INDIA4IAS

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KPSC KADANA Prelims Test Series - 2024

Test code- KP202402
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU

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2. You have to enter your Name and Phone number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided
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3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response, which you want to mark on the OMR Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the OMR sheet provided along with the Test
Booklet.

5. All items carry equal marks. There will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers.

6. Candidates are requested to use Only Black Ballpoint Pen.

7. There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

8. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that
question.

9. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
 INDIA4IAS

1. 4.
?
? a) 58
a)
b) 60
b)
c) 62
c)
d) 65
d)

5.
2.
?

? a)

a) 154 .
b) 155
c) 156 b)
d) 157

3. ?
.
a)
c)

b) ,

.
c)
d)

d)
.

2
 INDIA4IAS

1. Who can designate a member to d) Madhya Pradesh High Court

serve as chairperson in the event bench at Gwalior
that the state human rights
commission's chairperson position 4. What is the upper age limit at
becomes vacant? which a High Court judge can
a) The chief justice of the High retire?
Court a) 58 years
b) Chief Minister b) 60 years
c) President c) 62 years
d) Governor d) 65 years

2. Which among the following article 5. Which one of the following is

under constitution provides the correct with respect to the
procedures for appointing a appointment of District Judges?
governor for each state?
a) 154 a) They are appointed by the Chief

b) 155 Justice of the respective High

c) 156 Court.

d) 157 b) The President of India appoints

them, following the advice of

3. Which among the following Chief Justice of the respective

statement is not correct? High Court.

a) Guhwati High Court bench has c) After consulting the respective

only one bench State's High Court, the Governor

b) Rajasthan High Court principal appoints them.

bench is located in Jodhpur d) They are appointed by the

c) Allahabad High Court maintain Supreme Court on the advice of

permanent bench at Lucknow the concerned High Court.

3
 INDIA4IAS

6. 8. " "
?
? a) 2007
a) , , , b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2010

b) 9.
(NALSA) ,
1/3 ?

c) 1/12 a) NALSA
, 1988
.
b) NALSA
d) 1/12 .
c)

.
7. d)
,
.

? 10.
a) 168 371(J) ?
b) 169 a) 95
c) 170 b) 96
d) 171 c) 97
d) 98

4
 INDIA4IAS

6. Which of the following is not correct 8. In India “Gram Nyayalaya Act”

regarding the provision of legislative came into force in
council in the state legislature?
a) 2007
a) The states of Telangana,
b) 2008
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Bihar,
c) 2009
and Uttar Pradesh have
d) 2010
legislative council
b) Total number members in
9. In the context of National Legal
legislative council shall not
Services Authority (NALSA) which
exceed 1/3 rd of total number of
of the following statements is not
members in legislative assembly
correct?
c) 1/12th of all members shall be
a) NALSA has been constituted
elected by electorates consisting under the Legal Services
of local bodies and authorities Authorities Act, 1988
d) 1/12th of all members shall be b) The current Executive-
Chairman of NALSA is Justice
elected by the graduates residing
Sanjiv Khanna.
in the state c) Its objective is to provide free
and competent legal services to
7. Which article of Indian constitution the eligible persons
d) It will organize Lok Adalats for
empowers the parliament of India
amicable settlement of disputes
to create or abolish legislative
council, if the legislative assembly 10. Which Constitutional
amendment act provided article
of the state passes a resolution to
371(J) to Karnataka
that effect? a) 95th Constitutional Amendment
a) Article 168 Act
b) Article 169 b) 96th Constitutional Amendment
Act
c) Article 170 c) 97th Constitutional Amendment
d) Article 171 Act
d) 98th Constitutional Amendment
Act
5
 INDIA4IAS

11. :

1. 200
.

. a) 1

2. b) 2
, c) 1 2

d) 1 2
251 254 .
13. ( )

a) 1
1.
b) 2

c) 1 2

d) 1 2 .

2.
12.
.
:

1.
?
1982
a) 1
.
b) 2
2.
c) 1 2

d) 1 2

6
 INDIA4IAS

11. Consider the following appeal against before any

statements: court of law.
1) Article 200 of Indian Which one of the following
constitution outlines the statements given above is/are
process for a bill passed by correct?
the legislature assembly of
a) Only 1
the state to be presented to
b) Only 2
governor assent
c) Both 1 and 2
2) Article 251 and 254 states
d) Neither 1 nor 2
that in case of inconsistency
between union and state laws,
13. Consider the following
the state law shall be void.
statements about Jurisdiction of
Which one of the following
High Court
statements given above is/are
1) Matters related to the election
correct?
disputes of the MLAs and MPs
a) Only 1 also come under the Appellate
b) Only 2 jurisdiction of the High Court.
c) Both 1 and 2 2) Writ jurisdiction of the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Supreme Court is wider than
that of High Court.
12. Consider the following Which one of the following
statements about Lok Adalat in statements given above is/are
India correct?
1) The first Lok Adalat camp was
a) Only 1
organized in Gujarat in 1982.
b) Only 2
2) The decision made by the Lok
c) Both 1 and 2
Adalats is deemed to be a
d) Neither 1 nor 2
decree of a civil court and

7
 INDIA4IAS

14. -I -II 4.
163

-I –II Codes:
A B C D
371A 1. a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 1 2
371D 2. c) 2 1 4 3
371H 3. d) 4 3 1 2
371 I 4.
16.

