KAS Kadana Test 05 (English) Synopsis

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KAS KADANA TEST - 05 SYNOPSIS (ENGLISH)
1. “This is the clear sky season with lowest rainfall in the year. Some parts
of Tamil Nadu and Jammu and Kashmir receive small quantity of
rainfall. Though the rainfall is less, in some parts on North India it is
beneficial for agriculture”
Above mentioned passage describes which among the following season?
a) Summer
b) Winter
c) Rainy
d) Spring
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Winter Season (Mid December to End of February): The winter season
is also called cold weather season. In this season direct rays of the Sun fall
on Tropic of Capricorn. Therefore, India receives oblique Sun rays. The
temperature in the country is not uniform from north to south. Regions
lying to the north of Tropic of Cancer record low temperature compared to
regions in the south. There is a general decrease in temperature from
south to north. December is the beginning of cold weather season and it
extends up to February. The annual average temperature is around 18º C.
In the northern parts of the plains temperature falls below 5º C. January
is the coldest month in the year. Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana,
UP and parts of Bihar record very low temperature with snow storms (cold
wave). This is the clear sky season with lowest rainfall in the year.
Some parts of Tamil Nadu and Jammu and Kashmir receive small
quantity of rainfall. Though the rainfall is less, in some parts on
North India it is beneficial for Rabi crops. Annual rainfall in this season
is around 2%.
2. Assertion (A): Variable winds-cyclones and anti-cyclones originate in

the Bay of Bengal during retreating monsoon.
Reason (R): In this season there will be pressure variation between the
Bay of Bengal and main land of India
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not
a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Retreating Monsoon Season (Mid September to Mid December): This
season is also called North East Monsoon Season. It starts in the middle of
September and extends up to middle of December. On September 23rd the
direct rays of the Sun falls on Equator. Therefore, there is a change in
temperature and pressure in the land and water bodies. In this period the
Indian Ocean records high temperature compared to the land bodies of
Indian sub-continent. The high pressure formed in the northern part of
Bay of Bengal results in movement of wind from northeastern part of India
towards southwestern region (Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean). These
winds blow along the eastern coast of India and Bay of Bengal. While
blowing, they carry moisture and cause rainfall in the east coast
particularly the Coromandel Coast due to its shape and obstruction by the
land. During the northeast monsoon season the country receives 13% of
annual rainfall. In this season due to pressure variation between the
Bay of Bengal and main land of India variable winds- cyclones and
anti-cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal. The tropical Cyclones take
birth in this season and cause great damage in the eastern coast of India.
The coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West
Bengal come under the frequent effect of cyclones. Some cyclones recorded
in the last few years are Bola, Nargis, Nisha, Laila, Jal, Neelam etc.
3. Which among the following factors are responsible for formation of soil
1) Vegetation
2) Relief
3) weathering of rocks
Choose the correct option from the code given below

a) only 1
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Soil is the minute or finer rock particles found on the surface of the Earth.
It is formed naturally, due to the weathering of rocks, under the
influence of climate. Other factors in its formation are vegetation,
age of the rock, parent material and relief. Soil as a natural resource,
provide nutrients and water to the plants. The scientific study of soil is
known as ‘Pedology’. The soil Research Institute of India is situated at
Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh. India is a vast country having great variations
in its relief and climatic conditions. The geo-climatic conditions of the
country have affected the general distribution of soils, their texture,
structure, colour, pH value and porosity. The combined result of climate
and relief features has produced various types of soils in the country.
4. Consider the following statements about alluvial soil

1) Bhangar – new alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood
plains and rich in fertility.
2) Khadar – older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at
the lower depths of the plain.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : D
Explanation
Alluvial Soil: This soil is formed by depositional work of rivers and they are
mainly found in the flood plains & deltas. Alluvial soil covers largest
geographical area 43.36% in the country. They are mainly distributed in
the river plains of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and the Indus. Uttar Pradesh
has the largest area under alluvial soil. It is also found in the deltas of east
flowing rivers.
Alluvial soils of India are mainly of two types
a) Khadar – new alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood
plains and rich in fertility.
b) Bhangar – older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at
the lower depths of the plain.
Alluvial soils are more suitable for the cultivation of Wheat, Sugarcane,
Rice, Maize, Pulses etc.
5. Which among the following measures are followed in conservation of

soil
1) Contour ploughing
2) Terrace farming
3) Erection of bunds
4) Strip farming
5) Mulching
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 only
b) 3 , 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1.2.3.4 and 5
Answer : D
Explanation:
Soil conservation is a set of management strategies for prevention of soil
being eroded from the Earth’s surface or becoming chemically altered by
overuse, acidification, salinization or other chemical soil contamination.
Conservation of Soil is an important activity in the country to protect the
soil layer, which is useful to man for various purposes. Soil conservation is
very much necessary to have different activities like agriculture, agro
based engagements, some industrial activities and also to conserve
vegetation and animal wealth.
The important measures followed in the Conservation of Soil are: i)
Afforestation ii) Control of over grazing iii) Contour ploughing iv) Terrace
farming v) Erection of bunds vi) Construction of check dams vii) Crop
rotation viii) Control of shifting cultivation ix) Strip farming x) Mulching
xi) Control of floods xii) Reclamation of Ravine & Badlands xiii) Proper use
of water xiv) Literacy and Education programmes on soil conservation etc.,
6. Which of the following element is most abundantly found in the

Earth’s crust?
a) Iron
b) Oxygen
c) Silicon
d) Aluminium
Solution: B
Exp
The earth is composed of various kinds of elements. About 98% of the total
crust is made up of eight elements as oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron,
calcium, sodium, potassium, and magnesium. Earth’s crust consists of
46% Oxygen, 28% Silicon, 8% Aluminium, 5% Iron and the rest others.
Oxygen mostly occurs in combined forms like silicates, metal and
nonmetal oxides and hydroxides.
7. Which of the following country is not part of the drainage basin of the
river Nile?
a) Libya
b) Egypt
c) Sudan
d) Ethiopia
Solution: A
Exp
Option a is correct The drainage basin of the Nile river covers 11
countries: Egypt, Sudan, South Sudan, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Congo,
Burundi, Rwanda, Uganda and Tanzania.
8. Consider the following pairs:
Lakes Formed by
1. Kettle lakes - Glaciation
2. Tarns - Volcanic activity
3. Karst lakes - Erosion
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Exp
Pair 1 is correctly matched. Kettle lakes are depressions in the outwash
plain left by melting of masses of stagnant water. They are formed by
glaciation.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Cirque lakes or tarns are formed by
glaciation. A glacier on its way down the valley leaves behind circular
hollows in the heads of the valleys up in the mountains. Such hollows are
cirques or corries. Their over deepened floor may be filled with water to
form cirque lake or tarns. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The solvent action of
rain water on lime stone carves out solution hollows. When these become
clogged with debris, karst lakes may form in them. They are formed by
erosion.
9. Which one of the following is not an erosional landform of desert

regions?
a) Mushroom rock
b) Inselberg
c) Zeugen
d) Barchan
Solution: D
Exp
Mushroom rock, inselbergs and zeugen are all landforms caused by wind
erosion in deserts. Barchans are formed due to the depositional force of
wind. Barchans are crescent-shaped dunes, whose windward side is
convex whereas the leeward side is concave and steep
10. Consider the following pairs of different canals/ straits and seas
connected by them. Straits/canals Oceans/seas
Seuz Canal - Connects Red Sea to Gulf of Aden.
Bosporus strait - Connects Sea of Marmara to Aegean Sea.
Bab-el-Mandeb - Connects Red Sea to Mediterranean Sea.
Strait of Hormuz -Connects Persian Gulf with Indian ocean.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 4 only
Solution: D
Exp
Pair 1 is incorrect. Seuz canal connects Port Said on the Mediterranean
Sea with the Gulf of Suez, an arm of the Red Sea.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Bosphorus strait connects Black Sea to Sea of
Marmara.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Bab-el-Mandeb connects red sea to Gulf of Aden and
Arabian sea.
Pair 4 is correct. Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the
Arabian Sea, part of the northern Indian Ocean.

Ocean Current Flowing Region
1. Benguela Current - Atlantic Ocean
2. Agulhas Current - Sea of Japan
3. Gulf Stream - Pacific c Ocean
4. Labrador Current - North Sea
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Solution: A
Exp
Pair 1 is correct. Benguela Current flows northward in the South Atlantic
Ocean along the west coast of southern Africa nearly to the Equator before
merging with the westward-fl owing Atlantic South Equatorial Current.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Agulhas Current, warm oceanic current that forms the
western boundary current of the southern Indian Ocean. It flows
southward along the southeast coast of Mozambique and the coast of
South Africa before turning eastward to join the flow from Africa to
Australia.
Pair 3 is incorrect. The Gulf Stream is an ocean current that brings warm
water from the Gulf of Mexico into the Atlantic Ocean.
Pair 4 is incorrect. The Labrador Current is a cold oceanic current in the
North Atlantic Ocean that originates at the Davis Strait.
12. Which of the following factor(s) influence the flow of Ocean Currents?
1. Planetary winds
2. Temperature difference between the ocean waters at equator and
poles
3. Variation in salinity of ocean water from place to place
4. Rotation of Earth
5. Presence of Landmass
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D
Exp
All the above factors influence the flow of ocean current.
13. This ocean relief feature is a seaward extension of the continent from
the shoreline to the continental edge. Its width varies greatly and may
be entirely absent in some areas. They form the richest fishing
grounds in the world. The ocean relief feature described in the above
paragraph is?
a) Continental shelf
b) Continental slope
c) Continental rise
d) Abyssal plain
Solution: A
Exp
Continental shelf is a seaward extension of the continent from the
shoreline to the continental edge. Its width varies greatly, from a few miles
in North Pacific off the continent of North America, to over 100 miles off
North-west Europe. In some places where the coasts are extremely
mountainous, such as rocky mountain and Andean coasts, the
continental shelf may be entirely absent. Their shallowness enables
sunlight to penetrate through the water, which encourages the growth of
minute plants and other microscopic organisms. They are thus rich in
planktons and form the richest fishing grounds in the world
14. Consider the following statements regarding Ocean salinity.

