Class: 11th NEET TYPE: T-2

THE HIND GURU ACADEMY

NEET, IIT-JEE (Foundation) Time: 200 min. M.M.: 720

Physics (Section A) : Q. No. 1 to 35 (3) ML−1

1. Select the pair whose dimensions are same (4) None of the above
(1) Pressure and stress 9. Dimensions of one or more pairs are same. Identify
(2) Stress and strain the pairs
(3) Pressure and force (1) Torque and work
(4) Power and force (2) Angular momentum and work
2. Dimensional formula ML−1T −2 does not represent (3) Energy and Young's modulus
the physical quantity (4) Light year and wavelength
(1) Young's modulus of elasticity 10. Dimensional formula for latent heat is
(2) Stress (1) M 0 L2T −2 (2) MLT −2
(3) Strain (3) ML2T −2 (4) ML2T −1
(4) Pressure 11. Dimensional formula for volume elasticity is
3. Dimensional formula ML2T −3 represents (1) M 1L−2T −2 (2) M 1L−3T −2
(1) Force (2) Power
(3) M 1 L2T −2 (4) M 1L−1T −2
(3) Energy (4) Work
12. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant
4. The dimensions of calorie are are
(1) ML2T −2 (2) MLT −2 (1) M −2 L2T −2 (2) M −1L3T −2
(3) ML2T −1 (4) ML2T −3 (3) ML−1T −2 (4) ML2T −2
5. Whose dimensions is ML T −1
2
13. The dimensional formula of angular velocity is
(1) Torque (1) M 0 L0T −1 (2) MLT −1
(2) Angular momentum
(3) M 0 L0T 1 (4) ML0T −2
(3) Power
14. The dimensions of power are
(4) Work
6. If L and R are respectively the inductance and
(1) M 1 L2T −3 (2) 1 −2
M 2 LT
L (3) M 1 L2T −1 (4) M 1LT1 −2

resistance, then the dimensions of will be 15. The dimensions of couple are
R
(1) ML2T −2 (2) MLT −2
0 0 −1
(1) M LT (3) ML−1T −3 (4) ML−2T −2
(2) M 0 LT 0 16. Dimensional formula for angular momentum is
(3) M 0 L0T (1) ML2T −2 (2) ML2T −1
(4) Cannot be represented in terms of M , L (3) MLT −1 (4) M 0 L2T −2
and T 17. The dimensional formula for impulse is
7. Which pair has the same dimensions
(1) MLT −2 (2) MLT −1
(1) Work and power
(3) ML2T −1 (4) M 2 LT −1
(2) Density and relative density
18. The dimensional formula for the modulus of
(3) Momentum and impulse
rigidity is
(4) Stress and strain
(1) ML2T −2 (2) ML−1T −3
8. If C and R represent capacitance and resistance
respectively, then the dimensions of RC are (3) ML−2T −2 (4) ML−1T −2
19. The dimensional formula for r.m.s. (root mean
(1) M 0 L0T 2
square) velocity is
(2) M 0 L0T
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 (1) M 0 LT −1 (2) M 0 L0T −2 27. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through
which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of
(3) M 0 L0T −1 (4) MLT −3
20. The dimensional formula for Planck's constant ( h ) Li 2 are
is (1) ML2T −2
(1) ML−2T −3 (2) ML2T −2 (2) Not expressible in MLT
(3) ML2T −1 (4) ML−2T −2 (3) MLT −2
21. Out of the following, the only pair that does not (4) M 2 L2T −2
have identical dimensions is 28. Of the following quantities, which one has
(1) Angular momentum and Planck's constant dimensions different from the remaining three
(2) Moment of inertia and moment of a force (1) Energy per unit volume
(3) Work and torque (2) Force per unit area
(4) Impulse and momentum (3) Product of voltage and charge per unit
22. The dimensional formula for impulse is same as the volume
dimensional formula for (4) Angular momentum per unit mass
(1) Momentum 29. A spherical body of mass m and radius r is
(2) Force allowed to fall in a medium of viscosity  . The
(3) Rate of change of momentum time in which the velocity of the body increases
(4) Torque from zero to 0.63 times the terminal velocity ( v )
23. Which of the following is dimensionally correct is called time constant ( ) . Dimensionally  can
(1) Pressure = Energy per unit area be represented by
(2) Pressure = Energy per unit volume mr 2
(1)
(3) Pressure = Force per unit volume 6
(4) Pressure = Momentum per unit volume per
unit time  6 mr 
24. Planck's constant has the dimensions (unit) of