Codes:
A B C D / ?
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 1 2 1.
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
2.
15. -I -II

3.

4.
-I –II

1. .
231
?
2.
a)
213
b)
c)
3.
168 d)

8
 INDIA4IAS

14. Match List- I with List –II and

select the correct answer using the Article 4. Power to
codes given below the lists 163 establish a common
High Court for two
or more states to
LIST – I LIST –II the Parliament.
(Article) (Associated states)
Codes:
371A 1. ArunachalPradesh
A B C D
371D 2. Goa
a) 1 2 3 4
371H 3. Nagaland b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
371 I 4. Andhra Pradesh or d) 4 3 1 2
the state of
Telangana
Codes: 16. Consider the following
statements about powers and
A B C D status of the council is equal to
that of the assembly
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 1 2 1. With regard to passing an
c) 2 1 4 3 ordinary bill.
d) 4 3 1 2
2. Approval of ordinances issued
by the governor
15. Match List- I with List –II and 3. Enlargement of the
select the correct answer using the jurisdiction of the state public
codes given below the lists: service commission.
4. The council can discuss the
LIST – I LIST –II budget and vote on the
demands for grants.
Article 1.Constitution of
231 Legislatures in How many of the above
States statements are correct?

Article 2.Council of a) Only one

213 Ministers to aid and
advise Governor b) Only two

Article 3. ordinance c) Only three

168 making power
Governor d) None

9
 INDIA4IAS

17. 3.

1. .
4.
.
. ?
2. a)
b)
- .
c)
3.
d)

19.
,
:
.
1.
4.

.
.
? 2.
a) .
b)
3.
c)
d)
,
18. .

1. ?
a) 1 2
- .
b) 1 3
2. 5
, c) 2 3
. d)

10
 INDIA4IAS

17. Consider the following 3. He/ She cannot pardon a

statements regarding High court death sentence.
1. President is authorized to 4. Constitution lay down any
establish a common high grounds upon which a
court for two or more states governor may be removed by
or for two or more states and the President.
a union territory. How many of the above
2. The territorial jurisdiction of a statements are correct?
high court is co-terminus with (a) Only one
the territory of a state. (b) Only two
3. The Parliament can extend (c) Only three
the jurisdiction of a high (d) All four
court to any union territory or
exclude the jurisdiction of a 19. Consider the following is/are
high court from any union constitutional position of the
territory. governor
4. Constitution does not specify 1. Constitution envisages the
the strength of a high court possibility of the governor
and leaves it to the discretion acting at times in his
of the president. discretion.
How many of the above 2. Ministerial advice has been
statements are correct? made binding on the
a) Only one governor.
b) Only two 3. If any question arises whether
c) Only three a matter falls within the
d) All four governor’s discretion or not,
the decision of the governor is
18. Consider the following final.
statements with regard to Governor Which one of the following
1. Governor ordinance-making statements given above is/are
power is not co-extensive with correct?
the legislative power of the a) 1 and 2 only
state legislature.
b) 1 and 3 only
2. He/She has security of tenure
and with fixed term of 5 years c) 2 and 3 only
of office.
d) All the above

11
 INDIA4IAS

20. :
a) A R , R
: A
(A): .
, ,
b) A R , R
A .
.
c) A ,R .
(R):
. d) A R
:
a) A R , R 22.
A
. :
b) A R , R
(A): ,
A
.
.
c) A ,R .
(R): XXI 371
d) A R
371-J
.
21.
:

: a) A R , R
(A): A .
(NJAC) b) A R , R
. A .
(R): 99
c) A ,R .

d) A R
.

12
 INDIA4IAS

20. Consider the following a) A and R both are true, and R

statements and select the correct is the correct explanation for
answer from the codes given below: A.

Assertion (A): The state b) A and R both are true, and R

executive consists of the is the not the correct
governor, the chief minister, the explanation for A.
council of ministers and the
advocate general of the state. c) A is correct, R is incorrect.

Reason(R): The governor is the d) A and R both are incorrect

chief executive head of the state.

Codes:
22. Consider
a) A and R both are true, and R
is the correct explanation for
A.
b) A and R both are true, and R
is the not the correct
explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect
21. Consider the following
statements and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): National Judicial
Appointments Commission
(NJAC) will appoint the judges
for High court.
Reason(R): The commission is
established on the basis of 99th
constitutional Amendment act.
the following
statements and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Originally, the
constitution did not make any
special provisions for these
states.
Reason(R): Articles 371 to 371-J
in Part XXI of the constitution
contain special provisions for
eleven states
Codes:
a) A and R both are true, and R
is the correct explanation for
A.
b) A and R both are true, and R
is the not the correct
explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.

