Indrajaal:
3. The CCA maintains the Repository of 1. Indrajaal is India’s first anti-drone
Digital Certificates, which contains all system, powered by Artificial
the certificates issued to the Certifying Intelligence.
Authorities in the country. 2. It can provide coverage against
How many of the above statements is/are unmanned autonomous threats in the
correct? regions upto 10,000 square kilometres.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Test ID
0561
RAU’S IAS
STUDY CIRCLE
Pre Pareekshan-2024
Mock–1
GS (Paper–1)
Answers
and
Explanations
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Fiscal Drag refers to the situation wherein o The income earned through the
tax collection of the government sale and purchase of second-hand
increases due to increase in the rate of goods is not included.
inflation. o Imputed rent of self-occupied
houses is included.
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Urea Gold is made by combining urea with Reserve Ratio’ (ICRR) of 10% on the
sulphur, that is basically urea fortified with increase in the banks’ net demand and
sulphur which has been coated to modify time liabilities (NDTLs). This measure is
its release pattern and reduce nitrogen loss intended to absorb the surplus
from the field. liquidity in the banking system, which
Benefits: has been building up in the recent
• Reduction of Sulphur deficiencies in months due to several factors,
Indian soil including the return of ₹2,000 notes to
the banking system.
• Improvement of nitrogen use
efficiency • The ICRR is imposed in addition to
the existing CRR (Cash Reserve
• Reduce nutrient loss
Ratio).
• Environmentally friendly as the
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does
application of a high quantity of
nitrogenous fertilizers has resulted in not provide any interest over these
environmental pollution.
8. Answer: (c)
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9. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• India’s external debt may be classified into ‘sovereign external debt’ (SED) and ‘non-SED’.
• The SED comprises, inter alia, external assistance (from bilateral and multilateral sources)
on the Government Account, investment in the G-secs by the FPIs (The Foreign Portfolio
Investments/Investors), loans from the foreign central banks and international institutions,
and SDR (The Special Drawing Right) allocations by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Non-SED comprises trade credit, external commercial borrowings and NRI deposits.
• Thus, the debt raised from the external sources, even in rupee denomination (FPI in G-
secs, Masala Bonds etc.), is considered a part of the external debt.
• US dollar denominated debt remained the largest component of India's external debt, with a
share of 55.5% at end-September, 2022.
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• If the market value increases above the face value of the bond (the price at which it was
purchased in the primary market when it was issued), then the rate of return on the
purchase of the bond in the secondary market decreases. This phenomenon is often known
as softening of bond yields.
• On the other hand, if the market value decreases below the face value of the bond, then the
rate of return on the purchase of bond in the secondary market increases. This phenomenon
is known as hardening of bond yields.
Decreases Increases
Market price of the bond decreases Market price of the bond increases
Bond yield increases (Yield hardening) Bond yield decreases (Yield softening)
Reasons: Reasons:
• Increased inflation • Deflationary trends in the economy
• Sale of G-secs by the central bank under • Purchase of G-secs by the central bank
the open market operations under the open market operations
• Increased borrowings by the • Reduced borrowings by the government
government (Increased fiscal deficit)
Loss to the bond holder No loss to the bond holder
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• It envisages improving the breastfeeding rates and child feeding practices among the
masses. Under this, ASHAs are being incentivized for reaching all pregnant women and
nursing mothers of young children for advocating optimal IYCF practices.
• Positioning of trained ANMs (at all sub-centres) and the health-care personnel (at all delivery
points) is also being ensured for providing skilled support to nursing mothers, where
necessary.
• Carrying out of village level mothers’ meeting by ASHAs is one of the key activities of
this MAA programme which aim to increase awareness about the importance of
breastfeeding among women in India by community participation.
• MAA programme envisages the promotion of breastfeeding in health facilities as well as
communities by making women aware as well providing skilled counselling support for
appropriate breastfeeding practices.
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composed in Sanskrit by his court poet, spread to other hill states, such as
Banabhatta (c. seventh century CE). Chamba and Kullu, giving rise to local
A Gahapati was the owner, master or head variations of the Basohli Kalam.
of a household, who exercised control over A new style of painting came in vogue
the women, children, slaves and workers, during 1690s to 1730s, which was referred
who shared a common residence. He was to as the Guler–Kangra phase. The artists
also the owner of the resources – land, during this period indulged in
animals and other things – that belonged experimentation and improvisations, that
to the household. finally resulted and moulded into the
Sometimes, the term was used as a Kangra style.
marker of status for the men belonging
to the urban elite, including the wealthy 24. Answer: (c)
merchants. Explanation:
The Shakas, who came from Central Asia,
23. Answer: (c) were regarded as mlechchhas, barbarians
Explanation: or outsiders by the Brahmanas.
The first and the most dramatic example of However, one of the earliest inscriptions in
work from the hill states is from Basohli. Sanskrit describes how Rudradaman, the
From 1678 to 1695, Kirpal Pal, an best-known Shaka ruler (c. second century
enlightened prince, ruled the state. CE), rebuilt the Sudarshana lake. This
Under him, Basohli developed a distinctive suggests that the powerful mlechchhas
and magnificent style. It is characterized were familiar with the Sanskritic
by a strong use of primary colours and traditions.
warm yellows—filling the background and It is also interesting that the best-known
horizon, stylised treatment of vegetation ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, Gotami-
and raised white paint for imitating the puta Siri-Satakani, claimed to be both a
representation of pearls in ornaments. unique Brahmana (Eka Bamhana) and a
However, the most significant destroyer of the pride of the Kshatriyas.
characteristic of Basohli painting is the use He also claimed to have ensured that there
of small, shiny green particles of beetle was no inter-marriage amongst the
wings to delineate jewellery and simulate members of the four Varnas. At the same
the effect of emeralds. time, he entered into a marriage alliance
In their vibrant palette and elegance, they with the kin of Rudradaman.