(2)  2 
 g 
(1) Energy
m
(2) Linear momentum (3)
(3) Work 6 rv
(4) Angular momentum (4) None of the above
25. The equation of state of some gases can be 30. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m
 a  suspended from a spring of spring constant K is
expressed as  P +  (V − b) = RT . Here P is given by a relation of this type f = C m K ;
x y
 V2 
the pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute where C is a dimensionless quantity. The value of
temperature and a, b, R are constants. The x and y are
dimensions of ' a ' are 1 1
(1) x= ,y=
(1) ML5T −2 (2) ML−1T −2 2 2
(3) M 0 L3T 0 (4) M 0 L6T 0 1 1
(2) x=− ,y=−
26. If V denotes the potential difference across the 2 2
plates of a capacitor of capacitance C , the 1 1
(3) x= ,y=−
dimensions of CV 2 are 2 2
(1) Not expressible in MLT 1 1
(4) x=− ,y=
(2) MLT −2 2 2
(3) M 2 LT −1 31. The quantities A and B are related by the relation,
(4) ML2T −2 m = A / B , where m is the linear density and A
is the force. The dimensions of B are of
(1) Pressure
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 (2) Work (3) Force (4) Couple
(3) Latent heat 41. Dimensional formula of heat energy is
(4) None of the above (1) ML2T −2 (2) MLT −1
32. The velocity of water waves v may depend upon (3) M 0 L0T −2 (4) None of these
their wavelength  , the density of water  and
42. If C and L denote capacitance and inductance
the acceleration due to gravity g . The method of
respectively, then the dimensions of LC are
dimensions gives the relation between these
quantities as (1) M 0 L0T 0 (2) M 0 L0T 2
(1) v 2 rg (2) v 2  g (3) M 2 L0T 2 (4) MLT 2
43. Which of the following quantities has the same
(3) v2  g (4) v 2  g −1 −3 dimensions as that of energy
33. The dimensions of Farad are (1) Power (2) Force
(1) M −1L−2T 2Q2 (2) M −1L−2TQ (3) Momentum (4) Work
L
(3) M −1L−2T −2Q (4) M −1L−2TQ2 44. The dimensions of "time constant" during
R
34. The dimensions of resistivity in terms of M , L, T growth and decay of current in all inductive circuit
and Q where Q stands for the dimensions of is same as that of
charge, is (1) Constant (2) Resistance
(1) ML3T −1Q−2 (2) ML3T −2Q−1 (3) Current (4) Time
45. The period of a body under SHM i.e. presented by
(3) ML2T −1Q−1 (4) MLT −1Q−1
T = P a D b S c ; where P is pressure, D is density
35. The equation of a wave is given by and S is surface tension. The value of a , b and c
x  are
Y = A sin   − k 
v  (1)
3 1
− , ,1 (2) −1, − 2,3
where  is the angular velocity and v is the linear 2 2
velocity. The dimension of k is 1 3 1 1
(3) ,− ,− (4) 1, 2,
(1) LT (2) T 2 2 2 3
(3) T −1 (4) T2 46. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities
has the same dimensions
Physics (Section B) : Q. No. 36 to 50 (1) Work and power
36. The dimensions of coefficient of thermal (2) Momentum and energy
conductivity is (3) Force and power
(1) ML2T −2 K −1 (2) MLT −3 K −1 (4) Work and energy
47. The velocity of a freely falling body changes as
(3) MLT −2 K −1 (4) MLT −3 K
37. Dimensional formula of stress is
g p h q where g is acceleration due to gravity and h
is the height. The values of p and q are
(1) M 0 LT −2 (2) M 0 L−1T −2
1
(3) ML−1T −2 (4) ML2T −2 (1) 1, (2) M 0 L2T −2
38. Dimensional formula of velocity of sound is 2
1
(1) M 0 LT −2 (2) LT 0 (3) ,1 (4) 1,1
2
(3) M 0 LT −1 (4) M 0 L−1T −1
48. Which one of the following does not have the same
39. Dimensional formula of capacitance is
dimensions
(1) c 2 g 0 p −2 (2) ML2T 4 A−2 (1) Work and energy
(3) MLT −4 A2 (4) M −1L−2T −4 A−2 (2) Angle and strain
40. MLT −1 represents the dimensional formula of (3) Relative density and refractive index
(1) Power (2) Momentum (4) Planck constant and energy
49. Dimensions of frequency are
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 (1) M 0 L−1T 0 (2) M 0 L0T −1 59. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