Codes: d) A and R both are incorrect

13
 INDIA4IAS

23. 1. 18
?
a) .
2.
b)
.
c)

d) ?
a) 1
24.
b) 2
?
c) 1 2
a)
d) 1 2
b)

c) 27.

d)
?
1. ,
25.
.
?
2.
a) .
b) 3. .
c)
:
d)
a) 1 2

26. b) 2 3

, c) 1 3
: d) 1, 2 3

14
 INDIA4IAS

23. Kondajji Basappa committee is 1. Gram Sabha includes every

related to -
a) Karnataka Panchayat Raj
b) Land reforms
c) Co operative reforms
d) Linguistic Education
person of the village who is
aged 18 years or more.
2. The secretary of the Gram
Sabha is appointed by the
state government.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only
24. Karnataka State Rural
Development and Panchayat Raj c) Both 1 and 2
University is located at -
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Davangere

b) Mysuru
27. Which of the following can come
c) Dharwad under the ambit of the
responsibilities of the Gram
d) Gadag
Panchayat?

1. Construction of roads,
25. Who was the founder of the first bridges, and waterways.
agricultural credit cooperative 2. Levying and collecting tax on
society in India ? agricultural income.

a) Sir Frederick Nicholson 3. Maintenance of community

assets.
b) Siddanagouda Sanna
Ramagouda patil Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
c) Robert Owen
a) 1 and 2 only
d) None of them
b) 2 and 3 only
26. With reference to the Panchayati c) 1 and 3 only
Raj Institutions in India, consider
the following statements: d) 1, 2 and 3

15
 INDIA4IAS

28. 3.
,
:
1.
?
- a)
.
b)
2.
c)

. d)
3. . .
30. -
?
a) ( )
b)
. c)
d)
?
a) 1 2 31.
b) 2 3 356
c) 1 3
d) 1, 2 3 ?
29. a)
? .
b)
1.
.
c) 19
2. .
d)
,

16
 INDIA4IAS

28. With reference to the and protect the

decentralization of powers to local ports
government institutions, consider
the following statements: How many pairs given above is/are
1. Mahatma Gandhi advocated the correctly matched?
decentralization and local self-
(a) Only one pair
government to make
development inclusive. (b) Only two pairs
2. Jawaharlal Nehru considered
decentralization to local level as (c) Only three pairs
a threat to the unity and
integrity of India. (d) None of the above
3. B.R. Ambedkar largely supported
decentralization as it would
empower the lower-caste people
30. Local self-government can be
to voice their needs in
best explained as an exercise in
institutionalized forum.
a) Federalism
Which of the statements given b) Democratic decentralization
above is/are correct?
c) Administrative delegation
a) 1 and 2 only
d) Direct democracy
b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only
31. If the President of India exercises
d) 1, 2 and 3 his power as provided under Article
356 of the Constitution of a
particular State, then
29. Which of the following pairs are a) The Assembly of the State is
correctly matched? automatically dissolved.

b) The powers of the Legislature of

Urban Body Feature that State shall be exercisable by
or under the authority of the
1. Notified Created for fast Parliament.
Area developing towns
Committee
c) Article 19 is suspended in that
2. Municipal Created in states State.
Corporation by an act of
Parliament d) The President can make laws
relating to that State.
3. Port Trust Created to manage
17
 INDIA4IAS

32. , 1.
:
1. 42
.
. 2.
2.

. .

? ?
a) 1 a) 1
b) 2 b) 2
c) 1 2
c) 1 2
d) 1 2
d) 1 2
33. :
1. 35.

. .
2. 1870 1. ,
.
. 2. , ,
3. 1909
- .
3.
. .
/ 4.
?
a) 1 2
b) 2 .
c) 2 3 a) 1 – 2 –3 –4
b) 1 – 3 –4 –2
d) 1, 2 3
c) 1 – 2 –4 –3
34. : d) 1 – 4 –2 –3

18
 INDIA4IAS

32. With reference to the powers of 34. Consider the following

the Governor, consider the statements:
following statements:
1. State Election Commissioner can
1. After the 42nd Amendment Act, be removed in the same manner
ministerial advice has been and on the same grounds as
made binding on the Governor. Judge of a High Court.
2. Only the Supreme Court can 2. The State Legislatures holds no
decide whether a matter falls power to legislate on any matter
within Governor's discretion or relating to elections to
not. Panchayats.
Which of the statements given
Which of the statement given above above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Arrange the following

33. Consider the following amendments to the Indian
statements: Constitution in the correct
chronological order
1. The first municipal corporation
in India was set up at Calcutta. 1. Including Konkani, Manipuri
and Nepali as official languages.
2. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870
laid emphasis on financial 2. Including Bodo, Dogri, Santali
decentralization. and Mathili as official languages.

3. Local self-government became a 3. Constitutional Status to

provincial subject under the
Government of India Act of 1909.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Panchayat Raj Institutions.
4. Right to Education made as a
Fundamental Right.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.

b) 2 only a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

c) 2 and 3 only b) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2

d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
d) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

19
 INDIA4IAS

36. 1.