1. Sea ice contains more salt than Sea water.
2. Halocline is a distinct zone where salinity decreases sharply.
3. Salinity is lower than the average in equatorial waters.
Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Exp
Statement 1 is incorrect. Sea ice contains very little salt, about a tenth of
the amount of salt that sea water has. This is because ice will not
incorporate sea salt into its crystal structure. Therefore, sea ice is actually
drinkable.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and
there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases
sharply.
Statement 3 is correct. Salinity is lower than average in equatorial waters
because of the heavy daily rainfall and high relative humidity.
15. Consider the following statements, with reference to the relief rain:
1. The leeward slope of the mountain receive greater rainfall.
2. The winds capacity to take in moisture increases on the leeward
slope of the mountain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Exp.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Relief rain, also known as orographic rain,
results when the saturated air mass comes across a mountain, it is forced
to ascend and as it rises, it expands; the temperature falls, and the
moisture is condensed. The chief characteristic of this sort of rain is that
the windward slopes receive greater rainfall. The area situated on the
leeward side gets less rainfall and is known as the rain-shadow area.
Statement 2 is correct. After giving rain on the windward side, when these
winds reach the other slope, they descend, and their temperature rises.
This results in increased capacity of winds to take in moisture and hence,
these leeward slopes remain rainless and dry.
16. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) In the mesosphere, temperature increases with the increase in
altitude.
b) Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the
earth by Troposphere.
c) The stratosphere contains the ozone layer.
d) The zone separating the troposphere from the stratosphere is known
as the stratopause.
Solution: C
Exp
Option a is incorrect. In the mesosphere, temperature decreases with the
increase in altitude. In this layer, once again, temperature starts
decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100° C
at the height of 80 km.
Option b is incorrect. The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km
above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as
ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from
the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
Option c is correct. The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and
extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere
is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation
and shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy. Option
d is incorrect. The zone separating the troposphere from stratosphere is
known as the tropopause. The temperature here is nearly constant, and
hence, it is called the tropopause
17. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

Temperature inversion?
1. Visibility may be greatly reduced below the inversion layer.
2. It causes very heavy rainfall.
3. It improves the air quality below the inversion layer.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Solution: A
Exp
Statement 1 is correct. In regions where a pronounced low-level inversion
is present, convective clouds cannot grow high enough to produce
showers. And, at the same time, visibility may be greatly reduced below
the inversion by the accumulation of dust and smoke particles.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Convection clouds cannot move high upwards to
produce showers. So, there is less rainfall during temperature inversion.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The air trapped under the inversion includes the
moisture, smoke and pollutants released into the air mass. The air quality
under an inversion layer deteriorates as the pollutants accumulate.
18. With reference to the different types of Fronts, consider the following
statements:
1. Warm front is the contact zone that develops when the cold air
moves towards the warm air mass.
2. Occluded front develops when the front remains stationery.
Which of the following statements is /are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Exp
Statement 1 is incorrect. When two diff rent air masses meet, the
boundary zone between them is called a front. When the cold air moves
towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front,
whereas if the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the
contact zone is a warm front.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land
surface, it is called the occluded front. When the front remains stationary,
it is called a stationary front.
19. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

Troposphere?
1. Commercial jet aircraft doesn’t fl y in this region due to the presence
of turbulence in this region. 2. Most of the mass of atmosphere is
present in this layer.
2. It is the wettest layer of the atmosphere.
3. The height of this layer is highest at the equator and lowest over the
poles.
Select the correct answer using the code given belows ;

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Exp
Statement 1 is correct. Commercial jet aircraft fl y in the stratosphere to
avoid the turbulence present in the troposphere as it contains lots of water
vapour.
Statement 2 is correct. The troposphere contains approximately 80% of
the mass of the atmosphere of the earth.
Statement 3 is correct. The majority of atmospheric water vapour or
moisture is found in the troposphere. So, it is the wettest layer of the
atmosphere.
Statement 4 is correct. Its average height is 13km while it is 8km near the
poles and about 18km at the equator due to the transportation of heat to
the greatest height by strong convectional current.
20. Consider the following statements regarding La Nina.

1. It brings heavy rains and flooding in Canada.
2. La Nina Modoki is associated with warming in the central tropical
Pacifi c.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Exp
Statement 1 is correct. La Niña is characterized by lowerthan-normal air
pressure over the western Pacific. During La Nina events, trade winds are
even stronger than usual, pushing more warm water toward Asia. Off the
west coast of the Americas, upwelling increases, bringing cold, nutrient-
rich water to the surface. These cold waters in the Pacific push the jet
stream northward. This tends to lead to drought in the southern U.S. and
heavy rains and flooding in Canada.
Statement 2 is incorrect. La Nina Modoki is associated with colder central
tropical Pacific and warming in the eastern and western Pacific. La Nina
Modoki is the counter part of El Nino Modoki
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct about heat budget of
the earth?
1. Heat budget is constant over the entire earth.
2. Atmosphere is heated only by the incoming short wave and long
wave terrestrial radiations.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Exp
Statement 1 is incorrect: Heat budget is not constant over the entire earth.
It depends on many factors and based on those there are areas of energy
surplus and energy deficit. This difference in heat budget gives rise to
various climatic phenomena like ocean current, atmospheric circulations,
etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Atmosphere is heated up by 4. Of the 65% of
incident solar energy 14% are directly absorbed by atmosphere. This is in
the form methods of short-wave radiation. On the contrary, the terrestrial
radiation heats the lower atmosphere by long wave radiation and it
accounts for 6%. Other two important components of atmospheric heat
budget are convection and evaporation which accounts for 9% and 19%
respectively. Thus, along with short wave and long wave radiation
atmosphere is also heated by conduction, convection and advection.
22. Consider the following statements regarding Land and Sea breezes:
1. These are seasonal rhythms caused by differential heating of land
and sea.
2. Fishermen in the tropics oft en take advantage of the sea breeze to
sail out.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Exp
Statement 1 is incorrect. Land and sea breezes are caused by differential

heating of land and sea. These are diurnal (daily) rhythms, while Monsoon
is a seasonal rhythm.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Land breeze blows out from land to sea.
Fishermen in the tropics oft en take advantage of the land breeze and sail
out with it. They return the next morning with the in-coming sea breeze.
23. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of an Air Mass?

1. It has almost uniform physical properties.
2. Their properties are determined by the underlying region from
where they originate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Exp
Statement 1 is correct. The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of
temperature and humidity is called an air mass. It is defined as a large
body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture.
Air masses have fairly uniform temperature and moisture content.
Statement 2 is correct. When the air remains over a homogenous area for
a sufficiently longer time, it acquires the characteristics of the area. The
homogenous regions can be the vast ocean surface or vast plains. The
homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source
regions. Such source regions determine the properties of the air masses.
24. This is a very low cloud, uniformly grey and thick, which appears like
a low ceiling or highland fog. It brings dull weather with light drizzle.
It reduces the visibility of aircraft and is thus a danger. It is
a) Cirrus cloud
b) Stratus cloud
c) Cumulus cloud
d) Cumulonimbus cloud
Solution: B
Exp
.
Option a is incorrect. Cirrus cloud look fibrous and appears like wisps in
the blue sky. It is oft en called ‘mares tails’. It indicates fair weather and
oft en give brilliant sunset.
Option b is correct. It is a very low cloud, uniformly grey and thick, which
appears like a low ceiling or highland fog. It brings dull weather with light
drizzle. It reduces the visibility of aircraft and is thus a danger.
Option c is incorrect. Cumulus cloud is a vertical cloud with a rounded
top and horizontal base, typical of humid tropical regions, associated with
up-rising convectional currents. It is great white globular mass, might look
grey against the sun. But it is a fair-weather cloud.
Option d is incorrect. Cumulonimbus cloud is an overgrown cumulus
cloud, extending from a base of 2000 feet to over 30,000 feet. It is a black
and white globular mass. It is also referred to as a thunder cloud and
brings convectional rain accompanied by lightning and thunder.
25. The process where water vapor changes directly into snow flakes and
frost is known as
a) Sublimation
b) Deposition
c) Evaporation
d) Evapotranspiration
Solution: B
Exp
The process of changing/turning vapour [Gases] directly into the ice
[Solid] is called desublimation or Deposition. Option b is correct.
Deposition is the phase transition process in which gas (vapour)
transforms into solid without passing through the liquid phase transition.
Deposition is a thermodynamic process. The reverse of deposition is
sublimation in which the solid directly transforms into gas(vapour)
without passing through the liquid phase and hence sometimes deposition
is called desublimation. Sublimation is most oft en used to describe the
process of snow and ice changing into water vapor in the air without first
melting into water.
26. “Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation.”