in the reaction, NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O
(3) M 0 L0T (4) MT −2 is
50. Which one has the dimensions different from the
remaining three (1) 25 (2) 49
(1) Power (2) Work (3) 59 (4) 98
(3) Torque (4) Energy 60. The weight of calcium oxide formed by burning
20g of calcium in excess oxygen is
Chemistry (Section A) : Q. No. 51 to 85 (1) 36g (2) 56g
51. Given P = 0.0030 m, Q = 2.40m, R = 3000m, (3) 28g (4) 72g
Significant figures in P,Q and R are respectively 61. The number of water molecules present in a drop
(1) 2, 2, 1 (2) 2, 3, 4 of water (volume 0.0018 mL) at room temperature
is
(3) 4, 2, 1 (4) 4, 2, 3 (1) 6.023 × 1019 (2) 1.084 × 1018
52. The number of significant figures in 6.02 × 1023 is (3) 4.84 × 1017 (4) 6.023 × 1023
(1) 23 (2) 3 62. The incorrect statement for 14g of CO is
(3) 4 (4) 26 (1) It occupies 2.24 litre at NTP
(2) It corresponds to ½ mole of CO
53. If the molecular weight of H3PO3 is M, its
equivalent weight will be (3) It corresponds to same mole of CO and N2
(4) It corresponds to 3.01 × 1023 molecules of
(1) M (2) M/2
CO
(3) M/3 (4) 2M 63. The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen
54. The mass of molecule of water is molecule is
(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 12.046 × 1023
(1) 3 × 10–26 kg (2) 3 × 10–25 kg
(3) 3.0115 × 1023 (4) Indefinite
(3) 1.5 × 10–26 kg (4) 2.5 × 10–26 kg
64. The largest number of molecules is in
55. The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 g of
(1) 34 g of water (2) 28 g of CO2
sucrose [C12H22O11] which has a molar mass of
342.3 g is (3) 46 g of CH3OH (4) 54 g of N2O5
(1) 22 × 1023 (2) 9.91 × 1023 65. Which among the following is the heaviest
(3) 11 × 1023 (4) 44 × 1023 H atom (1) One mole of oxygen
56. What amount of dioxygen (in gram) contains (2) One molecule of sulphur trioxide
1.8 × 1022 molecules (3) 100 amu of uranium
(1) 9.60 (2) 0.0960 (4) Ten moles of hydrogen
(3) 96.0 (4) 0.960 (5) 44 g of carbon dioxide
57. Complete combustion of 0.858 g of compound X 66. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atom as in
gives 2.63 g of CO2 and 1.28 g of H2O. The lowest
molecular mass X can have (1) 10 g of hydrogen (2) 5 g of hydrogen

(1) 43 g (2) 86 g (3) 80 g of hydrogen (4) 1 g of hydrogen

(3) 129 g (4) 172 g 67. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas
is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
58. Cane sugar has molecular mass 342 g. If its 34.2 g
dissolve in 1-litre so, find the no. of molecules of (1) 1.800 × 1022 (2) 6.026 × 1022
cane sugar (3) 1.806 × 1023 (4) 3.600 × 1023
(1) 6.02 × 1022 (2) 6.02 × 1023 68. If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops. Then no. of
(3) 10 (4) 6.02 × 10 24 molecules in a drop of water is
(1) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
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 (2) 1.376 × 1026 molecules 77. 20 mL of methane is completely burnt using 50 mL
of oxygen. The volume of oxygen left after cooling
(3) 1.344 × 1018 molecules
to room temperature is
(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules
(1) 80 mL (2) 40 mL
69. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres
of Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) (3) 60 mL (4) 30 Ml
formed is equal to 78. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in
(1) 0.5 mole of HCl(g) a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be
(2) 1.5 mole of HCl(g)
(3) 1 mole of HCl(g) (1) 2 mol (2) 3 mol
(4) 2 mole of HCl(g) (3) 4 mol (4) 1 mol
70. What will be the molarity of a solution, which 79. Equivalent of KMnO4 acting as an oxidant in acidic
contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL medium is
(1) 4 mol L–1 (2) 20 mol L–1 (1) The same as its molecular weight
(3) 0.2 mol L–1 (4) 2 mol L–1 (2) Half of its molecular weight