. .
2. 323B
1.
2. .
3.
?
4.
a) 1
b) 2
.
c) 1 2
a) 3– 4 –1 –2
b) 2– 1 –4 –3 d) 1 2
c) 2– 3 –4 –1
d) 2– 4 –3 –1 39.
,
37. 323B
?
, ,
a)
,
.
.
b)

?
a)
.
b)
c)
c) (a) (b)
d) (a) (b)
.
38. d)
: .

20
 INDIA4IAS

36. Arrange the following High 1. High Courts are vested with the
Courts in the correct chronological power to decide disputes arising
order in terms of their formation. out of elections to Lok Sabha
1. Allahabad High Court and states legislatures.

2. Madras High Court 2. Parliament can transfer this

power to a tribunal, created
3. Gujarat High Court under Article 323B.
4. Kerala High Court Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. a) 1 only
a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 b) 2 only
b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

39. In the context of administration

37. Article 323B of the Constitution of Union Territories, which of the
authorises for establishing following statements is not correct?
tribunals for adjudication of
disputes relating to Land Reforms, a) Administrator of Union Territory
Food stuffs, Taxation and many is an agent of the President and
more. Which of the following bodies not head of state.
are authorises to establish such
tribunals? b) Puducherry and Delhi
assemblies are empowered to
a) Parliament only make laws on State List but not
on Central List and Concurrent
b) State legislatures only List

c) Both (a) and (b) c) Constitutional provisions for

administration of Union
d) Neither (a) nor (b) Territories also apply to
acquired territories.

38. Consider the following d) There is no uniformity in the

statements with regards to Election administrative system of Union
Disputes: Territories.

21
 INDIA4IAS

40. 3.

? .

a)

b) ?

a) 1

c) b) 2 3

d) c) 1 3

d) 1, 2 3
41.
? 43.

a)

b)

c)
.
d) ,

42.
: ?

1. 70 a)

b)
.
c)
2.
d)
.

22
 INDIA4IAS

40. Which of the following ministries 3. The Lieutenant is empowered to

is the nodal ministry for all matters promulgate ordinance during
of Union Territories? recess of the assembly.

a) Ministry of Home Affairs Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?
b) Ministry of Personnel and
Public Administration a) 1 only

c) Ministry of Urban Development b) 2 and 3 only

d) Ministry of Defence c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following state has

highest number of Nagar
43. One of the feature of Tribal Areas
Panchayats in India?
is the acts of Parliament of State
a) Tamil Nadu
Legislature do not apply to
b) Maharashtra autonomous districts and regions

c) Uttar Pradesh or apply with specified

modifications and exceptions. In
d) Karnataka
which of the following states, the
power of direction in this regard lies

42. Consider the following with governor both in respect of

statements with reference to acts of Parliament and State
Special Provisions for Delhi: Legislature?

1. The strength of the assembly is

a) Sikkim
fixed at 70 members and directly
elected by the people. b) Arunachal Pradesh

2. The chief minister of Delhi is c) Meghalaya

appointed by the President of
India. d) Assam

23
 INDIA4IAS

44. (Zonal 1. ,
Council) ?

a)

b) 2.

c)

d)

45.
?

a) 1

a b) 2
c) 1 2
b
d) 1 2
c
d
48. 8

46.
?
a) , ,
?

a) 1833
b) , ,
b) , 1858

c) , 1861 c) , ,
d) 1853

d) , ,
47.

24
 INDIA4IAS

44. Zonal Councils were setup in 47. Consider the following

India by statements with respect to the
official languages of states:
a) the resolution of the Cabinet
1. As per the Constitution, only
b) the law of the Parliament
Hindi can be the official
c) the Provision of Constitution language for communication
d) the Order of the President between a State and the Union.

2. The Governor may direct the

45. Karl Marx, one of the famous
political thinkers propounded
which of the following political
theory?
inclusion of any language in the
official languages of the state to
protect linguistic minorities.

a) Dialectical Materialism Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?
b) Classical Liberalism
a) 1 only
c) Theory of Evolution b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Dialectical Idealism d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Which of the following groups of

46. The First Law Commission was
established under which of the
following Act?
a) Charter Act of 1833
b) Government of India
1858
c) Indian Council Act, 1861
d) Charter Act of 1853
languages are included under the
Schedule 8 of the Constitution of
India?
a) Nepali, Kashmiri, Sanskrit
Act, and Rajasthani
b) Nepali, Urdu, Konkani, and
Rajasthani
c) Konkani, English, Santhali
and Punjabi
d) Nepali, Maithili, Sanskrit and
Punjabi

25
 INDIA4IAS

49. c) 2 2
1. d) 2 2

51.
2. 1988 61
?
21 18
a) 18

3. 1975 39 b)

c)

d)
?
a) 1 2
b) 3 52.
c) 2 3
d) 1 3 ?
a)
50.
1. b)

