200 PMP Mock Questions

200 PMP MOCK QUES BY M.
ADNAN - PMP®, PMI-SP®, PMI-RMP® 1
200 PMP MOCK QUESTIONS

AS PER NEW ECO JAN 2021
COVERING PMBOK EDITION 6 & 7 AND AGILE GUIDE
BY
ENGR. MUHAMMAD ADNAN

PMP®, PMI-SP®, PMI-RMP®
- Questions prepared in May 2023.

- For More Premium Quality Mock Questions of PMP®, PMI-SP® & PMI-RMP®, contact
at engradnan666@gmail.com
200 PMP MOCK QUES BY M. ADNAN - PMP®, PMI-SP®, PMI-RMP® 2
TABLE OF CONTENTS
AGILE PROJECT MANAGEMENT (25 QUESTIONS) ................................................... 3

PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS) .................................... 15
PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS) ................................................ 22
PROJECT SCHEDULE MANAGEMENT (16 QUESTIONS) ......................................... 29
PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS) .................................................. 37
PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)............................................. 45
PROJECT RESOURCES MANAGEMENT (20 QUESTIONS) ....................................... 53
PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS) ............................. 63
PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT (14 QUESTIONS) ................................................... 71
PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT (10 QUESTIONS) ................................. 79
PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT (20 QUESTIONS) .................................. 85
BONUS (20 QUESTIONS)........................................................................................ 95
AGILE PROJECT MANAGEMENT (25 QUESTIONS)
1. Your agile project team is struggling to complete work within the iteration
time box. What approach should you take to address this issue?
A) Extend the iteration time box
B) Reallocate resources to the team
C) Collaborate with the team to identify and address the root cause of the issue
D) End the iteration prematurely
2. Your agile project team has identified a major risk that could impact the
project timeline. What action should you take to mitigate the risk?
A) Ignore the risk as agile projects are designed to handle risks
B) Work with the team to develop a risk mitigation plan
C) Wait until the risk materializes before taking action
D) Escalate the risk to the senior management team
3. The product owner on your agile project team has requested a significant
change in requirements during iteration planning. How should you respond to
this change request?
A) Accept the change request and proceed with the iteration
B) Negotiate with the product owner to reduce the scope of the change request
C) Work with the team to evaluate the impact of the change request on the project
D) Deny the change request and proceed with the iteration as planned
4. Your agile project team is having difficulty breaking down user stories into
smaller pieces. What action should you take to address this challenge?
A) Work with the team to identify and address the root cause of the issue
B) Accept the user stories as they are and proceed with the iteration
C) Wait for the team to resolve the issue on their own

D) Escalate the issue to the senior management team
5. The daily stand-up meetings on your agile project team have become
unproductive. What can you do to improve their effectiveness?
A) End the daily stand-up meetings as they are not adding value
B) Reformat the daily stand-up meetings to make them more interactive and
engaging
C) Continue with the current format of the daily stand-up meetings
D) Assign a facilitator to ensure that the daily stand-up meetings are productive
6. Your agile project team is experiencing frequent changes in requirements.

How can you effectively manage these changes?
A) Work with the product owner to establish a process for managing changes to
requirements
B) Accept the changes and proceed with the iteration
C) Deny the changes and proceed with the iteration as planned
D) Escalate the changes to the senior management team
7. Your agile project team is facing a technical issue that requires expertise that
is not available within the team. What can you do to address this issue?
A) Hire an external consultant to address the issue
B) Reallocate resources within the team to address the issue
C) Wait for the issue to resolve on its own
D) Collaborate with other teams to address the issue
8. Your agile project team is having difficulty achieving the desired level of
quality in the product. How can you address this quality issue?
A) Accept the product as it is and proceed with the iteration
B) Work with the team to identify the root cause of the quality issue and address it
C) Wait for the quality issue to resolve on its own
D) Escalate the quality issue to the senior management team
9. The product owner on your agile project team has requested a new feature
that is not in scope for the upcoming release. What can you do to handle this
request?
A) Accept the change request and include the new feature in the release
B) Deny the change request and proceed with the release as planned
C) Work with the product owner to evaluate the impact of the new
10. Your agile project team is struggling to meet the project deadline. What can
you do to address this issue?
A) Extend the project deadline
B) Reallocate resources to the team
C) Collaborate with the team to identify and address the root cause of the issue
D) End the project prematurely
11. The agile team is facing issues in delivering the product on time. What
should the Scrum Master do to address this issue?
A) Assign more work to the team members
B) Review the team's process and identify areas for improvement
C) Increase the sprint duration
D) Reduce the scope of the project
12. During the sprint review meeting, the stakeholders provide feedback that
requires major changes to the product. What should the product owner do?
A) Reject the feedback and continue with the current plan
B) Discuss the feedback with the team and identify a way to incorporate it in the
product
C) Delay the product release until the feedback can be addressed
D) Ignore the feedback and proceed with the product release
13. An agile team is not meeting its sprint goals consistently. What should the
Scrum Master do?
A) Blame the team for not meeting the goals
B) Assign more work to the team members to meet the goals
C) Work with the team to identify the root cause of the issue and develop a plan to
address it
D) Increase the sprint duration to give the team more time to meet the goals
14. During the sprint planning meeting, the team identifies that a critical team
member will be unavailable for the sprint duration. What should the team do?
A) Delay the sprint until the team member is available
B) Reassign the team member's tasks to other team members
C) Reduce the scope of the sprint to accommodate the team member's absence
D) Collaborate with the team member to identify a way to complete their tasks
before their absence
15. The product owner has added a new requirement to the product backlog in
the middle of the sprint. What should the team do?
A) Reject the requirement and continue with the current plan
B) Add the requirement to the current sprint without adjusting the sprint goal
C) Collaborate with the product owner to identify a way to incorporate the

requirement in the product
D) Delay the product release until the new requirement can be addressed
16. During the daily Scrum meeting, a team member expresses that they are
struggling with their assigned task. What should the team do?
A) Ignore the team member's concerns and continue with the current plan
B) Collaborate with the team member to identify a way to complete the task
C) Assign the task to another team member
D) Reduce the scope of the sprint to accommodate the team member's struggles
17. The team has identified a major issue that requires a change in the project
plan. What should the team do?
A) Continue with the current plan and ignore the issue
B) Delay the product release until the issue is addressed
C) Collaborate to identify a solution and update the project plan accordingly
D) Abandon the project and start a new one
18. During the sprint review meeting, the stakeholders express their
dissatisfaction with the product. What should the team do?
A) Ignore the feedback and proceed with the product release
B) Reject the feedback and continue with the current plan
C) Collaborate with the stakeholders to identify a way to incorporate their feedback

in the product
D) Delay the product release until the feedback can be addressed
19. The team is facing issues in completing their tasks due to external factors
beyond their control. What should the Scrum Master do?
A) Blame the external factors for the team's issues
B) Delay the sprint until the external factors are resolved
C) Work with the team to identify a way to adapt to the external factors and
complete their tasks
D) Reduce the scope of the sprint to accommodate

20. You are leading an agile project, and the team has been working on an
important feature for several weeks. During the sprint review, the stakeholders
provide feedback that the feature is not meeting their expectations. What
should you do first?
a) Tell the stakeholders that the team will fix the issue in the next sprint.
b) Schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to discuss the feedback and identify
the root cause of the problem.
c) Reassign team members to work on the feature full time until the issue is
resolved.
d) Cancel the current sprint and start a new one focused solely on fixing the feature.
21. A project manager is leading a software development project for a client.

The project requires a flexible approach due to evolving customer
requirements. The project team decides to use an agile methodology. Which
agile principle does this decision align with?
A) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
B) Working software over comprehensive documentation.
C) Responding to change over following a plan.
D) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.
22. A project manager is leading a cross-functional agile team. The team is

facing challenges in self-organization and decision-making. Which agile
practice can the project manager use to address this issue?
A) Daily stand-up meetings.
B) Sprint planning.
C) Retrospectives.
D) Backlog grooming.
23. A project manager is working on a software development project with a high

degree of uncertainty. The project sponsor emphasizes the need for delivering
early value to the customer. Which agile practice can the project manager use
to achieve this goal?
A) Minimum Viable Product (MVP).
B) Test-driven development (TDD).
C) Continuous integration (CI).
D) Burn-down charts.
24. A project manager is leading an agile team that is in the early stages of the
project. The team is struggling to define the acceptance criteria for user stories.
Which agile practice can the project manager use to facilitate the creation of
clear and measurable acceptance criteria?
A) Story mapping.
B) Refactoring.
C) Pair programming.
D) Three Amigos meeting.
25. A project manager is leading an agile project with multiple stakeholders.

The project manager believes in a servant leadership approach and wants to
promote collaboration and trust within the team. Which action can the project
manager take to demonstrate servant leadership in an agile context?
A) Facilitate regular team retrospectives to identify areas for improvement.
B) Assign specific tasks to team members based on their expertise.
C) Dictate the detailed implementation approach for each user story.
D) Control all project decisions and limit team autonomy.

ANSWERS
1. Answer: C) Collaborate with the team to identify and address the root cause of
the issue.
Rationale: As a project manager, the best approach to address the issue of the Agile
project team struggling to complete work within the iteration time box is to work
with the team to identify and address the root cause of the issue. This can be done
by collaborating with the team to evaluate their current processes, identifying
bottlenecks and areas for improvement, and implementing changes to help the team
complete work within the iteration time box.
2. Answer: B) Work with the team to develop a risk mitigation plan.
Rationale: It is important to take action to mitigate the risk identified by the Agile
project team. As the project manager, the best course of action is to work with the
team to develop a risk mitigation plan that identifies the potential impact of the risk
on the project, and outlines steps to be taken to minimize its impact.
3. Answer: C) Work with the team to evaluate the impact of the change request on
the project.
Rationale: Whenever a significant change request is made, it is important to

evaluate the impact of the change on the project. As the project manager, you should
work with the team to evaluate the impact of the change request on the project and
determine whether it is feasible to incorporate the change into the current iteration.
4. Answer: A) Work with the team to identify and address the root cause of the issue.
Rationale: Breaking down user stories into smaller pieces is an important aspect of
Agile project management. If the team is having difficulty in doing so, the project
manager should work with the team to identify and address the root cause of the
issue, rather than accepting the user stories as they are or escalating the issue to
senior management.
5. Answer: B) Reformat the daily stand-up meetings to make them more interactive
and engaging.
Rationale: The daily stand-up meetings are an important part of Agile project
management. If they have become unproductive, it is important to take action to
improve their effectiveness. As the project manager, you can reformat the daily
stand-up meetings to make them more interactive and engaging, which will help to
improve their effectiveness.
6. Answer: A) Work with the product owner to establish a process for managing
changes to requirements.
Rationale: Frequent changes in requirements can impact the project schedule and
scope. As the project manager, it is important to work with the product owner to
establish a process for managing changes to requirements. This can help to ensure
that changes are evaluated and implemented in a way that minimizes their impact
on the project.
7. Answer: A) Hire an external consultant to address the issue.
Rationale: When facing a technical issue that requires expertise that is not available
within the team, the project manager should consider hiring an external consultant
to address the issue. This will help to ensure that the issue is addressed in a timely
and effective manner.
8. Answer: B) Work with the team to identify the root cause of the quality issue and
address it.
Rationale: Achieving the desired level of quality in the product is an important

aspect of Agile project management. If the team is having difficulty achieving the
desired level of quality, the project manager should work with the team to identify
the root cause of the quality issue and address it, rather than accepting the product
as it is or escalating the issue to senior management.
9. Answer: B) Deny the change request and proceed with the release as planned.
Rationale: When a new feature is requested that is not in scope for the upcoming
release, the project manager should evaluate the impact of the new feature on the
release and determine whether it is feasible to incorporate the change into the
release. If it
10. Answer: C) Collaborate with the team to identify and address the root cause of
the issue.
Rationale: In Agile, it's important to continuously improve the process. Therefore,

instead of extending the deadline or ending the project prematurely, the team
should collaborate to identify the root cause of the issue and work together to
address it.
11. Answer: B) Review the team's process and identify areas for improvement
Rationale: As the Scrum Master, it's important to continuously evaluate the team's
processes and identify areas for improvement. Assigning more work, increasing
sprint duration, or reducing scope may not address the root cause of the issue.
12. Answer: B) Discuss the feedback with the team and identify a way to incorporate
it in the product
Rationale: In Agile, feedback from stakeholders is essential. Therefore, the product

owner should discuss the feedback with the team and identify a way to incorporate
it in the product.
13. Answer: C) Work with the team to identify the root cause of the issue and develop
a plan to address it
Rationale: As the Scrum Master, it's important to work with the team to identify the
root cause of the issue and develop a plan to address it. Blaming the team or
assigning more work may not address the root cause of the issue.
14. Answer: B) Reassign the team member's tasks to other team members
Rationale: In Agile, it's important to be flexible. Therefore, the team should reassign
the team member's tasks to other team members to ensure the sprint can be
completed without delay.
15. Answer: C) Collaborate with the product owner to identify a way to incorporate
the requirement in the product
Rationale: In Agile, requirements can change. Therefore, the team should