share the aesthetics of the
Chaurpanchashika group of paintings of 25. Answer: (c)
Western India. Explanation:
The most popular theme of the Basohli • Badami was the capital of the early
painters was the Rasamanjari of Bhanu Chalukyan dynasty, which ruled the
Datta. During 1694–95, Devida, a Tarkhan region from 543 CE to 598 CE. With the
(carpenter–painter), did a magnificent decline of the Vakataka rule, the
series for his patron Kirpal Pal. Bhagvata Chalukyas established their power in
Purana and Ragamala were other popular the Deccan. The Chalukya king,
themes. The artists also painted the Mangalesha, patronized the excavation
portraits of the local kings with their of the Badami caves. He was the
consorts, courtiers, astrologers, younger son of the Chalukya king,
mendicants, courtesans and others. While Pulakesi-I, and the brother of
artist ateliers from Basohli, gradually, Kirtivarman-I. The inscription in Cave
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No. 4 mentions the date 578 CE – 579 caves and the Jaina caves at
CE, describes the beauty of the cave Sittanvasal are some of the surviving
and includes the dedication of the examples. A few fragmented layers of
image of Vishnu. Thus, it may be the paintings can be seen in
presumed that the cave was excavated Tirumalaipuram. In Sittanavasal, the
in the same era and the patron records paintings are visible on the ceilings of
his Vaishnava affiliation. Therefore, the the shrines, in the verandas and on the
cave is popularly known as the Vishnu brackets.
cave. Only a fragment of the painting
has survived on the vaulted roof of the 26. Answer: (d)
front Mandapa.
Explanation:
• The tradition of painting extended
In the Sultanate period, wealth was
further down south in Tamil Nadu in
unevenly distributed. It was concentrated
the preceding centuries, with regional
in the hands of a small minority.
variations during the regimes of the
Pallava, the Pandya and the Chola Amir Khusrau wrote that, ‘The stream of
dynasties. gold flows through the majestic city of
Delhi. However, the poor people suffered.
• The Pallava kings, who succeeded the
Chalukya kings in parts of South India, Every pearl in the royal crown is but the
were also the patrons of arts. crystallized drop of blood fallen from the
Mahendravarma-I, who ruled in the tearful eyes of the poor peasant.’
seventh century, was responsible for
building temples at Panamalai, 27. Answer: (d)
Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. The Explanation:
inscription at Mandagapattu mentions
About the Lodhi architecture –
Mahendravarman-I with numerous
In their buildings, arches and beams, both
titles, such as Vichitrachitta (curious-
minded), Chitrakarapuli (tiger among were used and also the balconies, caves
artists) and Chaityakari (temple and Mandaps in the Rajasthani and
builder), which show his interest in art Gujarati styles.
activities. The paintings in these The Lodhi Sultans used a new style as
temples too were done at his initiative, well, e.g., the construction of the tombs on
though only fragments remain. a raised platform, so that they can appear
• The Panamalai figure of a female to be lofty and huge.
divinity is drawn gracefully. The The Tomb of Sikander Lodhi was
paintings at the Kanchipuram temple constructed within the Lodhi Gardens.
were patronized by the Pallava king, Some tombs of the Lodhi period were
Rajsimha. Only traces of the paintings octagonal. Some of these characteristics
remain now, which depict Somaskanda. were adopted later on by the Mughals also.
The faces are round and large. The
The Tomb of Sikandar Lodhi is situated in
lines are rhythmic, with increased
a big surrounding wall and its dome is
ornamentation, when compared with
surrounded by an umbrella with eight
the paintings of an earlier periods. The
pillars.
depiction of torso still remains like the
earlier sculptural tradition, but is ‘Moti ki Masjid’, built by the Wazir of
elongated. Sikandar Lodhi, is the finest specimen of
the architecture of the Lodhis.
• When the Pandyas came to power, they
too patronized art. The Tirumalaipuram
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28. Answer: (b) Mandapa at the centre. All the temples are
Explanation: oriented with reference to the Mandapa.
Vallabhacharya was a Telegu Brahman. The practice: The entire village, including
He was the author of a number of scholarly the infants, had to be present at the village
works in Sanskrit and Brajbhasa. The assembly, Mandapa, at Uttaramerur when
important among them are ‘Subodhini’ elections were held.
and ‘Siddhant Rahasya’. Only the sick, and those who had gone on
His philosophy came to be known as ‘the a pilgrimage, were exempt.
Epicureanism of the East’. There were committees for the
Madhavacharya ranks with Shankar and maintenance of irrigation tanks, roads, to
Ramanuja as one of the three principal provide relief during drought, to test gold,
philosophers of the Vedanta system. His and so forth.
view was that the final aim of man is the There was another astonishing feature of
direct perception of Hari, which leads to the elective system in the village. ‘The
Moksha or eternal bliss. village assembly of Uttaramerur,’ drafted
Jnanesvara wrote his commentary on the the constitution for the elections.
‘Bhagwat Gita’, called ‘Bhavartha Dipika’. The salient features were as follows: The
It is the fountain-head of Maharashtrian
village was divided into 30 wards, one
devotionalism.
representative elected for each. Specific
Ramdas’ main work is ‘Dasabodha’. For qualifications were prescribed for those
him, devotionalism and activism were who wanted to contest.
closely wedded. Shivaji was greatly
The essential criteria were age limit,
inspired by the teachings of Ramdas.
possession of immovable property and
minimum educational qualification. Those
29. Answer: (b) who wanted to be elected should be
Explanation: above 35 years of age and below 70
Uttaramerur is situated in Kancheepuram years of age.
district, about 90 km from Chennai. The Only those who owned land, that attracted
Pallava king, Nandivarman-II, established tax, could contest elections. Another
it around 750 AD. stipulation was that such owners should
The Pallavas, the Cholas, the Pandyas, the possess a house built on a legally-owned
Sambuvarayars, the Vijayanagara Rayas site.
and the Nayaks successively ruled it. They should have the knowledge of the
The village has three important temples, Vedas. They should be well-versed in
the Sundara Varadaraja Perumal temple, administrative matters and honest.
the Subramanya temple and the
A person serving in any of the committees
Kailasanatha temple.
could not contest again for the next three
The three temples have a large number of terms.
inscriptions, notably those from the reigns
Anyone, who has not submitted his
of Raja Raja Chola (985 AD - 1014 AD), his
accounts, as well as those of his relatives,
son Rajendra Chola and the Vijayanagar
could not contest the elections.
emperor Krishnadeva Raya. Rajendra
Chola, as well as Krishnadeva Raya visited The elected members, who accepted bribes,
Uttaramerur. misappropriated others' property,
committed incest, or acted against the
Uttaramerur, built on the canons of the
public interest, suffered disqualification.
