~ FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023 MM : 720 Test -9 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII) Instructions for Paper (OXVIIIVTS<) : () There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to allemp! all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section out of 16. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given na marks. Gi) Use blue/black bellpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circ. (vy). Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle. (¥)_ Dark only one circle for oach entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must nat be done on the Answer sheet and do noi use white-fuid or any othier rubbing material ‘on the Answer sheet. Choose the correct answer ees SECTIONS A 9 A physical quantity x depends on quaities y and z as x= Ay + B sin (Cz), whore A, Band C are constants. Which of the following have same dimensions? (1) xand Ay (2) xand & (8) Cand 2+ (4) Allof those 2. A body is dropped under gravity. The ratio of distances coverée bry the body in first and sixth second of motion is: (yas @ 16 (@) 1:5 (4) 5:12 “Tne famous Big Bon clock tower n London nas hour hand of approximate. length 10. feet Cause the magnitude of chenge in veloaty of hour hand of Big Ben in six hours (1 feet = 0.305 m) (1 04ta9 mis (2) 0.06912 mis (3) 0.341 cm/s (4) 0.887 mmis By what patcent the inpedance Ina series LCR, JAC ote shout! bs increase so that the power faaor dares tom (2) © (2) tcoame 2) * ly resistance R remains constant) (1) 200% 2) 100% (@) 50% (4) 400%‘There are two ‘rictionless conducting rails placed in @ transverse uniform magnetic fel 8 as shown in the figure, The rails are connected by @ fixed resistive arm AB having resistance R and a movable conducting rod PQ of length J is also placed as shown. If the rod PQ is given a rightward inal velocity v, then the Initial current in the circuit will be Byi BRI OR ay 2B01 ba oR OR If each side of 2 regular polygon of n sides has 2 resistance R, The euivalent resistance between any two adjacent vertices is con af (0-18 ee @ A In a Young's double slit experiment, the, a separation between the two slits is mm. The distance of the screen from the slits is 50 cm. If the wavelength of light used is 4000 A, then the angular position of first dark fringe is (121° (2) 0.018" (@) 046° (4) 0.3" Snapshot of & transverse disturbance on a stretched siring is shown in the following figure. The wave is travelling along positive xedirection. The particles for which velccity is directed along negative y-direction is Ma @ec 10, “1 12, 13. A particle of mass M at rest break into two particles of masses mi and mz having non-zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particles 1 2 (1) mime (2) me: e144 @) Sng, The graph shows logarithmic readings of pressure and volume for two ideal gases A and & undergoing adiabatic process. It can be concluded that (one of the gases A and B is monoatomic and one is diatomic) In (Ph we in) (1) Ais diatomic (2) Bis diatomic (3) Bis monatomic (A) Both (1) and (3) ‘A motor vehicle moves such that the velocity is @ linear function of time. The graph between accelerationime anc velociy-time, respectively will be (1) Straightline, straight tine Q) Straightline, parabola (3) Parabola, straight ine (4) Parabola, parabola Raghu is running on a straight horizontal road on a rainy day, with a speed of 4 mis. He observes: that the rain is falling down vertically with a speed 3 mis. The actual speed of raindrops is (1) amis. (2) divs (3) Sms (4) 2mis ‘An engine of a motor pulls up a 20 kg mass slowly through a height of 10 m in 10 s. ‘The paver consumption of the engine, Init works at an efficiency of 60% is (g = 10 mis?) (1) 200 W (2) e66.6W (3) e00. Ww (4) 333.314. ABCD represents a uniform square lamina as shown in the figure, The moment of inertia along the corresponding axis are also indicated Aah, The ratio 12 has a value Pe | * 8 uv ise (1) 4:4 (2) 4:3 Qa (4) 2:4 15. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely 2s the n® power of distance. Then time period of «= planet in circular orbit of radius around the ‘sun willbe proportional to w az) { @ R a a? 16, The molar- specific heat capacity of an ideal mono-alomic gas, during a process represented by equation PY = constant is (cy-3R 2 25R @3R (2R 17. A block of mass 2 kg, moves such thet the Variation of velocity with position is as represented in the graph. The power delivered to the particle at x = 2m will be @ Az) @ 32 @aw @) 16W 18. In the circuit diagram shown, a large numbor of resistors are connected. Using the value of resistances indicated in the figure, find the equivalent reestanee between terminals A and B. a de a 10 20 ae eo a : ae Ay 4 if a be Bs (1) YBa (2) V4. @) a ) Ba 19. The degree of aortic valve stenosis (abnormal narrowing of blood vessels) can be determined by calculating the area 42 of valvular opening and comparing with data given Stenosis degree —_| Area (em’) Severe <1 Moderate 1-15 Mild, 18-25 Consider following aortic flow and blood as incompressible fluid Aadom? “y v= 60 cris a) Bare etre ‘The dagres of stenosis in cross-section Asis (1) Severe (2) Moderate (3) Mild (4) Insufficient date 20. Two Cainot engines are operaied in succession The first one, receives heat from a source at T= 400 K and rejects to sink at Ts K, The second engine receives heat rejected by first engine and rejects to another sink at Ta = 100K. I the efficiency of both the engines are equal then Tes (1) 250K (2) 300K (3) 200K (4) 100K 21. A sonometer wire of length 280 cm is divided into 3 segments having fundamental frequencies in the ratio 4: 1: 2 Tho lengths of the segments are (1) 206m, 40 em, 220 em 2) 40.cm, 160 em, 80 6m {3) 40 cm, 180 em, 60 em (4) 80 cm, £0 cm, 120 em22. 23, 2A, 25 26. Consider the following two statements (@) Viral image cannot de photographed (©) Virtual image can be seen by an observer The incorrect statement(s) is/are (1) Only (@) (2) Only (b) (B) Both (@)and (b) (4). Neither (a) nor (6) ‘The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of Earth. What will be the period of oscillation of a pendulum on this planet if itis @ seconds pendulum on earth? () v2 5 (2) 22s 1 1 Q) Tes 4) OF Oa AA liquid is filed in a spherical container of radius R iil a height h as shown in figure, At this position, the liquid surface at the edges ere horizontal. The contact angie is mo (R=) ) sin*(=Z*) In the situation shown in the'figire, all the identical cylinders move such that there is no slipping anywhere. The ratio of angular speeds of | upper eyinders to that of lower cylinders Is an (yaa (2) 7:4 @ a7 (4) 4:3 galaxy moving with spood 150 km/s shows biue shift. At what approximate wavelength sodium line of 260.0 nm will be observed? (1) 582.130 (2) 879.71 nm (9) 988.21 nm (4) 575.2.0m 27. The light waves having displacements Y,=10sin(ot-kx) andy, = 25in[ot kx) interfere. The ratio of maximum to minimum average intensity of light in interference patter is 6 8 ay & 2) 2 ms @ 3 9 4 3 a) 4 3) 2 @¢ 28. Which among the following has smallest wavelenath? (1) Radio wave (2) Micro wave (3) Uv- Rays (4) XRays 29. In camped oscillations, the amplitude of oscillations is reduced to one-fourth of its initial value of Ap at the end of 30 oscillations. The ‘amplitude when the oscillator complotes 60 oscillations is A (0) A> ap A sa Og a = 30. For a patticle showing motion under the force F =~90x 4), the motion is. (1) Transiatory (2) Oscillatory +43) SHM (4) Allof these 31. An inductor of inductance 10 H and ool resistance 5 Q is connected with a source ‘through which current is decreasing at a rate of 2.Als, The potential difference across the inductor when 4A current is passing through it, is (1) Ze 2) 20V (3) 40 4) wv 32, The number of photons emitted by a laser source of 6» 10° W operating at 724 nm in 3e ie nearly (1) 7108 2) 8x10 @) 9 = 108 (4) 6 «108 33. The phenomenon of sound propagation in air is (1) Isothormal process (2) Isobaric process (3) Aciabatic process (4) Isochoric process:34. The variation of induced emf (e) with time (8) ina coil, if a short bar magnet is moved along ils axis, with a constant velocity is best represented as follows a \ / @) Kf 7 4 ° @) / \ (4) / \ t 85. A transistor is used as an amplifier in common base mode with a load of 2.1 KA, The current gain of the amplifier is 0.97. and the input resistance is 70 9, the voltage gain and power gain respectively are (1) 29.1, 28.2 (2) 30,291 (3) 26.2, 27.4 (4) 28.2, 29.1 20 SS RAECTION RRS w 36. The following con‘iguration of gate is equivalent co (1) NAND (2) XOR @) oR (4) NOR 37. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom if the atomic radius of the first orbit is m, then the radius of fourth ore Q) nw (2) 4r0 @* (4) 16% 38, The binding energy per nucleon for a fihium nucleus (3Li) is x and for a helium nucteus (gHe) is y. In @ nuclear reaction @ lithium nucleus when bombarded with a praton yields two helium muclel, The O value of reaction is () yox (2) x-y (8) By-?« (4) Tx-8y 98. The angle of dip at a point measured along two perpendicular planes is 30° and 45°. The angle of ‘tue aip at that point is (1) tanrt@) 40, ‘Three charges 20, ~6C, 4C ere placed at the vertices of an equilateral tangle, Then (1) Electiic fleld at its centve is zero but the elecitic potential is non-zero (2) Electric field et ts center is non-zero but the elecitic potenti is zero (3) Bélfielettic field and potential at the centre of he triangle are ze. (4) Both electric field and potential al the centre Of tte tiangle are non-zero 41. Two.€apacitors of capacitance C and 3C are ‘charged to potential V and 3V respectively. If they are connected with their ike charged piates kept together.’then both the capacitors will come to potential of (ya (2) 25V (3) 1.5v (4) av 42, In the figure shown below wo have four charges qu G3 and gs. Choose the correct option regarding the Gaussian surface S. (a) The flux passing through $ is due to 93, @2, 43 and qu. (0) The electric field on S is dus to qr, ge, ge and cs (1) (a) is correct and (b)is incorrect (2) (apis incorrect, (b) is correct (3) Both (a) and (b) are correct (4) Both (a) and (o) are incorrect43, A fighter aircraft of wing span 20 m is flying due west with supersonic soced of Mach 3, If Earth's magnetic field at that point is § * 10~* T and dip angle is 37°, then emf induced across the ends of its wings is (Speed of sound = 343 mis) (1) 8232 (@) 6.174 (3) 10.29 (4) 2058 44. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum lwansferred to the surface — 2E 1) c (2) Cc 2 wee 45. An arrangement of two blocks of came mass m kept inside a lit which is moving with acceleration 2 in vertical downwars cirecton. f acceleration of block 4 with respect to earth is minimum, find'the value ofa in mis#(g = 10 mis?) A aly Cay ke (1) amis? (2) 2mist (3) 6mis? (4) 8mist 48. The largest load (in N) that can be. suspended without moving blocks A and B is if the coefficient of static friction for all plane surfaces of contact is 0.3, Block A weight § N and block B weight 10 N (Neglect friction in the pulley systern) a ae @) 2N 2) 9N (3) 15N (4) 27N 47. Consider the motion of three bodies as shown. For an observer on B, the magnitude of relative velocity of A with respect to C (in mis) is 1 pms 3 mig aR. c 4 mi (1) 4 mis (2) 8mis g) Ts 4) 9mls 43. A particle is projected vertically upwards in absence of air resistance with a velocity u from 2 point O. When it retums to the point of projection (1) Itsayeraga velocity is zero (2) GBBIgcementis non-zero offigqaveredE speedis > 14) Us average speed is uw a9. The" number of significant fgures in the value 0:003280 is (Bo 3 4 (4) 7 50. A plano-convex ens fs cut along the axis x1" and then rearranged as shown. Ifthe focal length of plano-convex was f, the focal length of the system affor reartangoment will be A AL 4B Paar ae E 8 ine (2) 2F t M5 (@) ZeroSE st 52. 53, 54. 55, 56. USECTION =A. Positive Fehine's testis given by pete (2) Cls-cHo 9 8) Ph- ay (4) Ph- COOH ‘The most basic compound in aqueous solution is (1) CHaNHe (2) (CH):NH (3) Ns (4) (CHa)N Number of moles of COz produced on heating 20 g of CaCOs\s), given that CaCOs is only 50% pureis eS 1 wy 1 35 Qe 3 1 8 iy Ms ‘The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of K atom is (Atomi¢ number of Kis 19) notom os m4 3 0 : lean iis Ogee en wero 4 Hypophosphorous acid has (1) Two P = 0 bonds (2) Two P-H bonds (3) Two P- OH bonds (4) One PO =P bond How much snould the pressure be increased approximately in order to decrease the volume of ‘gas by 10% sta constant temperature? (1) 18% (2) 20% (3) 11% (4) 5.5% 57. The electrolyte that is most effective to coagulate gold sol is (1) KelFe(Onp] (2) Cac (3) Nassos (4) AlCls 58. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at pH = Svillbe [oonsider R,, = 1 bar, T = 296 K] (1) 03 (2) 03v (3) +0414 (4) 006 or ve. (I + aq. KOH———+ Product(s) HCl Major product of the above reaction is OH oH Hcl ‘80. Which’ of the following is expected to be coloured in aqueous solutions? (1) Sc (2) Te @) or (4) Cut 61. Mixture of CO and No gases is called (1) Water gas (2) Synthetic sas (3) Coal gas (4) Producer gas 62. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Co(enyal* (1) this sp%t hybricised and ostahedrat (2) Wis sp%¢ hybrisised and tetrahedral (3) Its ¢2sp* nypridisod and octahedral (4) Itis dp? hybridised and square planar 63. The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids In hexegonal primitive unit cell respectively are ay a2 (@) 6.12 @ 12,6 (4) 8465. 66, 67. 68, Calgon’s method removes permanent hardness of water, chemically calgon is (1) Sodium hexametaphosphate (2) Orhodorate (@) Chloraie (4) Tetrephosphate ‘Statement I: Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with zine dust. Statoment I: Phonol is oxidized to benzoquinone on reaction with chromic acid. In the light of above statements, choose the correct snswer from the options given below. (1) Botn statement I and statement Il are correct (2) Both statement 1 and statement tl are Incorrect (3) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect (4) Statomont | is incorrect but statement Ml is correct Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease (1) Ber-Beri (2) Cheilosis 3) - ery (4) Convulsions : Nas, ay Cut Saleh, @NO2, | oven, (0-8*0) Solest the correct option for the above reaction sequence. (1) Als PhoHeNHe (2) Bis Ph NGI (3) Compound C is meta-directing for electrophilic substitution reaction O readily? @ JN “A -O 90 “ec 69, 70. n 72, 73 7A, 75. lodoform test is not given by (1) C2HoOHt (2) CHsCHO (3) CHecocHs (4) CH:OH Find out'B' in the folowing sequence of reactions O,, calor O ee ° ° Ot 9 9 ® ay Which of the following ion is largest in size? (1) Nev (2) Mg (3) Oo (4) The gas released on heating LiNOs is (1) Nop (2) No @) Me (4) No Which of the following can be prepared by Kolbe's electrolysis? )) CHsOH @ C (4) CHs—CHs Statement I: Gas mask ie usually used for breathing in a coal mines to adsorb po'sonous gases. (2) CHacHo Statement Il: Due to difference in degree of adsorption of gases by charcoal, a mixture of noble gases can be separated by adoption (1) Both the statement 1 and statement It are comect (2) Both the statement I and statement I are Incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect, (4) Statement I is incoweet but statement 1 is correct Cannizzara reaction is given by (1) PaCHecHO (2) CHacocHy (8) CHsCH2cHO. (4) PhoHo76. Ketones can be converted to 2° alcohol by which of the following reagent? (1) Kon. (2) LiAIHs (3) Mno2 (4) Poe, 77. In which of the following process very pure hydrogen (09.9%) can be produced? (1) Reaction of sat hydrides with water (2) Reaction of methane with stear @) Electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(CH). solution between nickel electrodes (4) Pyrolysis of natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight 78. Select (#803) (1) Itie a Bronsted acia 2) Itis a Lewis acid (8) Itis an Armhenius acid (4) Basiclty value is three 79. An artticial sweetener having sweelness value as compared to cane sugis* (1) Alitame (2) Sucralese (3) Aspartame (4) Sacha? 