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Coriolis
force?
a) Coriolis force can cause the deflection of winds.
b) The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and maximum at the poles.
c) The rotation of the cyclones in different directions is due to Coriolis
force.
d) The Coriolis force has no effect on deep ocean currents.
Solution: D
Exp
Statement d is incorrect.
The Coriolis effect bends the direction of surface currents to the right in
the Northern Hemisphere and left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is
true for the deep-water circulation as well.
27. “This type of climate is entirely confined to the western portion of

continental masses, between 30° and 40° north and south of equator.
The basic cause of this type of climate is shift ing of wind belts. It is
characterised by dry summer and wet winter.” Which one of the
following climatic regions is described in the above given paragraph?
a) China Type Climate
b) Hawaiian Type Climate
c) Mediterranean Type Climate
d) Savannah Type Climate
Solution: C
Exp
Option c is correct. Warm Temperate Western Margin climate, aka
Mediterranean type climate is found in few areas of the world. It is entirely
confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and
40° north and south of equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is
shifting of wind belts. The Mediterranean type climate is characterised by
very distinctive climatic features – a dry and hot summer with off -shore
trades and a concentration of rainfall in winter with on-shore westerlies.
28. The theory that states "movements in the mantle drive pieces of the
Earth's crust to move in a constant, slow motion" is known as:
a) The theory of continental drift
b) The theory of Pangaea
c) The theory of plate tectonics
d) The theory of plate boundaries
Solution: C
Explanation
 Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that explains how major
landforms are created as a result of Earth’s subterranean
movements.
 The theory transformed the earth sciences by explaining many
phenomena, including mountain building events, volcanoes, and
earthquakes.
 In plate tectonics, Earth’s outermost layer, or lithosphere made up of
the crust and upper mantle is broken into large rocky plates. These
plates lie on top of a partially molten layer of rock called the
asthenosphere.
 Due to the convection of the asthenosphere and lithosphere, the
plates move relative to each other at different rates, from two to 15
centimeters (one to six inches) per year. Therefore Option(c) is
correct
 The interaction of tectonic plates is responsible for many different
geological formations such as the Himalaya mountain range in Asia,
the East African Rift, and the San Andreas Fault in California, United
States.
29. Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?

a) Deposition
b) Diastrophism
c) Volcanism
d) Erosion
Solution: D
Explanation
 Gradation is the phenomenon whereby erosion wears down relief
variation on the earth's surface. The major gradational agents that act
on the earth's surface are water, waves, wind, ice, etc. These forces
fracture, erode, move, and deposit rock materials. Therefore Option(d) is
correct
 The geological process of erosion is the wearing away and
transportation of earthen materials by wind and water.
 Chemical erosion is a change in the chemical composition of rock.
For instance, when carbonation causes limestone to disintegrate.
 The rock deteriorates physically during erosion, but its chemical
makeup doesn't change. For example, during a landslide.
30. Submarine Canyons abundantly found on the :

a) Abyssal plain
b) Within continental slopes or on a continental shelf
c) Oceanic Ridge
d) Trenches
Solution: B
Explanation
 Submarine canyon, any of a class of narrow steep-sided valleys that cut
into continental slopes and continental rises of the oceans and originate
either within continental slopes or on a continental shelf.
 They are rare on continental margins that have extremely steep
continental slopes or escarpments. Submarine canyons are so called
because they resemble canyons made by rivers on land.
 Unlike deep-sea trenches, which are found in areas where one tectonic
plate slides beneath another, undersea canyons are found along the
slopes of most continental margins.
 They also occur along the slopes of the Hawaiian Islands and possibly
certain other ocean islands.
 The majority of these V-shaped depressions have steep, rocky walls
thousands of metres high.
o Ex: Grand Bahama Canyon (thought to be the highest, rise nearly
5 km (3 miles) from the canyon floor).
31. Match List- I with List –II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
LIST – I (Volcanoes) LIST –II (Place)
A. Mount Merapi 1. Democratic Republic of the Congo
B. Mount Etna 2. USA
C. Mount Nyiragongo 3. Indonesia
D. Yellowstone Caldera 4. Itlay
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
Solution: Option (b)
Explanation
 Mount Merapi is an active stratovolcano located on the border between
the province of Central Java and the Special Region of Yogyakarta,
Indonesia.
 Mount Etna is an active stratovolcano on the east coast of Sicily, Italy.
It is located above the convergent plate margin between the African
Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
 Mount Nyiragongo is an active stratovolcano in the Virunga Mountains
associated with the Albertine Rift. It is located inside Virunga National
Park, in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
 The Yellowstone Caldera, sometimes referred to as the Yellowstone
Supervolcano, is a volcanic caldera and supervolcano in Yellowstone
National Park in the Western United States.
LIST – I LIST-II
(Landform) (Agent of Erosion/deposition)
A. Zeugen 1. River
B. Uvalas 2. Glacier
C. Levees 3. Ground Water
D. Cirques 4. Wind
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
Solution: D
Explanation
 Zeugen is a Erosional Landforms formed by Wind. It is a tabular mass
of resistant rock, standing prominently in the desert. Usually composed
of alternating layers of hard and soft rocks.
 Uvalas is the Erosional Landforms Formed by Groundwater. It is a
collection of multiple smaller individual sinkholes gather to form a
compound sinkhole.
 Leeves is the depositional Landforms of Running water. Natural levees
are formed along the banks of large rivers. These are linear, low and
parallel ridges of coarse deposits along the river banks, usually cut into
individual mounds.
 Cirques is the Glacial Erosional Landforms. They are mountain valley
heads that have been shaped into deep hollows by the erosion of small
glaciers. Cirques are frequently found on the heads of a glacial valley.
LIST – I LIST-II
(Theory) (Scientist )
A. Continental drift theory 1. Harry H. Hess
B. Sea Floor Spreading 2. Alfred Wegener
C. Convention Current theory 3. Jason Morgan
D. Plate tectonic 4. Arthur Holmes
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
Solution: C
Explanation
 Continental drift theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912.
The theory deals with the distribution of the oceans and the
continents.
 In 1967, Jason Morgan discovered the theory of plate tectonics —
the idea that rigid plates pave the Earth's surface, moving relative to
one another with the continents and oceans in tow.
 The seafloor spreading hypothesis was proposed by the American
geophysicist Harry H. Hess in 1960.
 Convectional Current Theory was given by Arthur Holmes in the
1930s. It discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in
the mantle portion These currents are generated due to radioactive
elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion.
34. Consider the following statements with regard to Earthquake

1. The point on the surface nearest to the focus is called Hypocentre.
2. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the
Earth.
3. The shadow zone of S waves is much larger than that of the P-waves
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Solution: B
Explanation
 The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an
earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The energy waves
travelling in different directions reach the surface. The point on the
surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one to
experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus. Therefore
Statement 1 is incorrect
 P waves travel fastest and are the first to arrive from the
earthquake. In S waves, rock oscillates perpendicular to the
direction of wave propagation. In rock, S waves generally travel
about 60% the speed of P waves, and the S wave always arrives after
the P wave.
 The Shadow zone of S-waves is larger than that of P-waves. As the
S-waves are not able to pass through the liquid outer core. Whereas,
the P-waves are able to pass through them with refraction, creating a
smaller shadow zone.
35. Consider the following statements with regard to Volcanic landforms

1. Lacoliths are large body of magmatic material that cools in the
deeper depth of the crust develops in them form of large domes.
2. Batholiths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base
and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.
3. Dikes are intrusive igneous rocks that were formed when magma
intruded vertically through existing rock and solidified.
Which one of the following statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All the above
Solution: A
Explanation
 Batholiths are large body of magmatic material that cools in the
deeper depth of the crust develops in them form of large domes. They
appear on the surface only after the denudational processes remove the
overlying material. These are granitic bodies and cooled portion of
magma chambers. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
 Lacoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base
and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the
surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at
deeper depths. The Karnataka plateau is spotted with domal hills of
granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of lacoliths or
batholiths. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 Lapolith is igneous intrusion with a depressed central region. This
mass is developed as an attribute to magma do not find its way to the
surface but spread laterally into a lenticular body forcing overlying
strata to bulge upwards.
 The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called
sill or sheet, depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner
ones are called sheets while the thick horizontal deposits are called
sills.
 Dikes are intrusive igneous rocks that were formed when magma
intruded vertically through existing rock and solidified.
36. If a researcher experiments to enter inside the Earth vertically, then

what situation the researcher will face approximately after digging
3000 Kilometres deep interior of the Earth?
a) Semi Solid layer
b) Rigid solid layer
c) Liquid layer
d) Solid layer
Solution: C
Explanation
The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900
km. The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The
outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. If a
researcher experiments to enter inside the Earth vertically, then the
researcher will face liquid layer approximately after digging 2900
Kilometres deep interior of the Earth. So, option (c) is correct.
37. When one goes from the coastal region to continental region in the
same latitude, what situation the person will always witness?
1) High day time temperature
2) Low Gravitational force
3) Low vegetation cover
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: A
Explanation
 Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses heat slowly.
Land heats up and cools down quickly. Therefore, the variation in
temperature over the sea is less compared to land. The places
situated near the sea come under the moderating influence of the
sea and land breezes which moderate the temperature. The
continent region does not come under the moderating influence of
the sea and land breezes. Hence, there will be high Day time
temperature. So, statement 1 is correct.
 Generally, Gravitational force is higher near poles and lower near the
equator. But, at the same latitude there will be no change in the
gravitational force. So, statement 2 is not correct.
 The vegetational cover on the latitude depends on the climate, soil,
the ability of soil to hold water, and the slope, or angle, of the land
all, determine what types of plants will grow in a particular region.
Thus, the vegetational cover does not depend on the factor whether it
is located near the coastal region to the continent region. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
38. The estuarine landform is created by which of the following factors?