Agama texts, has the village assembly
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With the exception of the Governor- If someone says that this betrays imperfect
General and the Commander-in-Chief faith on my part, I shall not deny the
(who would retain his position as War charge. That I have reached here is in no
Member) all other members of the small measure due to the power of peace
Executive Council would be nominated and non-violence: that power is universally
(not elected) from amongst the leaders felt. The Government may, if it wishes,
of the Indian political life. congratulate itself on acting as it has done,
• This Council would have a balanced for it could have arrested every one of us.
representation of the main In saying that it did not have the courage
communities, including equal to arrest this army of peace, we praise it. It
proportions of the Muslims and caste felt ashamed to arrest such an army. He is
Hindus. a civilized man who feels ashamed to do
anything which his neighbours would
• It would work, if formed, under the
disapprove. The Government deserves to be
existing Constitution.
congratulated on not arresting us, even if it
• Though the Governor-General’s veto
desisted only from fear of world opinion.
would not be abolished, it would not be
used unnecessarily.
35. Answer: (b)
• The portfolio of ‘External Affairs’
(other than those of the Tribal and Explanation:
the Frontier matters, which had to The radical revolutionaries faced severe
be dealt with as part of the defence repression during World War I, with many
of India) was to be transferred from leaders either imprisoned or on the run. As
the Governor-General to an Indian an effort to foster a more conducive
member of the Council. environment for the Montague-Chelmsford
• A conference of representatives, chosen reforms, the government granted a general
amnesty in early 1920, releasing most of
by the Viceroy, was to be convened with
a view to obtaining from the leaders of the leaders.
various parties a joint list, or failing it, Subsequently, the Non-Cooperation
separate lists of worthy people to Movement was launched by the National
constitute the new Executive Council Congress, and at the encouragement of
(it means that any member of any leaders like Gandhiji, C.R. Das, and
religion could be represented by any others, a significant number of
political party). It was rejected by M. revolutionary terrorists either joined
A. Jinnah. the movement or halted their activities
to support the Gandhian mass
movement.
34. Answer: (c)
However, the abrupt suspension of the
Explanation:
Non-Cooperation Movement dashed the
On 5th April, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi
previously high expectations. A growing
spoke at Dandi: When I left Sabarmati
number of young individuals began
with my companions for this seaside
questioning the national leadership's
hamlet of Dandi, I was not certain in my
strategy, emphasizing non-violence, and
mind that we would be allowed to reach
started exploring alternatives.
this place. Even while I was at Sabarmati
The parliamentary politics of the Swarajists
there was a rumour that I might be
and the patient constructive work of the
arrested. I had thought that the
no-changers failed to attract them. Many
Government might perhaps let my party
gravitated towards the belief that only
come as far as Dandi, but not me certainly.
violent methods could liberate India,
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The Corridor will include a shipping route connecting Mumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with the
UAE, and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia and Jordan with the Israeli port of
Haifa to reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. Haifa will then be connected by sea to the
port of Piraeus in Greece, to eventually be connected to Europe.
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Refugee Convention and the UNHCR (iii) Inflicting on the group conditions
Statute. of life calculated to bring about
• The UNRWA does not have a mandate their physical destruction;
to resettle the Palestine refugees and (iv) Imposing measures intended to
has no authority to seek lasting prevent births within a group; and
durable solutions for the refugees. (v) Forcibly transferring the children of
• The UNRWA is a humanitarian the group to another group —
organization and, unlike the UNHCR, committed with the intent to
has no authority to seek durable destroy, in whole or in part, a
solutions for the refugees that fall national, ethnic, racial or religious
under its mandate (i.e., the Palestine group.
refugees), including return to the • This is not the first case the Court
country of origin. will hear under the Genocide
Convention. In 2022, Ukraine filed a
41. Answer: (d) case against Russia, and in 2019, the
Explanation: Gambia filed a case against Myanmar
with respect to the Rohingya.
• The International Court of Justice
(ICJ) cannot automatically decide all • The Myanmar case was the first time
the cases involving breaches of the that a State invoked the Court’s
international law. It can only decide jurisdiction to seek redress for
the cases that are brought before it genocidal acts committed against the
by the States that consent to its citizens of another State. The Court
jurisdiction. agreed that the Gambia had standing to
bring the case.
• The Court is composed of 15 judges,
all of whom are elected to nine-year
terms of office by the UN General 42. Answer: (b)
Assembly and the Security Council. Explanation:
The elections are held every three • The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
years for one third of the seats, and (CTBT) is a multilateral Treaty that
the retiring judges may be re-elected. bans all nuclear explosions, whether for
• The Court can rule on two types of military or peaceful purposes.
cases: “contentious cases” are the legal • Notably, for the Treaty to enter into
disputes between the States; and force, it must be signed and ratified by
“advisory proceedings” are the requests 44 specific nuclear technology holder
for advisory opinions on legal questions countries, eight of which have yet to
referred to it by the United Nations ratify the agreement. These are: China,
organs and certain specialized agencies. Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea,
• The Genocide Convention was the first Pakistan and the United States,
human rights treaty adopted by the UN according to the UN.
General Assembly in 1948, and has • The Preparatory Commission for the
been in effect since 1951. Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban
• The Convention defines genocide as five Treaty Organization (CTBTO) was set
acts: up in 1996, with its headquarters
(i) Killing the members of a group; in Vienna (Austria).
(ii) Causing serious bodily or mental • The aforementioned States are the
harm; members of the Conference on
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• Syria’s Daesh Terrorist Group’s suicide The Act states that the following categories
bombers struck the crowds gathered of forest land will no longer enjoy legal
near the tomb of the revered IRGC (The protection:
Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps) (i) Land, upto 0.10 hectare, alongside a
general Qasem Soleimani in Kerman rail track or a public road.