80. The compound that does not liberate nitrogen ‘928 on heating is (1) Batts (2) (NHe)eCre0% , @) (NHe}SOs (4) NHuNO, 81. The correct option for the stiri TFA) effectis exhibited by’ is (1) Urea solution (8) Glucose solution correct statement about boric acid (2) Nac! sbiiltion” (4) starch sSlation 82. Two liquids A and B are mixed in @ molar ratio of 423,10 PR =100mmbg and PS =400 mmHg, then the mole fraction of A in vapour phase is 1 a. Dg @ a5 4 10 ay Oe 83, Structure of XeFs is (1) Tetrahedral (2) Square planar (3) See-saw (4) T-shapes ‘maximum 84, Oz acts as an electrophile in (1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (2) Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis (3) Kolbe's reaction (4) Wurtz reaction 85. Statement 1: Copper is refined using an electrolytic method. Statement Il: Zone refining method is very useful for producing semiconductor. (1) Both the statement | anc statement II are comrect (2) Both the statement 1 and statement I are incorrect (9) Stetement | is correct but statement His ineorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement 11 is 86. On fBdion Vif? CHaMyBr, folowed by hydrolysis acligiBEfivio produces "ia ano (2) 2° alcohol AREA acio (4) An ester 8% ;The ions-obtained as products when chlorine gas reactS@ith hot and concentrated NaOH is €H.Cb and Clo- (2) OF end ClO~ YB) Crandclor (4) Ch end lor 88 ‘Number of exygen atom(s) shared per SOx unit ina pyrosticate is aa 2 3 aa 89, Contact process is Used for the manufacturing of (1) Sulphurous acid (2) Nitrous acid (8) Nitric acie (4) Sulphuric acia 90. Number of structural isomers possible in CaHrCl me (4 8) 3 4) 8 91. Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of (1) Nyon-6,6 (2) Nyon-6 (8) Polyester @) Polythene92, 93, 94, 95. 97 98 For a reversible reaction A(s) = 28(g) + C(g). if at T(K) equilibrium pressure is P then K; will be 9) 4p aye HP a - oe oF The equilibrium constant of the reaction Culs) + 2Ag'(eq) > Cut(aq) + 2Ag(s) E = 0.45 V at 298 K is (1) 110% (2) 1108 (3) 1108 (a) 1107 Consider the following reaction, Cronstiny + Oa) + Cais AH = Xr cal and Canons; + Ox + COna AH = ~Xo cal What is the heat of transition of graphite into iemona? (1) Xi Xe (2) o-X (8) Xi=% (4) 0 + %) In which of the following, Ke end Ke are equal? (1) 3H2{q) + Neg) = 2NHS(g) (2) Holo) + l(a) + 2H) (3) PCk(g) = PCk(g) + Clg) (4) 20(8) + Ode) = 26060) Equivalent weight of HeSO« in the reaction HeS0< + NaOH > NaHSOs + H-0 will be (iF molecular mass of H2SQs is M.) 9) M aM omy M 2M 9 3 oy Which of the following Is thermally most stable? (1) Mgcos (2) Caco: (3) SOs (4) BaCOs Ozonolysis products of a reactant X’ are acetone and butan-2-one compound, *’ will be (1) SEthyL2-methyibut-zene (2) S-Methyl-2-propylprop-2-ene (3) 2. 3Dimethyipent-7-ene (4) 8, 4-Diethyibut-1-ene 99. Match the compounds given in column | with their structure given in column Wh [Column [Column w ja. Jo-Cresol @ | GOOK OH b. |Salicylic acid [diy | OH cH, jc. [Aspirin qrj) ‘GH = en — EHO: Jd. |cinnamaldehyde |(i)| GOOH er 11) afiy, b@, efi, ati (2) alti, bt), ott), diy (3) ati, BU, eft), ati (4) tiv), DED, ft), a) Statement I: The enthalpy of mixing of the pure ‘components to form the solution is zero and the volume of mixing is also zero ie., 109. An H= 0 and Ani V = 0 Statement Il: Mixture of n-hexane and n-heptane is a non-ideal solution In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) Both the statement | and statement I are correct (2) Both the statement | and statement Il are incorrect, (3) Statement | Is correct but statement I is incorrect, (4) Statement | is inconect but statement Il is correctBE EON aR Sas BS 101. Select the mismatched option. (1) Centioles - 940 = Cartwhed! ‘arrangement of appearanco rieroubules| (2), Ribosome - Membraneless - Protein synthesis (2) Chroplast — Semi. = twohed in ‘eutonomous photoresiretion organelle (4) Gas = Suounded — ~ Partot vvocustes by tonoplast lendomeribrane syelom 102.a. Requires ATP energy. b, Movement through the transport proteins, ©. Response to protein inhibitors Above given statements are true for (1) Simple difusion (2) Facilitated ditusion’ (3) Activetransport (4) Osimdis 4103. A bivalent seen during pachytene Stage ina cell of diploid organism has (1) Two chromatids and four centromeres (2) Four chromesomes ane two chromatids (3) Four chromatids and hwo centromeres (4) Four chromatids and four cenirémeres 104. Human genome project nd@ildiSia! he development of @ branch of scienckknosr as (1) Biosystematics (2) Bioprospecting (8) Bioinformatics (4) Bioremediation 105. Find the option which is wrongly matched, (1) Class — Mammalia (2) Order — Insecta (3) Family — Poaceae (4) Division — Angiospermae. 106. Which of the following olement is a component of nitrogenase and nitrate reduciase which participate in nitrogen metabolism? (1) Mg (2) Mn (3) Mo (4) 2n 107. The bacteria which are found in the gut of ruminant animals and are responsible for production of methane ere (1) Cyanobacteria. (2) Methanogens (3) Dinoflagotlates (4) Eubacteria 108. A. This enzyme is not required for C2 cycle. B._Itis present in mesophyll cells of Cx plants. ©. Itshows carboxylase activity only Above given statements are true for (1) Succinate dehydrogenase (2) RuBisco (3) PEPcase (4) Citrate synthase Road the following statoments end select the correBkSBHOH Statement A: “All fungi possess a puroly coffle8iael Wall and are saprophytic, ‘Steléienif’B : Morols and truffles are non-ecible {stiteoms. “CAPO aIy Aig incorract (2) hiy’B is incorrect (3)°88ih A and B are incorrect (ay Both A and B are correct 109. 440°Choose the correct option w.rt, naturally fermented beverage and respective alcohol concentration. (1) Wine-125% (2) Brandy-8% (3) Whisky-7% (4) Rum-15% 111, Hoa many of the following statements is/are correct? (@) Pulvinus is swollen leaf base seen in some legume plants. (©) Banana is @ parthenocarpic fruit and is a monocot (©) Alstonia shows whoried phytotaxy. (@) In the axil of the every leaflet of compound leaves, there is presence of axillary bud aa @4 @2 3112 113 114. 116. 