1) Due to the presence of strong Ocean current near the river mouth.
2) Folding or faulting of land surfaces near the coast.
3) The Sea level is higher than the coast.
4) The depositions of sediment on the coast

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: C
Explanation
 Drowned river valleys are also known as coastal plain estuaries. In
places where the sea level is rising relative to the land, sea water
progressively penetrates into river valleys and the topography of the
estuary remains similar to that of a river valley. Here, estuary formed
when the Sea level is higher than the coast. So, statement 3 is
correct.
 Bar-built estuaries are found in a place where the deposition of
sediment has kept pace with rising sea levels so that the estuaries
are shallow and separated from the sea by sand spits or barrier
islands. So, statement 4 is correct.
1. P waves - Travel through solids and liquids

2. S waves - Similar to sound waves
3. Surface waves - Most damaging waves
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: B
Explanation
 The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through

gaseous, liquid and solid materials. So Statement 1 is correct
 S-waves can travel only through solid materials. Hence not similar to
sound waves. So, statement 2 is not correct
 The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These

waves are more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and
hence, the collapse of structures occurs. So, statement 3 is
correct.
40. Which of the following processes are included under diastrophism?

1) Earthquake
2) Cyclone
3) Orogeny
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Solution: D
Explanation
None of the given statements are correct.
Important Insights:
Endogenic Processes:
 The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind
endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by
radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the
origin of the earth.
 This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within
induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
 Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within,

crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not
uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is
uneven.
41. Which of the following will lead to increase in salinity of the ocean?
1) Increased rate of evaporation
2) Glacial melting
3) Influx of fresh water in the ocean
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: Option (a)
Explanation
 Evaporation of the ocean water at an increased rate increases the
rate of salt formation due to incremental rise in temperature. So
statement 1 is correct.
 In the areas of glacial melting and influx of fresh water, the salinity
is low due to the river joining with the salt water. In the black sea
due to enormous fresh water by river records lower Salinity. So,
statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
42. Consider the following statements about the difference between the
Terrestrial and the Jovian planets:
1. The Terrestrial planets have higher densities than the Jovian

planets.
2. The Terrestrial planets are smaller than the Jovian planets.
3. The Jovian planets have lower gravity than the Terrestrial planets.
Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Explanation
 The Terrestrial planets were formed in close vicinity of the parent

star, where it was too warm for the gases to condense to solid
particles. The Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location.
Terrestrial, meaning Earth-like, as they are made up of rock and
metals, and have relatively high densities. The rest four are called
Jovian or Gas Giant planets. Jovian means Jupiter-like.
 The Terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could
not hold the escaping gases.
43. Consider the following statements about the Moon:

1. The Moon is the only natural satellite of the Earth.
2. The formation of the Moon is an outcome of the ‘Giant Impact’,
called “the Big Splat”.
3. Neither Mercury nor Venus has any Moons at all.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Solution: Option (c)
Explanation
 The Moon is the only natural satellite of the Earth. Like the
origin of the Earth, there have been attempts to explain how the
Moon was formed. It is now generally believed that the formation of
the Moon, as a satellite of the Earth, is an outcome of the ‘Giant
Impact’ or what is described as “the Big Splat”. A body of the size of
one to three times that of Mars collided into the Earth, sometime
shortly after the Earth was formed. It blasted a large part of the
Earth into the space. This portion of blasted material then continued
to orbit the Earth and eventually formed into the present Moon,
about 4.44 billion years ago.
 Of the terrestrial (rocky) planets of the inner solar system, neither

Mercury nor Venus has any Moons at all, Earth has one and Mars
has its two small Moons. In the outer solar system, the gas giants
Jupiter and Saturn, and the ice giants Uranus and Neptune have
dozens of Moons. Hence all the given statements are correct.
44. Consider the following statements about the “Nebular Hypothesis” of

the origin of the Earth
Assertion (A): The planets were formed out of a cloud of material

associated with a youthful Sun.
Reason (R): A wandering star approached the Sun and slowly
condensed into planets.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for
A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect
Solution: C
Explanation
 A large number of hypotheses were put forth by different

philosophers and scientists regarding the origin of the Earth. One of
the earlier and popular arguments was by the German philosopher
Immanuel Kant. Mathematician Laplace (French) revised it in 1796.
It is known as the Nebular Hypothesis.
 The hypothesis considered that the planets were formed out of a

cloud of material associated with a youthful Sun, which was slowly
rotating.
 Later in 1900, Chamberlain and Moulton considered that a

wandering star approached the Sun. As a result, a cigar-shaped
extension of material was separated from the solar surface. As the
passing star moved away, the material separated from the solar
surface continued to revolve around the Sun and it slowly
condensed into planets. Sir James Jeans and later Sir Harold
Jeffrey supported this argument.
45. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): West coasts of the continents in the middle and the
higher latitudes are bordered by cold waters.
Reason (R): Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of the
continents in the tropical and the sub-tropical latitudes.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for
A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, R is correct.
Solution: D
Explanation
 Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect influences on

human activities. West coasts of the continents in the tropical and
the sub-tropical latitudes (except close to the Equator) are bordered
by cool waters. Their average temperatures are relatively low with a
narrow diurnal and annual ranges. There is fog, but generally the
areas are arid.
 West coasts of the continents in the middle and the higher

latitudes are bordered by warm waters, which cause a distinct
marine climate. They are characterised by cool summers and
relatively mild winters, with a narrow annual range of temperatures.
Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of the continents
in the tropical and the sub-tropical latitudes. This results in
warm and rainy climates. These areas lie in the western margins of
the sub-tropical anti-cyclones. The mixing of warm and cold currents
helps to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons,
the primary food for fish population. The best fishing grounds of the
world exist mainly in these mixing zones.
Geological era Major events

1. Cainozoic Early huma ancestor.
2. Mesozoic The age of the dinosaurs.
3. Palaeozoic First trace of life on land.
4. Pre-Cambrian Origin of the Sun.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
Explanation
1. Cainozoic : Early human ancestor.

2. Mesozoic : The age of the dinosaurs.
3. Palaeozoic : First trace of life on land.
4. Pre- Cambrian : Oceans and continents formed
47. Consider the following statements about the Continental Drift Theory:
1. This Theory is regarding the distribution of the oceans and the

continents.
2. It was given by Alfred Wegener.
3. The super continent was named ‘Pangaea’ and the Mega Ocean was
called ‘Panthalassa’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Explanation
 It was Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist, who put forth a

comprehensive argument in the form of “The Continental Drift
Theory” in 1912. This was regarding the distribution of the
oceans and the continents. According to Wegener, all the
continents formed a single continental mass and a mega ocean
surrounded the same. The super continent was named ‘Pangaea’,
which meant ‘All Earth’. The Mega Ocean was called ‘Panthalassa’,
meaning ‘All Water’.

1) The continental margins form the transition between the continental
shores and the deep-sea basins.
2) The abyssal plains are extensive plains that lie between the
continental margins and the mid-oceanic ridges.
3) The abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments,
that move beyond the margins, get deposited.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: Option (d)
Explanation
 Continental Margins: These form the transition between the

continental shores and the deep-sea basins. They include
continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-
oceanic trenches.
 Abyssal Plains: These are extensive plains that lie between the
continental margins and the mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains
are the areas where the continental sediments, that move beyond the
margins, get deposited. All the statements are correct.
49. Consider the following statements about the Mid-Oceanic Ridges:
1. These form an interconnected chain of mountain system within the

ocean.
2. These are characterized by a central rift system at the crest, a
fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length.
3. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense cyclonic activity.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Explanation
 Mid-Oceanic Ridges: These form an interconnected chain of

mountain system within the ocean. It is the longest mountain-chain
on the surface of the Earth, though submerged under the oceanic
waters.
 These are characterised by a central rift system at the crest, a
fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length.
 The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense “volcanic”
activity. Hence only 3rd statement is wrong.
Plate Description
1. The Cocos plate - Between Central America and
the Pacific plate.
2. The Nazca plate - Between South America and
the Pacific plate.
3. The Philippine plate - North-east of Australia.
4. The Caroline plate - Between the Philippine plate and
the Indian plate (North of New
Guinea).
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: C
Explanation
1. The Cocos plate - Between Central America and the Pacific plate.
2. The Nazca plate - Between South America and the Pacific plate.
3. The Philippine plate - Between the Asiatic plate and the Pacific
plate.
4. The Caroline plate - Between the Philippine plate and the Indian
plate (North of New Guinea).
51. Which of the following is/are not major plate(s)?

1. The Arabian plate
2. The Antarctica plate
3. The Pacific plate
4. The African plate
5. The North American Plate
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 5 only
Solution: Option (a)
Explanation
The major plates are as follows:

 Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate.
 The North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the
South American plate along the Caribbean islands) plate.
 The South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the
North American plate along the Caribbean islands) plate.
 The Pacific plate.

 India-Australia-New Zealand plate.
 African with the eastern Atlantic floor plate.
 Eurasian and the adjacent oceanic plate.

NOTE: Arabian is a minor plate comprising mostly of the Saudi
Arabian landmass.