(Iran) in January, 2024. In response, (ii) Land within 100 kilometres of the
Iran launched ballistic missiles into international border, the Line of
Syria’s Idlib region. Control or the Line of Actual
• In Iraq, the IRGC claimed responsibility Control. Such land must be proposed
for targeting an alleged Israeli facility. to be used for the “construction of
Iran launched a missile strike, into strategic linear projects of national
Erbil, resulting in the destruction of importance and concerning national
Mossad's (Israel's external security security”.
agency) spy headquarters in the (iii) Upto 10 hectares of land that is
Kurdistan region. proposed to be used for setting up
security-related infrastructure.
47. Answer: (d) (iv) Upto five hectares of land in an area
Explanation: affected by left-wing extremism. This
The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, land needs to be earmarked to set up a
2023, amended the parent legislation, defence-related project, a camp for
known as the Forest (Conservation) Act of paramilitary forces or a public utility
1980. project, as may be specified by the
Centre.
A key factor of this law was that the State
Governments were prohibited from The legislation clearly states that these
diverting any forest land for non-forest types of land can be exempt on the
purposes, except with the nod of the condition that trees are planted elsewhere
Centre. to make up for the felling of the trees in
Additionally, anyone who sought to oppose these areas.
the State’s order on this could file an
appeal before the National Green Tribunal. 48. Answer: (b)
The new Act will apply only to the lands Explanation:
notified as a forest under the Indian The Conference of the Parties-28 (COP-28)
Forest Act, 1927, or those that have was the first COP to officially acknowledge
been officially recorded as a forest on or that fossil fuels are the root cause of
after October 25, 1980. climate change. And it is worth
Under the amended Act, forest clearance is remembering that fossil fuels were only
no longer required within 100 kilometres of first mentioned in an international climate
the international borders or the Line of agreement in 2021, at COP-26 in Glasgow.
Control or the Line of Actual Control, for Over 50 national and international oil
strategic linear projects of national companies, representing about 40% of
significance. global production, signed an Oil and Gas
The 2023 Amendment Act also permits the Decarbonization Charter (OGDC).
Central Government not to treat surveys The initiative sets three main aims:
and explorations in forest lands as non- (i) To achieve net zero emissions in each
forest uses and, thus, exempt from company’s direct operations (as
scrutiny. opposed to the use of their products)
by or before 2050;
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(ii) To achieve near-zero methane leakage The governance structure of the GCP
from the production of oil and gas by includes the steering committee members
2030; and from the concerned ministries /
(iii) To achieve zero routine flaring departments, experts and institutions. The
(burning excess gas) by 2030. Indian Council of Forestry Research and
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) Education (ICFRE) is designated as the
Presidency at this Conference of Parties GCP administrator, and is responsible for
(COP-28) delivered an agreement, calling the implementation and management of
on the countries to “transition away” the GCP.
from fossil fuels and limit global The digital process of the GCP includes
warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius, making dedicated web platform and the Green
it the first ever to mention the phrase Credit (GC) registry for streamlining the
in 28 years of climate talks. operations. In addition to these
Note: This language, a “transition away”, methodologies and guidelines, including
rather than a full “phase-out”, is not as registration, accounting and GC issuance
strong as many wanted. As a statement monitoring ensures the transparency and
made by Samoa on behalf of the Alliance of accountability of the GCP.
Small Island States put it, these decisions
are “an incremental advancement over 50. Answer: (c)
business as usual”, when what is needed is Explanation:
“exponential step-change” to keep 1.5°C Facts about the honeybees:
alive.
• The bees have 5 eyes.
The World Bank will administer the Loss
• The bees are insects, so they have 6
and Damage Fund.
legs.
• Male bees in the hive are called drones.
49. Answer: (d)
• The bees fly about 20 mph.
Explanation:
• Female bees in the hive (except the
The Green Credit Programme (GCP): The queen) are called worker bees.
Green Credit Initiative was launched by the
• Number of eggs laid by the queen:
Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of
2,000 per day.
COP-28. It is an initiative within the
• Losing its stinger will cause a bee to
government’s Lifestyle for the Environment,
die.
or the ‘LiFE’ Movement. The Green Credit
Rules, 2023, have been notified under the • The bees have been here about 30
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. million years!
These Rules put in place a mechanism to • The bees carry pollen on their hind legs
encourage voluntary environmental in a pollen basket or corbicula.
positive actions, resulting in issuance of • An average beehive can hold around
Green Credits. In its initial phase, 50,000 bees.
voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on • The foragers must collect nectar from
degraded land, waste land, watershed area about 2 million flowers to make 1
etc., under the control and management of pound of honey.
the Forest Departments. • An average forager makes about 1/12th
The generation of ‘Green Credit’, under of a teaspoon of honey in her lifetime.
Green Credit Rules, 2023, is independent • Average per capita honey consumption
of the ‘Carbon Credit’, under Carbon Credit in the US is 1.3 pounds.
Trading Scheme, 2023.
• The bees have 2 pairs of wings.
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• The principal form of communication coffee, orange and cardamom are grown in
among the honeybees is through the hilly areas. These forests, and the
chemicals called pheromones. numerous swamps and valleys in the state,
• The bees are important because they are home to wide ranges of flora and fauna.
pollinate approximately 130 The Keibul Lamjao National Park, situated
agricultural crops in the US, including in the south-eastern fringes of the Loktak
fruit, fibre, nut and vegetable crops. Lake, is the only home of the marsh-
Bee pollination adds approximately 14 dwelling brow-antlered deer, ‘Sangai’ of
billion dollars annually to improved Manipur. A variety of migratory birds from
crop yield and quality. places, as far as Siberia, visit the Loktak
Lake and other lakes in the valley every
51. Answer: (c) year. The state is also a home to
approximately 500 varieties of orchids.