116. ur, 118. Mark the incorrect staternent (1) 2, 4-D is used to kill dicot weeds (2) GAs speeds up malting process (3) Kinetin occurs naturally in planis (4) Auxin controls xylem differentiation ‘Staminode is/represonts (1) Bilobed stamen with two microsporangia only (2) Sterile stamen which do not produce microspores (3) Seon only in pistillate flowers of date palm (4) Adhesion of stamens with each otter in china rose ‘Algin and carrageen can be obtained respectively from (1) Fucus and Porphyra (2) Fucus and Laminaria (3) Dictyota and Voivox (4) Spirogyra and Grooilaria Collenchyma differs from parenchyfha in Bing: (1) Photosynthetic and meristematic, (2) Simple tiseuo with igntied thickering 48) Living mechanical tissue (4) Thin walled and hard tissue j Clear cut vegetative, reproductive end senedtent | phases eannot be defined in (1) Radish (2) Chia Fese (8) Rice (4) Meriggia Choose the feature which is exclusivé fo'vascular amphibians of plant kingdom. (1) Jacketed sex organs (2) Presence of archegonia (8) Presence of independent gametophyte 2s woll as sporophyte (4) Requirement of water for fertilisation Which of the following is a feature of cells of middle layer of anther wall? (1) They are ephemeral and polyploic (2 They are shor lived and multinuctoate (9) They are 1-3 layered and possess fibrous band (4) Leck fibrous maturity bands and degenerate at 149. Which of the following organisms is not involved in grazing food chain? () Algae (2) Fungi (8) Insects (4) Phytopianitons 120.1f @ woman whose father and mother are hhaemophiic, marries @ normal man, what is the probabilty oftheir daushter being haemophitic? (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 75% (4) 100% 121. For a solution at atmospheric pressure We % (2) w= z0r0 ©) y.=zer0 O wew 122, Mark the incorrect match wart, sex determination type. (1) Drosophila ~ XX XY type (2) Grasshopper - XX XO type (3) Bultertly — XX XO type (4) 3-2 22 type 123. Jn GBHRB fembers of Fabaceae, certain portion oF ‘160%, féllilos wore found red in colour due to DEEAHce of a pigment. This pigment also (4) Holps in nitrification in the legumes and Alnus “@.Prévies energy to the chemoautotrophic ‘rfogen fixing bacteria @J Protects Mo-Fe protein enzyme from aerobic ‘conditions (4) Transports oxygen to the nitrogen fixing bacteria for producing ATP 724. Ha bacterium with hybrid DNA is allowed to replicate for one generation in medium containing Nand for second generation in a medium containing N'®, what is the proportion of ight DNA ster second generation? (1) 0% (2) 25% (9) 50% (4) 100% 425, The primary COz aoceptor in plants which lack photorespiration (1) Is phosphoenol pyruvate (2) Is RuBP (3) Has four carbons (4) Is found in bundle sheath cells126. Read the given statements and mark it as True (1) or false (F) and select the correct option, ‘A. Potato is an intergeneric somatic hybrid. 8. Virus free plants can be obtained trom infected plant by meristem culture. C. Strict protection of biodiversity hotspots could reduce ongoing mass extinction by almost 20%, D. Amazonian ‘rain forest contributes 20% of total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere. alejc|o my) t fer fe ft @l rf) rfl] r ele pei rier @m|-e ft ]e fr 127. Select the substrate with maximum RQwvaive: (1) Oxalic acid (2) Amino acio (8) Glucose (4) Tripalmitic acid 128. following, except (1) Family of plant specimen (2) Place of collection (3) Date of collection (4) Height of the plant ‘The role of stress hormone is to (1) Promote stem elongstion and closure of stomata (2) Promote abscission germination (3) Prevent dormancy and transpiration (4) Promote trenspiration and inhibit protein synthesis ‘Which of the following changes occur in a person ‘experiencing altitude sickness? (1) Body decreases RBC production (2) Binding capacity of haemoglobin decreases (3) Breathing rate decreases (4) Person feels energetic 129, and inhibit seed 130. ‘A herbarium provides information about all of the, , 131. In eukaryotic cell, capping and tailing of hnRNA cours in (1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Cytoplasm (3) Nuoleolus (4) Nucleoplasm 132, The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association, exemplity (1) Competition (3) Predation (2) Commensalism (4) Amensalism 133, Select ihe option stating Incorrect statements wc. TCA cycle in eukaryotes. (@) The cyde starts with the condensation of acetyl group with OAA and water (0) TCA cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix (©) This cydla,serves as a pathway for oxidation of RUEFIERAtes only @) Sug ae involved in this found allached to inner \drial membrane is In.one Krebs cycle, 6 reduced co-enzymes “are preduced 41) (g)zngTe) only (2) (a), (b) and (e) (3).4oV'end (e) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) 134."Reac the following statements and choose the ‘Rorrect option. ‘A. The most problematic aquatic weed is regarded as terror of Bengal. B. UV-B causes snow-blindness. C. A mere 0.1% impurities make domestic sewage unfit for human use. D. Thinning of egg shells is major effect of biomagnification of DDT. Pure water has very high BOD level F. 67% of forest cover for the plains has been recommended by National Forest Policy (1988) (1) Only (A), (D) and (€) are correct (2) Only (8), (C) end (0) are correct (8) Both (A) and (8) are incorrect (4) Both (€) and (F) are incorrect195. Select the odd one w.c: long day plants. (1) Wheat (2) Radish (3) Tobacco (4) Sugarbeet SESECTION-B Re © 196. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and alycolipids is (1) SER (2) Golgi body (3) Plastio (4) RER 197. A pair of plants which can prevent both autocamy as well as geitonogemy is (1) Cucurbits and coconut (2) Coconut and papaya (3) Cucurbits and date pain (4) Date palm and papaya 198, The stage between two meiotic divisions (1) Is very tong (2) Involves replication of ONA (3) Involves centriole duplication (4) Is followed by prophase 1 139. Porsistent nucellus in some seeds i§ called’ (1) Endosperm (2) Pericarpi (9) Pevisperm (4) Epiblast 140. a. Attack arthropods. b, Belongs to genus Nucleopolyhedrovitus. Is species-specitic, ° 1d, Has broad spectrum insecticidaté@pplicationgs | : rr Forms endospores that i butterfly caterpilars. Which of the above are features of Badllovirus? (1) aandc only (2) dande only (3) a, band c only (4) Allsiatements except c 141, Find the incorrect match wrt pedigree symbols. LE -O - Mating — Unatfected female ~ Affected male @) ean ~ Parents with affected chit 142, Select the fungi producing asexual spores only (1) Agaricus (2) Trichoderma 8) Aspergitus (4) Albugo 443. In prokaryotes, _A_RNA polymerase(s) can polymerise al lypes of RNA. All three major RNAs are needed to synthesis B_ inacel Here A and B are a ®) (1) Onlytwotypesof =, rRNA (2) Asingle type of Protein (3) Only three types of Protein (4) our apes of rRNA 444. The Ey, tae at the base of the ovary and a'Sifigle oville is attached to it in (1) aR er (2) Diehthus (3)-Lomor (a) Pea AS. Whichiof the following is a wheat variely that is ‘sistant to leaf and stripe rust, and hill bunt? (1) Pusa komal 2) Himgii (3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Sonalika 146, The dead component of phloem is (1) Bast fisres {2) Sieve tubos (3) Phloem parenchyma (4). Companion cells 147. Which of the following can happen if Ophrys flowers evolve and produce some structural changes? (1) Bee will pollinate the flower as doing before evolution (2) Bee also needs to evolve to survive (3) Extinction of orchid can occur if bee is the only pollinator (4) Pollination success will Increase148. In a dcot root, cork cambium arises by divisions of cells of (1) Comtex: (2) Pericycie (3) Endodermis (4) Conjunctive tissue 149. Which of the following does not exemplify ex-situ conservation strategy? (1) Zoological parks (2) Botanical gardens (3) Wilatfe satari parks (4) National parks Ao SECTION A, 181. Which of the following hormones "is, mainly responsible for ovulation and stimulates! corpus luteum during menstrual cycle? (1) FSH (3) LH (2) Estrogen’* (4) Progesterone 152. The function o ciated epithelium islare (1) Secretion and absorption (2) To move pasticlesimucus in spetiie edlion (3) To facilitate diffusion (4) To provide protection againstl#ichemical stresses 153, All of the following are secondary metabolites, except (1) Morphine (2) Ricin (2) Vinblastin (4) Collagen 154, Match column I with column Ii and select the correct option. Columa | Column L. Oxyntic cells (a) Crypts of Lleberkunn ji, Bile pigments {b) Bilverdin i, Lysozyme (©) Hel iv. Goblet celle {d) Mucus 150. Match the column I and column Il and select the correct option. Colurin t Column tl a.