collaborate with the product owner to identify a way to incorporate the requirement
in the product.
16. Answer: B) Collaborate with the team member to identify a way to complete the
task
Rationale: In Agile, the team works together to complete tasks. Therefore, the team
should collaborate with the team member to identify a way to complete the task.
17. Answer: C) Collaborate to identify a solution and update the project plan
accordingly
Rationale: In Agile, it's important to be adaptable. Therefore, the team should

collaborate to identify a solution and update the project plan accordingly.
18. Answer: C) Collaborate with the stakeholders to identify a way to incorporate

their feedback in the product
Rationale: In Agile, feedback from stakeholders is essential. Therefore, the team

should collaborate with the stakeholders to identify a way to incorporate their
feedback in the product.
19. Answer: C) Work with the team to identify a way to adapt to the external factors
and complete their tasks
Rationale: In Agile, it's important to be adaptable. Therefore, the Scrum Master

should work with the team to identify a way to adapt to the external factors and
complete their tasks.
20. Answer: B) Schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to discuss the feedback
and identify the root cause of the problem.
Rationale: In Agile, feedback from stakeholders is essential. Therefore, the first step
should be to schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to discuss the feedback and
identify the root cause of the problem before determining the next steps.
21. Answer: C) Responding to change over following a plan.
Rationale: The decision to use an Agile methodology in response to evolving

customer requirements aligns with the Agile principle of responding to change over
following a plan. Agile methodologies emphasize the ability to adapt and respond to
changes throughout the project lifecycle.
22. Answer: C) Retrospectives.
Rationale: Retrospectives are Agile practices that allow the team to reflect on their
performance and identify areas for improvement. By conducting retrospectives, the
project manager can address the challenges in self-organization and decision-
making, promoting continuous improvement within the team.
23. Answer: A) Minimum Viable Product (MVP).
Rationale: In a software development project with high uncertainty, the use of a

Minimum Viable Product (MVP) allows the project manager to deliver early value
to the customer. By focusing on developing the most essential features, the team
can obtain feedback and adjust the project direction accordingly.
24. Answer: D) Three Amigos meeting.
Rationale: The Three Amigos meeting is an Agile practice that involves collaboration
among the product owner, the development team, and the QA/tester. This meeting
helps to ensure a shared understanding of the user stories and facilitates the
creation of clear and measurable acceptance criteria.
25. Answer: A) Facilitate regular team retrospectives to identify areas for

improvement.
Rationale: Servant leadership in an Agile context emphasizes collaboration, trust,

and continuous improvement. By facilitating regular team retrospectives, the
project manager demonstrates a servant leadership approach by empowering the
team to identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes.
PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)
1. During the project planning phase, the project manager realized that a key
stakeholder was not included in the project charter. What should the project
manager do to address this?
a) Update the project charter to include the stakeholder
b) Wait until the stakeholder becomes aware of the project
c) Continue with the current project plan
d) Develop a new project plan
2. The project manager is responsible for creating the project charter. Which of
the following should be included in the project charter?
a) Project objectives and scope
b) Budget and schedule estimates
c) Resource allocation plan
d) Risk management plan
3. During project execution, the project manager realizes that the project is not
progressing according to the plan. What should the project manager do?
a) Continue with the current plan
b) Develop a new plan
c) Identify the root cause of the issue and take corrective action
d) Delegate the responsibility to the team members
4. The project manager needs to obtain approval from the project sponsor for a
change request. What should the project manager do first?
a) Develop a detailed change request form
b) Review the change request with the project team
c) Discuss the change request with the project sponsor

d) Implement the change request without approval
5. During the project monitoring and controlling phase, the project manager
realizes that the project is behind schedule. What should the project manager
do?
a) Develop a new project schedule
b) Identify the root cause of the delay and take corrective action
c) Continue with the current schedule
d) Cut down the project scope to make up for the lost time
6. During the project closing phase, the project manager realizes that a key
deliverable was not completed. What should the project manager do?
a) Complete the deliverable before closing the project
b) Close the project without completing the deliverable
c) Develop a plan to complete the deliverable after the project is closed
d) Assign the incomplete deliverable to a different project team
7. During the project planning phase, the project manager identifies a risk that
may impact the project budget. What should the project manager do?
a) Develop a contingency plan
b) Ignore the risk
c) Continue with the current budget
d) Request for more funds to cover the risk
8. The project manager needs to identify the stakeholders for the project. What
should the project manager do first?
a) Develop a stakeholder register
b) Conduct a stakeholder analysis

c) Review the project charter
d) Identify the project objectives and scope
9. The project manager is developing the project scope statement. What should
be included in the project scope statement?
a) Project objectives and deliverables
b) Stakeholder management plan
c) Resource allocation plan
d) Budget and schedule estimates
10. During the project execution phase, the project manager realizes that the
project team is not following the project plan. What should the project manager
do?
a) Continue with the current plan
b) Develop a new plan
c) Take corrective action to ensure the team follows the plan
d) Fire the team members and hire new ones
11. The project manager needs to identify the project constraints. What should
the project manager do first?
a) Review the project charter
b) Conduct a risk analysis
c) Develop a work breakdown structure
d) Identify the stakeholders for the project
may impact the project schedule. What should the project manager do?
a) Develop a contingency plan

b) Ignore the risk
c) Continue with the current schedule
d) Implement the risk response plan
13. The project manager needs to develop the project budget. What should the
project manager do first?
A) Identify the project costs
B) Develop a work breakdown structure
C) Review the project charter
D) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
14. The project manager needs to identify the project assumptions. What should
the project manager do first?
A) Review the project charter
B) Conduct a risk analysis
C) Develop a work breakdown structure
D) Identify the project constraints
15. During the project planning phase, the project manager realizes that a key
stakeholder was not included in the stakeholder management plan. What
should the project manager do to address this?
A) Update the stakeholder management plan
B) Develop a new project plan
C) Continue with the current stakeholder management plan
D) Discuss with the project team how to handle the situation.

ANSWERS
1. Answer: A) Update the project charter to include the stakeholder
Rationale: A project charter is a key document that identifies the project

stakeholders. If a key stakeholder is not included in the project charter, it is
important to update the charter to include them to ensure their input and
involvement in the project.
2. Answer: A) Project objectives and scope
Rationale: The project charter is a high-level document that outlines the purpose,
objectives, and scope of the project. It also includes information on the project
stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, and high-level risks.
3. Answer: C) Identify the root cause of the issue and take corrective action
Rationale: If a project is not progressing according to plan, the project manager

should identify the root cause of the issue and take corrective action to get the
project back on track. Developing a new plan or continuing with the current plan
may not address the underlying issue.
4. Answer: C) Discuss the change request with the project sponsor
Rationale: A change request should be reviewed and approved by the project

sponsor before implementation. Developing a detailed change request form and
reviewing the change request with the project team may be necessary, but
discussing the change request with the project sponsor should be done first.
5. Answer: B) Identify the root cause of the delay and take corrective action
Rationale: If a project is behind schedule, the project manager should identify the
root cause of the delay and take corrective action to get the project back on track.
Developing a new project schedule, continuing with the current schedule, or cutting
down the project scope may not address the underlying issue.
6. Answer: C) Develop a plan to complete the deliverable after the project is closed
Rationale: If a key deliverable was not completed during the project closing phase,
the project manager should develop a plan to complete the deliverable after the
project is closed. Completing the deliverable before closing the project or assigning
the incomplete deliverable to a different project team may not be feasible.
7. Answer: A) Develop a contingency plan
Rationale: If a risk is identified that may impact the project budget, the project
manager should develop a contingency plan to address the risk. Ignoring the risk or
requesting more funds to cover the risk may not be feasible.
8. Answer: B) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
Rationale: The first step in identifying stakeholders for a project is to conduct a

stakeholder analysis. This involves identifying all potential stakeholders and
assessing their interests, influence, and impact on the project.
9. Answer: A) Project objectives and deliverables
Rationale: The project scope statement outlines the project objectives, deliverables,
and boundaries. It also includes any constraints and assumptions that may impact
the project.
10. Answer: C) Take corrective action to ensure the team follows the plan
Rationale: If the project team is not following the project plan, the project manager
should take corrective action to ensure that the team follows the plan. Firing the
team members and hiring new ones may not be necessary or feasible.
11. Answer: A) Review the project charter
Rationale: The project charter provides information about the project objectives,
scope, and constraints. Constraints are limitations that can impact the project in
terms of scope, schedule, budget, or quality. Therefore, reviewing the project
charter is the first step in identifying project constraints.
12. Answer: D) Implement the risk response plan
Rationale: Risk response planning involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing

risks, and then developing and implementing strategies to address them. Therefore,
if a risk that may impact the project schedule is identified, the project manager
should implement the risk response plan, which may involve adjusting the project
schedule, adding resources, or changing the project scope to mitigate the impact of
the risk.
13. Answer: C) Review the project charter
scope, stakeholders, and high-level budget. Therefore, reviewing the project charter
is the first step in developing the project budget, as it provides an understanding of
what is included in the project and what needs to be budgeted for.
scope, and constraints. Assumptions are factors that are considered to be true, real,
or certain for the purpose of planning the project but are not guaranteed to be
correct. Therefore, reviewing the project charter is the first step in identifying
project assumptions.
15. Answer: A) Update the stakeholder management plan
Rationale: The stakeholder management plan is a key document that outlines the
approach to managing stakeholders and their communication needs. If a key
stakeholder is not included in the plan, the project manager should update the
stakeholder management plan to include them. This will ensure that the stakeholder
is engaged and their needs are considered throughout the project.
PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)
1. Imagine you are the project manager and have identified a stakeholder who
was not included in the scope statement. Which of the following actions would
be appropriate to address this issue?
A) Update the scope statement to include the stakeholder
B) Wait until the stakeholder becomes aware of the project
C) Continue with the current scope statement
D) Develop a new scope statement
2. As a project manager, you have completed the scope definition process and
need to ensure that the project team understands the scope. What would be
your next step?
A) Communicate the scope statement to the team
B) Develop a project plan
C) Create a change control system
D) Assign roles and responsibilities to team members
3. During project execution, the project manager realizes that the project scope
is not clear and is causing confusion among team members. What action should
the project manager take to address this issue?
B) Develop a new scope statement
C) Conduct a scope validation session
D) Proceed with the current scope definition
4. The project manager needs to identify the project deliverables. What would
be an appropriate first step?
A) Develop a work breakdown structure

B) Review the project charter
C) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
5. As a project manager, you need to ensure that the project deliverables meet
the quality standards. What would be your next step?
A) Develop a quality management plan
B) Define the project scope
C) Assign roles and responsibilities to team members
D) Develop a project budget
6. During the project planning phase, the project manager realizes that the
project scope is too broad and needs to be narrowed down. What action should
the project manager take to address this issue?
B) Develop a new scope statement
C) Conduct a scope validation session
D) Proceed with the current scope definition
7. The project manager needs to identify the project constraints. What would
D) Identify the project stakeholders
8. During project execution, the project manager realizes that a deliverable has
been missed in the scope statement. What action should the project manager
take to address this issue?
A) Update the scope statement
B) Continue with the current scope statement
C) Develop a new scope statement
D) Ignore the missed deliverable
9. The project manager needs to ensure that all project deliverables are
completed on time. What would be an appropriate first step?
A) Develop a work breakdown structure
B) Identify the project constraints
C) Define the project scope
D) Develop a project schedule
10. As a project manager, you need to ensure that the project deliverables meet
the customer's expectations. What would be your next step?
A) Develop a quality management plan
C) Assign roles and responsibilities to team members
D) Develop a project budget
may impact the project scope. What action should the project manager take to
address this issue?
A) Develop a contingency plan
B) Ignore the risk
C) Continue with the current scope
D) Implement the risk response plan