71. If Avogadro’s number is A0, the number of Sulphur (3) One-third of its molecular weight
atoms present in 200 mL of 1N H2SO4 is (4) One-fifth of its molecular weight
(1) A0/5 (2) A0/2 80. To neutralize 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide,
(3) A0/10 (4) A0 the volume of M/20 hydrochloric acid required is
72. The empirical formula and molecular mass of (1) 10 mL (2) 15 mL
compound are CH2O and 180g respectively. What
(3) 20 mL (4) 40 mL
will be the molecular formula of the compound
M
81. A solution of 10 mL FeSO 4 was titrated with
(1) C9H18O9 (2) CH2O 10
(3) C6H12O6 (4) C2H4O2 KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. The amount of
KMnO4 used will be
73. The empirical formula of an acid is CH2O2, the
probable molecular formula of acid may be (1) 5 mL of 0.1 M (2) 10 mL of 1.1 M
(1) CH2O (2) CH2O2 (3) 10 mL of 0.5 M (4) 10 mL of 0.02 M
(3) C2H4O2 (4) C3H6O4 82. If 0.50 mol of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol of
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
74. A compound contains 69.5% oxygen and 30.5% Ca3(PO4)2 which can be formed, is
nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92. The
(1) 0.70 (2) 0.50
formula of the compound is
(3) 0.20 (4) 0.10
(1) N2O (2) NO2
83. Value of x in potash alum,
(3) N2O4 (4) N2O5 K2SO4 . Alx(SO4)3 . 24H2O is
75. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in ammonium (1) 4 (2) 1
sulphate is closed to (atomic masses H = 1, N = 14,
O = 16, s = 32) (3) 2 (4) None of these
(1) 21% (2) 24% 84. If 30 mL of H2 and 20 mL of O2 react to form water,
what is left at the end of the reaction
(3) 36% (4) 16%
(1) 10 mL of H2 (2) 5 mL of H2
76. How many of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 (3) 10 mL of O2 (4) 5 mL of O2
cm3 of 0.1 NHCl (Na = 23) 85. The volume of 0.1 M oxalic acid that can be
(1) 40 g (2) 4g completely oxidized by 20 mL of 0.025 M KMnO4
solution is
(3) 6g (4) 60 g
(1) 125 mL (2) 25 mL
(3) 12.5 mL (4) 37.5 mL

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 Chemistry (Section B) : Q. No. 86 to 100 (3) 1 × 1023 molecules
86. 81.4 g sample of ethyl alcohol contain 0.002 g of (4) 12.044 × 1023 molecules
water. The amount of pure ethyl alcohol to the
94. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
proper number of significant figure is
and oxygen. Its elements analysis gave C, 38.71%
(1) 81.4 g (2) 71.40 g and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The empirical
(3) 91.4 g (4) 81 g formula of the compound would be
87. If NA is Avogadro’s number then number of (1) CHO (2) CH4O
valence electron in 4.2 g of nitride ions (N3–)
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O
(1) 2.4 NA (2) 4.2 NA
95. In the reaction, 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) +
(3) 1.6 NA (4) 3.2 NA
6H2O(g). When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of
88. Arrange the following in the order of increasing O2 are made to react to completion
mass (atomic mass : O = 16, Cu = 63, N = 14)
(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced
(I) One atom of oxygen
(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(II) One atom of nitrogen
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(III) 1 × 10–10 mole of oxygen
(IV) 1 × 10–10 mole of copper (4) All the ammonia will be consumed
(1) II < I < III < IV (2) I < II < III < IV 96. The solution of sulphuric acid contains 80% by
(3) III < II < IV < I (4) IV < II < III < I weight H2SO4. Specific gravity of this solution is
1.71. Its normality is about
89. What is the concentration of nitrate ions if equal
volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 M NaCl are (1) 18.0 (2) 27.9
mixed together (3) 1.0 (4) 10.0
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M 97. 0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 ml of decinormal