2. CAT c)

d)
?
a) 1
b) 2

26
 INDIA4IAS

49. Consider the following a) 1 only

statements: b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
1. The state legislatures cannot d) Neither 1 nor 2
establish tribunals for resolving
any type of election dispute. 51. Which of the following is
common to the election for the
2. The 61st Amendment Act of
1988 has reduced the voting age membership of both Rajya Sabha
and Lok Sabha?
from 21 to 18 years.
a) Every citizen above the age of 18
3. The 39th Amendment Act of is an eligible voter.
1975 provided that the Vice- b) A voter can cast vote for multiple
President must be elected at a candidates.
joint sitting of both the Houses c) The candidate contesting
of Parliament. election must be registered as an
elector from any parliamentary
Which of the statements given constituency.
above is/are incorrect? d) The winner must get more than
half of the votes polled.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
52. Which of the following is not the
c) 2 and 3 only
benefit provided to recognised
d) 1 and 3 only
political parties in India?
50. Consider the following
a) They need only one proposer for
statements:
filling the nomination.
1. Central Administrative b) The expense on star
Tribunal (CAT) was set up campaigners is not included in
during the Prime Ministership of the election expenditure of their
Lal Bahadur Shastri. candidates.
c) Broadcast facilities on
2. The Members of CAT are Doordarshan during general
drawn from both judicial and elections.
administrative streams. d) Recognised political parties are
allowed to have same number of
Which of the statements given
star campaigners as the non
above is/are correct?
recognised political party.

27
 INDIA4IAS

53. 55. ,

?
1. ?
a)
2.

b)
3.

c)

a) 2 d)
b) 1 3
c) 2 3
d) 3
56.
54.
1.
?
a)
2.

b)

?
c) a) 1
b) 2
d) c) 1 2
d) 1 2

28
 INDIA4IAS

53. Which of the following of legislative assembly will not be

statements is/are correct regarding disqualified under anti-defection
Electoral Bond scheme?
law?
1. It can be issued to any political
parties. a) If a political party merges with
2. It can be purchased only by another political party with at
single individual and not jointly least one-third members in
with other individuals. favour of merger.
3. Electoral bond can be purchased b) If any nominated member joins
in Indian rupees only. any political party before the end
of 6 months.
Select the correct answer using the c) If any member, who is
code given below: independently elected, joins any
political party.
a) 2 only
d) If a member votes or abstains
b) 1 and 3 only
from voting in the House,
c) 2 and 3 only
contrary to any direction issued
d) 3 only
by his political party.
54. What will happen in a case when
56. Consider the following
a candidate contesting the election
statements regarding Anti-defection
dies before the actual polling?
law:
a) Adjournment of the poll only if
1. Disobedience of Party whips
the nominee was a candidate of
does not result in
a recognized political party.
disqualification of membership
b) Adjournment of the poll only if
of a member from the house.
the nominee was a candidate of
2. The rules which give effect to
only a registered political party.
provisions of the tenth schedule
c) Adjournment of the poll only if
are made by the President.
the contesting person was an
independent candidate Which of the statements given
d) There is no adjournment of the above is/are correct?
poll in any case.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
55. In which of the following cases, a
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Member of Parliament or a Member
29
 INDIA4IAS

57. 2. ' '

?
3. IX-B
a)
b)
c)
d)
?
a) 1 2
58.
b) 2 3
c) 1 3
1. d) 1, 2 3

2. 60. 102
?
a)

? b) . .
c) EWS
a) 1
d) NCBC
b) 2
c) 1 2 61.
d) 1 2

?
59.
a)
,
b)

1. c)

d)

30
 INDIA4IAS

57. Who among the following is 1. The right to form co-operative

responsible for the conduct of
elections in the Parliamentary or
assembly constituency?
(a) Returning Officer
(b) Chief Electoral Officer
(c) District Election Officer
(d) Electoral Registration Officer
58. Consider the following
statements with reference
cooperative societies:
societies is a fundamental
right.
2. The ‘co-operative societies’
come under the exclusive
legislative jurisdiction of State
legislatures in their own
states.
3. Provisions of part IX-B of the
Constitution are not
applicable to Multi-State Co-
Operative Societies.
to Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

1. Cooperative Societies come a) 1 and 2 only

under the Concurrent List of the b) 2 and 3 only
Constitution of India.
c) 1 and 3 only
2. The authority of the Union d) 1, 2 and 3
Government is restricted only to
multi-state cooperatives. 60. 102nd Constitutional Amendmen
-t act is related to ?
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct? a) Exchange of Enclaves
b) G.S.T
(a) 1 only c) Reservation to EWS
d) Constitutional status to NCBC
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 61. Who was the chairman of The

National Commission to review the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
working of the Constitution
(NCRWC)?
a) Justice Venkatachalaiah
59. With reference to the Co-
b) Justice Deepak Mishra
operative Societies in India,
consider the following statements: c) Justice R. S. Sarkaria
d) B. P. Jeevan Reddy