12. The project manager needs to identify the project assumptions. What would
13. The project manager needs to develop the project budget. Which of the
following should the project manager do first to ensure an accurate budget?
A) Identify the project costs
B) Develop a work breakdown structure
C) Review the project charter
D) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
14. The project manager needs to identify the project assumptions. What is the
best way for the project manager to identify these assumptions?
A) Review the project charter and previous similar projects
B) Conduct a risk analysis and identify potential assumptions
C) Develop a work breakdown structure and identify potential assumptions
D) Identify the project constraints and potential assumptions
15. The project manager is reviewing the project scope statement and realizes
that a deliverable was not included. What is the best course of action for the
project manager?
A) Add the deliverable to the project scope statement
B) Ignore the omission and move forward with the project
C) Create a new project scope statement to include the deliverable
D) Wait for the sponsor to request the deliverable before adding it to the scope
statement.
ANSWERS
1. Answer: A) Update the scope statement to include the stakeholder
Rationale: To address the issue of a stakeholder who was not included in the scope
statement, the appropriate action would be to update the scope statement to include
the stakeholder. This ensures that the project team has a clear understanding of the
stakeholder's needs and expectations.
2. Answer: A) Communicate the scope statement to the team
Rationale: After completing the scope definition process, the next step would be to
communicate the scope statement to the project team. This ensures that the team
understands the project scope and can work towards achieving the project
objectives.
3. Answer: B) Develop a new scope statement
Rationale: If the project manager realizes during project execution that the project
scope is not clear and is causing confusion among team members, the appropriate
action would be to develop a new scope statement. This ensures that the project
team has a clear understanding of the project scope and can work towards achieving
the project objectives.
4. Answer: B) Review the project charter
Rationale: The first step in identifying the project deliverables would be to review
the project charter. The project charter provides an overview of the project and
helps identify the high-level deliverables.
5. Answer: A) Develop a quality management plan
Rationale: After defining the project scope, the next step to ensure that the project
deliverables meet the quality standards would be to develop a quality management
plan. This plan outlines the processes and procedures that will be used to ensure
that the project deliverables meet the required quality standards.
6. Answer: B) Develop a new scope statement

Rationale: If the project manager realizes during the project planning phase that
the project scope is too broad and needs to be narrowed down, the appropriate
action would be to develop a new scope statement. This ensures that the project
team has a clear understanding of the project scope and can work towards achieving
the project objectives.
Rationale: The first step in identifying the project constraints would be to review
the project charter. The project charter provides an overview of the project and
helps identify the high-level constraints.
8. Answer: A) Update the scope statement
Rationale: If the project manager realizes during project execution that a

deliverable has been missed in the scope statement, the appropriate action would
be to update the scope statement to include the missed deliverable. This ensures
that the project team has a clear understanding of all project deliverables.
9. Answer: D) Develop a project schedule
Rationale: The first step in ensuring that all project deliverables are completed on
time would be to develop a project schedule. The project schedule outlines the
timeline for completing all project deliverables.
10. Answer: A) Develop a quality management plan
Rationale: After defining the project scope, the next step to ensure that the project
deliverables meet the customer's expectations would be to develop a quality
management plan. This plan outlines the processes and procedures that will be used
to ensure that the project deliverables meet the customer's expectations.
11. Answer: A) Develop a contingency plan
Rationale: Risk identification is an important part of project management. In this

scenario, the project manager has identified a risk that may impact the project
scope. The best course of action for the project manager would be to develop a
contingency plan to address the risk and minimize its impact on the project scope.
Rationale: Assumptions are events or conditions that are considered to be true

without proof or demonstration. The project charter is the document that provides
the high-level overview of the project and includes important information such as
project objectives, assumptions, and constraints.
13. Answer: B) Develop a work breakdown structure
Rationale: The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented

hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. Developing
a WBS helps to identify all the tasks that need to be completed and the associated
costs. Once the WBS is developed, the project manager can then identify the project
costs and develop an accurate budget.
14. Answer: A) Review the project charter and previous similar projects
Rationale: Assumptions are events or conditions that are considered to be true

without proof or demonstration. The project charter is the document that provides
the high-level overview of the project and includes important information such as
project objectives, assumptions, and constraints. Reviewing previous similar
projects can also help to identify potential assumptions. Therefore, the best way for
the project manager to identify project assumptions would be to review the project
charter and previous similar projects.
15. Answer: A) Add the deliverable to the project scope statement
Rationale: A project scope statement defines the project's goals, deliverables, and
boundaries. In this scenario, the project manager has identified a deliverable that
was not included in the project scope statement. The best course of action for the
project manager would be to add the deliverable to the project scope statement to
ensure that it is included in the project plan and that all stakeholders are aware of
it.
PROJECT SCHEDULE MANAGEMENT (16 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is in the process of developing a schedule network

diagram. Which of the following is an example of a predecessor activity?
A) The activity that comes after the current activity
B) The activity that comes before the current activity
C) The activity that can happen at the same time as the current activity
D) The activity that has the same duration as the current activity
2. As a project manager, you are trying to determine the critical path of the
project schedule. Which of the following activities would be considered critical?
A) Activities with a high duration
B) Activities with a low duration
C) Activities with a low cost
D) Activities that, if delayed, would impact the project finish date
3. During project execution, the project manager realizes that the project
schedule is behind schedule. What is the best course of action for the project
manager?
A) Crash the schedule
B) Fast track the project
C) Reduce the scope of the project
D) Re-baseline the project
4. The project manager needs to determine the earliest start time for an
activity. Which of the following is an example of a forward pass calculation?
A) Subtracting the duration of the activity from the latest finish time
B) Adding the duration of the activity to the earliest start time
C) Subtracting the duration of the activity from the earliest finish time
D) Adding the duration of the activity to the latest start time
5. As a project manager, you are in the process of developing a schedule

baseline. Which of the following is true about the schedule baseline?
A) It represents the original approved project schedule
B) It is a document used to communicate schedule changes to stakeholders
C) It is a document used to manage project risks
D) It is a document used to track project costs
6. The project manager needs to determine the latest start time for an activity.
Which of the following is an example of a backward pass calculation?
A) Subtracting the duration of the activity from the latest finish time
B) Adding the duration of the activity to the earliest start time
C) Subtracting the duration of the activity from the earliest finish time
D) Adding the duration of the activity to the latest start time
7. During project planning, the project manager is in the process of developing

a network diagram. Which of the following is an example of a dummy activity?
A) An activity that has a duration of zero
B) An activity that has no predecessors or successors
C) An activity that is not required for the project
D) An activity that can be started before the predecessor activity is complete
8. As a project manager, you need to determine the float of an activity. Which

of the following is true about float?
A) It represents the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project finish date
B) It represents the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project start date
C) It represents the amount of time an activity can be accelerated without increasing

project costs
D) It represents the amount of time an activity can be accelerated without impacting

project quality
9. The project manager needs to determine the critical path of the project
schedule. Which of the following is true about the critical path?
A) It is the longest path through the network diagram
B) It is the shortest path through the network diagram
C) It includes all activities with a slack of zero
D) It includes all activities with a positive slack.
10. A project has a duration of 90 days and a budget of $500,000. The project
manager determines that the earned value of the project at the end of the first
month is $50,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI) for the
project?
A) 0.56
B) 1.11
C) 0.90
D) 1.25
11. A project has a duration of 6 months and a budget of $500,000. At the end
of the first month, the project manager determines that the actual cost of the
project is $75,000 and the earned value of the project is $80,000. What is the
cost performance index (CPI) for the project?
A) 1.07
B) 0.94
C) 1.20
D) 0.80
12. A project has a duration of 100 days and a budget of $200,000. At the end of
day 60, the project manager determines that the actual cost of the project is
$120,000 and the earned value of the project is $140,000. What is the estimate
at completion (EAC) for the project assuming a linear projection?
A) $216,000
B) $220,000
C) $240,000
D) $260,000
13. A project has a duration of 12 months and a budget of $1,000,000. At the end
of the first quarter, the project manager determines that the actual cost of the
project is $250,000 and the earned value of the project is $300,000. What is
the schedule variance (SV) for the project?
A) $50,000
B) $60,000
C) $100,000
D) $150,000
14. The budget at completion for a project is $200,000. The planned value of
the project is $150,000, and the actual cost of the project is $175,000. What is
the cost variance (CV) of the project?
A) $25,000 over budget
B) $25,000 under budget
C) $50,000 over budget
D) $50,000 under budget
15. A project has a planned duration of 20 weeks, and a planned budget of

$200,000. After 10 weeks, the project is 50% complete and has incurred actual
costs of $100,000. What is the schedule variance (SV) of the project?
A) $50,000 ahead of schedule

B) $50,000 behind schedule
C) $100,000 ahead of schedule
D) $100,000 behind schedule
16. A project has a planned duration of 12 weeks and a budget of $120,000. After
6 weeks, the project is 50% complete, and the actual costs incurred are
$60,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) for the project if the current
performance continues?
A) $120,000
B) $140,000
C) $160,000
D) $180,000
ANSWERS
1. Answer: B) The activity that comes before the current activity
Rationale: A predecessor activity is an activity that must be completed before

another activity can start. In a network diagram, the predecessor activity is depicted
as an arrow coming into the activity box.
2. Answer: D) Activities that, if delayed, would impact the project finish date
Rationale: The critical path is the longest sequence of activities in a project schedule
that must be completed on time to ensure that the project is completed on time.
Therefore, activities that, if delayed, would impact the project finish date are
considered critical.
3. Answer: A) Crash the schedule
Rationale: Crashing the schedule involves adding resources to the critical path
activities to speed up their completion. This is the best course of action when the
project schedule is behind schedule and there is a need to catch up.
4. Answer: B) Adding the duration of the activity to the earliest start time
Rationale: The forward pass calculation is used to determine the earliest start and
finish times for each activity in a project schedule. To calculate the earliest start
time for an activity, the duration of the previous activity is added to its earliest start
time.
5. Answer: A) It represents the original approved project schedule
Rationale: The schedule baseline is the approved project schedule, against which
actual project performance can be measured. It represents the original approved
project schedule and is used as a reference point to track changes and performance.
6. Answer: A) Subtracting the duration of the activity from the latest finish time
Rationale: The backward pass calculation is used to determine the latest start and
finish times for each activity in a project schedule. To calculate the latest start time
for an activity, the duration of the activity is subtracted from the latest finish time
of its successor activity.
7. Answer: A) An activity that has a duration of zero
Rationale: A dummy activity is an activity with a duration of zero, used in a network

diagram to show a logical relationship between activities. Dummy activities do not
represent any work but are used to show dependencies between activities.
8. Answer: A) It represents the amount of time an activity can be delayed without

delaying the project finish date
Rationale: Float, also known as slack, represents the amount of time an activity can
be delayed without delaying the project finish date. Activities on the critical path
have zero float, while activities not on the critical path have positive float.
9. Answer: A) It is the longest path through the network diagram
Rationale: The critical path is the longest path through the network diagram, which
includes all activities with zero float or slack. Activities on the critical path must be
completed on time to ensure that the project is completed on time.
10. Answer: C) The schedule performance index (SPI) is earned value divided by
planned value. SPI = EV / PV. In this case, SPI = $50,000 / ($500,000/3) = 0.90.
11. Answer: A) 1.07
Rationale: The cost performance index (CPI) is earned value divided by actual cost.
CPI = EV / AC. In this case, CPI = $80,000 / $75,000 = 1.07.
12. Answer: B) $220,000
Rationale: The estimate at completion (EAC) for a project assuming a linear

projection is actual cost plus the remaining budget divided by the cost performance
index. EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) / CPI. In this case, EAC = $120,000 + ($200,000 -
$140,000) / ($140,000 / $120,000) = $220,000.
13. Answer: B) $60,000
Rationale: The schedule variance (SV) is earned value minus planned value. SV = EV
- PV. In this case, SV = $300,000 - ($1,000,000/4) = $60,000.
14. Answer: B) $25,000 under budget
Rationale: Cost Variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost
(AC). In this case, EV = $150,000 and AC = $175,000, so CV = $150,000 - $175,000
= -$25,000. A negative CV indicates that the project is over budget.
15. Answer: A) $50,000 ahead of schedule
Rationale: Schedule Variance (SV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Planned
Value (PV). In this case, PV is 50% of the planned budget, or $100,000. EV is 50%
of the budget, or $100,000. Therefore, SV = $100,000 - $100,000 = $0. The project
is on schedule, with 0 days of variance.
16. Answer: C) $160,000
Rationale: Estimate at Completion (EAC) can be calculated using several formulas.

One formula is EAC = Actual Cost (AC) + ((Budget at Completion (BAC) - EV) / Cost
Performance Index (CPI)). In this case, BAC is $120,000, EV is 50% of the budget,
or $60,000, and CPI is EV / AC, or $60,000 / $60,000 = 1. Therefore, EAC = $60,000
+ (($120,000 - $60,000) / 1) = $120,000 + $60,000 = $180,000. If the current
performance continues, the project is expected to cost $180,000.
PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)
1. A project manager is working on a project to develop a new software product.