1) The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km
2) The outer core is in liquid state, while the inner core is in solid
state.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Explanation
 The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the

existence of the core of the Earth.
 The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km.

The outer core is in liquid state, while the inner core is in solid
state.
 The core is made up of very heavy materials, mostly constituted by

nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the ‘NiFe layer’.
 Note: At the base of the mantle, about 2,900 kilometers below the
surface, is the core-mantle boundary.
53. National Librarians day is celebrated on ?

a) August 02
b) August 12
c) August 22
d) August 15
Answer: B
Explanation:
In India, August 12 has been designated as National Librarians' Day. It
is commemorated in honor of birthday of Dr. SR Ranganathan, who is
revered as the "Father of Library Science".
54. What is the total number of Elephants in Karnataka after Elephant

census 2023?
a) 3395
b) 4395
c) 5395
d) 6395
Answer: D
Explanation:
Elephant Census 2023
o Elephant population in Karnataka increases by 346 from the last
census, reaching 6,395. With this Karnataka stands 1st in number of
elephants in the country.
o With 1,116 elephants, Bandipur Tiger Reserve has the highest density
,followed by Nagarahole Tiger Reserve with 831.
55. Who among the following has been appointed as President at the Film
& Television Institute Of India.
a) Rajkumar Hirani
b) Sharuk Khan
c) R Madhavan
d) Rajamouli
Answer: C
Explanation:
Veteran actor R Madhavan, whose film ‘Rocketry’ bagged a National
Award has now been appointed for the position of President at the Film &
Television Institute Of India.
56. Which among the following is the ministry for implementation of

UDAN Scheme ?
a) Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).

b) Ministry of Minorities
c) Ministry of External affairs.
d) Prime Ministers Office
Answer : A
About UDAN Scheme
 Objective is to ‘Promote cheaper travel and better connectivity from
underserved airports.’
 It seeks to create a demand-driven mechanism for regional air
connectivity.
 It was initiated in 2017 (for ten years) to fulfil the objective of the
National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP), 2016.
 It envisaged a Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) to enhance
regional air connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure
development.
 Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) is the nodal agency.
 Implementing Agency Airports Authority of India (AAI).
57. Which among the following agency launched the UDGAM portal ?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) IRDA
d) IMF
Answer : A
 RBI has launched a centralized web portal – UDGAM (Unclaimed
Deposits – Gateway to Access Information).
 Objective: It will enable bank customers to find their unclaimed
deposits across multiple banks in one place.
 Unclaimed deposits: Balances in savings/current accounts that are
not operated for 10 years, or term deposits not claimed within 10
years from the date of maturity.
 It will promote financial inclusivity, using digital advances to deliver
banking services to its customers efficiently.
58. Which of the following state government has recently launched LEAP
(Launch, Empower, Accelerate and Prosper) Coworks membership
card?
a) Maharastra
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
Answer: D
Explanation:
On 1st August 2023, Kerala Chief Minister (CM) Pinarayi Vijayan
launched the Statewide membership card of Kerala Startup Mission's
(KSUM) 'LEAP (Launch, Empower, Accelerate, Prosper) Coworks' and also
inaugurated the refurbished headquarters of the KSUM at the Thejaswini
Building in Technopark Phase 1 in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
 Chief minister Pinarayi Vijayan also inaugurated the operations of
the first phase of India's first Digital Science Park.
 Kerala has achieved significant milestones with the establishment of
India's first Digital University named Kerala University of Digital
Sciences, Innovation and Technology, as well as India's first
technology park.
59. Consider the following statements with respect to International Day of

the World's Indigenous Peoples.
1. International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples is annually
observed on 9th August across the world.
2. The 2023 theme of IDWIP is "Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change
for Self- determination".
3. This day observed to promote and protect the rights of the world's
Indigenous population and to raise awareness of the need to improve
the economic, social, and cultural situation of the indigenous people.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
Answer : C
Explanation
The United Nations (UN)'s International Day of the World's Indigenous
Peoples (IDWIP) is annually observed on 9th August across the world to
promote and protect the rights of the world's Indigenous population and to
raise awareness of the need to improve the economic, social, and cultural
situation of the indigenous people.
 This day is also known as World Tribal Day or World Indigenous
Peoples Day.
 The 2023 theme of IDWIP is "Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change for
Self- determination" with the sub-themes: Climate Action and the Green
Transition; Mobilizing for Justice and Intergenerational Connections.
Background:
 In 1994, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted the
resolution resolution 49/214 titled International Decade of the World's
Indigenous People (1994-2004) and proclaimed the 9th August of every
year during the decade as International Day of the World's Indigenous
People.
 The first-ever International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples was
observed on 9th August 1995.
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and its partners

announced the winners of the 14th Equator Prize, on the occasion of the
International Day of World's Indigenous Peoples, recognizing 10
Indigenous peoples and local communities from 10 Countries namely
Bolivia, Brazil, Burundi, Ecuador, Guatemala, Greenland, Liberia, Nepal,
the Philippines, and Zambia.
60. Which of the following are correctly matched

GI Products State
1. Nathdwara Pichhwai Craft Rajastan
2. Matti banana Tamilnadu
3. Kandhamal Haldi Odisha
Select the correct answer from below given codes:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
 Nathdwara Pichhwai Craft:

The Nathdwara Pichhwai Craft has a 400-year history and depicts
the glorious life of Lord Shrinathji(Lord Krishna).
 These paintings were used to decorate the walls of temples in
Nathdwara, Rajasmand district, Rajasthan.
 The word Pichhwai comes from the Sanskrit words, 'pich' meaning back
and 'wais' meaning hanging.
 The colours used in Pichhwai painting are natural colours including
vibrant blue, green, brilliant red, and Oranges.
 Themes commonly used in Nathdwara Pichhwai Crafts are based on
Ramayana, Krishna Lila, Choura Panchasika, Ragamala series and Gita
Govinda.
Matti banana:
 Matti banana from Tamil Nadu have got the coveted Geographical
Identification tag (GI tag)
 Matti is a variety of banana that is widely grown in India's south.
 It contains a lot of potassium, which helps the brain work better.
 It can be used to treat kidney problems because it is low in salt.
Kandhamal Haladi
 A variety of turmeric indigenous to South Odisha and mostly cultivated
in Kandhamal district, was awarded with a Geographical Indication (GI)
tag on Monday
 This locally sourced spice is well-known for its medicinal value and
cosmetic properties. It is one of the major cash crops of tribal people in
Kandhamal district.
 Earlier, popular products including Kotpad's handloom fabric, Ikat
saree, Berhampur Patto, Pipili appliqué, Pattachitra and Konark
stonework have received the GI tag.
61. "Zayed Talwar 2023", a bilateral naval maritime partnership exercise

was held between which of the following Countries?
a) India and United Arab Emirates
b) India and Saudi Arabia
c) India and Bangladesh
d) India and Mongolia
Answer: A
Explanation
"Zayed Talwar 2023", a bilateral naval maritime partnership exercise was

held between the Indian Navy (IN), India and United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Navy from 8th to 11th August 2023 in Dubai, UAE.
 From India, INS (Indian Navy Ship) Visakhapatnam and INS Trikand
participated. The delegation of IN was commanded by Rear Admiral
Vineet McCarty, Flag Officer Commanding Western Fleet (FOCWF).
 INS Visakhapatnam is an indigenously developed destroyer, and is
commanded by Captain Ashok Rao, whereas INS Trikand, an advanced
stealth frigate, is commanded by Captain Pramod G Thomas.
Aim:
 To enhance the interoperability and synergy between the IN and UAE
Navy by cross-training on tactics, techniques and procedures while also
developing stronger professional bonds
62. Which among the following statements are incorrect regarding World
bio-fuel Day.
1. World Bio-Fuel Day is observed annually on 10th August to create
awareness about the importance of non-fossil fuels or bio-fuels as an
alternative to conventional fossil fuels
2. The day also honours Rudolf Diesel, a French-German Inventor, who
invented the Diesel Engine in 1892.
Select the correct options from the codes given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1& 2
Answer: D
Explanation
World Bio-Fuel Day is observed annually on 10th August to create

awareness about the importance of non-fossil fuels or bio-fuels as an
alternative to conventional fossil fuels for the energy sector.
 The day also honours Rudolf Diesel, a French-German Inventor, who
invented the Diesel Engine in 1892. So both statements are correct.
 The day also tries to highlight the various efforts taken by the
Government to promote the use of biofuel for the sustainable
development of the planet.
Background:
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) initiated the
observance of World Biofuel Day in India in 2015.
Why August 10?
10th August marks the day on which German inventor and mechanical
engineer Sir Rudolf Christian Karl Diesel for the first time successfully ran
the Diesel engine with peanut oil in 1893.
63. India’s first 3D printed post office was built at which among the
following?
a) Chennai
b) Bombay
c) Delhi
d) Banglore
Answer : D
Explanation
India's first 3D printed post office building in the Banglore city's
Cambridge layout. Office construction completed in just 45 days.
63. Trans-Siberian railway from St. Petersburg to Vladivostok does