| Fucus |) [Is @ green alga and shows anisogamy b. | Porptyra | (i) | Produces daughter colonics and possess pyrenoids c. | Volvox — | ii) | Complex post fertilisation developments occur d. | Eudorina | (jv) | Prosance of air bladders and mannitol (1) afi), bli), efi), div) (2) 20), biti), ef), a) ) AG), DG), efi), 4G) (4) ACV), BAH, C4, i) (1) (4), 10), Hive) @ tepid ivig) (8) 4), we, Fife, (0) (ile), i(@), ii(a), ivi) 195; The outermost layer of wall of alimentary canal Which-I8 made up of @ thin mesothelium with ‘some connective tissues is called Gtncose (@) Muscutaris (2) Sub-mucosa (4) Serosa 156. An exclusively marine organism which shows bioluminescence and possesses comb plates for locomotion belongs to the phylum (1) Poritera (2) Coslenterata (2) Ctenophora (4) Platyhelminthes 157. Select the correct statement wit graph. the given Energy —> Potent168, 159, 160. 161 162 (1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme (2) Endothermic reaction with energy Bin presence of enzyme (3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme (4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme Choose the incorreet statement (1) Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin and are Involved in inflammatory reactions (2) Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions (3) Megakaryocytes are cell fragments, responsible for immune responses of the body (4) Neutrophils and monocytes are phagosytic in nature Which of the following is. not preent produces by the sweat glands? (1 Lactic acia (2) Nact (4) Urea sweat (8) Storols Emphysema is a chronic disorder, One, othe | major cause of this disease is (1) Contaminated food 2) Cigarette smoking (@) Bacterial infections (4) Fungal infections In counter current mechanism, the concentration gradiont in tho medullary interstitium is mainly caused by (1) HCO, anak (2) NaCl and Ho (3) NaCland urea (4) K’ and HY Which of the following sets of STIs are not curable? (1) Gonorrhoea, HIV, syphilis (2) Genital herpes, HIV, Hepalits-8 () Syphilis, Genital warts, Trichomeniasis (4) Genital herpes, Genital warts, gonorthoea 163, Select the incorrect match. (1) Cartlaginous joint — Between the adjacent vertebrae of vertabral column Q) Fibrous joint Sutures (3) Saddle joint = Between carpals (@) Hinge joint = Elbow joint 164. Identity the structure marked as °X' in the figure given below. (1) Basitar membrane (2) Tectoriallfigmbrane (8) Tympafiiesiferbrane @YRGissngFSFhembrane “16Sulntérnal bi€eding, muscular fover, anomia “Ghd blockage of the intestinal passage are SyitpIoms of gC) Filariests (2) Ascariasis (@Amndebiasis (4) Ringworm 1 68.dihe active transport of ions by sodium-potassium \pump tokes place in our body which transports, (1) 51Na* outwards for 2K" into axoplasm (@) 2.Na* inwards for 3k° to outwards (8) 31Na* to axoplasm for 2k* outwards (4) 1 Na* to axoplasm for 2K° outwards ‘An autosimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and Paralysis of skelotal muscle is (1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Muscular dystrophy (3) Tetany (4) Antritis ‘and natural selection are the two key Concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution Select correet option to il the blank. (1) Station (2) Genetic recombination (@) Branching descent (4) Gene flow 167. 168,169. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that act as intercellular messengers are known as hormones (2) Fight-or-fight reactions cause activation of the acrenal medulla, leading to increased ‘secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, (3) Melanin produced from pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake oyole. (4) Stored oxytocin is released from posterior pituitary, and is known as milk ejection hormone. 170. Select a triploblastic coelomate animal that lacks metamerism, (1) Locusta (2) Limulus (3) Pheretima (4) Octopus: 171. Tympanum represents ear in ell ofhe following animals, except (1) Rena (2) Crocoditis (3) Bufo (4) Preropus 172. Chromosome number in meiooytes and gafiiétes™ of housefly are respectively (1) 12,6 (2) 46,23 (3) 8.4 (4) 380, 190 173. On the basis of given comparison betweon chordates and non-chordates, select the incorrect one. Non-chordates | Chordates (1) | Posteanal tail Postanal tail absent present (2)| Ginsits absent — | Pharyngeal gill sits | present, (8) | Heartis ventral | Heart is dorsal (4) | Notochord absent | Notochord present 474. Assertion (A); In case of snakebites, the injection given to patient provides passive Immunity, Reason (R): The Injection given against snakebite contains preformed antibodies. In the light of above given statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the corract explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, (R)is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false Nowadays, the most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is agarose which is @ natural polymer extracted from (1) Sediwelltiss @ 8. igor oniBt cout 4@3"Terile eqvatious 98. Belts he correct moich w.rt structures present ‘WiiBockroabh,and their numbers, 175. D(a) Malpighian tubules: 6-8 (2)'Spiracles 20 RGF Hepatic caeca 400-150 (4) Alary muscles 12 177. Respiration involves the following steps. a. Transport of gases by blood. b. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of COz. ¢. Diffusion of gases (Oz and CO2} across ‘alveolar membrane. d. Atmospheric air is drawn in and COe rich alveolar air is released out, . Diffusion of Ov and COr between blood and tissues, Arrange the above given steps In correct order and select the correct option: () 852545050 @) D>asc+e30 (@ d+c+ase>d (4) d rere sa 9b476. In RNA\, there is silencing of a specific A due to complementary _B_ molecule that binds to and prevents protein synthesis, Choose the option that represents A and B correctly, A B (1) mRNA ssRNA (2) ssRNA ssRNA (3) mRNA dsRNA, (4) ssDNA dsDNA 179, Which of the following accessory glands nelp(s) in the lubrication of the penis in human male? (1) Prostate gland (2) Barth (3) Seminal vesicles (4) Bulbourethral glands ‘A peptide hormone, secreted frém gastro, intestinal tract stimulates the releage of Bile juice from gel bladder is (1) Gastrin (2) Seoretin () coK (4) GIP Select an incorrect match, (1) Acid in stomach — Physiological barter, (2) Natural killer cells ~ Cellular barriog (3) Interferons — Cytoidie Barons (PML — Physical bait In atherosclerosis, the lumen of arteriesbecome naieower due (0 the deposits of all the folowing, except (1) Cakeium (2) Glycogen (9) Fat (4) Cholesterol lends 180. 181 182 183. Choose the correct option w.rt. cockroach. (1) Respiration ‘Tracheal tubes (2) Paurometabolous 12 times moulting development (3) Muscular heart One-chambered (4) Excretion ‘Ammonotelic 164, Parturition is induced by @ complex neuroendocrine mechanism involving ll the following hormones, except (1) Oxytocin (2) Cortisol (8) Estrogen (4) Prolactin A. stirer in stirred-tank bioreactor facilitates 185. primarily (1) Uniform oxygen availabilty throughout the bioreactor (2) Death of microbes: (3) Temperature control (4) Optimum pH conditions i: SECOND 22S The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of 108, (1) Proboscis gland (2) Waiter canal system (8) Water vasculf’system (aYRadiat’syinmetry 187 Bijgottié incorrect match {eens [enaracter [Faxon [open vctageest [cooerieria | Yi,| Beneri |High regeneration |Platyhelirinties | BB [Nees [scameneaworm [Aneta (@ [lames [lv toss schatnines 188. Select the cell junction that facltates ‘communication between adjacent cells for rapid ‘transfer of ions and molecules (1) Tight junctions (@) Adhering unctons (2) Gap junctions (4) Macula adherens 189. All of the following are organic compounds present in the acid insoluble fraction, except (1) Proteins (2) Monosaccharides (3) Nucleic acids (4) Lipids 190, Gyclostomes do not show the presence of (1) 6-45 pairs of ail sits (2) Circular mouth without jaws (3) Paired fins (4) Cartiaginous endoskeleton191. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of alveoli, Which of the following is not true for alveoli? (1) Alveoli are thin, irregular-walled structures (2) They are lined by multilayered cells, (3) They are vascularised bagelke structures (4) They are lined by simple squamous epithelium 192. In a healthy adult human the number of platelets present in per cubic millimetre of blood is (1) 1.5 lacs to 3.5 lacs (2) 15 million to 3.5 milion (2) 40 Smilion (4) 2.5 milion to 3 million 193. On an everage, __ am of urea is excreted out per day by 2 healthy adult human. ‘Selec! correet option to fil the blank corractly.. () 17-20 (2) 25-30 (3) 95-40 (4) 10-15 104. Cells of human body exhibit following types of movements, a. Amoeboid b. Clary cc. Muscular 0. Flagellar How mony of the above ore tue wrt. neutrophiis and monocytes? (2 (2)3 @o 4 Qo 195. The medulla oblongata contains centres for sll the following, except (1) Respiration (2) Urge for eating (3) Gastric secretions (4) Cardiovascular reflexes 496. The regulation of diurnal rhythm is performed by a hormone, secreted from (1) Pineal gland (2) Thytoid gland (3) Thymus gland 4) Adrenal medulla 197. Which is not eesociated with oarly diagnosis of diseases? (1) PeR (2) ROT (3) ELISA (4) Gene therapy 198, A cow is administered hormones (FSH-Ike) lo Induce follicu'ar maturation and superovulation in (1) Artificial insemination (2) MOET (3) Inte:spacitic hybriisation (4) Cross-breacing 199. The floor of scala media is made of (1);Scala vesiioul (2) Basilar membrane {@) Raisenars membrane (4) Tectorial membrane 200. The founder's effect is included under umbrella of (1) Genetic equibrium (2) Genetic recombination (9) Genetic ait (@) MutationsFINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023 ram: 720 Test-9 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Answers 41. @) 8. (4) wana) 161.(3) 42, 2) 82. (1) 122.(3) 162.2) 43. @) 83. (2) 123.(3) 163.3) 44. @) 84. (3) 124.(1) 164. (4) 45, (2) 85. (1) 125.(1) 165.(2) c 48. (2) 86. (2) 126.(2) 166.(1) 7 47. Q) 87. (3) 427.(1) 167.(1) 8 48, (1) 88. (3) 128.(4) 168.(3) 49. @) 89. (4) 129.(2) 169.3) 10 50. 3) 90. (1) 130.(2) 170.(4) n 51. @) st. (2) | 138.44) 471.44) 2 52. @) 92. (2) 132.2) 172.11) 3 53. 2) 93. (1) 133.3) 173.13) 1" 54. Q) 94. (2) 134.14) 174.1) 18 55. (2) 95. (2) 135.(3) 475.(1) 6 56. Q) 96. (1) 136.(2) 176.(2) 57. (4) 97. (4) 137.14) 177.3) 58. (2) $8. (3) 138.(3) 178.(3) ' 59. @) 99. (2) 139.(3) 179.(4) 20. 60. 3) 100.(3) 140.(3) 180. (3) 21 61. (4) 101.14) 141.03) 181.(4) 62. (3) 102.13) 142.(2) 182.(2) 2, 63. (3) 103.(3) 143.(2) 183.(1) 24 64. (1) 104.13) 144.01) 184.(4) 25 65. (1) 105.(2) 145.(2) 185.(1) 26. 66. (1) 106.(3) 146.(1) 186.(3) 2 67. 2) 107.12) 147.8) 187.(4) 26. 68. (1) 108.(3) 148.(2) 188.(2) 29 69. (4) 109.(3) 149.(4) 189.(2) 30 70. (2) 110.(1) 180.(2) 190.(3) an 1. @) 111.4) 151.0) 191.(2) 32, 72. (1) 112.(3) 182.(2) 192.(1) 33. 73. (4) 113.12) 153.(4) 193.(2) 3a 7. (1) 414.) 184.(2) 194.(4) 5 75. (4) 115.(3) 155.4) 195.(2) 46 76. (2) 116.(2) 156.3) 196.(1) 3 77. (3) 117.13) 187.(4) 197.14) 30 78. (2) 118.(4) 158 (3) 198.(2) su 79. (1) 119.(2) 159.(3) 199.(2) 40. 80. (3) 120.(1) 160.(2) 200.(3)FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023 MM : 720 Test-9 Time : 3 Hrs, 20 Mins SECTION -A, 1. Answer (4) b= [Ay] = (8) [C2}= [MPL T9] = (¢) = (24) 2. Answer (1) Galileo law of odd numbers 3. Answer (4) v= av = 20 = 2[ 55-2 | "(8.051 = 8.87 «104m 4. Answer (2) 28 z % 100% = 100% 5. Answer (4) 7 Biv 6 10. Answer (3) (O-WR*R (np (=)RSR on ‘Answer (2) B 2) The first dark fringe will be at hal! the from central maximum, 7 4/ 4000, 10 100 ad) al” 2x10 = 0.018" Answer (1) Particles where slope is + speed along negative y-direction, Answer (3) Momentum of both masses will be sai magnitude, Since 1 de-Broglie wavelength of the masse same, Answer (4) Pvi=c In (P) + vIn (Y= In (C) In (P) == y In (VY) + In (C) > straight tine 1 for Bis higher.en) 15 straight tine - » straight line paraltel to time axis, Answer (3) N34? 5 mis wor (8) 20> 1010 10 593.33 W = R, As per symmetry I, ratio = 2:4 > Answer (1) Get mv? R vn JOM Veet y PAR aR Af") | at vem b. Answer (3) P\1 constant pv 7 sonstant > T = FE PV"? = Constant PV2 = Constant Pe may 22% 4x22 16W 18. Answer (4) Lot the equivalent resistance be x 19 A x 2 Br x a a x "1 2 so x= V2 =1.41420 19, Answor (2) 604 = 200%, 20. Answer (3) T-WTTy = Y400%100 = 200k 21. Answer (2) Aihythy=4:0:2 14:2 44x 2x 7x =280 em x=40.¢m = Lengths are x, 4x and 2x 40cm:1600m, 80cm 22, Answer (1) Virtual image can be seen by an observer and can be photographed. 23. Answer (2) T 9-912 aT ss 24, Answer (2) (R-h - R=) cost = 0=c0s"'( R=h cos" 525, 26 27. 28 29. 30. Answer (2) 3v+av aR av R Required ratios = Answer (2) 2. ~v 15010") 3x10 dean =580-0.29 =579.71 Answer (2) Inae = (10 + 2) Inn = (10-2)? (Bs Ve) 4 ‘Answer (4) ‘Among the given, wavelength. Answer (3) et A= Age? , let Tbe the time period of oscilation 02. =-0.291m X-Rays has smallest soot case!: A= Ae on an 4 1 Casell: AsAe an "y 13125 em ‘Answer (1) Here, 31, 32, 33, 34 36, 36, Fis always negative as («= 4) is always positive Its translatory motion as direction of F change for any value of x Answer (1) The equivalent diagram for inductor 5 sh Va Va = 10(2) ~4(5) = 0 Answer (1) a -8.63x107 «310% 72410 P__ 6x07 E* o0a7a.107 =0,0274 +10 n=7x10% Answer (3) According to Laplace when sound pros air, itis an adiabatic process. Answer (2) As the magnet moves towards the coil flux increases (non-linearly). Also ty change in polarity of induced emf when Passes on to the other side of coil Answer (1) = 097 SECTION-B Answer (2) XOR gate. alely ofolo rfo|s4a, ser (ly) 4¥ 16 v4 Answer (9) LP 42!He+@ BE )paner=(B.Ehoatn ay Lo = cols: + cobs cot 8 = €0t'30" + coras® 6 tan(3) oree344 2, tans Answver (2) m Electne field is vector quantity and is directed ‘ay from positive charges and towards negative charges. + Potential is a scalar quantity and hence will be (2) cv + (3C)a) _ Sv mm C1 Avvower (2) Electric field is due to all the charges whereas flux 1s due to charges enclosed by the surface, Avswer (2) E> BLV[B, = Bsino = 3x 10+ 7) (ae 104) * 203 «343 26.174 Answer (2) 2E Momentum transferred = 25 Momentum transferred = 46. 47, Answor (2) mp IB Lot acceleration of block wt lft be ay than a mg-a) 4 em 2-9) Acceleration of block Aw... ground 3 [5a? —2gag* day For minimum 5,29 = OF minimum ay, =0 10a-29=0 =9-2mbs? a-2-2mis Answer (2) eo as FD of A a 03% When block A just start to move FED ot B 30.3*5 wi a er 30.3% 15 ‘The block 6 will start to move when 2T+0.3%840.3"15 N ‘Answer (3) Relative velocity does not depend on observer, i.e Wa-Vel=(Ya-Ya)-(We-¥a) +4 ms48, 51 82. 53, 54. 56. Answer (1) When particle returns to same point displacement is zero therefore average velocity is also zero. Total distance ‘Average speed “Sat distance au ae Total time a") 2 SECTION -A ‘Answer (2) Fehling's test is given by only aliphatic aldehydes, CHsCHO gives +ve Fehling’s test. Answer (2) The basic strength of alkyl amines in aqueous state is decided on the basis of inductive effect, solvation effect and steric hindrance of the alkyl group so, the correct order of basicity is: (CHs):NH > (CHs)NH2> (CH)sN > NH ‘Answer (2) CaO, —»Ca0+C0, 1008 ug 209 of CaCOs produces “#4 »209 COs 44 ie. 4.20900, ©. 