The project manager uses historical data from previous projects to estimate the
cost of the current project. Which technique is the project manager using to
estimate costs?
A) Analogous estimating
B) Bottom-up estimating
C) Parametric estimating
D) Three-point estimating
2. A project manager is working on a project to build a new bridge. The project

manager has created a budget for the project and is monitoring the project's
progress to ensure that it stays within the budget. Which cost control technique
is the project manager using?
A) Cost aggregation
B) Earned value management
C) Forecasting
D) Variance analysis
3. A project manager is working on a project to develop a new marketing

campaign. The project manager uses a mathematical model to estimate the cost
of the project. Which technique is the project manager using to estimate costs?
4. A project manager is working on a project to develop a new product. The

project manager uses a formula to estimate the cost of the project based on
certain parameters. Which technique is the project manager using to estimate

costs?
5. A project manager is working on a project to build a new highway. The project

manager has identified that the project is over budget. Which cost control
technique can the project manager use to bring the project back on budget?
A) Cost aggregation
B) Earned value management
C) Forecasting
D) Variance analysis
6. A project manager is working on a project to build a new sports stadium. The

project manager creates a budget for the project that includes all the costs
associated with the project. Which budget estimation technique is the project
manager using?
D) Top-down estimating
7. The project manager is initiating a new project and is developing the Project
Management Plan. One of the key components of the plan is cost management.
Which process is specifically responsible for defining how costs will be
estimated, budgeted, managed, and controlled throughout the project?
A) Estimate Costs
B) Determine Budget
C) Plan Cost Management
D) Control Costs
8. The project manager is working on a construction project and needs to

estimate the cost of each individual activity. The project manager wants to use
a technique that involves breaking down the work into small, manageable
components and estimating their costs. Which technique should the project
manager use?
A) Analogous Estimating
B) Bottom-up Estimating
C) Parametric Estimating
D) Three-point Estimating
9. The project manager is in the process of developing the budget for a software
development project. The project manager wants to set aside a specific amount
of money to address known risks and uncertainties. Which technique should
the project manager use to estimate the budget reserve?
D) Reserve Analysis
10. The project manager is working on a marketing campaign project and is

developing the project budget. The project manager wants to evaluate the
financial viability of the project by comparing the costs and benefits. Which
technique should the project manager use?
A) Benchmarking
B) Reserve Analysis
C) Cost Aggregation
D) Cost-Benefit Analysis
11. The project manager is initiating a new project and is developing the Project
Management Plan. One of the key components of the plan is cost management.
Which process is specifically responsible for defining how costs will be
estimated, budgeted, managed, and controlled throughout the project?
A) Estimate Costs
B) Determine Budget
D) Control Costs
12. The project manager is working on a large construction project. They are
developing the project budget and need to allocate costs to individual work
packages or activities. Which process is responsible for determining the cost
baseline for the project?
A) Estimate Costs
B) Determine Budget
D) Control Costs
13. The project manager is developing the cost management plan for a research
project. The project manager wants to ensure that cost variances are identified
and addressed in a timely manner. Which tool or technique should the project
manager use to monitor and control costs?
A) Earned Value Management (EVM)
B) Cost Aggregation
C) Variance Analysis
D) Forecasting
14. The project manager is in the process of developing the cost baseline for a
software development project. The project manager needs to allocate costs to
specific time periods for tracking purposes. Which tool or technique should the
project manager use to determine the distribution of costs over time?
A) Earned Value Management (EVM)
B) Cost Aggregation
C) Variance Analysis
D) Cost-Performance Baseline
15. The project manager is developing the cost management plan for an
engineering project. The project manager wants to ensure that all costs,
including indirect costs, are considered in the budget. Which tool or technique
should the project manager use to identify and allocate indirect costs?
D) Cost of Quality (COQ)

ANSWERS
1. Answer: A) Analogous estimating.
Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager is using historical data from
previous projects to estimate the cost of the current project. This technique is
known as Analogous Estimating, which is based on the analogy of similar projects.
2. Answer: B) Earned value management.
Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager has created a budget for the
project and is monitoring the project's progress to ensure that it stays within the
budget. This is achieved through the use of Earned Value Management (EVM), a cost
control technique that integrates scope, time, and cost measures to help evaluate
project performance and progress.
3. Answer: C) Parametric estimating.
Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager is using a mathematical model
to estimate the cost of the project. This technique is known as Parametric
Estimating, which uses statistical data and mathematical algorithms to estimate
project costs based on specific project parameters.
4. Answer: C) Parametric estimating.
Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager uses a formula to estimate the
cost of the project based on certain parameters. This technique is known as
Parametric Estimating, which uses statistical data and mathematical algorithms to
estimate project costs based on specific project parameters.
5. Answer: D) Variance analysis.
Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager has identified that the project
is over budget. Variance Analysis is a cost control technique that compares actual
project performance against the project plan to identify variances, determine their
causes, and take corrective action.
6. Answer: D) Top-down estimating.

Rationale: In the given scenario, the project manager creates a budget for the
project that includes all the costs associated with the project. This technique is
known as Top-down Estimating, which involves estimating the total cost of the
project first and then breaking down the cost into smaller components.
7. Answer: C) Plan Cost Management
Rationale: The Plan Cost Management process is specifically responsible for

defining how costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, and controlled
throughout the project. It involves establishing the policies, procedures, and
documentation for effective cost management.
8. Answer: B) Bottom-up Estimating
Rationale: Bottom-up Estimating involves breaking down the work into small,
manageable components (such as activities or work packages) and estimating their
costs individually. It provides a more accurate and detailed cost estimate compared
to other techniques.
9. Answer: D) Reserve Analysis
Rationale: Reserve Analysis is the technique used to estimate the budget reserve. It
involves setting aside a specific amount of money to address known risks and
uncertainties during the project. The reserve helps to ensure that funds are
available to mitigate potential cost impacts.
10. Answer: D) Cost-Benefit Analysis
Rationale: Cost-Benefit Analysis is the technique used to evaluate the financial

viability of a project by comparing the costs incurred with the anticipated benefits.
It helps in assessing the value and return on investment (ROI) of the project.
11. Answer: C) Plan Cost Management
Rationale: This question is a duplicate of Question 7, and the correct answer remains
the same. The Plan Cost Management process is responsible for defining how costs
will be estimated, budgeted, managed, and controlled throughout the project.
12. Answer: B) Determine Budget
Rationale: The Determine Budget process is responsible for aggregating the

estimated costs of individual work packages or activities to establish the cost
baseline for the project. It involves allocating the overall project budget to specific
work packages or activities.
13. Answer: A) Earned Value Management (EVM)
Rationale: Earned Value Management (EVM) is a tool and technique used for
monitoring and controlling costs. It integrates cost, schedule, and scope
performance to provide insights into cost variances, cost performance, and cost
forecasts.
14. Answer: A) Earned Value Management (EVM)
Rationale: Earned Value Management (EVM) is the tool or technique used to

determine the distribution of costs over time. It allows for tracking and reporting
the planned value (PV), earned value (EV), and actual cost (AC) of the project over
specific time periods.
15. Answer: D) Cost of Quality (COQ)
Rationale: The Cost of Quality (COQ) is the tool or technique used to identify and
allocate indirect costs in the budget. It includes costs related to prevention,
appraisal, and failure that are incurred due to lack of quality in the project
deliverables.
PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is reviewing the project deliverables to ensure they meet
the defined quality standards. Which quality management technique is the
project manager using?
A) Control Charts
B) Cause and Effect Diagrams
C) Inspection
D) Benchmarking
2. During project execution, the project manager notices that defects are being
found in the deliverables at an increasing rate. Which quality control technique
should the project manager implement to identify the cause of these defects?
A) Flowcharting
B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Diagram
D) Root Cause Analysis
3. The project manager is conducting a quality audit to evaluate the

effectiveness of the quality management system. Which of the following is a
key objective of a quality audit?
A) Identify potential risks and issues
B) Verify compliance with quality standards
C) Review project documentation
D) Determine resource allocation
4. The project manager wants to compare the quality performance of the

current project with similar projects completed in the past. Which quality
management technique should the project manager use?
A) Control Charts
C) Inspection
D) Benchmarking
5. The project manager is working on a software development project. To

ensure that the software meets the specified requirements, the project manager
decides to conduct a peer review of the code. Which quality control technique is
being applied?
A) Inspection
B) Control Charts
C) Flowcharting
D) Scatter Diagram
6. The project manager wants to determine the most common causes of defects
in the project deliverables. Which quality management technique should the
project manager use?
A) Control Charts
C) Inspection
D) Benchmarking
7. The project manager is analyzing the data collected during quality control
activities to identify trends and patterns. Which quality management technique
A) Control Charts
C) Inspection
D) Benchmarking
8. During project execution, the project manager realizes that the project
deliverables are not meeting the specified quality standards. Which quality
control technique should the project manager use to determine the root causes
of these issues?
A) Flowcharting
B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Diagram
D) Root Cause Analysis
9. The project manager is using statistical sampling techniques to inspect the

project deliverables. Which quality control technique is the project manager
using?
A) Control Charts
C) Inspection
D) Benchmarking
10. The project manager is implementing a quality management plan that

includes quality control measurements and quality assurance activities. Which
of the following is a key difference between quality control and quality
assurance?
A) Quality control focuses on preventing defects, while quality assurance focuses on

detecting defects.
B) Quality control is performed by the project team, while quality assurance is

performed by external auditors.
C) Quality control measures the compliance of deliverables with quality standards,

while quality assurance measures the effectiveness of the quality management
system.
D) Quality control is performed during project execution, while quality assurance is

performed during project planning.
11. During the quality control process, a project manager identifies a defect in
a product that does not meet the specified quality standards. What is the most
appropriate next step for the project manager?
A) Document the defect and report it to the appropriate stakeholders
B) Immediately fix the defect without further investigation
C) Ignore the defect as it does not significantly impact the project
D) Modify the quality standards to accommodate the defect
12. A project manager is implementing a quality management system for a

construction project. Which of the following quality management tools would
be most effective in identifying the root cause of a recurring quality issue?
A) Pareto chart
B) Cause-and-effect diagram
C) Control chart
D) Scatter diagram
13. During the quality assurance process, a project manager identifies that the
project team is not following the established quality standards. What action
should the project manager take to address this issue?
A) Provide additional training to the project team
B) Assign blame to the team members responsible for the non-compliance
C) Change the quality standards to align with the team's current practices
D) Implement a corrective action plan to ensure adherence to quality standards
14. A project manager is implementing a quality control process that involves

inspecting a sample of products to determine if they meet the specified quality
criteria. Which quality control technique is the project manager using?
A) Checklists
B) Control charts
C) Pareto analysis
D) Statistical sampling
15. A project manager is responsible for managing the quality of deliverables

throughout the project lifecycle. Which of the following quality management
activities is the project manager engaged in?
A) Quality planning
B) Quality control
C) Quality assurance
D) Quality improvement
ANSWERS
1. Answer: C) Inspection: Inspection involves reviewing the project deliverables to
ensure they meet the defined quality standards.
2. Answer: D) Root Cause Analysis: Root Cause Analysis is used to identify the
underlying causes of defects or issues in order to address them effectively.
3. Answer: B) Verify compliance with quality standards: One of the key objectives
of a quality audit is to verify compliance with quality standards and procedures.
4. Answer: D) Benchmarking: Benchmarking involves comparing the quality

performance of the current project with similar projects completed in the past.
5. Answer: A) Inspection: Conducting
a peer review of the code is a form of inspection, where team members review and
examine the deliverables for quality.
6. Answer: B) Cause and Effect Diagrams: Cause and Effect Diagrams, also known
as Fishbone or Ishikawa diagrams, are used to identify and analyze the potential
causes of defects or issues.
7. Answer: A) Control Charts: Control Charts are used to analyze data collected
during quality control activities to identify trends, variations, and patterns.
8. Answer: D) Root Cause Analysis: Root Cause Analysis is used to determine the
root causes of issues or defects and to develop appropriate corrective actions.
9. Answer: C) Inspection: Statistical sampling techniques are used in inspection to

inspect a sample of the project deliverables to ensure their quality.
10. Answer: C) Quality control measures the compliance of deliverables with quality
standards, while quality assurance measures the effectiveness of the quality
management system: Quality control focuses on measuring the compliance of
deliverables with quality standards, while quality assurance focuses on measuring
the effectiveness of the quality management system in achieving quality objectives.
11. Answer: A) Document the defect and report it to the appropriate stakeholders.
Rationale: When a defect is identified during the quality control process, it is

important to document it and report it to the appropriate stakeholders. This allows
for proper tracking, analysis, and resolution of the defect, ensuring that the
necessary actions are taken to meet the specified quality standards.
12. Answer: B) Cause-and-effect diagram.
Rationale: A cause-and-effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram, is a

quality management tool used to identify and explore potential causes of a problem
or quality issue. It helps in identifying the root cause by visually representing the
possible contributing factors, enabling the project team to address the underlying
causes and implement appropriate corrective actions.
13. Answer: A) Provide additional training to the project team.
Rationale: If the project team is not following the established quality standards,
providing additional training is an effective action to address this issue. Training
helps ensure that the team members have the necessary knowledge and skills to
meet the quality requirements and adhere to the established standards.
14. Answer: D) Statistical sampling.
Rationale: Statistical sampling is a quality control technique that involves

inspecting a sample of products or deliverables to determine if they meet the
specified quality criteria. It allows project managers to make inferences about the
quality of the entire population based on the results obtained from the sample,
helping them make informed decisions about the overall quality of the project.
15. Answer: B) Quality control.
Rationale: The project manager is engaged in quality control when responsible for
managing the quality of deliverables throughout the project lifecycle. Quality
control involves monitoring and inspecting project deliverables to ensure they meet
the specified quality standards. It focuses on identifying defects, making necessary
corrections, and verifying that the deliverables conform to the established quality
criteria.
PROJECT RESOURCES MANAGEMENT (20 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is developing a staffing management plan for a

construction project. They need to identify the types and quantities of resources
required for each activity. Which process is responsible for this task?
A) Estimate Activity Resources
B) Acquire Resources
C) Develop Team
D) Plan Resource Management
2. The project manager is initiating a new project and needs to determine the
availability and skills of resources. They want to utilize historical data and
expert judgment to estimate the resources needed. Which technique should the
A) Bottom-up Estimating
B) Analogous Estimating
C) Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
D) Resource Calendar
3. The project manager is in the process of acquiring resources for a software

development project. They need to ensure that the project team has the
necessary skills and expertise. Which technique should the project manager use
to assess the competence of potential resources?
A) Pre-assignment
B) Negotiation
C) Virtual Teams
D) Multicriteria Decision Analysis