Explanation:
Shirui Lily, a rare species of lily found
Recently, Brazil’s Amazon Summit came
on the Shiroi peak of Ukhrul district
with a roadmap to protect the tropical
(Manipur), is on the verge of extinction.
rainforests that was welcomed as an
important step in countering climate
change. 53. Answer: (b)
Leaders and Ministers from eight Amazon Explanation:
nations signed a declaration during the The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau was
Summit in Belem (Brazil), that laid out the created to complement the existing state
plans to drive economic development in machinery to deal with the wildlife crimes
their countries, while preventing the having ramifications beyond the state and
Amazon’s ongoing demise “from reaching a the national borders.
point of no return.” It is not intended to perform the normal
The eight nations attending— Bolivia, and routine functions falling within the
domain of the States/Union Territories, as
Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru,
crime including the implementation of the
Suriname and Venezuela — are the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the
members of the newly revived Amazon
mandate of the State Governments.
Cooperation Treaty Organization, or ACTO,
The Bureau was constituted by an
who hope that a united front will give them
amendment to the Wildlife (Protection)
a major voice in the global environment
Act, 1972. It has been envisaged as a
talks, ahead of the COP-28 Climate
multi- disciplinary statutory body that will
Conference.
have officials from forests, police, customs
and other similar agencies.
52. Answer: (b) What are the powers and functions of
Explanation: the Bureau?
Ecologically, North-east India forms a part The powers and functions of the Bureau
of the South-Asian tropical rain forest belt, are specified under Section 38(Z) of the
which is known for its infinite variety of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which are
wild plants and animals. The forests in as under:
Manipur have the distinction of having a (i) Collect and collate intelligence related
wide range of types, comparatively in a to organized wildlife crime activities and
small geographical area. Teak, pine, oak, to disseminate the same to the State
uningthou, leihao, bamboo and cane are and other enforcement agencies for
the important plants and trees grown in immediate action, so as to apprehend
the hill areas. In addition, rubber, tea, the criminals and to establish a
centralized wildlife crime data bank;
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(vi) Advice the Government of India on the Global heating is pushing the ocean
temperatures to new heights, fuelling more
issues relating to wildlife crimes having
frequent and intense storms, rising sea
national and international
levels, and the salinization of coastal lands
ramifications, and suggest changes
and aquifers.
required in relevant policy and laws
Addressing these urgent concerns, the
from time to time.
Treaty offers guidance, including through
an integrated approach to ocean
54. Answer: (c) management, that builds ecosystem
Explanation: resilience to tackle the adverse effects of
Recently, the United Nation’s 193 Member climate change and ocean acidification,
States adopted a landmark legally binding and maintains and restores ecosystem
Marine Biodiversity Agreement, following integrity, including carbon cycling services.
nearly two decades of fierce negotiations Treaty provisions also recognize the rights
over forging a common wave of and traditional knowledge of the
conservation and sustainability in the high indigenous people and the local
seas beyond the national boundaries – communities, the freedom of scientific
covering two thirds of the planet’s oceans. research, and need for the fair and
equitable sharing of benefits.
Adopted by the Intergovernmental
Conference on Marine Biodiversity of Areas
Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ), the 55. Answer: (b)
“High Seas” Treaty aims at taking Explanation:
stewardship of the ocean on behalf of The Hoolock Gibbon is a primate like the
present and future generations, in line with monkey, langur and chimpanzee. It is also
the Convention on the Law of the Sea. an ape, which is the primate, which is
evolutionarily closest to the humans.
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And it is the only ape found in India, it apart from other renewable sources such
confined to the seven states of north-east as solar or wind energy, which are subject
India, with Brahmaputra as the to climatic fluctuations.
distribution boundary. They form an "Sustainable Alternative Towards
arboreal species and prefer to live in the Affordable Transportation" (SATAT)
canopies of the evergreen forests in initiative has been launched in 2018 to
north-east India. extract economic value from bio-mass
The Hoolock Gibbons traverse across the waste in the form of Compressed Bio Gas
canopy using their very long forelimbs, (CBG) and bio-manure.
hanging and jumping from branch to Municipal solid waste, sugar industry
branch. Along with this, they are famous waste (press mud) and agricultural
for their loud ‘Holou’ calls (that inspires residue have significant potential for
their name “Hoolock”) and duets which production of the same.
both male and female of a group indulge It aims at encouraging entrepreneurs to set
in. They are thought to be territorial calls, up Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production
to make their position known to other plant.
conspecific groups. In order to facilitate financing and access
North-east India is home to two, not one, to funds to the entrepreneurs, CBG plants
species of Hoolock Gibbons: The Western have been included under priority sector
Hoolock Gibbons and the Eastern Hoolock lending by the Reserve Bank of India.
Gibbons.
A large majority of population of gibbons 57. Answer: (d)
in India belong to the Western species.
Explanation:
The Eastern species is primarily found in
Explanation
Myanmar and southern China.
Camelids are a group of even-toed
But few individuals were observed to
ungulate mammals. They are known for
possess the morphological characteristics
their remarkable adaptations to arid and
akin to the Eastern species. They are called
high-altitude environments. Camelids are
the Mishmi Hills Gibbons.
characterized by their long, slender necks
They live together in monogamous pairs,
and legs with padded feet.
which stake out a territory. Their calls
Camelids are modified ruminants or
serve to locate family members and ward
“pseudoruminants.” Like ruminants, they
off other gibbons from their territory.
use foregut fermentation to break down
cellulose in fibrous plant species. But in
56. Answer: (b) contrast to ruminants, their forestomaches
Explanation: are made up of three compartments rather
Bio-CNG is an advanced version of biogas than the true ruminants' (sheep, goats,
produced from organic sources such as cattle, deer) four.
animal manure (farm yard manure) and The United Nations has declared 2024 the
food waste, which have been traditionally International Year of Camelids. The
used in India’s rural landscape. Its decision has been taken to highlight the
calorific value is similar to that of significant importance of camelids in the
Compressed Natural Gas. lives of people across the world.
Bio-CNG is also a decentralised clean There are six living species of
energy form that can be produced at the camelids: dromedary camels, Bactrian
point of consumption right through the camels, wild Bactrian camels, llamas,
year and at all times of the day, which sets alpacas, vicunas, and guanacos.