(3) 0.05 M (4) 0.25 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The
molecular weight of the acid will be
90. The equivalent weight of a divalent metal is 31.82.
The weight of a single atom is (1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 128 (4) 256
63.64
(1) 63.64 (2) 98. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate
6.02 1023
according to the equation
(3) 32.77×6.02×1023 (4) 63.64 × 6.02 ×
MnO−4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H + → Mn 2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H 2O ,
1023
91. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Here 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms (1) 20 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(2) 30 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
–2
(1) 0.02 (2) 3.125 ×10 (3) 40 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(3) 1.25 × 10–2 (4) 2.5 × 10–2 (4) 50 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
92. If 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of 99. In the reaction,
CO2, then the number of moles of CO2 left are 2Al(s) + 6HCl(s) → 2Al3+(aq) + 6Cl–(aq) + 3H2(g)
(1) 6L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3L H2(g)
produced
(1) 2.85 × 10–3 (2) 2.88 × 10–3
(2) 33.6 L H2(s) is produced regardless of
(3) 0.288 × 10–3 (4) 1.68 × 10–2 temperature and pressure for every mole Al
93. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023 that reacts
atom/molecules. Number of moleucles of H2SO4 (3) 67.2L H2(g) at STP is produced for every
present in 100 mL of 0.02 MH2SO4 solution is … mole Al that reacts
(4) 11.2L H2(g) at STP is produced for every
(1) 12.044 × 1020 molecules mole HCl(aq) consumed
(2) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
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100. The molarity of orthophosphoric acid having (1) Growth in living organisms is from inside.
purity of 70% by weight and specific gravity 1.54 (2) Plants grow only up to a certain age.
would be (3) Only living organisms grow.
(1) 11 M (2) 22 M (4) All of these
(3) 33 M (4) 44 M 111. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
events in
Biology (Section A) : Q. No. 101 to 170 (1) Plants only
101. Who is known as ‘Darwin of the 20th century’? (2) Animals only
(1) Lamarck (2) Ernst Mayr (3) Higher animal and plants
(3) Carolus Linneaus (4) Robert May (4) Primitive organisms
102. The number of known and described species that 112. Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining
are in the range of, (approximately) characteristic of living organisms because
(1) 1.3 to 1.4 million (2) 1.4 to 1.5 million (1) All living organism do not show growth.
(3) 1.7 to 1.8 million (4) 1.9 to 2.2 million (2) Many organism do not reproduce.
103. Twin characteristics of growth are (3) Non-living things show reproduction.
(1) Increase in mass (4) All living organism show small period of
(2) Increase in number reproductive phase in their life.
(3) Both (1) and (2) 113. Living organism shows
(4) Increase in length and volume (1) Self-replication
104. Growth in living organism (2) Evolution
(1) Is from outside (2) Is from inside (3) Self-regulation & response to external
stimuli
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) doesn’t take place
(4) All of these
105. Which of the following does not grow?
114. The sum total of chemical reactions occurring in
(1) Amoeba (2) Yeast
our body is called
(3) Dead body (4) Planaria
(1) Metabolism (2) Homeostasis
106. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of
(3) Catabolism (4) Anabolism
living organisms because
115. Select incorrect statement from the following.
(1) All living organism do not show growth.
(A) NBRI is situated at Lucknow.
(2) Non-living things also grow from inside.
(B) The plant families like Convolvulaceae and
(3) Non-living things also grow.
Solanaceae are included in order
(4) Some living organism does not exhibit the polymoniales mainly based on the floral
process of reproduction. characters.
107. Select total number from the following organism (C) All living organisms such as from present,
that multiply by budding. Hydra, Sponges, yeast, past and future are linked to one another by
earthworm, Planaria, honey bee the sharing of common genetic material but
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 to varying degree.
108. for which organism, the growth is synonymous (D) The order Solanum, Datura and Petunia are
with reproduction? placed in family Solanaceae.
(1) Unicellular algae (1) A (2) B, D (3) D (4) B, C
(2) Amoeba 116. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3) Bacteria (1) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes
(4) All of these exhibit metabolism.
109. Which of these multiply through fragmentation? (2) Interactions among molecular components
(1) Fungi of the organelles result into the properties of
(2) Filamentous algae cell organelles.
(3) Planaria (3) Properties of cellular organelles are present
(4) All of these in the molecular constituent of the
organelles.
110. Mark the correct statement.

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 (4) Celluar organization of the body is the (2) Increase in mass from inside only.
defining feature of life forms. (3) Perception of events happening in the
117. Properties of organs are environment and their memory.
(1) Present in the constituent cells (4) Increase in mass by accumulation of
(2) Due to different cells in them material both on surface as well as
(3) Due to their similar origin internally.