31
 INDIA4IAS

62. 65.
, 1950 ,

1. ,
a)
b)
c)
2.
d)
25
66.
? ?
a) 1 a) 1919
b) 2
c) 1 2 b) 1947
d) 1 2 c)
d)

63.
, 67. 16
?
? 1.
a)
2.
b) 3. -
c)
d) 4.
5.
64.
?
a) a) 1, 2 3
b) b) 1, 3 5
c) c) 2, 3 5
d) d)

32
 INDIA4IAS

62. With reference to elections of 65. Under Mysore Public Service

members to Panchayats, consider Commission, Regulations 1950,
the following statements: who was appointed as first
1. All members of panchayats at chairman of commission
the village, intermediate and a) George Matthan
district levels are elected directly b) Gundappa Gowda
by the people. c) Mallikarjunappa
2. Minimum age to contest election d) None of the above
in Panchayat is 25 years.
66. What ultimately led to the
Which of the statements given establishment of the Public Service
above is/are correct? Commission?
a) Special amendment to the
a) 1 only
Government of India Act, 1919
b) 2 only
b) Independence of India in 1947
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Recommendations of the Lee
Commission
d) Public pressure from civil
63. Status, salary and removal of
service aspirants
Chief Election Commissioner and
Election Commissioners is similar
67. What are the main tasks of the
to which among the following
16thFinance Commission?
authority?
1. Distributing tax proceeds
a) Judges of Supreme court and
High court respectively between the Union and States
2. Setting minimum wages for
b) Cabinet Ministers
government employees
c) Judges of the Supreme Court
3. Recommending grants-in-aid to
d) Judges of the High court
States
64. Which of the following committee 4. Managing the national debt
5. Strengthening local government
/ s are related to Electoral Reforms
finances
in India?
Choose the correct answer
a) Dinesh Goswami Committee
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) Vohra Committee
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2, 3 and 5
d) Anup Chandra Pandey
d) All of the above
Committee

33
 INDIA4IAS

68. b)
?
a)
b)
c) .
d) c)
d)
69.
73.
?
a)
b) ?
c)
a) 155
d)
b) 162
70.
a) : c) 165
. d) 177
b) :
. 74.
c) . : 15
(
d) . : UPSC

71. / ?
?
a)
a)
.
b)
b)
c) . . .
,
d)

72. ' ' .

c)
:
a) 2003 91
.
. d)

34

68. Who is the chairman of fifth
State Finance Commissionof
Karnataka
a) Narayanaswamy
b) Sanawulah
c) Phonde
d) Chinnaswamy
69. The Central Vigilance
Commission was setup on the
recommendation of which among
the following committee:
a) Raja Chelliah Committee
b) Santhanam Committee
c) Rajamannar Committee
d) None of the above
70. Choose the WRONG pair
a) Shri Heeralal Samariya : Chief
Information Commissioner
b) Shri Rajiv Kumar : Chief
Election Commissioner
c) Dr. Arvind Panagariya : c) Article 165
Chairman of the 15 Finance
th
Commission of India
d) Dr. Manoj Soni: Chairman of
UPSC
71. Which of the following is
Constitutional Body?
a) Central Vigilance Commission
b) National Human Rights
Commission
c) GST Council
d) None of the above
INDIA4IAS
72. Which among the following is
correct with respect to ‘National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes’:
a) The 89th Amendment Act of 2003
separated the National
Commission on Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
b) The National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes, while
investigating any matter or
inquiring into any complaint, is
vested with all the powers of a
Civil Court.
c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are
correct
d) None of the above
73. Which article of the Indian
Constitution empowers the
Governor to appoint the Advocate
General?
a) Article 155
b) Article 162
d) Article 177
74. In which among the following
circumstances, the President can
remove the chairman or other
a members of UPSC from the office ?
a) If chairman or other members is
adjudged an insolvent .
b) If chairman or other members
engages, during his term of
office, in any paid employment
outside the duties of his office
c) If chairman or other members in
the opinion of the president,
unfit to continue in office by
reason of infirmity of mind or
body.
d) All of the above
35
 INDIA4IAS

75. ' (QCI)'

,
: d)
,
1. QCI

2. QCI
77.
(CEC)
(ECs)
? :

a) 1 1.

b) 2
c) 1 2 CEC EC

d) 1 2
2. CEC EC
76. 65

? 3. CEC
a)
(NDC) ,

b) (NDC) ?

a)
c) ,
b)
, ,
c)
d)