not run across:
a) Altai range
b) Ural mountains
c) Caucasus mountains
d) Ob and yenisei rivers
Explanation
 The Trans-Siberian Railway, historically known as the Great Siberian
Route and often shortened to Transsib, is a large railway system that
connects European Russia to the Russian Far East.
 It runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok on the Pacific
Coast in the east passing through Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk,
Chita and Khabarovsk.
 The railway line Crosses the regions of Siberia and Ural Mountains,
Yablonoi Mountains, Altai range and Ob and yenisei rivers.
 The Trans–Siberian Railroad passes the mountains at Chita and runs
parallel to the range before going through a tunnel to bypass the height.
It doesn’t passes through Caucasus Mountains. Therefore Option (c)
is correct.
64. Match List- I with List –II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the list :
LIST – I (Country/Area) LIST –II (Shifting Cultivation)
A. India 1. Ladang
B. Central America 2. Roca
C. Brazil 3. Milpa
D. Indonesia 4. Jhum
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
 Jhum cultivation involves cutting the tree tops to burn vegetation on
land in North eastern part of India . This creates fertile soil for
cultivation. Once cultivation was done, another patch of land would be
burned and cultivated. It is also called shifting cultivation.
 Milpa is a type of shifting cultivation in Mexico and Central America.
It is a form of swidden agriculture. Traditionally, a milpa plot is planted
with maize, beans, and squash and might include a variety of other
plants.
 Shifting cultivation is called Roca in Brazil. It involves clearing forests,
burning the stubble, and cultivating the land for a few years before
moving to another plot, leaving the old patch for regeneration. This
provides a very easy and very fast method of the preparation of the land
for agriculture.
 Ladang is the name given to shifting agriculture in Indonesia.
 Shifting cultivation in the Philippines is called Caingin.
 Shifting Cultivation in Vietnam is called Ray.
65. Which of the following statements with regard to the

Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct?
1) The Mediterranean agriculture is intensive farming.
2) Mediterranean climates have warm summer and mild winter.
3) It is primitive subsistence agriculture.
4) Viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Explanation
 Most Mediterranean agriculture is intensive farming, owing to its
annual crop rotations, mechanization, and agrochemical usage.
 Named after the Mediterranean sea, places with Mediterranean climates
have warm, dry summers and mild, rainy winters in general. Warm
temperate (mid-latitude) climates extend from 30°-50° of latitude mainly
on the eastern and western margins of continents. These climates
generally have warm summers with mild winters.
 Viticulture or grape cultivation is a specialty of the Mediterranean
region. Best quality wines in the world with distinctive flavors are
produced from high quality grapes in various countries of this region.
The inferior grapes are dried into raisins and currants. This region also
produces olives and figs.
 Primitive subsistence agriculture refers to a type of agriculture where
farmers grow crops primarily for their own subsistence, using simple
tools and traditional methods. Mediterranean agriculture, on the
other hand, is characterized by commercial production and
specialized cultivation techniques. Hence only statement 3 is
incorrect.
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Wheat, soyabean and sorghum are grown in northern China,
Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan.
2. In India, wheat is grown in the western parts of the Indo-Gangetic
plains and millets are grown in the dry parts of western and
southern India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
 Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than

paddy: Due to the difference in relief, climate, soil and some of the
other geographical factors, it is not practical to grow paddy in many
parts of the monsoon Asia.
 Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern China,

Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India, wheat is grown
in the western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains and millets are
grown in the dry parts of western and southern India. Hence both
statements are correct.

1. Australia produces the largest share of uranium from mines in the
world.
2. The most common isotopes in natural uranium are uranium-235.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
 Over two-thirds of the world's production of uranium from mines is

from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia. An increasing amount of
uranium, now over 50%, is produced by in-situ leaching. Kazakhstan
produces the largest share of uranium from mines (42% of world
supply from mines), followed by Canada (13%) and Australia (12%).
 The most common isotopes in natural uranium are uranium-238

(which has 146 neutrons and accounts for over 99% of uranium on the
Earth) and uranium-235 (which has 143 neutrons). Hence both the
statements are incorrect.
68. Which of the following is/are the benefit(s) of “Mixed Farming”?

1. Maintenance of soil fertility
2. Maintenance soil biodiversity
3. Minimization of soil erosion
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Environmental benefits of mixed farming systems –

 Maintain soil fertility by recycling soil nutrients, and allowing the
introduction and use of rotations between various crops and forage
legumes and trees, or for land to remain fallow, and grasses and shrubs
to become re-established;
 Maintain soil biodiversity, minimize soil erosion, help to conserve water

and provide suitable habitats for the birds;
 Make the best use of crop residues. When they are not used as feed,
stalks may be incorporated directly into the soil, where, for some time,
they act as a nitrogen trap, exacerbating deficiencies. In the tropical
semi-arid areas, termite action results in loss of nutrients before the
next cropping season. Burning, the other alternative, increases carbon
dioxide emissions; and
 Allow intensified farming with less dependence on natural resources

and preserving more biodiversity than would be the case if food
demands were to be met by crop and livestock activities undertaken in
isolation. All statements are correct.

Port Country
1. Port Kelang Malaysia
2. Port of Antwerp USA
3. Port of Hamburg Germany
4. Port of Long Beach Belgium
How of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) only one
b) only two
c) only three
d) All four
Explanation
Port Country
1. Port Kelang Malaysia
2. Port of Antwerp Belgium
3. Port of Hamburg Germany
4. Port of Long Beach USA
70. Which of the following is/are the main reason(s) for the growth
of fishing industry in Japan?
1. Shallow continental shelf along its coast.
2. Presence of Oyashio & Kuroshio Ocean currents
3. Around 80 % of the land is not suitable for agriculture
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
 Japan is an island nation with a population of 128 million, a land

area of 377 801 km², a coastline of 29 751 km, and an EEZ of
approximately 4.05 million km², the sixth largest in the world and
about twelve times larger than the national land area.
 A combination of warm (Kuroshio) and cold (Oyashio) currents flows

along the coasts, creating one of the most abundant fishing grounds
in the world.
Other reasons for growth of fishing industry in Japan include:
 Japan has a large population which provides ready local market for
fish.
 Japanese have a long history of sea faring thus are highly experienced
in fishing.
 The shallow continental shelf allows light to the sea bed for growth of
micro-organisms which are food for fish.
 Japan has developed unique marketing and distribution system of fish

and fishery products to meet domestic demand and earn revenue from
fisheries export.
 Japan is also not endowed with natural resources, for as much as 80%
of the land is not suitable for agriculture. Thus, it heavily depends on
the sea to survive. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
71. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Population

Growth’.
1. The population growth refers to the change in number of inhabitants

of a territory during a specific period of time.
2. Population growth change may be positive as well as negative.
3. It can be expressed either in terms of absolute numbers or in terms
of percentage.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
Answer : C
Explanation
Population Growth
 The population growth or population change refers to the change in
number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time.
 This change may be positive as well as negative.
 It can be expressed either in terms of absolute numbers or in terms
of percentage.
 Population change in an area is an important indicator of economic
development, social upliftment and historical and cultural
background of the region.
72. Consider the following statements with respect to the Migration.
1. Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal.

2. It may take place from rural to rural areas, rural to urban areas,
urban to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
3. Immigration refers to ‘Migrants who move into a new place are
called Immigrants’.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
Answer : C
Explanation
Migration
 Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal.
 It may take place from rural to rural areas, rural to urban areas,
urban to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
 Immigration : Migrants who move into a new place are called
Immigrants.
 Emigration : Migrants who move out of a place are called
Emigrants.
73. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘the Demographic

Transition’.
1. Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict

the future population of any area.
2. The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high
births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society
progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and
literate society.
3. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the
demographic cycle.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer : D
Explanation
The Demographic Transition
 Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict
the future population of any area.
 The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high
births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society
progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and
literate society.
 These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the
demographic cycle.
74. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Thomas Malthus

theory of population’
1. The number of people would increase faster than the food supply.
2. Any further increase would result in a population crash caused by
famine, disease and war.
3. The preventive checks are better than the physical checks.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Answer : C
Explanation
Thomas Malthus theory of Population
 Thomas Malthus theory (1793) stated that the number of people
would increase faster than the food supply.
 Any further increase would result in a population crash caused by
famine, disease and war.
 The preventive checks are better than the physical checks.
 For the sustainability of our resources, the world will have to control
the rapid population increase.
75. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Age-sex pyramid’.
1. The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of

females and males in different age groups.
2. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the
population.
3. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of
the population.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
Answer : C
Explanation
Age-Sex Pyramid
 The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of
females and males in different age groups.
 A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the
population.
 The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of
the population.
 The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side
shows the percentage of women in each age group.

76. Which of the following is/are not correct regarding the Rice
cultivation in the world?
a) Rice is the most important staple crop and is grown in Tropical
lowlands.
b) Rice is a crop which requires high temperatures with annual
rainfall above 100 cm.
c) China is the second largest producer of rice in the world after
India.
d) Irrigation is extensively used in major rice producing countries.
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
Rice is the most important staple crop and is grown in Tropical
lowlands. Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature (above
25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In fact,
very few areas outside the influence of the monsoons ever take to the
cultivation of Paddy. India is the second largest producer of rice in
the world after China.
 In the 2020-2021 crop year, China produced over 148 million
metric tons of milled rice, a higher volume than any other
country. India came in second place with 122 million metric
tons of milled rice in that crop year.
 There are two main varieties, the wet Paddy, which is mainly
grown on lowlands in flooded fields or in terraced uplands, and
the dry Paddy grown in regions of lower rainfall.
 Irrigation water from rivers, canals, dams or wells is extensively
used in major rice producing countries.
 Other food crops like maize, millet, sorghum, wheat, gram and
beans are of subsidiary importance. They are cultivated in the
drier or cooler areas where rice cannot be grown.