4. The project manager is managing a complex project and needs to ensure that
the project team members have a clear understanding of their roles and
responsibilities. Which process is responsible for this task?
C) Develop Team
5. The project manager is developing a project team by selecting suitable

individuals with the required skills and competencies. Which process is
responsible for this task?
C) Develop Team
6. The project manager is in the process of estimating the type and quantity of
resources required for each activity. They want to use historical data and
project documents as inputs to this process. Which technique should the project
manager use?
A) Bottom-up Estimating
B) Analogous Estimating
C) Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
D) Resource Calendar
7. The project manager needs to acquire additional resources to meet the

project requirements. They are considering hiring external contractors or
subcontractors. Which technique should the project manager use to select the
most suitable vendors?
A) Pre-assignment
B) Negotiation
C) Virtual Teams
D) Multicriteria Decision Analysis
8. The project manager is in the process of developing a resource management

plan for a project. They want to identify the roles and responsibilities of each
team member and define how resources will be allocated. Which process is
responsible for this task?
C) Develop Team
9. The project manager is acquiring resources for a construction project. They

want to ensure that the resources are available when needed and that conflicts
are resolved effectively. Which technique should the project manager use?
A) Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
B) Resource Calendar
C) Resource Histogram
D) Resource Leveling
10. The project manager is focused on developing a cohesive and high-

performing project team. They want to enhance team collaboration and build
trust among team members. Which process is responsible for this task?
C) Develop Team

11. The project manager is leading a large software development project. The
project team consists of members from different functional areas who report
to their respective department managers. Which leadership style is the project
manager most likely using?
A) Autocratic leadership
B) Democratic leadership
C) Laissez-faire leadership
D) Transformational leadership
12. During a project team meeting, a team member challenges a decision made
by the project manager. The team member asserts that the decision was made
without proper consultation and presents alternative options. This
demonstrates the exercise of which form of power?
A) Expert power
B) Reward power
C) Legitimate power
D) Referent power
13. The project manager is dealing with team conflicts related to resource
allocation and task priorities. Which conflict resolution technique should the
project manager use to achieve a mutually acceptable solution?
A) Collaborating
B) Forcing
C) Avoiding
D) Compromising
14. The project manager is responsible for controlling the project team's
performance and ensuring that project activities are being completed as
planned. Which tool or technique should the project manager use to assess
individual and team performance?
A) Performance appraisals
B) Conflict management
C) Lessons learned
D) Project status meetings
15. The project manager has recently joined a project team. They are
establishing a strong working relationship with team members by
demonstrating trust, providing support, and promoting open communication.
Which leadership style is the project manager most likely using?
D) Servant leadership
16. The project manager is working on a project with a team that includes
members from different countries and cultural backgrounds. Which approach
should the project manager adopt to effectively manage the diverse team?
A) Cross-cultural training
B) Virtual team building
C) Conflict resolution techniques
D) Performance appraisals
17. The project manager is leading a project where team members have a high
level of expertise and experience. The project manager encourages team
members to share knowledge and make decisions collectively. Which leadership
style is the project manager most likely using?
D) Transactional leadership
18. A team member has consistently been performing below expectations and
failing to complete assigned tasks on time. The project manager decides to have
a private conversation with the team member to address the issue. Which form
of power is the project manager utilizing in this situation?
A) Expert power
B) Reward power
C) Coercive power
D) Legitimate power
19. The project manager is leading a project team that is geographically

dispersed across different time zones. Which communication technique should
the project manager use to facilitate effective communication with the team?
A) Video conferencing
B) Email communication
C) Face-to-face meetings
D) Team collaboration software
20. The project manager is facing resistance from team members regarding a
change in project requirements. The project manager believes that the change
is necessary for the project's success. Which conflict resolution technique
should the project manager use to address this situation?
A) Collaborating
B) Forcing
C) Avoiding
D) Compromising
ANSWERS
1. Answer: D) Plan Resource Management.
Rationale: The process responsible for defining how resources will be estimated,
acquired, managed, and released throughout the project is the Plan Resource
Management process. It involves developing a staffing management plan that
identifies the types and quantities of resources required for each activity.
2. Answer: B) Analogous Estimating.
Rationale: Analogous estimating is a technique that utilizes historical data from

similar projects as a basis for estimating resources. It is useful when there is limited
detailed information available and provides a quick estimate based on past
experiences.
3. Answer: D) Multicriteria Decision Analysis.
Rationale: Multicriteria Decision Analysis is a technique used to assess the

competence and suitability of potential resources. It involves evaluating resources
based on various criteria, such as skills, experience, availability, and cost, to make
an informed decision.
4. Answer: C) Develop Team.
Rationale: The Develop Team process is responsible for enhancing individual and
group competencies to improve project performance. It focuses on clarifying roles
and responsibilities, establishing team dynamics, and building a cohesive project
team.
5. Answer: B) Acquire Resources.
Rationale: The Acquire Resources process involves obtaining the necessary

resources, including personnel, equipment, and materials, to complete project
activities. It ensures that the project team is appropriately staffed with suitable
resources.
6. Answer: A) Bottom-up Estimating.

Rationale: Bottom-up estimating is a technique that involves breaking down the

work into small, manageable components and estimating their costs or resources.
It provides a more detailed and accurate estimate by considering the individual
activities.
7. Answer: D) Multicriteria Decision Analysis.
Rationale: When selecting vendors or external contractors, the project manager can
use Multicriteria Decision Analysis to evaluate and compare potential vendors based
on various criteria, such as cost, quality, expertise, and reputation.
8. Answer: D) Plan Resource Management.
Rationale: The Plan Resource Management process is responsible for developing a

resource management plan that defines how resources will be allocated, utilized,
and controlled throughout the project. It identifies roles, responsibilities, and
reporting relationships within the project team.
9. Answer: D) Resource Leveling.
Rationale: Resource Leveling is a technique used to adjust resource assignments and

resolve conflicts to ensure that resources are available when needed and that
resource utilization is optimized. It helps balance resource demand and supply.
10. Answer: C) Develop Team.
Rationale: The Develop Team process focuses on enhancing team collaboration,

improving communication, and building trust among team members. It aims to
develop a high-performing project team that works cohesively towards project
objectives.
11. Answer: A) Autocratic leadership
Rationale: In this scenario, the project manager is leading a team with members
reporting to their functional department managers. In an autocratic leadership
style, the project manager has centralized decision-making authority and is likely
to have more control over the team members' actions and decisions.
12. Answer: A) Expert power
Rationale: Expert power is based on an individual's expertise, knowledge, and skills.

In this scenario, the team member challenges the decision and presents alternative
options, indicating that they possess expertise in the subject matter and are using
their knowledge to influence the decision-making process.
13. Answer: A) Collaborating
Rationale: Collaborating is a conflict resolution technique that aims to find a

mutually acceptable solution by actively involving all parties, encouraging open
communication, and seeking common ground. In this scenario, the project manager
should adopt a collaborative approach to resolve conflicts related to resource
allocation and task priorities.
14. Answer: A) Performance appraisals
Rationale: Performance appraisals are a tool used to assess individual and team
performance. They involve evaluating the performance of team members against
predetermined criteria, providing feedback, and identifying areas for improvement.
The project manager can use performance appraisals to monitor and control the
team's performance.
15. Answer: D) Servant leadership
Rationale: Servant leadership focuses on serving the needs of team members,

fostering collaboration, and promoting the personal and professional development
of individuals. In this scenario, the project manager is building a strong working
relationship by demonstrating trust, support, and open communication, which
aligns with the principles of servant leadership.
16. Answer: A) Cross-cultural training
Rationale: When working with a diverse team, cross-cultural training is essential to

develop an understanding and appreciation of different cultures, customs, and
communication styles. This training helps the project manager and team members
effectively navigate cultural differences and work collaboratively towards project

success.
17. Answer: B) Democratic leadership
Rationale: Democratic leadership involves involving team members in decision-

making, encouraging their participation, and valuing their expertise and
experience. In this scenario, the project manager encourages knowledge sharing
and collective decision-making, indicating a democratic leadership style.
18. Answer: C) Coercive power
Rationale: Coercive power is based on the ability to impose negative consequences

or punishments. In this scenario, the project manager is using private conversation
as a means to address the team member's performance issue. By leveraging the
power to reprimand or impose consequences, the project manager is utilizing
coercive power.
19. Answer: A) Video conferencing
Rationale: Video conferencing is a communication technique that allows team

members in different locations to have real-time face-to-face interactions, despite
the geographical distance. It helps facilitate effective communication, non-verbal
cues, and promotes better understanding and collaboration among dispersed team
members.
20. Answer: A) Collaborating
Rationale: Collaborating is a conflict resolution technique that focuses on finding

mutually acceptable solutions. In this scenario, the project manager should engage
in open communication, actively involve team members in discussions about the
change, and seek their input to find a resolution that satisfies both the project's
needs and the concerns of the team members.
PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT (15 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is leading a large-scale construction project that

involves multiple stakeholders, including the client, subcontractors, and
regulatory authorities. To ensure effective communication, the project
manager decides to establish a centralized system for collecting, distributing,
and storing project information. Which communication management technique
A) Information distribution
B) Communication technology
C) Stakeholder analysis
D) Project management information system (PMIS)
2. The project manager is working on an IT project that requires frequent and

timely communication with the development team, end users, and the project
sponsor. To ensure smooth communication flow, the project manager decides
to hold regular stand-up meetings where team members provide updates on
their progress and discuss any challenges. Which communication technique is
the project manager using?
A) Interactive communication
B) Formal written communication
C) Non-verbal communication
D) Informal verbal communication
3. During the execution phase of a software development project, the project

manager notices that some team members are not receiving critical project
updates in a timely manner. To address this issue, the project manager decides
to implement a communication plan that includes a defined schedule for
distributing project information to all stakeholders. Which communication
management process is the project manager focusing on?
A) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B) Plan Communications Management