(4) Result of interaction among constituent 124. Which of the following is self-conscious?
tissues (1) Human being (2) Tiger
118. Which 2 points are known as twin characteristics (3) Lion (4) Frog
of growth? 125. Metabolic reactions take place
(A) Increase in mass (1) In vitro
(B) Metabolism (2) In vivo
(C) Increase in the number of individuals (3) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Sense of environment (4) Only in unicellular organisms
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D) 126. Organisms that can sense and respond to
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C) environmental cues
119. Growth by cell division occurs ___ in plants and (1) Eukaryotes only
___ in animals (2) Prokaryotes only
(1) Continuously, only up to a certain age (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Only up to a certain age, continuously (4) Those with a well-developed
(3) Continuously, never neuroendocrine system
(4) Continuously, continuously 127. Growth, development and functioning of living
120. Which of the following match is incorrect? body is due to
Comm Genus Order Class (1) Decrease in entropy
on (2) Increase in Gibbs-free energy
name (3) Metabolism
1 Man Homo Primate Mammalia (4) Adaptations
2 Mango Mangif Sapinda Dicotyledona 128. A living organism can be exceptionally
era les e differentiated from a non-living thing on the basis
3 House Musca Coelope Insecta of its ability for
fly tra (1) Reproduction and Excretion
4 Wheat Tritium Poales Monocotyled (2) Growth and Movement
onae (3) Responsiveness to touch and temperature
121. Which organism set multiply through (4) Interaction with environment and
fragmentation? progressive evolution
(1) Planaria, hydra, yeast 129. Two components of binomial nomenclature are
(2) Echinoderms, fungi, bacteria (1) Generic name (2) Specific epithet
(3) Fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Subspecies
mosses 130. In Mangifera indica Linn, Linn stands for
(4) Amoeba, hydra, virus (1) Latin (2) Lower organism
122. Which organism does not reproduce? (3) Linnaeus (4) Lamarck
(1) Mules 131. Alsatian is a breed of
(2) Sterile worker bees (1) Dog (2) Cat
(3) Sterile human couple (3) Cow (4) Horse
(4) All of these 132. Modern taxonomy studies require
123. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive (1) Knowledge of external & internal structure
characteristic of living things? (2) Knowledge of structure of cell.
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro.

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 (3)
Knowledge development process and (3) Morphology (4) Eugenics
ecological information of organisms. 143. The third name in trinomial nomenclature is
(4) All of these (1) Species (2) Subgenus
133. Which of these term include all other terms? (3) Subspecies (4) Holotype
(1) Classification (2) Nomenclature 144. in binomial nomenclature
(3) Taxonomy (4) Systematics (1) Both genus & species are printed in italics.
(2) Genus and species may be of same name.
134. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called (3) Both the initial letters in genus and species
(1) Trinomial (2) Vernacular is capital.
(3) Binomial (4) Polynomial (4) Genus is written after the species.
135. Binomial nomenclature seems to be difficult 145. As we go from higher species to kingdom, the
because a scientific name is derived from number of common characteristic goes on
(1) Hindi (2) Sanskrit (1) Increasing (2) Decreasing
(3) Latin (4) Arabic (3) Remains same (4) none of these
136. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of 146. The binomial nomenclature was given by
any rank is (1) Lamarck (2) Ernst Mayr
(1) Species (2) Order (3) Carolus Linnaeus (4) Darwin
(3) Genus (4) Taxon 147. The term ‘taxon’ is used for
137. Binomial nomenclature means (1) The ranks of species and genus
(1) Two names in which one is given by (2) The ranks up to phylum
zoologist and other by botanist. (3) The species epithet only
(2) One scientific name consisting of a generic (4) Any rank of taxonomic hierarchy
name and a specific epithet.
148. The taxonomic aid that provides information for
(3) Two names in which one is latinized and the identification of names of species found in an
other is french. area is
(4) Two names in which one is scientific and (1) Monograph (2) Manual
other is local.