36
 INDIA4IAS

75. With reference to 'Quality Territories and Members of

Council of India(QCI)', consider the Planning Commission.
following statements: d) National Development Council
1. Quality Council of India(QCI) is a prescribe guidelines for the
statuary body set up by formulation of the National Plan
Government act including the assessment of
2. The Chairman of QCI is resources for the Plan Finance
appointed by the President on Minister of India
the recommendations of the
Council of minister. 77. Consider the following
Which of the above statements statements about the Chief Election
is/arecorrect? Commissioner (CEC) and Election
(a) 1 only Commissioners (ECs) in India:
1. The President of India appoints
(b) 2 only the CEC and EC on the
recommendation of the Prime
(c) Both 1 and 2 Minister and Loksabha speaker.
2. Both the CEC and ECs serve for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 a fixed term of six years or until
they reach the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
76. With reference to the National 3. The status, salary, and removal
Development Council which of the process for all Commissioners
following statementsis incorrect? except CEC are the same as for
a) National Development Council is Judges of the Supreme Court of
an apex body for decision making India.
and deliberations on development
b) National Development Council How many of the above statements
presided by President of India are correct?
c) Council comprising of Prime
Minister of India, Union a) Only one
Ministers, Chief Ministers of all
b) Only two
the States and
UTs, Administrators of Union c) All three
d) None

37
 INDIA4IAS

78. . 3.
1. ( .
)
?
.
a) 1 2
2. ,
b) 2 3
,
c) 1 3
d) 1, 2 3

. 80.
/ / .

/ ? 1. ,

a) 1
.
b) 2
2.
c) 1 2
.
d) 1 2
3.

.
79.
,
: ?
1. a) 1 2
b) 2
. c) 1 3
2. d) 1, 2 3

38
 INDIA4IAS

78. Consider the following 3. The president‘s satisfaction to

statements. issue ordinance is subject to
1. Parliament enacts delimitation
judicial review.
act after every census.
Which of the above statements
2. Delimitation commission
is/are correct?
consists of Prime minister,
retired Supreme Court judge, a) 1 and 2 only
chief election commissioner and b) 2 and 3 only
respective state elective c) 1 and 3 only
commissioner. d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the statements given 80. Consider the following

above is/are correct? statements about Vice-president.
1. In Electoral College for Vice
a) 1 only
President, both elected and
b) 2 only
nominated members of both
c) Both 1 and 2
the Houses of Parliament take
d) Neither 1 nor 2
part.
2. The Vice President cannot be
79. With reference to the ordinance
reelected.
making power of the President,
3. Vice President is the ex-officio
consider the following statements:
Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
1. An ordinance can abridge or
take away any of the Which of the statements given
fundamental rights. above is/are correct?
2. The power to making ordinance
can be exercised only on the a) 1 and 2 only

advice of the council of b) 2 only

ministers. c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

39
 INDIA4IAS

81. 84.
2023 .
a)
?
b)
a)
b) c)
c) d)
d)
85.
82. ' 2023'
?
? a)
a) b)
b) c)
c) d)
d)
86. PM MITRA
83. 4-

.
.
a)
1. 4-
,
.
b) , , ,
2.
, ,
4-
,
.
c)
.
9 '
,
. '
a) 1 '
b) 2
c) 1 2 .
d) 1 2 d)

40
 INDIA4IAS

81. Which of the following city has 84. Which among the following
been declared the First Tourism & singer was honoured with Sangita
Cultural Capital of the Shanghai Kalanidhi Award 2023
Cooperation Organization? a) Shreya Goshal
a) Varanasi b) Bombay Jayashri
b) Madurai c) K. S Chaitra
c) Vadodara d) Nithyasree Mahadevan
d) Kashi
85. India's 1st silkworm insurance
82. 'Konkan 2023 ' is a joint military scheme launched in which of the
exercise between India and which following state?
among the following country? a) Karnataka
a) Austria b) Assam
b) United Kingdom c) Uttarakhand
c) Australia d) Tamilnadu
d) Japan
83. Consider the following 86. Which among the following
statements with respect to 4-metre statements is/are correct with
liquid mirror telescope. respect to PM MITRA scheme which
1. Asia's largest 4-meter is seen in news recently.
International Liquid Mirror a) The PM MITRA mega textile
Telescope was launched in parks will provide state-of-the-
Devasthal in Uttarakhand art infrastructure for the textiles
2. The International Liquid Mirror sector, attracts investment
Telescope has a 4-meter- b) The mega textile parks will come
diameter rotating mirror made up in the states of Tamil Nadu,
up of a thin layer of liquid Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka,
mercury to collect and focus Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh,
light. and Maharashtra.
c) PM MITRA parks are envisaged
Choose the correct answer using to help India in achieving the
the codes given below. United Nations Sustainable
a) 1 only Development Goal 9 — ‘Build
resilient infrastructure, promote
b) 2 only
sustainable industrialization and
c) Both 1 and 2
foster innovation’,
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) All of the above
41
 INDIA4IAS

87. 30
. .
1. 2. -

. .
2.