7572090 44, 50 22 Actual mass of COr= x= 9 24 moles of COz produced = x7 Answer (3) ‘Atomic number of K is 19. E.Cis: 18? 2s? 2p? 3s? Spt 4s! For ds! n=4,1=0,m Answer (2) ° I HW] Son H (ypophosphorous acta) 49. Answer (3) The trailing zeroos are significant and the left of frst non-zero number are inst 50. Answer (3) 1 1 T es 56. Answer (3) Pavr= Pave Pv=P20.9V) Po=1.11P 57. Answer (4) Gold is negatively charged so! 58, Answer (2) ee otis E = -0,0591 p) 59. Answer (3) a -03V Hi- Cl This substrate partic ‘nucleophilic substitution mechanism because of a solvent (Protic solvent) 7 cI reaction by S$ Step 1: 60, Answer (3) + Sc, Tit contain 3d" configuration + Cut contains 34° configuration + CP contains 3o° configuration d—d transition is possible only for a to (0 | spin complex)Ans “ 8 is fuel gas thal is made from the uatenals such as egal ‘ combustible mixture of nitrogen and carbon monoxide gives the producer gas. Answver (3) [COIN = d sp'hybridised 3a 4s 49 dsp’ (iy. a i ttt cNCN CN GNENEN oscar (3) HCP contains 6 octahedral void so the tetrahedral Calgon is chemically sodium hexametaphosphate (NPL) Anseer (1) 4 O nous oO Ht ° é nay 50, 8 Answer 1) Deticiency of vitamin By causes Beriberi disease. 112) er aes om oa © @ © Q isan aromatic species Answer (4) ‘ven iodine and sodium hydroxide are added ‘© a compound that contains either a methyl ketone or a secondary alcohol with methyl ‘group at alpha position give positive iodoform st example: Acetaldehyde, Methyl ketones, Ethanol ete. 70. mn 72, 73. 74, 75. 76. 77 78. Answer (2) oO A ‘OH is On Bis ° ‘Answer (3) Na’, Mg?*, Ne and O2- are isoelectronic So, isoelectronic ions can be arrange in increasing ‘order of ionic radii on the basis of charge on it. Order of oni size is Anionic > Neutral > Cation So correct order of size of ons is (OF > No> Na" > Mgr Answer (1) 4LINO, —*-42Li,0+4NO, +0, Answer (4) From the Kolbe’s electrolysis we can only Prepared saturated aliphatic compound from carboxylic acid. Answer (1) Activated charcoal is used in the emergency treatment of certain kind of poisoning, ‘Answer (4) Condition for Cannizzaro reaction: alpha hydrogen ‘must be absont in the substrate, i So, in Ph - C ~H there is no a-hydrogen present s0 it can give Cannizzaro reaction, Answer (2) Answer (3) Pure hydrogen is produced from the electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH): solution between nickel oloctrodes. Answer (2) HsBOs is Lewis acid because of incomplete octet (Vacant Orbital)79. Answer (1) Artificial Sweetener | Sweetness -value in comparison to cane sugar Aspartame 100 Saccharin 550 | Sucralose 600 Alitame 2000 ieee er ee eee 80. Answer (3) (NH, )250, —*oNHy(g) 7 + H,S0, 81. Answer (4) Tyndall effoct is exhibited by starch solution 82. Answer (1) Pam P'aka=s Py = 14100 = 25 mmHg Pp = 3.400 = 300 mmHg Mole fraction ofA in vapour phaso (¥) = a © 25+300° 325 13 83. Answer (2) RO NC F i Saunre planar 84. Answer (3) OH O'Na 85. Answer (1) + Zone refining method is based on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in the melt then in the solid state of the metal, 86. 87, 86 89. 92 93, 95, SECTION-B Answer (2) ° Dene s0H,« ons i oH Answer (3) 3Ck + 6 NaOH + 5 NaCl + NaCIO, + 341.0 Answer (1) In pyrosiicate two units share one gayacn 9 Answer (4), _ Contact process is used for the ma sulphuric acid Answer (1) Possible structural isomers of CMC cr A ang ON Answer (2) Caprolactam is used for the manufactur 6 Answer (2) Als) = 28(g) + C(9) a Pr=2p+p=P Answer (1) Number of electron exchange in the reactor + 2Ag"(aq) + Cur-(aq) +2 Agis) is 2 me noe Keg =1080 219 4, 49" Answer (2) Cigaenie + O25) -¥ COaig) AH: = =X, cal CO) > Ong) + Crs sruns AH, cal Cignente) > Ciasmons) AH = X>— Xs Answer (2) For Ke = Kr .\ss should be zero Hag) + 1a(g) = 2HI (9) An) = Arm = 2-2 =0 So, Ke = Keser (1D 14050: ¢ NaOH -» NaHSOs + HO vient weight S parent wont = “ lo thermal. stability for group-ll_elements ceases down the group tc order is eL.0) < MgCOs < $1COs € BaCOs. Answet (3) cH, I H,-C=C-CH,-CH, i cH, 99. Answer (2) OH cH, o-Cresol - ‘COOH OH Salicylic - OOH OcocH, Aspirin - ‘CH= CH= CHO Cinnamaldehyde | - O 100, Answer (3) Mixture of n-hexane and n-heptane is an ideal solution SECTION -A 1 Anse (4) Gas vacuoles are found in bacteria and they are it surtounded by membrane. 02 Answer (3) ‘Movement through the transport proteins with ATP utiisation ig @ characteristic feature of active lransport Answer (3) pair of homologous chromosomes forms & Answer (3) 16? tnas led to the rapid development of a new area in biology called bioinformatics. 105, Answer (2) Insecta is a class. Us. Anssvee (3) to #5 @ component of nitrogenase and nitrate ‘euctase and both of which participate in nitrogen metabolism. 407. Answer (2) Methanogens are found in gut of ruminant animals ‘are responsible for production of methane. 108, Answer (3) PEPcase is found in mesophyll cells of Cs plants and is required for primary fixation of CO2, 4109. Answer (3) Fungi have chitinous cell wall. Morels and truffles are edible sac fungi 110. Answer (1) Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%. So ‘maximum concentration of alcohol will be 13% in beverages that are naturally fermented. Wine and beer are produced without distillation. 111, Answer (4) Bud Is present in the axil of a leaf not of the leaflet 112. Answer (3) Kinetin was discovered from autoclaved herring ‘sperm DNA. It does not occur naturally in plants.113, 114, 116. 116. 17. 118, 119, 120, 124. 122, Answer (2) Staminode represents sterile stamen which does ‘not produce microspores. Answer (1) Algin and carrageen are hydrocolloids obtained from brown algae and red algae respectively. Answer (3) Collenchym: in plants, Answer (2) an elastic living mechanical tissue Clear cut distinction of vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase cannot be seen in perennial plants eg. China rose. ‘Answer (3) Presence of independent gametophyte’as well as sporophyle is a characteristic feature of plants belonging to Pleridophyta, Answer (4) Cells of the middle layer are uninucleate, short lived, ephemeral and degenerate at maturi Answer (2) Fungi can be a part of detritus food chain or parasitic food chain, Answer (1) Parents é Gametes x'x" xy F, Generati = . Generation" —7— 7 x] xx | ot y] xy | xy All sons are affected and all daughters are carriers. Answer (4) For a solution at atmospheric pressure, Vee Answer (3) In butterflies, 20-22 type of sex determination is seen. Females produce two typos of eggs (A + Z) and (A + O) type. 123, Answer (3) ; Leghaomoglobin protects the nitrogenase ‘oxygen. Hence acts as 2 scavenger Answer (1) 124, —n —n" 125. Answer (1) PEP is 3C compound and act as prinary ©. acceptor in Cx plants. 126. Answer (2) Virus free plants can be obtamed from int plant’ by meristem culture due tw concentration of auxins and rapid cell division Answer (1) RO value is 4 for oxalic acid ‘Answer (4) 427. 128, The herbarium sheet carries a label prov information about date and place of local and botanical name, family, co! te. Answer (2) ABA\is stress hormone which promotes do ‘and reduces transpiration, Answer (2) Body increases RBC production and brow! rato when a person is experie sickness, Answer (4) RNA processing occurs in nucleus of eukaryo cell Answer (2) The cattle egret and grazing cattle in clo association exemplify commonsalism Answer (3) Krebs cycle serves as a common iia pathway for carbohydrates, fats snd 3 In one Krebs cycle, 3 NADH + H* and 1 FAD) molecules are produced. Answer (4) UV-B causes inflammation of cornea cule! blindness. Heavily polluted water has hi 33% of forest cover for plains is recom! National Forest Policy, 129, 130. 