(3) Catalogue (4) Periodical
138. Basic unit of taxonomic hierarchy is
149. The Indian Botanical Garden is located in
(1) Species (2) Kingdom
(1) Howrah (2) Lucknow
(3) Class (4) Phylum
(3) Mumbai (4) Mysore
139. Botanical name of mango is
150. The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located in
(1) Mangifera indica
(1) England (2) Lucknow
(2) Solanum tuberosum
(3) America (4) Australia
(3) Solanum melongena
151. Correct sequence of taxonomic categories is
(4) Panthera leo
(1) Species–order–kingdom–phylum
140. Botanical name of potato is
(2) Species–family–genus–class
(1) Mangifera indica
(3) Genus–species–order–phylum
(2) Solanum tuberosum
(4) Species–genus–order-phylum
(3) Solanum melongena
152. Which biological name is wrongly written?
(4) Panthera leo
(1) Apis indica
141. Zoological name of lion is
(2) Triticum aestivum
(1) Mangifera indica
(3) Felis domesticus
(2) Solanum tuberosum
(4) Mangifera Indica
(3) Solanum melongena
153. Descending arrangement of categories is called
(4) Panthera leo
(1) Classification (2) Taxonomy
142. The branch connected with characterization,
(3) Hierarchy (4) Key
nomenclature, identification and classification is
54. Petunia is a
(1) Ecology (2) Taxonomy
(1) Variety (2) Subspecies
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 (3) Species (4) Genus 163. Zoological name of leopard is
155. Which one of the following is not a category? (1) Mangifera indica
(1) Species (2) Class (2) Solanum tuberosum
(3) Phylum (4) Convolvulaceae (3) Solanum melongena
156. In the hierarchy of classification, the order is (4) Panthera pardus
present between 164. Zoological name of house fly is
(1) Family and genus (1) Mangifera indica
(2) Phylum and kingdom (2) Solanum tuberosum
(3) Family and class (3) Solanum melongena
(4) Family and species (4) Musca domestica
157. Select incorrect statement from the following. 165. Zoological name of man is
(1) Each statement in key is called lead. (1) Mangifera indica
(2) Taxonomic keys are tools that helps in (2) Solanum tuberosum
identification based on characterstics. (3) Solanum melongena
(3) ICZN stands for International Code of (4) Homo sapiens
Zoological Nomenclature.
166. Botanical name of wheat is
(4) Ernst Mayr used the system a Nature as the
(1) Mangifera indica
title of his publication.
(2) Solanum tuberosum
158. Place where we store dry plants for information
purpose is called (3) Solanum melongena
(1) Key (2) Museum (4) Triticum aestivum
(3) Monograph (4) Herbarium 167. Zoological name of cat is
159. Which is not a part of taxonomic hierarchy? (1) Mangifera indica
(1) Genus and species (2) Solanum tuberosum
(2) Order and class (3) Solanum melongena
(3) Kingdom and class (4) Felis domesticus
(4) Catalogue and herbarium 168. Botanical name of makoi is
160. Find the incorrect statement from the following: (1) Mangifera indica
(1) Closely related species differ in (2) Solanum tuberosum
morphological features. (3) Solanum melongena
(2) Genus comprises a group of related species. (4) Solanum nigrum
(3) Taxonomic studies are useful in agricultural, 169. Potato and brinjal belongs to the genus
forestry and industries. (1) Mangifera (2) Solanum
(4) Notochord and ventral hollow neural system (3) Allium (4) Brassica
are common features of phylum chordata. 170. Genera Petunia and Datura belongs to the family
161. ICBN stands for (1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
(1) International Code for Biosphere (3) Liliaceae (4) any of the above
Nomenclature
(2) International Code for Botanical Biology (Section B) : Q. No. 171 to 200
Nomenclature
171. Select total number of family from following:
(3) International Class for Biological Nobel
leurette Felis, Felidae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae, Canidae,
Hominidae, Poaceae, Muscidae, Insecta,
(4) International Committe for Biological
Convolvulaceae
Naming
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
162. Zoological name of tiger is
172. Family Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae belongs to
(1) Mangifera indica
the order
(2) Solanum tuberosum
(1) Poales (2) Polymoniales
(3) Solanum melongena
(3) Diptera (4) Dicot
(4) Panthera tigris
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173. Common features of Chordata are (1) Key is a taxonomical aid used for the
(1) Presence of notochord in any stage of life identification of plants and animals based on
(2) Dorsal hollow neural system the similarities and dissimilarities.
(3) Paired pharyngeal gill slits (2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for
each taxonomic category such as family,
(4) All of these
genus & species for identification purposes
174. Which of the following is a common feature of
(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature.
category ‘insecta’?