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habitats, agricultural systems and urban Species (CMS), or the Bonn Convention, is
areas to climate change. an environmental treaty of the UN that
Island ecosystems are especially vulnerable provides a global platform for the
to the impacts of the invasive alien species. conservation and sustainable use of
In response to the urgent need for action, migratory animals and their habitats. It is
the International Union for Conservation of the only global Convention specializing in
Nature (IUCN) implemented the Inva'Ziles the conservation of migratory species, their
project, with input by the IUCN SSC ISSG habitats and migration routes. The pact
network, regional networks, including the was signed in 1979 in Germany and is
Western Indian Ocean Network on Invasive known as the Bonn Convention.
Species (WIONIS) and the Caribbean India has been a party to the CMS since
Invasive Alien Species Network (CIASNET). 1983. As of 2019, India had non-legally
Sleeper species are innocuous native or binding Memoranda (Memorandums) of
naturalized species that exhibit invasive Understanding (MoUs) with the CMS on
characteristics and become pests in the conservation and management of the
response to environmental change. Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles
(2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors
62. Answer: (d) (2016).
Explanation: The CMS brings together the States
through which the migratory animals pass,
The Qanat system, an ancient and
the Range States, and lays the legal
ingenious method of water management,
foundation for internationally coordinated
has played a pivotal role in sustaining
conservation measures throughout a
agriculture and settlements in the arid and
migratory range.
semi-arid regions for centuries.
There are the bodies of water underground,
64. Answer: (a)
known as aquifers, some of which can be
found at the tops of the valleys or near the Explanation:
mountains. A Qanat system taps these The Ring of Fire dominates the Pacific
aquifers and, using underground tunnels, Ocean. It is a string of at least 450 active
moves the water, using gravity, over many and dormant volcanoes that form a semi-
kilometres. The tunnel then exits at a circle, or a horse shoe, around the
lower-lying area. Philippine Sea Plate, the Pacific Plate, Juan
de Fuca and Cocos Plates, and the Nazca
When the water exits the tunnel, the
Plate. There is a lot of seismic activity in
farmers can use it to irrigate their crops.
the area.
The people can also access the water along
About 90 percent of all earthquakes strike
the stretch of the tunnel using wells.
within the Ring of Fire. This means that
The Qanats have been used for centuries in
the people's lives are under almost
the arid and semi-arid parts of north constant threat in Indonesia, the
Africa, the Middle East and Asia, where Philippines, Malaysia, Japan, Australia
water supplies are limited. It is known by a and New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, and
variety of names, “foggara” in north Africa, other island nations, like the Solomon
“falaj” in Oman and “qarez” in parts of Islands, Fiji, and many more in Melanesia,
Asia. Micronesia and Polynesia, all the way east
to the western seaboard of the North and
63. Answer: (c) the South Americas.
Explanation: Many volcanoes in the Ring of Fire were
created through a process of subduction.
The Convention on the Conservation of
And most of the planet's subduction zones
Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also
happen to be located in the Ring of Fire.
known as the Convention on Migratory
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The name ‘Lakshadweep’ in Malayalam and Generally, at the same latitude, the
Sanskrit means ‘a hundred thousand insolation is more over the continents,
islands’. than over the oceans. In winter, the
It is a uni-district Union Territory, and middle and the higher latitudes receive less
comprises 12 atolls, three reefs, five radiation than in summer.
submerged banks and ten inhabited
islands. The Islands have a total area of 71. Answer: (a)
32 sq km. Explanation:
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Salient Features of Mines and Minerals
Territory of Lakshadweep in India, and it is (Development & Regulation) Amendment
also the principal town of the UT. All Act, 2023:
islands are 220 km to 440 km away from
1. Omission of 6 minerals from the list
the coastal city of Kochi (Kerala), in the
of 12 atomic minerals specified in
emerald Arabian Sea.
Part B of First Schedule of MMDR
The Island of Kavaratti lies 360 km off the Act: Earlier, mining and exploration of
coast of the state of Kerala at 10.57°N atomic minerals specified in Part B of
72.64°E. It is the closest major city on the the First Schedule of MMDR Act was
Indian mainland at a distance of 404 km only done through PSUs leading to
(218 nautical miles). It has a lagoon area of limited exploration and mining of these
3.46 sq mi. It has been selected as one of minerals. The Act has thus removed
the hundred Indian cities to be developed certain minerals from the list of atomic
as a ‘Smart City’ under PM Narendra minerals like lithium, beryllium,
Modi’s flagship ‘Smart Cities Mission’. titanium, niobium, tantalum and
The Kavaratti Island is the headquarter of zirconium. Upon removal of these
the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. This minerals from the list of atomic
island is at a distance of 404 km (218 minerals, exploration and mining of
nautical miles) from Kochi, and is located these minerals will be open to private
between the Agatti Island on the west and sector.
the Andrott Island on the east. 2. Empowering Central Government to
The island is 2 to 5 m above the mean sea exclusively auction mineral
level on the western side and 2 to 3 m on concessions of certain critical
the eastern side. It is located in the centre minerals: The Amendment Act
of the Lakshadweep archipelago. empowers the Central Government to
Strangely, Kavaratti has a small inland exclusively auction mining lease and
lake at its northern end. composite licence for certain critical
minerals - molybdenum, rhenium,
70. Answer: (a) tungsten, cadmium, indium, gallium,
Explanation: graphite, vanadium, tellurium,
The Spatial Distribution of Insolation at selenium, nickel, cobalt, tin, platinum
the Earth’s Surface: The insolation group of elements, minerals of “rare
received at the surface varies from about earth” group (not containing Uranium
320 Watt/m2 in the Tropics to about 70 and Thorium); fertilizer minerals such
Watt/m2 in the Poles. Maximum insolation as potash, glauconite and phosphate
is received over the sub-tropical deserts, (without uranium) and minerals being
where the cloudiness is the least. The removed from the list of atomic
Equator receives comparatively less minerals.
insolation than the Tropics. 3. Even though auction would be
conducted by the Central Government,
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Provided that no Bill for the purpose shall matter as it likes. If once a Bill has been
be introduced in either House of referred to the State Legislature, it can
Parliament except on the recommendation later be amended by Parliament and no
of the President and unless, where the fresh reference to the State Legislature is
proposal contained in the Bill affects the required to ascertain its views on the
area, boundaries or name of any of the proposed amendments.