131 132, 133, 134,vwsaver CD ort day plant SECTION-B vnsaver (2) 1 apparatus is the important site of formation opoteins and glycolipids, wiser a) Jae palm and papaya both are dioecious plants. Answer (3) Tho stage between wo meiotic divisions is called suesnosis and is generally short ved. Thore is hho replication of DNA accurring during interkinosis, Answer (3) onstent nucellas in some seeds is called wer (3) Haculoweuses have species-specific, narrow itu insecticidal applications. Majority of baculovituses are in genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus. Answer (3) tepresents an affected individual with OG ied sex Annet (2) Inchodeema is a deuteromycete and doos not ‘produce sexual spores. Anse (2) In prokaryotes, a single type of RNA polymerase can polyimerise all types of RNA. All three RNAS «are needed in protein synthesis. 144, Answor (1) ‘al placeniation is soon in sunflower and ‘marigold. 148, Answer (2) Himgiti variety of wheat is resistant to leaf and siripe rust, and hill bunt 146, Answor (1) Phioem fibres form the dead component of phloem. 447, Answer (3) If boe is the only pollinator of the orchid Ophrys. thon extinction of the orchid can occur, The survival of bee is not affected as it pollinates by pseudocopulation in Ophrys. 4148. Answer (2) Cork cambium of dicot root is a meristematic tissue which arises as a result of divisions of cells of pericycle, 149, Answer (4) Wildife safari park, 2008 and botanical gardens are examples of ex-situ conservation strategy. 4160. Answer (2) + Eudorina shows anisogamy + Volvox produces daughter colonies + Members of Rhodophyceae show complex post fertilization developments. SECTION -A Answer (3) [LH surge induces ovulation and LH also stimulates corpus Wwleum to release estrogen and progesterone, Answer (2) Brush-bordered | Secretion and columnar absorption epithelium Compound Protection against ‘cthelium chemical and ‘mechanical | stresses 183. Answer (4) Collagen is a protein that forms. interceular ground substance, ‘Some secondary metabolites are : Alkaléids ~ Morphine Toxins ~ Abrin and Ricin Drugs - Vinblastin ‘Answer (2) Oxyntc cells - HC! and intrinsic factor Bile pigments - Biiverdin and bitin Lysozyme - Paneth colls of crypts of Lieberkuhn 164,156. 156. 157. 158 159, 160. 16 162 163. 164, Answer (4) Muscularis is formed by smooth muscles while ssub-mucosa is formed by loose connective tissue. Answer (3) Ctenophores are exclusively marine organisms. The body bears cight exleral rows of ciliated comb plates. Bioluminescence is well:marked in ctenophores. Answer (4) Ii the energy level difference between substrate and product Is such that product is at lower level than substrate, the reaction is exothermic. Enzymes lower the activation energy required for ‘a reaction, Answer (3) Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes and are involved in coagulation of blood. Answer (3) ‘Sweat produced by the sweat glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl, small amount of urea, lactic. acid etc. Sterols are present sebaceous glands. Answer (2) ‘Typhoid is transmitted through contaminated food and water. Emphysema is caused due to excessive cigarette smoking, Answer (3) The concentration gradient is mainly maintained by NaCI and urea in interstitium of the kidneys. Answer (2) Except genital herpes, HIV and Hepatilis-B, other STis are curable if detected early and treated property. Answer (3) Gliding joint between carpals ‘Saddle joint - between carpal and metacarpal of thumb. Answer (4) in sebum secreted by seas mesa Seatvetbut 165. 166, 167. 168. 169. 170, a1. 172. 173. 174, 175, Answer (2) Filariasis is characterised by chronic inflarn Crane organs usually the lymphatic ves lower limbs. Symploms of amoebiasis include abdominal pain and cramps. st00! mucous and blood clots Answer (1) ‘The ionic gradients across the resting mero" are maintained by the active transport © Nav — K* pump. Thoy transport Na" outs 2k" into the cell. Answer (1) Athi: Inflammation of joints. Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorte Answer (3) de Vries believed mutation caused speciation ane hence called it satation Gene flow. genetic drt, genetic recom mutation and natural selection are five tte vuhich are known to affect Hardy-\.e equilibrium, Answer (3) Melatoninis secreted from pineal 24 hr diuenal hythm, Answer (4) Molluscs are unsegmented with distr muscular fool and visceral lump, Metamerism is presentin annelids anc arto Answer (4) Jn amphibians and reptiles tympanum ear. Ploropus is a mammal in which vat differentiated into external, middle and nes ex Tympanum is present at the junction of ex ‘and middle ear Answer (1) Meiocyte — Gamote Human beings 46 23 Fruit fly 8 4 Butterfly 380 190 Answer (3) Chordates possess ventral heart wt chordates have dorsal heart if present Answer (1) When ready-made antibodies are directly ast protect the body against foreign agents, 1 passive immunity Answer (1) Taq_ polymerase aguaticus. is extracted trom 1era) Jinghian tubules 100-150 jratie eaeeae 6-8 Sony museles 12 pairs answer) ration involves the following steps. vwnosphene air fs drawn in and CO2 rich 's released out. fusion of gases (Oz and CO) across viveolar membrane, | Transport ef gases by blood. Dutlusion of 2 and CO» between blood and Juisation of Oz by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2 8. Answer (3) 104 prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing) by using dsRNA molecules, wer (a) ontholn’s gland is a female accessory gland. er) chine cells of gastro-intestinal tract secrote ‘our_major peptide hormones, namely gastrin, secretin, CCK and GIP. 1. Answer (4) \ymorphonuclear leukocytes JNLVneutrophils act as cellular barriers. er (2) vaty Artery Disease (CAD), often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle. Itis caused by deposits of calcium. fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which maxes the lumen of arteries narrower. 83. Answer (1) Paurometabolus development ie. 13. times moulting, 13 chambered heart and uricotelic mode of excretion are seen in cockroach. (a) Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary lands and formation of milk in them, 185, Answer (1) Suter facilitates even mixing and oxygen ‘availabiliy throughout the bioreactor, 106, 197, 198, 199, 190, 191 192, 193, 194, 198, 198, 197, 198, 199, 200. SECTION-B Answor (3) Probosels gland Is oxcrotory organ in hemichordates. Water canal system 15 present in poriferans, Answer (4) Limulus isa living fossil which belongs to phylum Aathropo Answer (2) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue, Adhering junctions perform comenting 10 Keep neighbouring cells together Answer (2) Tho acid insoluble fraction has only four types of organic compounds 0. protcins, nucleic aciss, polysaccharides and lipids, Answer (3) Paired fins and scales are absent in eyclostomes. Answer (2) Alveoli are lined by simple squamous epithelivm. Answer (1) Blood normally contains 150000 ~ 350000 platelets mr Answer (2) On an average 25-30 gm of urea is excreted out por day Answor (4) Flagellar movement spermatozoa. Anewor (2) Hypothalamus contains contr for urge of eating Answer (1) Pincal gland secrotes melatonin hormone which piays important role in the regulation of diurnal rythm, Answer (4) Gene therapy isa collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been siagnosed in a child/embryo Answer (2) MOET is a programme for herd improvement in cates. Answer (2) The floor of scala media is made of basilar membrane and root is made of Reisner's membrane. Answer (3) Mutations are random and non-directional which ‘ean change gene frequency in a population helps in swimming of