. a) 1
b) 2
. c) 1 2
a) 1 d) 1 2
b) 2
c) 1 2 90. "
d) 1 2 "
?
88. a)
? .
a) , , , , b) .
c)
b) , , , , .
d)
c) , , , , .

d) , , , , 91. " 2023: ,

"

?
89.
a)
b)
.
c)
1.
d)
(UNGA) 14, 2022

42
 INDIA4IAS

87. Consider the following statement 1. The United Nations General

with respect to Jalamrutha Assembly (UNGA) designated
Scheme. March 30 as the International
Day of Zero Waste on December
1. Scheme will be implemented by
14, 2022.
the Ministry of Rural 2. The day is intended to raise
Development and Panchayat Raj awareness of zero-waste
of Karnataka. initiatives and their contribution
2. Under the Jalamrutha Scheme, to sustainable development.
the traditional water bodies will
Choose the correct answer using
be in the villages is rejuvenated
the codes given below
through community
participation. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Choose the correct answer using c) Both 1 and 2
the codes given below. d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
90. Which among the following
b) 2 only
is/are the main theme of the "Mera
c) Both 1 and 2
Gaon Meri Dharohar" Scheme?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Promotion of tourism in rural
areas.
88. What is the correct sequence of
b) Infrastructure Development in in
Indonesian islands from West to
rural areas.
East?
c) Cultural heritage celebration and
a) Borneo, Sulawesi, Maluku,
documentation of village
Sumatra, Papua
communities.
b) Sulawesi, Sumatra, Borneo,
d) Financial aid to rural artisans
Papua, Maluku
for enriching skill set.
c) Sumatra, Borneo, Maluku,
Sulawesi, Papua
91. Report titled “World
d) Papua, Sulawesi, Maluku,
Development Report 2023:
Borneo, Sumatra
Migrants, Refugees, and Societies”
is released by
89. Consider the following
a) World Economic Forum
statements with respect to
b) World Bank
International Day of Zero Waste.
c) International Monetary Fund
d) None of the above
43
 INDIA4IAS

92. c)
, (IUCN)
?
a)
d)
b)
( )
c)
d) 95. NATO
31 ?
93. - (CPTPP)
a)
b)
:
c)
1. , -
(APEC) 11 d)
CPTPP .
96.
2.
(FTP) 2023
.
.
3. 2023
a) ( )
.
?
b)
a) 1 2
b) 2 3 c)
c) 1 3 d) -
d)

94. 97. , G20

,
50
?
a)
?
b)
a)
c)
b)
d)

44
 INDIA4IAS

92. Recently Basrah Light Crude Oil anniversary of Project Tiger in

is in news, it is primarily produced Mysuru, Karnataka?
in which among the following a) Global Tiger Forum
country? b) International Tiger Coalition
a) Saudi Arabia. c) International Union for
b) Iran
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
c) Iraq
d) Kuwait Cat Specialist Group
d) International Big Cats Alliance
93. Consider the following (IBCA)
statements about the
Comprehensive and Progressive 95. Recently which country has
Agreement for Trans-Pacific become the 31st member of the
Partnership (CPTPP):
NATO security alliance?
1. Originally, the CPTPP was signed a) Greece
by 11 countries that are also b) Finland
members of the Asia-Pacific c) Denmark
Economic Cooperation (APEC). d) Hungary
2. India is a member of this trade
agreement. 96. Which of the following is NOT
among four key pillars of the new
3. The UK signed this agreement in Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023
2023.
a) Incentive to Remission
Which of the following statements b) Export promotion through
is/are correct? collaboration
c) Devaluation for import
a) Only 1 and 2
promotion
b) Only 2 and 3 d) Emerging Areas in E-Commerce
Developing Districts
c) Only 1 and 3

d) All of them 97. Recently, members of the G20

meeting visited the Hemis and
Thiksey monasteries, which is
94. Which among the following located at
international initiatives was a) Agartala
launched during the b) Guwahati
commemoration of the 50th c) Gangtok
d) Ladakh

45
 INDIA4IAS

98. 98. Which among the following is the

" " primary objective of "Koosina mane"
? scheme launched by Karnataka
government?
a)
a) To provide housing for
. underprivileged families.
b) b) To establish daycare centers for
. children of working mothers.
c) To offer financial support to
c) rural employment programs.
. d) To improve healthcare facilities
d) in rural areas.
.
99. Which of the following is NOT
included in the new tobacco
regulations proposed by the
99. Karnataka government?
a) Ban on hookah bars
? b) Raising the legal age for
purchasing tobacco products to
a)
21
b) c) Prohibiting the sale of tobacco
21 products near schools and
colleges
c) -
d) Ban on all tobacco products

d)
100. The National Institute of Mental
100. Health and Neuro Sciences
( ) (NIMHANS) collaborated with which
organization to launch a mental
health program in rural India?
a) World Health Organization
?
(WHO)
a) (WHO) b) Ashraya Hastha Trust (AHT)
b) (AHT) c) United Nations Children's Fund
c) (UNICEF) (UNICEF)
d) d) International Red Cross

46
INDIA4IAS

47
 INDIA4IAS

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Contact: +91-9902404443/9902504443
Website: www.india4ias.com

KPSC KADANA Prelims Test Series - 2024

Test code- KAS202402
:2 : 200

1. ,

. .
2. .
:
:

3. 100 . ( ) .
.
,
. , .

4. . . . .

5. . ( ) .

6. .

7. . ,
.

8. ,

9. ,
.

48