States , the Bill has been referred by the
President to the Legislature of that State 80. Answer: (b)
for expressing its views thereon within
Explanation:
such period as may be specified in the
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS),
reference or within such further period as
2023:
the President may allow and the period so
specified or allowed has expired. 1. Sedition under the Bharatiya Nyaya
(Introduced by 18th Constitution Sanhita, 2023:
Amendment Act). • The phrase 'sedition' is no longer
Explanation I. — In this article, in clauses part of the Bharatiya Nyaya
(a) to (e), “State” includes a Union territory, Sanhita, 2023.
but in the proviso, “State” does not include • In its place, the BNS, 2023, has
a Union territory. introduced Section 152, which deals
Explanation II. — The power conferred on with the Acts endangering
Parliament by clause (a) includes the power sovereignty, unity and integrity of
to form a new State or Union territory by India.
uniting a part of any State or Union • Section 152 of the BNS, 2023, reads
territory to any other State or Union as, 'Whoever, purposely or
territory. knowingly, by words (spoken or
The term "State" in Art. 3 includes a 'Union written) or by signs or visible
Territory', but in case of a 'Union Territory', representation or electronic
no reference need be made to the communication or by use of
concerned Legislature to ascertain its views financial means excites secession,
and Parliament can itself take any action it armed rebellion, subversive
likes in the matter. activities or encourages feelings of
separatist activities or endangers
The purpose of the provision is to give an
sovereignty or unity and integrity of
opportunity to the State Legislature
India shall be punished with
concerned to express its views on the
imprisonment for life or with
proposals contained in the Bill. Parliament
imprisonment which may extend to
is in no way bound by these views. All that
7 years, and shall also be liable for
is contemplated is that Parliament should
fine.
have before it the views of the State
Legislature affected by the proposals • The comments expressing
contained in the Bill, but the Parliament is disapprobation of the measures, or
free to deal with the matter in any manner administrative or other action of the
it thinks fit and may accept or reject what Government with a view to obtain
the State Legislature says. Parliament is their alteration by lawful means
not bound to accept or act upon the views without exciting or attempting to
of the State Legislature. excite the activities referred to in
this Section do not constitute an
If the State Legislature fails to express its
offence under this Section.
views within the stipulated time,
Parliament is free to proceed with the
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2. Organised Crime under the Bharatiya assents to the Bill or that he withholds
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: assent therefrom or that he reserves the
• The phrase 'organised crime' has Bill for the consideration of the President:
been explicitly defined under the Provided that the Governor may, as soon
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. Earlier, as possible after the presentation to him of
organised crime was not defined the Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not
under the Indian Penal Code and a Money Bill together with a message
dealt with under special laws, such requesting that the House or the Houses
as ‘MCOCA’ (Maharashtra Control of will reconsider the Bill or any specified
Organised Crime Act, 1999). provisions thereof and, in particular, will
• Organised crime has been defined consider the desirability of introducing any
as any continuing unlawful activity such amendments as he may recommend
by any person or a group of persons in his message and,
acting in concert, singly or jointly, when a Bill is so returned, the House or
either as a member of an organised the Houses shall reconsider the Bill
crime syndicate or on behalf of such accordingly, and if the Bill is passed again
syndicate by any unlawful means to by the House or the Houses with or
obtain direct or indirect material without amendment and presented to the
benefit including a financial benefit Governor for assent, the Governor shall not
shall constitute organised crime. withhold assent therefrom:
• ‘Organised Crime Syndicate’ means Provided further that the Governor shall
a group of two or more persons who not assent to, but shall reserve for the
acting either singly or jointly, as a consideration of the President, any Bill
syndicate or gang indulge in any which in the opinion of the Governor
continuing unlawful activity. would, if it became law, so derogate from
3. Hate Speech under the Bharatiya the powers of the High Court as to
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: endanger the position which that Court is
• The phrase 'hate speech' has not by this Constitution designed to fill.
been explicitly defined under the Article 201 of the Constitution: When a
BNS, 2023. Bill is reserved by the Governor for the
4. Terrorist Act under the Bharatiya consideration of the President, the
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: President shall declare either that he
assents to the Bill or that he withholds
• Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
assent therefrom:
Sanhita has explicitly defined
'terrorist act' and the punishment Provided that, where the Bill is not a
for indulging in such acts. Money Bill, the President may direct the
Governor to return the Bill to the House or,
as the case may be, the Houses of the
81. Answer: (d)
Legislature of the State together with such
Explanation: a message as is mentioned in the first
Article 200 of the Constitution: Assent proviso to Article 200 and, when a Bill is so
to the Bills: When a Bill has been passed returned, the House or the Houses shall
by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in reconsider it accordingly within a period of
the case of a State having a Legislative six months from the date of receipt of such
Council, has been passed by both the message and, if it is again passed by the
Houses of the Legislature of the State, it House or the Houses with or without
shall be presented to the Governor and the amendment, it shall be presented again to
Governor shall declare either that he the President for his consideration.
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representatives and neutrals who are limiting the Right to Speech and
accessible, have adequate resources Expression. [Article 19 (2)].
and reflect the make-up of the Only the High Court and the Supreme
communities they serve. Court have been given the power to
At its core, the Rule of Law ensures that all punish for their contempt by the
citizens are accountable to the same laws Constitution.
and no-one is above the law.
The Rule of Law is defined in 86. Answer: (b)
the Encyclopædia Britannica as "the Explanation:
mechanism, process, institution,
A Presiding Officers’ Conference held
practice, or norm that supports the
in Delhi in 1996 first mooted the idea of
equality of all citizens before the law,
ethics panels for the two Houses.
secures a non-arbitrary form of
Then Vice President (and Rajya
government, and more generally
Sabha Chairman) K R Narayanan
prevents the arbitrary use of power.”
constituted the Ethics Committee of the
Upper House in 1997, and it was
85. Answer: (d) inaugurated that May to oversee the moral
Explanation: and ethical conduct of members and
According to Section 2(a) of the Contempt examine cases of misconduct referred to it.
of Courts Act, 1971, Contempt of Court The Rules applicable to the Committee of
means civil contempt or criminal contempt. Privileges also apply to the ethics panel.