Natural resources Deserts
1. Gold : Great Australian desert
2. Diamond : Kalhari desert
3. Caliche : Atacama desert
4. Oil : Sahara desert
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
The immigrants have been attracted by the mineral wealth of the
desert. After the discovery of certain deposits of minerals, many mining
camps and isolated settlements have come up.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The discovery of gold in the Great
Australian Desert attracted immigrants. Perth, which is 300 miles
away, became a source of Water and Food supplies for the mines in the
Deserts. Some of them like Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie have become
towns of considerable size.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The discovery of Diamonds and Copper in
the Kalahari Desert has attracted many white men to the thirst land as
it is called.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Even in the Atacama, which is most Arid,
mining areas have been identified in northern Chile and mining camps
are functioning and extracting Caliche (cemented gravels) from which
sodium nitrate, a valuable fertiliser, is extracted and exported to all
parts of the world. Besides nitrates, copper is also mined. These two
products have directly or indirectly contributed to the growing size of
the Chilean towns of Arica, Iquique, Antofagasta and Chuquicamata.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The discovery of Oil in many parts of the
Saharan and Arabian Deserts has proved to be a boon for them. The
region has witnessed a great transformation. In Algeria, oil wells have
been sunk two miles deep to tap oil.
78. In the Laurentian type of Climate, which of the following

economic industries are associated with Lumbering?
1. Timber Industry
2. Paper Industry
3. Pulp Industry
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
Timber and fish are the leading export items in the Laurentian
climate. These products are almost in a pure state and the availability
of only a few species has greatly enhanced their commercial value of
these products. Much of the coniferous forests of fir, spruce, and larch
are exploited to a great extent.
Associated industries of Lumbering like Timber, paper and pulp
industries are the most important economic undertaking. The paper
and pulp industry uses wood as raw materials and produces pulp,
paper, paperboard and other cellulose-based products. The industry is
dominated by North American (the United States and Canada), and
East Asian countries (such as East Siberian Russia, China, Japan, and
South Korea).

Tribes Deserts
1. Bushmen : Kalahari Desert
2. Bindibu : Australian Desert
3. Tuaregs : Gobi Desert
4. Mongols : Sahara Desert

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Bushmen of the Kalahari Desert are
equipped with bows, poisoned arrows, spears, traps and snares. They
are skilful, strong and have great endurance. They are either found
wearing a loincloth or they remain naked. They travel in small family
groups and live together on open terms.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Bindibuare the desert aboriginal
people of western Australia. They live in a very similar way as the
Bushmen. They have lean physique, skin colour is dark but they are
healthy too. They have exceptional tracking skills, some of them use
wooden throwing sticks or boomerangs and spears. The wild dog Dingo
is domesticated by them. Dingo assists them in tracking down
kangaroos, rabbits and birds.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Tuaregs of the Sahara Desert are
camel riders and dwell in grass zeriba.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Gobi Desert Mongols ride on
horses to herd their yaks and live in the portable Yurts (a Kind of tent).
80. In the context of human geography, Wurlies and Sherms are:

a) Local winds providing relief from extreme weather conditions
b) Tea varieties cultivated across the world
c) Places of shelters made by tribes
d) Milk yielding buffalo varieties
Answer: c) Places of shelters made by tribes

Explanation
Wurlies and Sherms
 Wurlies are simple shelters made of branches and tufts and
grass. Bindibu or Aborigines tribes also travel in family groups
and live in Wurlies.
 Sherms is a place dug hollow beneath a thorn tree, surrounded
by bushes. Bushmen tribes travel in small family groups and live
together in Sherms.
81. Which of the following pairs is/are correct?

a) Cuba : Wheat Bowl of the world
b) California : Wine Country of North America
c) USA : Sugar bowl of the world
d) All the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
 Cuba is the third largest producer of sugar in the world, so
popularly called the ‘Sugar bowl of the world’. Sugar beet is also
grown in the USA. It is a major source of making sugar after
sugarcane.
 Fruits like grapes, oranges, lime, apple, pears, peaches etc. are
grown in California, Florida, New Jersey and areas around Urban
Centers. California produces 90% of the wine by using grapes in
North America. Therefore California is called the “Wine Country”.
 The USA is popularly known as the 'Wheat Bowl' or 'Bread
Basket' of the world because it supplies cereals, grains and rice to
the whole world.
82. Which of the following is the largest fresh water lake in the world?
a) Lake Michigan
b) Lake Huron
c) Lake Ontario
d) Lake Superior
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Great Lakes of North America were formed as a result of
melting of glaciers. The retreat of the ice sheet left behind a large
amount of melt water that filled up the basins that the glaciers had
carved, thus creating the Great Lakes as we know them today.
Great Lakes:
 The Great Lakes are a series of large interconnected freshwater
lakes in the mid-east region of North America that connect to the
Atlantic Ocean via the Saint Lawrence River.
 There are five lakes, which are Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie,
and Ontario and are in general on or near the Canada–US border.
Together they are called HOMES.
 Lake Superior is the largest of the Great lakes and is the
largest fresh water lake in the world.
 The Great Lakes contain a fifth of the world’s total freshwater, and
is a crucial source of irrigation and transportation.
83. Which of the following statements with reference to Australia is/are
incorrect?
a) The Antarctic circle passes through the middle of the continent.
b) The climate of Australia is tropical and sub-tropical.
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of the
continent. Hence, the climate of Australia is tropical and sub-tropical.
High temperature prevails throughout the year in a large part of the
continent.
84. Which among the following breeds of the cow are matched
correctly with the country of their origin?
1. Holstein - Friesian : Netherlands
2. Jersey : Hungry
3. Ireshire : Ireland
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
Cow Breeds
 The high yielding milch cows now bred world over have all
originally come from Europe. The Holstein- Friesian breed of
Netherlands (Pair 1 is correct), Germany Jersey from Channel
Island (Pair 2 is incorrect), Ireshire of Scotland (Pair 3 is
incorrect), and Brown Swiss of Switzerland are some of the best
breeds of milch cow. Sahiwal, Gir, Red Sindhi, Tharparkar, and
Rathi are pure cattle breeds of India. Dairy is a highly labour-
intensive activity. Machines cannot look after cows and therefore
human labour is required.
 Generally, dairy farms are organized near urban centres. Canada,
the United States of America, and New Zealand are other
countries besides the European countries where dairy farming
is important. Dairy farming in India has been organized on
sound footings in Gujarat through dairy cooperative and they
have been quite successful. Central fodder Research Institute,
Jhansi, and National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal have been
conducting research on dairy development.
85. China does not share its borders with

a) Russia
b) Afghanistan
c) Mongolia
d) Bulgaria
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
China does not share its border with Bulgaria.China, officially
known as the People's Republic of China, is a country in East Asia.
China shares its borders with 14 Sovereign Countries. They are
Afghanistan, Bhutan, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Mongolia,
Myanmar, Nepal, North Korea, Russia, Tajikistan and Vietnam.
86. Consider the following about the International Date Line:

1. It is a straight line that connects North Pole and South Pole.
2. It demarcates the change of one calendar day to the next.
3. The line passes through the Indian Ocean.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
The International Date Line (IDL) is an imaginary line that runs
from the North to the South Pole and separates two calendar days. The
IDL is an imaginary line that roughly follows the 180° line of longitude
and passes through the Pacific Ocean. However, this line is not
straight and strays from the 180° meridian at certain points. In some
places, it appears as zig-zag, deviating to the meridian’s east or west.
87. Consider the following statements

1. Russia is the only country that shares border with Black Sea and
Caspian Sea
2. River Volga drains into Black Sea
3. Kurds are spread over Syria, Iraq, Turkey and Iran.
a) 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
Black Sea is bounded by Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia,
Turkey, and Ukraine. The Caspian Sea is bordered by five
countries: Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
The Volga is the longest river in Europe. It is also Europe's largest river
when it comes to discharge and drainage basin. The river flows through
central Russia and into the Caspian Sea.
Kurds are an Iranian ethnic group native to the mountainous region
of Kurdistan in Western Asia, which spans southeastern Turkey,
northwestern Iran, northern Iraq, and northern Syria.
88. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Qatar is located in the Gulf of Oman
b) Yemen Shares boundary only with Saudi Arabia
c) Sinai Peninsula is a part of Egypt
d) Bosporus strait unites the Red sea and Gulf of Aden
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
 Qatar is situated on a peninsula that extends from the Arabian
Peninsula approximately 190 km (120 mi) north into the Persian
(or Arab) Gulf. Qatar's only land border is with Saudi Arabia.
 Yemen is a desert country in the Middle East on the southern tip
of the Arabian Peninsula, bordered in west by the Red Sea and
the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, in north by Saudi Arabia and in north
east by Oman.
 The Sinai Peninsula is the northeastern extremity of
Egypt and adjoins Israel and the Gaza Strip on the east.
 Bosporus strait unites Black Sea and the Sea of Marmara.
89. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through which of the following

countries?
1. Argentina
2. Bolivia
3. Chile
4. Botswana
5. Mozambique
6. Zimbabwe
7. Australia
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
b) 1, 3, 5, 6, 7
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
d) 2, 3, 4, 6, 7
Solution: (a)
The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Brazil, Paraguay, Chile and
Argentina in South America; Namibia, South Africa, Botswana,
Mozambique and Madagascar in Africa; Australia
90. Arrange the islands of Japan from North to South:

1. Honshu
2. Hokkaido
3. Shikoku
4. Kyushu
a) 2-1-3-4
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 3-4-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
In total, the country of Japan includes 6,852
islands, many of which are very small and
uninhabited. Following are the main islands of
Japan from North to South:
 Hokkaido: the northernmost and second-
largest of the main Japanese islands. It is
separated from Honshu by the Tsugaru
Strait.
 Honshu: the largest island and the core of Japan. It is also the
seventh-largest island in the world.
 Shikoku: is the smallest of the four islands and is located to the
east of Kyushu and southeast of Honshu.
 Kyushu: The third largest of Japan's big islands, Kyushu is to the
southwest of Honshu.
91. Vittal pindi is related to which among the following?

a) Folk dance of Kodagu district
b) Famous Paintings of Hakki Pikki Tribe
c) Sri Krishna Mahotsava
d) Rama Mahotsava during deepavali
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vittal Pindi is the famous Sri Krishna Mahotsav celebrations held
annually during the Sri Krishna Janmashtami at the world famous
Udupi Sri Krishna Temple in Karnataka.
92. DHCC 1901 and 1801, DDCC-1, DMB-225 which were seen in news
are related to?
a) Genes which are responsible for breast cancer
b) New variety of Drugs to treat Malaria
c) Colored cotton varieties
d) Potent Green house gases of Chloro carbon family
Answer: C
Explanation:
New variety of Naturally Coloured cotton developed by Dharwad
University, Ecologically friendly.
 New varieties like DHCC (Dharwad Hirsutum colour cotton) 1901
and 1801 are developed in 2023 and 2022.
 Earlier the university launched brown (dark, medium brown) and
cream-coloured cotton in 2020. The brown varieties are called
Dharwad Desi Coloured Cotton (DDCC-1) and Dharwad Medium
Brown Cotton (DMB-225)
93. World Coffee Conference 2023 was held in which among the
following city?
a) Chennai
b) Banglore
c) Kochi
d) Chikkamaglur
Answer: B
Explanation:
World Coffee Conference 2023
The four-day World Coffee Conference 2023 was held in Banglore.The
event is being held for the first time in an Asian coffee-producing
country.
Bengaluru is hosting the fifth World Coffee Conference, which will
showcase Indian coffees to global buyers. The World Coffee Conference
(WCC 2023) is organised by the International Coffee Organisation in
collaboration with the Coffee Board of India, Ministry of Commerce and
others.
The theme for world coffee conference 2023 was "Sustainability
through circular economy and regenerative agriculture"
94. Which among the following constitutional amendment act provides

for one-third reservation to women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies
?
a) 100th Constitutional amendment act

b) 102nd Constitutional amendment act
c) 103rd Constitutional amendment act
d) 106th Constitutional amendment act
Answer : D
106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
 Parliament passed Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, to

provide for one-third reservation to women in the Lok Sabha, State
Assemblies and the assembly of NCT of Delhi.
95. Which among the following committee constituted by the union

government to examine the ‘Simultaneous Elections’ ?
a) Ram Nath Kovind

b) Dr.Manamohan Singh
c) Subramanya Swamy
d) Krishnamurthy Aiyyar
Answer : A
Simultaneous Elections
 The Union government has recently notified an 8- member
committee under the leadership of the former President Shri Ram
Nath Kovind to examine and make recommendations on
simultaneous election.
96. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Global Biofuel
Alliance’.
1. It was launched by India along with the leaders of Singapore,

Bangladesh, Italy, USA, Brazil, Argentina, Mauritius and UAE.
2. The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an
expert hub.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 & 2
Answer : C
Global Biofuel Alliance
 It was launched by India along with the leaders of Singapore,
Bangladesh, Italy, USA, Brazil, Argentina, Mauritius and UAE.
 The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an
expert hub.
 Global Biofuel Alliance aims ‘to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering
global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of
biofuels.
 Present GBA Members includeo 7 G20 countries: Argentina, Brazil,
Canada, India Italy, South Africa, USA.
97. Which among the following is the nodal ministry for implementation
of ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’ ?
e) Ministry of Civil Aviation

f) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise
g) Ministry of External affairs.
h) Prime Ministers Office
Answer : B
‘PM Vishwakarma’ Scheme
 Recently, Prime Minister launched ‘PM Vishwakarma’ Scheme for
traditional artisans and craftspeople on occasion of Vishwakarma
Jayanti.
 It envisages to provide end-to-end holistic support to the traditional
artisans and craftspeople in scaling up of their conventional
products and services.
 Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise (MoMSME) is the
nodal Ministry.
Objective of the scheme

 To enable recognition of artisans and craftspeople as Vishwakarmas.
 To provide incentives for digital transactions to encourage digital
empowerment of Vishwakarmas.
 To provide a platform for brand promotion and market linkages to
help them access new opportunities for growth.
98. Who among the following has won the Ramon Magsaysay award,
2023?
a) Ravi Kannan
b) Ananya Gaur
c) Ravish Kumar
d) Kailash Vidyarthi
Answer: A
Explanation
 Assam-based Oncologist Ravi Kannan has been one of the four
winners of the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award, Asia’s equivalent of
the Nobel prize.
 He is a recipient of India’s fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri
and the director of Assam’s Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research
Centre (CCHRC).
Ramon Magsaysay Award:
 Established in 1957 as Asia's highest honour and premier prize.
 It celebrates individuals who demonstrate exceptional spirit in
serving the people of Asia, regardless of their background.
 The award is presented annually on August 31st, which coincides
with the birthday of Ramon Magsaysay, the third president of the
Republic of the Philippines, who inspired its creation.
99. Consider the following statements with reference to Aditya-L1

Mission.
1. The PSLV-C57/Aditya-L1 Mission's objective is to study the Sun, the
nearest star and the largest object in the solar system, over the next
5 years.
2. PSLV-C57 is the 59th flight of PSLV and the 25th mission using the
PSLV-XL configuration
Select the correct options from the codes given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1& 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
On 2nd September 2023, the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) launched Aditya- L1(Lagrange Point 1), India's 1st observatory-
class space-based solar mission, launched by PSLV-C57 (Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle) rocket from the Second Launch Pad (SLP), Satish
Dhawan Space Centre - SDSC (formerly Sriharikota Range - SHAR) in
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh(AP).
 PSLV-C57 is the 59th flight of PSLV and the 25th mission using
the PSLV-XL configuration.
About PSLV-C57/Aditya-L1 Mission:

 Name significance: Aditya is the name of the Sun in Sanskrit
language.
 Objective: The PSLV-C57/Aditya-L1 Mission's objective is to study
the Sun, the nearest star and the largest object in the solar
system, over the next 5 years.
 Mission Director: NigarShaji, an ISRO woman scientist from
Tenkasi, Tamil Nadu is the Mission Director of the Aditya-L1
mission.
 Payloads: The spacecraft carries seven payloads to observe the
photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layers of the Sun
(the corona) using electromagnetic and particle detectors.
100. Who is the first Indian to win a gold medal at World Athletics
Championships?
a) Maru Kon
b) Anju Bobby George
c) Neeraj Chopra
d) Murali Sreeshankar
Answer: C
Explanation
Neeraj Chopra clinched the gold medal in
the men’s javelin throw event at the World
Athletics Championships, 2023 held in
Budapest, Hungary.
 He made history by becoming the first-
ever Indian athlete to secure a gold
medal at this prestigious championship.

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#91, Ground Floor, 60Ft Main Road, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru-560040

KAS KADANA TEST - 05 SYNOPSIS (ENGLISH)

2. Assertion (A): Variable winds-cyclones and anti-cyclones originate in

Choose the correct option from the code given below

4. Consider the following statements about alluvial soil

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

5. Which among the following measures are followed in conservation of

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

6. Which of the following element is most abundantly found in the

8. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

9. Which one of the following is not an erosional landform of desert

11. Consider the following pairs:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

14. Consider the following statements regarding Ocean salinity.

Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

16. Which of the following statement is correct?

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following statements is /are correct?

19. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

Select the correct answer using the code given belows ;

20. Consider the following statements regarding La Nina.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. Land and sea breezes are caused by differential

23. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of an Air Mass?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

26. “Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation.”

27. “This type of climate is entirely confined to the western portion of

29. Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?

30. Submarine Canyons abundantly found on the :

34. Consider the following statements with regard to Earthquake

35. Consider the following statements with regard to Volcanic landforms

Which one of the following statements given above is/are incorrect?

36. If a researcher experiments to enter inside the Earth vertically, then

38. The estuarine landform is created by which of the following factors?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

39. Consider the following pairs:

1. P waves - Travel through solids and liquids

 The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through

 The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These

40. Which of the following processes are included under diastrophism?

 Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within,

1. The Terrestrial planets have higher densities than the Jovian

 The Terrestrial planets were formed in close vicinity of the parent

43. Consider the following statements about the Moon:

 Of the terrestrial (rocky) planets of the inner solar system, neither

44. Consider the following statements about the “Nebular Hypothesis” of

Assertion (A): The planets were formed out of a cloud of material

 A large number of hypotheses were put forth by different

 The hypothesis considered that the planets were formed out of a

 Later in 1900, Chamberlain and Moulton considered that a

45. Consider the following statements:

 Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect influences on

 West coasts of the continents in the middle and the higher

46. Consider the following pairs:

Geological era Major events

1. Cainozoic : Early human ancestor.

1. This Theory is regarding the distribution of the oceans and the

 It was Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist, who put forth a