C) Control Communications
D) Monitor Communications
4. The project manager is working on a research project that involves

collaborating with external subject matter experts. To ensure effective
communication and collaboration, the project manager decides to establish a
shared online workspace where project documents, discussions, and updates
can be accessed by all project team members and stakeholders. Which
communication tool is the project manager using?
A) Video conferencing
B) Social media platforms
C) Project collaboration software
D) Project management software
5. The project manager is working on a construction project that requires

ongoing coordination and communication with various subcontractors. The
project manager decides to use a communication technique that involves
documenting the roles, responsibilities, and communication protocols for each
subcontractor involved in the project. Which communication document is the
project manager creating?
A) Project charter
B) Stakeholder register
C) Communications management plan
D) Subcontractor agreement
6. The project manager is leading a project that involves multiple stakeholders

who have different levels of understanding and technical expertise. To ensure
effective communication, the project manager decides to use visual aids, such
as diagrams and charts, to present complex information in a simplified and
understandable format. Which communication technique is the project
manager using?
A) Active listening
B) Formal written communication
C) Information retrieval
D) Visual communication
7. The project manager is managing a project that requires regular

communication with a remote team located in a different time zone. To
overcome the challenges of time differences, the project manager decides to
establish a shared project calendar that reflects the availability of team
members and identifies suitable meeting times. Which communication
management process is the project manager focusing on?
A) Plan Communications Management
B) Manage Communications
C) Control Communications
D) Monitor Communications
8. The project manager is leading a project that involves multiple stakeholders,

each with different communication preferences and requirements. To ensure
effective communication, the project manager decides to tailor the
communication approach and style to meet the specific needs of each
stakeholder. Which communication technique is the project manager using?
A) Effective listening
B) Tailored communication
C) Information retrieval
D) Formal written communication
9. The project manager is managing a high-stakes project that requires frequent

and detailed project status updates to be shared with the project sponsor and
executive stakeholders. To streamline the communication process, the project
manager decides to develop a standardized template that captures key project
metrics and progress indicators. Which communication tool is the project
manager using?
A) Project status report
B) Stakeholder register
C) Lessons learned register
D) Issue log
10. The project manager is working on a project with a large team distributed
across multiple locations. To enhance communication and collaboration, the
project manager decides to implement a communication technology that allows
team members to communicate in real-time through text-based messages,
audio calls, and video conferencing. Which communication tool is the project
manager using?
A) Email
B) Instant messaging
C) Team collaboration software
D) Project management software
11. The project manager is working on a large construction project with

multiple stakeholders. The project manager needs to ensure that all project
stakeholders are aware of the project's progress and upcoming milestones.
Which communication method would be most effective in this situation?
A) Project status meetings
B) Email updates
C) Team collaboration software
D) Formal written reports
12. The project manager is facing challenges with communication due to

language barriers among the project team members. Which communication
technique would be most helpful in overcoming this barrier?
A) Active listening
B) Nonverbal communication
C) Translation services
D) Virtual meetings
13. The project manager needs to convey complex technical information to the
project stakeholders. Which communication method would be most effective in
this situation?
A) Face-to-face meetings
B) Written reports
C) Visual communication aids
D) Email communication
14. The project manager is working on an international project with team

members located in different time zones. What should the project manager
consider to ensure effective communication among the team members?
A) Establishing a shared project calendar
B) Using video conferencing for meetings
C) Email communication for all project updates
D) Weekly project status reports
15. The project manager is in the process of developing the project

communication plan. What should the project manager consider when
identifying the communication requirements of stakeholders?
A) Stakeholder roles and responsibilities
B) Project budget and resources
C) Project schedule and timeline
D) Project risks and issues

ANSWERS
1. Answer: C) Stakeholder analysis
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis is a technique used in the Plan Communications

Management process to identify the project stakeholders and analyze their
communication requirements. By understanding the stakeholders' needs, the
project manager can develop an effective communication plan to address their
specific information needs.
2. Answer: A) Interactive communication
Rationale: Interactive communication involves face-to-face or virtual meetings,

discussions, and collaborative sessions. Stand-up meetings are a form of interactive
communication where team members provide updates, share information, and
discuss project-related matters in a time-bound and focused manner.
3. Answer: B) Plan Communications Management
Rationale: The Plan Communications Management process is responsible for

developing a communication management plan that defines how project
communications will be planned, executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. The
process ensures that the right information is delivered to the right stakeholders at
the right time and in the right format.
4. Answer: C) Project collaboration software
Rationale: Project collaboration software provides a centralized online workspace

where team members and stakeholders can collaborate, share project documents,
engage in discussions, and access project updates in a real-time and collaborative
manner.
5. Answer: C) Communications management plan
Rationale: The communications management plan is a document created as part of

the Plan Communications Management process. It outlines the communication
requirements, methods, frequency, and channels for project communication. It also
defines the roles and responsibilities of the project team and stakeholders in the
communication process.
6. Answer: D) Visual communication
Rationale: Visual communication involves using graphical elements, diagrams,

charts, and visual aids to convey information effectively. It is especially useful when
dealing with complex or technical information, as it simplifies the message and
enhances understanding.
7. Answer: A) Plan Communications Management
Rationale: The Plan Communications Management process involves identifying the

communication requirements of stakeholders, determining the appropriate
communication technologies, and defining the project communication approach.
Establishing a shared project calendar to address time zone challenges falls within
the purview of this process.
8. Answer: B) Tailored communication
Rationale: Tailored communication involves adapting the communication approach,

style, and medium to meet the specific needs and preferences of individual
stakeholders. It recognizes that different stakeholders have different
communication preferences, and by tailoring the approach, effective
communication can be achieved.
9. Answer: A) Project status report
Rationale: A project status report is a communication tool used to provide detailed

updates on the project's progress, including key metrics, milestones achieved, risks,
issues, and upcoming activities. It is an effective way to communicate project status
to the project sponsor and executive stakeholders.
10. Answer: C) Team collaboration software
Rationale: Team collaboration software provides a platform where team members

can communicate, collaborate, and coordinate their work. It facilitates real-time
communication through various channels like text-based messages, audio calls, and
video conferencing, enabling effective communication in a distributed team
environment.
11. The correct answer is A) Project status meetings.
Rationale: Project status meetings are an effective communication method to ensure

that all project stakeholders are aware of the project's progress and upcoming
milestones. These meetings provide an opportunity for stakeholders to discuss
project updates, address concerns, and align their understanding of the project's
current state.
12. Answer: C) Translation services.
Rationale: When language barriers exist among project team members, the most
helpful communication technique is to use translation services. This ensures that
information is accurately conveyed and understood by all team members, regardless
of their native language.
13. Answer: C) Visual communication aids.
Rationale: When conveying complex technical information, visual communication

aids such as diagrams, charts, or presentations are the most effective method. Visual
aids help simplify complex concepts, enhance understanding, and make information
more accessible to stakeholders.
14. Answer: A) Establishing a shared project calendar.
Rationale: When team members are located in different time zones, establishing a
shared project calendar is crucial for effective communication. A shared calendar
helps team members coordinate meetings and activities, considering time zone
differences, to ensure everyone can participate and stay informed.
15. Answer: A) Stakeholder roles and responsibilities.
Rationale: When identifying communication requirements for stakeholders,

considering their roles and responsibilities is important. Different stakeholders may
have varying information needs and communication preferences based on their
involvement in the project. Tailoring communication to stakeholder roles helps
ensure relevant information is shared appropriately.
PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT (14 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is leading a software development project and wants to

identify potential risks that could impact the project's success. Which technique
should the project manager use to systematically gather input from project
team members, stakeholders, and subject matter experts?
A) Delphi Technique
B) Brainstorming
C) SWOT Analysis
D) Monte Carlo Analysis
2. The project manager is performing a qualitative risk analysis for a

construction project. The project manager wants to assess the impact and
likelihood of identified risks using a predefined rating scale. Which tool or
A) Probability and Impact Matrix
B) Decision Tree Analysis
C) Sensitivity Analysis
3. The project manager is leading a project and has identified a risk that could
potentially delay the project schedule. The project manager wants to
quantitatively analyze the impact of the risk on the project's overall timeline.
Which technique should the project manager use?
A) SWOT Analysis
C) Monte Carlo Analysis
D) Delphi Technique
4. The project manager is performing a risk identification process for a new

product development project. The project manager wants to ensure that all
potential risks are captured, including risks related to the project's external
environment. Which technique should the project manager use?
A) Delphi Technique
B) Brainstorming
C) SWOT Analysis
5. The project manager is performing a quantitative risk analysis for an

infrastructure project. The project manager wants to analyze the potential
impact of identified risks on the project's cost and schedule. Which tool or
6. The project manager is leading a project and has identified a risk that could
significantly impact the project's budget. The project manager wants to assess
the financial implications of the risk and determine the range of potential
financial outcomes. Which technique should the project manager use?
A) SWOT Analysis
C) Monte Carlo Analysis
D) Delphi Technique
7. The project manager is performing a qualitative risk analysis for an IT

project. The project manager wants to assess the probability and impact of
identified risks based on expert judgment. Which tool or technique should the
8. The project manager has identified a high-impact risk that could potentially
delay the project schedule. To address this risk, the project manager decides to
hire additional resources to expedite the project activities in case the risk
occurs. Which risk response strategy is the project manager implementing?
A) Avoidance
B) Mitigation
C) Transfer
D) Acceptance
9. The project manager is developing the risk management plan and wants to
define the criteria for triggering predefined risk responses. Which tool or
A) Risk Register
B) Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C) Risk Urgency Assessment
D) Risk Tolerance Matrix
10. The project manager has identified a risk that could impact the project's
budget. The project manager decides to purchase insurance to transfer the
financial consequences of the risk to an insurance provider. Which risk
response strategy is the project manager implementing?
A) Avoidance
B) Mitigation
C) Transfer
D) Acceptance
11. The project manager has identified a risk that could lead to a safety issue
during project execution. To address this risk, the project manager decides to
revise the project plan and remove the activities associated with the risky
process. Which risk response strategy is the project manager implementing?
A) Avoidance
B) Mitigation
C) Transfer
D) Acceptance
12. The project manager is monitoring and controlling project risks. The project
manager notices that a previously identified risk has occurred. The project
team is implementing predefined risk responses to address the risk. Which
process is the project manager performing?
A) Plan Risk Responses
B) Implement Risk Responses
C) Monitor Risks
D) Identify Risks
13. The project manager has identified a risk that could potentially impact the
project's schedule. The project manager decides to adjust the project schedule
by adding contingency buffers to account for the potential delays. Which risk
response strategy is the project manager implementing?
A) Avoidance
B) Mitigation
C) Transfer
D) Acceptance
14. The project manager is monitoring project risks and notices that the risk
probability and impact have changed since the initial risk assessment. The
project manager decides to update the risk response strategies and actions
accordingly. Which process is the project manager performing?
A) Plan Risk Responses
B) Implement Risk Responses
C) Monitor Risks
D) Identify Risks
ANSWERS
1. Answer: B) Brainstorming
Rationale: Brainstorming is a technique used to identify risks by gathering inputs

from project team members, stakeholders, and subject matter experts in a
collaborative and creative environment.
2. Answer: A) Probability and Impact Matrix
Rationale: A Probability and Impact Matrix is a tool used in qualitative risk analysis
to assess the impact and likelihood of identified risks using a predefined rating
scale. It helps prioritize risks based on their potential severity.
3. Answer: C) Monte Carlo Analysis
Rationale: Monte Carlo Analysis is a quantitative risk analysis technique that uses
probability distributions to simulate possible project outcomes and assess the
impact of identified risks on the project's overall timeline.
4. Answer: B) Brainstorming
Rationale: Brainstorming is a technique used to identify risks, including risks

related to the project's external environment. It encourages open discussion and
input from various stakeholders to ensure comprehensive risk identification.
5. Answer: B) Decision Tree Analysis
Rationale: Decision Tree Analysis is a tool used in quantitative risk analysis to

analyze the potential impact of identified risks on project objectives, such as cost
and schedule. It helps evaluate different possible scenarios and their outcomes.
6. Answer: C) Monte Carlo Analysis
Rationale: Monte Carlo Analysis is a technique used to quantitatively analyze risks

and their financial implications. It provides a range of potential financial outcomes,
helping project managers assess the impact on the project's budget.
7. Answer: A) Probability and Impact Matrix
Rationale: The Probability and Impact Matrix is a tool used in qualitative risk
analysis to assess the probability and impact of identified risks based on expert
judgment. It helps prioritize risks for further analysis and response planning.
8. Answer: B) Mitigation
Rationale: Mitigation involves taking proactive actions to reduce the probability or

impact of a risk. Hiring additional resources to expedite project activities is an
example of a risk mitigation strategy.
9. Answer: C) Risk Urgency Assessment
Rationale: Risk Urgency Assessment is a tool used to establish criteria for triggering
predefined risk responses. It helps project managers determine when specific risk
responses should be implemented.
10. Answer: C) Transfer
Rationale: Risk transfer involves transferring the risk and its financial
consequences to a third party, such as an insurance provider. Purchasing insurance
to cover the potential financial impact is an example of a risk transfer strategy.
11. Answer: A) Avoidance
Rationale: Risk avoidance involves eliminating the risk by removing the activities
associated with the risk. Revising the project plan to remove the activities
associated with the risky process is an example of risk avoidance.
12. Answer: C) Monitor Risks
Rationale: Monitoring risks involves tracking identified risks, monitoring their

status, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk response strategies. Implementing
predefined risk responses during the occurrence of a risk falls under the Monitor
Risks process
13. Answer: B) Mitigation
Rationale: Mitigation involves taking proactive actions to reduce the probability or

impact of a risk. Adjusting the project schedule by adding contingency buffers to
account for potential delays is an example of a risk mitigation strategy.
14. Answer: C) Monitor Risks
Rationale: Monitoring risks involves tracking identified risks and assessing changes
in their probability and impact. Updating risk response strategies and actions based
on changes in risk probability and impact falls under the Monitor Risks process.
PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT (10 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager is in the process of developing a plan to determine how

project procurement activities will be managed. The project manager is
considering different contract types and wants to choose a contract type that
transfers maximum risk to the seller. Which contract type should the project
manager choose?
A) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
B) Time and Material (T&M)
C) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
2. The project manager is conducting procurement activities to select a vendor