Section 2(b) of the Act, defines “Civil Any person can complain against a
Contempt” as wilful disobedience to any Member through another Lok Sabha MP,
judgment, decree, direction, order, writ along with evidence of the alleged
or other process of a court or wilful misconduct, and an affidavit stating that
breach of an undertaking given to a the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or
court. vexatious”. If the Member himself
Section 2(c) of the Act, defines “Criminal complains, the affidavit is not needed.
Contempt” as the publication (whether by The Speaker can refer to the Committee
words spoken or written or by signs or by any complaint against an MP.
visible representations or otherwise) of any The Committee does not entertain
matter or the doing of any act whatsoever complaints based only on media reports or
which – on matters that are sub judice. The
(i) Scandalizes or tends to scandalize or Committee makes a prima facie inquiry
lower or tends to lower, the authority of before deciding to examine a complaint. It
any court, or makes its recommendations after
(ii) Prejudices or interferes or tends to evaluating the complaint.
interfere with, the due course of any The Committee presents its report to the
judicial proceeding; or Speaker, who asks the House if the report
(iii) Interferes or tends to interfere with or should be taken up for consideration.
obstructs or tends to obstruct, the There is also a provision for a half-hour
administration of justice in any other discussion on the report.
manner. The work of the Ethics Committee and the
The Constitution does not define the Privileges Committee often overlap. An
Contempt of Court. But the Contempt of allegation of corruption against an MP can
Court has been listed as a ground for be sent to either body, but usually more
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for the OBCs (Other Backward which the genetic material (DNA) has
Classes). been altered.
Other Provisions: ● Genetically engineered crops
• Reservation of seats for women in the encompass a broader category, that
Lok Sabha; the Legislative Assemblies; include:
and the Legislative Assembly for the ○ GMOs (which involve the insertion
NCT of Delhi shall come into effect after of genes from other species or even
an exercise of delimitation is the same species).
undertaken for this purpose after the ○ Crops created through genome
relevant figures for the first census editing techniques (such as
taken after the commencement of the CRISPR-Cas9) without the need to
Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth introduce foreign genes altogether.
Amendment) Act, 2023, have been Hence, not all genetically
published and shall cease to have effect engineered crops involve transfer
on the expiration of a period of fifteen of genes from another species.
years from such commencement. ● Transgenic crops are subjected to
• Rotation of seats reserved for women stringent “environmental release”
in the House of the People; the regulations in India, not just for
Legislative Assembly of a State; and commercial cultivation, but even for
the Legislative Assembly of the field trials and seed production. Such
National Capital Territory of Delhi release requires clearance from the
shall take effect after each Genetic Engineering Appraisal
subsequent exercise of delimitation, Committee, under the Ministry of
as the Parliament may, by law, Environment, Forest and Climate
determine. Change.
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organism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, put there. These points in the space for a
parasite) against antimicrobial drugs or two-body system, such as the Sun and the
treatments to which they were Earth, can be used by the spacecraft to
previously susceptible. remain at these positions with reduced fuel
● Sources of development of AMR: consumption. For two-body gravitational
○ Many microbes develop resistance systems, there are total five Lagrange
to antibiotics over time through Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5.
natural mutation. L1 lies between the Sun-Earth line, which
○ AMR can be acquired from vertical is about 1.5 million km from the Earth.
gene transfer, i.e., during the The distance of L1 from the Earth is
approximately 1% of the Earth-Sun
process of bacterial division, the
distance. A satellite placed in the halo
drug resistance gene is transmitted
orbit around the L1 point has the major
from the parent to the offspring.
advantage of continuously viewing the Sun
○ AMR can also be acquired by a without any occultation/eclipse. This will
microbe from other microbes provide a greater advantage of observing
through swapping genes via the solar activities continuously.
horizontal gene transfer, i.e., genetic The Aditya-L1 spacecraft, launched by
sequences associated with the PSLV (The Polar Satellite Launch
antimicrobial resistance may pass Vehicle) from Sriharikota, was placed
on from one microbe to another in into an elliptical orbit of 235x19500 km
the community. around the Earth.
○ Incomplete doses of medication and Aditya-L1 has a mission life of five years,
self-medication can contribute to during which its payloads are expected to
the development of AMR. provide the most crucial information to
○ Using antibiotics in farm animals understand the problem of coronal
and herbicide use to control weeds heating; coronal mass ejection; pre-flare
may enrich ‘Antimicrobial resistance and flare activities and their
genes’ (ARGs) and ‘Mobile genetic characteristics; dynamics of space
elements’ (MGEs) by altering soil weather; and propagation of particles and
fields.
microbiomes and may contribute
AMR development in agricultural The orbit of Aditya-L1 spacecraft is a
environments. periodic halo orbit which is located roughly
1.5 million km from the Earth on the
○ Inappropriate disposal of unused or
continuously moving Sun–Earth line, with
expired medication can expose
an orbital period of about 177.86 Earth
microbes in the environment to
days. This halo orbit is a periodic, three-
antibiotics and trigger the evolution dimensional orbit at L1, involving the
of resistance. Sun, the Earth and a spacecraft. This
○ Microplastics, and untreated solid specific halo orbit is selected to ensure a
and liquid waste can act as a mission lifetime of 5 years, minimising
reservoir of microbes resistant to station-keeping manoeuvres and thus, fuel
antimicrobials. consumption and ensuring a continuous,
unobstructed view of the Sun.
96. Answer: (a) There are currently four operational
spacecrafts at L1, which are WIND; Solar
Explanation:
and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO);
For a two-body gravitational system, the
Advanced Composition Explorer (ACE); and
Lagrange Points are the positions in the Deep Space Climate Observatory
space where a small object tends to stay, if (DSCOVER).
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