(4) Key is another taxonomical aid used for the
(1) Presence of ostium
nomenclature of plants and animals based
(2) Presence of coxal gland for excretion on similarities and dissimilarities.
(3) 3 pair of jointed legs in thoracic region 185. Which of these is a means of recording
(4) Exoskeleton of cutin description?
175. Which of these represents the family of mango? (1) Flora and manuals
(1) Sapindales (2) Anacardiaceae (2) Monographs
(3) Poales (4) Poaceae (3) Catalogues
176. House fly belongs to the order (4) All of these
(1) Diptera (2) Carnivora 186. Flora contains information about the habitat and
(3) Primata (4) Insecta distribution of
177. Which is not required for preservation of insect? (1) Animals of a given area
(1) Collecting (2) Killing (2) Plants of a given area
(3) Pinning (4) Pressing (3) Some useful plants of a given area
178. IBG is situated at (4) Some useful animals of a given area
(1) Kew (2) Howrah 187. Monographs contains the information of
(3) Lucknow (4) Jodhpur (1) Genus (2) species
179. A museum has a collection of (3) Family (4) any one taxon
(1) Preserved plants 188. Manuals contain information for
(2) Preserved animals (1) Habitat and distribution of animals in a
(3) Skeleton of animals given area
(4) All of these (2) Habitat and distribution of plants in a given
180. Which animals are usually stuffed & preserved? area
(1) Large birds (2) Mammals (3) Identification of names of species found in
(3) Small lizards (4) both (1) and (2) an area
181. Zoological parks are places for (4) Habitat and distribution of some useful
animals in a given area
(1) Wild animals (2) Pet animals
189. Organisms vary in
(3) Wild plants (4) Endangered crops
(1) Size and colour
182. Zoological park is a place where
(2) Habitat
(1) Wild animals are kept in protected
environment under human care. (3) Physiological and morphological features
(4) All of these
(2) We can learn about wild animal’s food
habit. 190. Live specimens of organisms are found in
(3) We can learn about wild animal’s behavior. (1) Herbaria
(4) All of these (2) Museum
183. The keys are based on contrasting characters (3) Zoological parks and botanical gardens
generally in pairs called (4) All of these
(1) Duplex (2) Couplet 191. Name of a plant written on herbarium sheet is its
(3) Dimer (4) All of these (1) English name (2) Local name
184. Which of the following is incorrect about keys? (3) Botanical name (4) All of these
192. NBRI is situated in
(1) Kolkata (2) Lucknow

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 (3) Delhi (4) Jodhpur (4)NBRI – National Botanical Registered
193. Which is prime source of taxonomical studies? Institute
(1) Collection of actual specimen 200. Single-horned Rhinoes are found in
(2) Nomenclature (1) Ghana
(3) Characterization (2) Bastar of Madhya Pradesh
(4) Identification (3) Kaziranga National Park
194. Tiger, dog and cat are placed in order of (4) Khasi in Meghalaya
(1) Insectivora (2) Carnivora
(3) Primata (4) Lagomorpha
195. Monkey, gorilla and gibbons belongs to which of
the following order and class respectively
(1) Primata and prototheria
(2) Primata and mammalia
(3) Carnivora and eutheria
(4) Carnivora and mammalia
196. In plants, families are characterized on basis of
(1) Vegetative structures
(2) Reproductive features
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
197. Match the column:
Column I Column II
A Man P Order – Carnivora
B Mango Q Family – Proaceae
C Housefly R Genus – Musca
D Tiger S Phylum – Chordata
E Wheat T Family – Anacardiaceae
(1) A-P, B-T, C-R, D-S, E-Q
(2) A-S, B-T, C-R, D-P, E-Q
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P, E-T
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S, E-T
198. Select the incorrect combination:
(1) Fragmentation — Fungi, Planaria,
Protonema of moss
(2) Budding — Yeast, hydra and sponges
(3) Order — Mammalia, primata, diptera,
poales, polymoniales, sapindales
(4) Genus — Homo, Triticum, Musca, Felis,
Panthera, Datura, Petunia, Mangifera,
Solanum
199. Select the correct combination:
(1) Earliest classification based on – Uses of
various organisms
(2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth –
Primitive multicellular organism
(3) ICZN – International Code of Zoo
Nomenclature

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