for a critical project component. The project manager wants to ensure that the
vendor's performance aligns with the project's quality requirements. Which
procurement document should the project manager use to communicate quality
expectations to potential vendors?
A) Request for Proposal (RFP)
B) Request for Information (RFI)
C) Statement of Work (SOW)
D) Contract
3. The project manager is responsible for controlling procurement activities

and ensuring that the seller's performance meets contractual obligations. The
project manager wants to compare the seller's actual performance against the
planned performance. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?
A) Procurement Audits
B) Payment Systems
C) Contract Change Control System
D) Performance Reviews
4. The project manager is developing a procurement plan and wants to identify

potential risks associated with the procurement activities. Which tool or
technique should the project manager use to identify procurement-related
risks?
A) Make-or-Buy Analysis
B) Procurement Negotiations
C) Source Selection Criteria
D) Risk Analysis and Management

for a specialized software development project. The project manager wants to
assess the vendor's financial stability and capability to deliver the required
software. Which procurement document should the project manager use to
request this information from potential vendors?
D) Contract
6. The project manager is responsible for conducting procurement activities

and selecting the most suitable vendors for the project. The project manager
wants to evaluate potential vendors based on their past performance,
capabilities, and references. Which tool or technique should the project
manager use?
A) Bidder Conferences
B) Proposal Evaluation Techniques
C) Independent Estimates
D) Advertising
7. The project manager is in the process of conducting procurement activities

to select a vendor for a critical project component. The project manager wants
to provide potential vendors with additional information to clarify

requirements and specifications. Which procurement document should the
project manager use for this purpose?
D) Contract
8. The project manager is responsible for controlling procurement activities

and ensuring that the seller's performance meets contractual obligations. The
project manager wants to verify that the seller has delivered the agreed-upon
goods or services as per the contract. Which tool or technique should the project
manager use?
A) Procurement Audits
B) Payment Systems
C) Inspection and Audit
D) Performance Reviews
9. The project manager is developing a procurement plan and wants to identify

potential risks associated with the procurement activities. Which tool or
technique should the project manager use to analyze risks in the procurement
process?
B) Procurement Negotiations
C) Source Selection Criteria
D) Risk Analysis and Management

for a complex construction project. The project manager wants to evaluate
potential vendors based on their technical expertise, financial stability, and
previous experience. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?
B) Proposal Evaluation Techniques
C) Independent Estimates
D) Advertising
ANSWERS
1. Answer: C) Firm Fixed Price (FFP).
Rationale: The Firm Fixed Price contract type transfers maximum risk to the seller
because the seller is responsible for delivering the project scope within the agreed-
upon price, regardless of any cost overruns or risks encountered.
2. Answer: C) Statement of Work (SOW).
Rationale: The Statement of Work (SOW) document describes the project's

objectives, deliverables, and requirements. It includes quality expectations and
serves as a communication tool to convey the project's quality requirements to
potential vendors.
3. Answer: D) Performance Reviews.
Rationale: Performance Reviews are used to compare the seller's actual

performance against planned performance. By conducting performance reviews, the
project manager can assess if the seller is meeting contractual obligations and take
corrective actions if necessary.
4. Answer: D) Risk Analysis and Management.
Rationale: Risk Analysis and Management is the tool or technique used to identify
and analyze risks associated with procurement activities. By conducting risk
analysis, the project manager can proactively address potential risks and develop
risk responses.
5. Answer: B) Request for Information (RFI).
Rationale: The Request for Information (RFI) document is used to gather

information from potential vendors, including their financial stability and capability
to deliver the required goods or services. It helps in assessing the vendors'
qualifications before moving forward with the procurement process.
6. Answer: B) Proposal Evaluation Techniques.

Rationale: Proposal Evaluation Techniques are used to evaluate and compare

proposals submitted by potential vendors. These techniques help assess past
performance, capabilities, references, and other factors to select the most suitable
vendors for the project.
7. Answer: B) Request for Information (RFI).
Rationale: The Request for Information (RFI) document is used to provide additional
information and clarify requirements to potential vendors. It serves as a
communication tool to address vendor inquiries and ensure a clear understanding
of project specifications.
8. Answer: C) Inspection and Audit.
Rationale: Inspection and Audit is the tool or technique used to verify that the seller
has delivered the agreed-upon goods or services as per the contract. It involves
conducting physical inspections, reviewing documentation, and performing audits
to ensure compliance with contractual obligations.
9. Answer: D) Risk Analysis and Management.
Rationale: Risk Analysis and Management is the tool or technique used to analyze
risks associated with the procurement process. It helps identify potential risks,
assess their impact, and develop appropriate risk responses to mitigate their
negative impact on the project.
10. Answer: B) Proposal Evaluation Techniques.
Rationale: Proposal Evaluation Techniques are used to evaluate potential vendors

based on their technical expertise, financial stability, and previous experience.
These techniques help in objectively assessing the qualifications and capabilities of
vendors for a complex project.
PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT (20 QUESTIONS)
1. The project manager of a construction project is in the early stages of project

planning. They need to identify all the individuals and organizations that will
be affected by the project. Which process should the project manager use?
A) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
B) Identify Stakeholders
C) Control Stakeholder Engagement
D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
2. The project manager is developing a stakeholder engagement plan. They

want to analyze the stakeholders' interests, involvement, and potential impact
on the project. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?
A) Expert Judgment
B) Data Gathering
C) Stakeholder Analysis
D) Stakeholder Register
3. The project manager is working on a software development project. They

have identified a stakeholder who has a high level of interest in the project and
can significantly impact its success. What should the project manager do next?
A) Develop a stakeholder engagement plan for the stakeholder.
B) Monitor the stakeholder's activities throughout the project.
C) Evaluate the stakeholder's power and influence on the project.
D) Update the stakeholder register with the stakeholder's information.
4. The project manager is reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan. They

realize that some stakeholders require more frequent and detailed
communication than others. Which strategy should the project manager use to
address this?
A) Active Listening
B) Communication Technology
C) Tailored Communication
D) Two-Way Communication
5. The project manager is planning stakeholder engagement for a marketing

campaign project. They want to increase stakeholders' support and minimize
resistance to project activities. Which technique should the project manager
use?
A) Power/Interest Grid
B) Influence/Impact Grid
C) Salience Model
D) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
6. The project manager is identifying stakeholders for an infrastructure

project. They want to categorize stakeholders based on their level of influence
and interest in the project. Which tool or technique should the project manager
use?
A) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
B) Stakeholder Analysis
C) Stakeholder Register
D) Power/Interest Grid
7. The project manager is identifying stakeholders for a healthcare project.

They want to determine the stakeholders' potential impact on the project and
their level of support. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?
C) Salience Model
D) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
8. The project manager is reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan and

realizes that a key stakeholder has changed their level of influence on the
project. What should the project manager do next?
A) Update the stakeholder engagement plan accordingly.
B) Re-evaluate the stakeholder's interest in the project.
C) Assess the stakeholder's level of support for the project.
D) Communicate the change to the stakeholder.
9. The project manager is planning stakeholder engagement for a construction

project. They want to ensure that stakeholders are actively involved in
decision-making processes. Which technique should the project manager use?
B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
C) Two-Way Communication
D) Salience Model
10. The project manager is identifying stakeholders for an IT project. They want
to understand the stakeholders' needs, expectations, and potential impact on
the project. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?
A) Expert Judgment
B) Data Gathering
11. The project manager is responsible for managing stakeholder engagement

throughout the project. Which process is specifically focused on keeping
stakeholders engaged and informed?
A) Identify Stakeholders
B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
12. The project team is facing challenges with stakeholder engagement and
needs to develop strategies to increase stakeholder support and minimize
resistance. Which tool or technique should the project team use?
B) Stakeholder Register
D) Stakeholder Engagement Plan
13. The project manager is conducting regular meetings with key stakeholders
to discuss project progress and address their concerns. Which technique is the
project manager using to manage stakeholder engagement?
C) Issue Log
D) Communication Methods
14. The project manager is monitoring stakeholder engagement to ensure that

stakeholders' needs and expectations are being met. Which tool or technique
can the project manager use to assess the effectiveness of stakeholder
engagement strategies?
A) Stakeholder Analysis
B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
C) Issue Log
D) Lessons Learned
15. The project manager wants to ensure effective stakeholder engagement by

involving stakeholders in decision-making processes. Which technique should
the project manager use to encourage stakeholder participation?
A) Two-Way Communication
B) Communication Methods
C) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
16. The project manager is facing challenges with stakeholder engagement due
to conflicting interests and priorities. Which technique can the project manager
use to resolve conflicts and improve stakeholder engagement?
A) Negotiation
B) Issue Log
C) Lessons Learned
17. The project manager is conducting regular surveys and feedback sessions to
gather stakeholders' opinions and perceptions. Which tool or technique is the
project manager using to monitor stakeholder engagement?
C) Lessons Learned
D) Surveys and Questionnaires
18. The project manager wants to assess the effectiveness of stakeholder

engagement activities and identify areas for improvement. Which tool or

C) Communication Methods
19. The project manager is using a software tool to track and monitor
stakeholder engagement activities, communication channels, and response
times. Which tool is the project manager using?
A) Issue Log
C) Communication Methods
D) Stakeholder Engagement Software
20. The project manager is conducting regular reviews of stakeholder

engagement strategies and adjusting them as needed. Which process is the
project manager performing?
A) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
B) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
D) Control Stakeholder Engagement

ANSWERS
1. Answer: B) Identify Stakeholders
Rationale: The process of identifying stakeholders involves determining all

individuals and organizations impacted by the project. It is an important step in
understanding project requirements and managing stakeholder expectations.
2. Answer: C) Stakeholder Analysis
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis is a technique used to analyze stakeholders'

interests, involvement, and potential impact on the project. It helps in
understanding their needs and expectations, allowing for effective stakeholder
engagement.
3. Answer: A) Develop a stakeholder engagement plan for the stakeholder.
Rationale: When a stakeholder has a high level of interest and influence, it is

important to develop a stakeholder engagement plan specifically tailored to their
needs and requirements to ensure their support and minimize resistance.
4. Answer: C) Tailored Communication
Rationale: Tailored communication is a strategy that involves adapting the

communication approach to meet the specific needs of different stakeholders. It
ensures that stakeholders receive the appropriate level of communication based on
their interests and requirements.
5. Answer: D) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
Rationale: The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix is a technique used to

assess stakeholders' current and desired levels of engagement. It helps in
identifying strategies to increase support and reduce resistance among
stakeholders.
6. Answer: D) Power/Interest Grid

Rationale: The Power/Interest Grid is a tool used to categorize stakeholders based

on their level of power and interest in the project. It helps in determining
appropriate engagement strategies for each stakeholder group.
7. Answer: B) Influence/Impact Grid
Rationale: The Influence/Impact Grid is a tool used to assess stakeholders' potential

impact on the project and their level of influence. It helps in prioritizing stakeholder
engagement efforts based on their significance to the project's success.
8. Answer: A) Update the stakeholder engagement plan accordingly.
Rationale: When a stakeholder's level of influence changes, it is important to update

the stakeholder engagement plan to reflect the new dynamics and ensure
appropriate engagement strategies are in place.
9. Answer: C) Two-Way Communication
Rationale: Two-Way Communication is a technique that emphasizes active

engagement and involvement of stakeholders in decision-making processes. It
promotes effective communication and ensures stakeholders' voices are heard.
10. Answer: C) Stakeholder Analysis
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis is a tool used to understand stakeholders' needs,

expectations, and potential impact on the project. It helps in developing appropriate
strategies to engage stakeholders effectively.
11. Answer: C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Rationale: The process of managing stakeholder engagement is specifically focused

on keeping stakeholders engaged and informed throughout the project. It involves
activities such as communicating with stakeholders, addressing their concerns, and
fostering positive stakeholder relationships.
12. Answer: A) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

Rationale: The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix helps the project team
develop strategies to increase stakeholder support and minimize resistance. It
assesses stakeholders based on their current engagement level and their potential
impact on the project, allowing the team to prioritize their engagement efforts
effectively.
13. Answer: D) Communication Methods
Rationale: By conducting regular meetings with key stakeholders, the project

manager is using communication methods to manage stakeholder engagement.
Effective communication is crucial for keeping stakeholders informed, addressing
their concerns, and maintaining their engagement throughout the project.
14. Answer: B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
Rationale: The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix can be used by the

project manager to assess the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement strategies.
It provides a systematic way to evaluate the current level of stakeholder
engagement and identify areas for improvement.
15. Answer: A) Two-Way Communication
Rationale: To encourage stakeholder participation and involvement in decision-

making processes, the project manager should use two-way communication. This
approach allows stakeholders to provide their input, express their opinions, and
contribute to the decision-making process.
16. Answer: A) Negotiation
Rationale: When facing challenges with stakeholder engagement due to conflicting

interests and priorities, the project manager can use negotiation techniques to
resolve conflicts and improve stakeholder engagement. Negotiation involves finding
mutually acceptable solutions that address the interests of different stakeholders.
17. Answer: D) Surveys and Questionnaires

Rationale: Conducting regular surveys and feedback sessions is a tool or technique

used to monitor stakeholder engagement. It allows the project manager to gather
stakeholders' opinions, perceptions, and feedback, providing insights into the
effectiveness of engagement efforts.
18. Answer: A) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
Rationale: To assess the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities and

identify areas for improvement, the project manager should use the Stakeholder
Engagement Assessment Matrix. It provides a structured assessment of stakeholder
engagement levels and helps identify gaps and opportunities for enhancement.
19. Answer: D) Stakeholder Engagement Software
Rationale: To track and monitor stakeholder engagement activities, communication

channels, and response times, the project manager can use stakeholder engagement
software. This tool enables efficient tracking, analysis, and reporting of stakeholder
engagement metrics.
20. Answer: C) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Rationale: The process of monitoring stakeholder engagement involves regularly

reviewing stakeholder engagement strategies, assessing their effectiveness, and
making adjustments as needed. This ensures that stakeholder engagement remains
aligned with project objectives and stakeholder expectations.
BONUS (20 QUESTIONS)
1. You are managing a software development project and have just completed
the design phase. One of your team members informs you that they discovered
a critical flaw in the design that will require significant changes. What should
be your immediate response?
A) Implement the changes suggested by the team member
B) Review the design with the team member and evaluate the potential impact on
the project
C) Ignore the team member's concerns and proceed with the project
D) Analyze the impact of the change on the project scope and schedule
2. You are the project manager for a construction project. You have just received
a change request from the client that will significantly increase the project
budget. What should you do before implementing the change request?
A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project objectives
B) Notify the client that the change request is not feasible
C) Request additional funding from the client to accommodate the change request
D) Obtain approval from the project sponsor or change control board
3. You are managing a project that has encountered a major delay due to
unforeseen circumstances. What should be your immediate action?
A) Reallocate resources to speed up the project
B) Notify stakeholders of the delay and its impact on the project timeline
C) Proceed with the project as planned
D) Evaluate the cause of the delay and determine the best course of action
4. You are managing a project with a tight deadline. One of your team members
informs you that they are behind schedule and may not be able to complete their
tasks on time. What should be your immediate response?
A) Work with the team member to identify the cause of the delay
B) Assign additional tasks to the team member to help them catch up
D) Replace the team member with someone who can work faster
5. You are managing a project and have just received a change request from a
stakeholder. The change request has a high impact on the project budget. What
should you do before implementing the change request?
A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project budget
B) Notify the stakeholder that the change request is not feasible
C) Immediately implement the change request
6. You are the project manager for a marketing campaign. One of your team
members has just informed you that they have identified a major flaw in the
campaign strategy. What should be your immediate response?
A) Ignore the team member's concerns and proceed with the campaign as planned
B) Work with the team member to assess the impact of the flaw on the project
objectives
C) Replace the team member with someone who can identify flaws in the strategy
D) Immediately change the campaign strategy based on the team member's input
stakeholder. The change request has a high impact on the project scope. What
should you do before implementing the change request?
A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project scope
C) Request additional resources to accommodate the change request

stakeholder. The change request has a high impact on the project schedule.
What should you do before implementing the change request?
A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project schedule
C) Immediately implement the change request
9. You are managing a software development project and one of your team
members has reported that they are facing issues with a critical software
component. The team member has suggested that it may require significant
changes to the project plan. What should be your immediate response?
A) Reallocate resources to the affected software component
B) Review the software component issue with the team member and evaluate the
potential impact on the project
D) Replace the team member with someone who can resolve the software
component issue
10. You are managing a construction project and have just received a change
request from the client that will require significant changes to the project
design. What should be your immediate action?
A) Analyze the impact of the change request on the project scope and budget
B) Notify the client that the change request is not feasible
11. As a project sponsor, which of the following is your primary responsibility?
A) To provide resources and support for the project team

B) To manage the project budget
C) To manage the project schedule
D) To oversee the day-to-day activities of the project team
12. As a project manager, which of the following is NOT a key responsibility?
A) Develop the project management plan
B) Communicate with stakeholders
C) Develop the project budget
D) Manage project risks
13. As a project team member, which of the following is your primary

responsibility?
A) Develop the project charter
B) Manage project risks
C) Complete project activities as assigned
D) Develop the project schedule
14. As a project stakeholder, which of the following is your primary

responsibility?
A) Provide resources and support for the project team
B) Manage the project budget
C) Identify and document project requirements
D) Manage project risks
15. As a project sponsor, which of the following is NOT a key responsibility?
A) Secure funding for the project
B) Approve changes to the project scope

C) Develop the project schedule
D) Identify project risks and opportunities
16. As a project manager, which of the following is a key responsibility in the

initiation phase of the project?
A) Develop the project schedule
C) Monitor and control project work
D) Close the project
17. As a project team member, which of the following is a key responsibility in

the execution phase of the project?
B) Manage project risks
C) Complete project activities as assigned
D) Develop the project schedule
18. As a project stakeholder, which of the following is a key responsibility in

the closing phase of the project?
A) Develop the project management plan
B) Monitor and control project work
C) Approve changes to the project scope
D) Accept the project deliverables
19. As a project sponsor, which of the following is a key responsibility in the

monitoring and controlling phase of the project?
B) Manage the project schedule

C) Approve changes to the project scope
D) Identify and resolve project issues
20. As a project manager, which of the following is a key responsibility in the

planning phase of the project?
A) Define the project scope
B) Complete project activities as assigned
C) Identify and document project risks
D) Accept the project deliverables

ANSWERS
1. Answer: B) Review the design with the team member and evaluate the potential
impact on the project
Rationale: When a team member identifies a critical flaw in the design, it is

important to review the design with them to understand the issue. Evaluating the
potential impact on the project will help determine the appropriate course of action.
2. Answer: D) Obtain approval from the project sponsor or change control board
Rationale: Before implementing a change request that significantly increases the

project budget, it is necessary to obtain approval from the project sponsor or change
control board. This ensures that the change is properly evaluated and aligned with
project objectives.
3. Answer: B) Notify stakeholders of the delay and its impact on the project timeline
Rationale: When a major delay occurs, it is important to immediately notify

stakeholders about the delay and its impact on the project timeline. Transparency
and communication are essential to manage stakeholder expectations and adjust
project plans as needed.
4. Answer: A) Work with the team member to identify the cause of the delay
Rationale: When a team member reports being behind schedule, the immediate
response should be to work with them to identify the cause of the delay.
Understanding the root cause will enable appropriate action, such as adjusting the
schedule, providing support, or reassigning tasks if necessary.
5. Answer: A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project budget
Rationale: Before implementing a change request with a high impact on the project
budget, it is crucial to evaluate its potential effect. This assessment ensures that the
change aligns with the project's financial constraints and can be accommodated
within the approved budget.
6. Answer: B) Work with the team member to assess the impact of the flaw on the
project objectives
Rationale: When a team member identifies a major flaw in the campaign strategy,
the immediate response should be to work with them to assess its impact on the
project objectives. Understanding the implications of the flaw helps in making
informed decisions and adjusting the strategy as needed.
Rationale: Before implementing a change request that has a high impact on the
project scope, it is necessary to obtain approval from the project sponsor or change
control board. This ensures that the change is properly evaluated and aligns with
the project's objectives.
8. Answer: A) Evaluate the impact of the change request on the project schedule
Rationale: Before implementing a change request with a high impact on the project
schedule, it is important to evaluate its potential effect. This assessment helps in
understanding the time implications and making informed decisions about
adjusting the schedule.
9. Answer: B) Review the software component issue with the team member and
evaluate the potential impact on the project
Rationale: When a team member reports issues with a critical software component,
it is essential to review the issue with them and assess its potential impact on the
project. Understanding the severity of the issue and its implications will guide the
appropriate response.
Rationale: When a change request is received from the client that requires
significant changes to the project design, it is necessary to obtain approval from the
project sponsor or change control board before proceeding. This ensures proper
evaluation and alignment with project objectives.
11. Answer: A) To provide resources and support for the project team
Rationale: According to PMBOK, the primary responsibility of a project sponsor is

to provide necessary resources and support to the project team. This includes
securing funding, resolving issues, and ensuring the team has what they need to
successfully deliver the project.
12. Answer: D) Manage project risks
Rationale: Managing project risks is a key responsibility of a project manager. It

involves identifying, analyzing, and responding to risks throughout the project
lifecycle. The other options, such as developing the project management plan,
communicating with stakeholders, and developing the project budget, are all key
responsibilities of a project manager.
13. Answer: C) Complete project activities as assigned
Rationale: As a project team member, your primary responsibility is to complete the

project activities assigned to you. This involves executing the tasks and deliverables
as per the project plan and collaborating with other team members to achieve
project objectives.
14. Answer: C) Identify and document project requirements
Rationale: As a project stakeholder, your primary responsibility is to identify and

document project requirements. Stakeholders play a crucial role in defining and
clarifying the project's objectives and desired outcomes.
15. Answer: C) Develop the project schedule
Rationale: Developing the project schedule is typically a responsibility of the project

manager, not the project sponsor. The primary responsibilities of a project sponsor
include securing funding, approving changes to the project scope, and identifying
project risks and opportunities.
16. Answer: B) Define the project scope

Rationale: In the initiation phase of the project, one of the key responsibilities of
the project manager is to define the project scope. This involves determining the
boundaries and objectives of the project, as well as identifying the deliverables and
constraints.
17. Answer: C) Complete project activities as assigned
Rationale: In the execution phase of the project, the primary responsibility of a

project team member is to complete project activities as assigned. This involves
carrying out the work according to the project plan and contributing to the
achievement of project milestones.
18. Answer: D) Accept the project deliverables
Rationale: In the closing phase of the project, one of the key responsibilities of a
project stakeholder is to accept the project deliverables. This signifies the formal
acceptance of the completed work and confirms that it meets the agreed-upon
requirements and quality standards.
19. Answer: C) Approve changes to the project scope
Rationale: In the monitoring and controlling phase of the project, a key

responsibility of the project sponsor is to approve changes to the project scope. This
ensures that any changes requested align with the project's objectives and are
properly evaluated and authorized.
20. Answer: A) Define the project scope
Rationale: In the planning phase of the project, one of the key responsibilities of the
project manager is to define the project scope. This involves determining the
project's objectives, deliverables, and boundaries, and documenting them in the
project scope statement.

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200 PMP MOCK QUES BY M.

ADNAN - PMP®, PMI-SP®, PMI-RMP® 1

200 PMP MOCK QUESTIONS

ENGR. MUHAMMAD ADNAN

- Questions prepared in May 2023.

AGILE PROJECT MANAGEMENT (25 QUESTIONS) ................................................... 3

AGILE PROJECT MANAGEMENT (25 QUESTIONS)

A) Extend the iteration time box

B) Reallocate resources to the team

D) End the iteration prematurely

A) Ignore the risk as agile projects are designed to handle risks

B) Work with the team to develop a risk mitigation plan

C) Wait until the risk materializes before taking action

D) Escalate the risk to the senior management team

A) Accept the change request and proceed with the iteration

C) Wait for the team to resolve the issue on their own

D) Escalate the issue to the senior management team

C) Continue with the current format of the daily stand-up meetings

6. Your agile project team is experiencing frequent changes in requirements.

B) Accept the changes and proceed with the iteration

C) Deny the changes and proceed with the iteration as planned

D) Escalate the changes to the senior management team

A) Hire an external consultant to address the issue

B) Reallocate resources within the team to address the issue

C) Wait for the issue to resolve on its own

D) Collaborate with other teams to address the issue

A) Accept the product as it is and proceed with the iteration

C) Wait for the quality issue to resolve on its own

D) Escalate the quality issue to the senior management team

A) Extend the project deadline

B) Reallocate resources to the team

D) End the project prematurely

A) Assign more work to the team members

B) Review the team's process and identify areas for improvement

C) Increase the sprint duration

D) Reduce the scope of the project

A) Reject the feedback and continue with the current plan

C) Delay the product release until the feedback can be addressed

D) Ignore the feedback and proceed with the product release

A) Blame the team for not meeting the goals

B) Assign more work to the team members to meet the goals

A) Delay the sprint until the team member is available

B) Reassign the team member's tasks to other team members

A) Reject the requirement and continue with the current plan

C) Collaborate with the product owner to identify a way to incorporate the

C) Assign the task to another team member

A) Continue with the current plan and ignore the issue

B) Delay the product release until the issue is addressed

C) Collaborate to identify a solution and update the project plan accordingly

D) Abandon the project and start a new one

A) Ignore the feedback and proceed with the product release

B) Reject the feedback and continue with the current plan

C) Collaborate with the stakeholders to identify a way to incorporate their feedback

D) Delay the product release until the feedback can be addressed

A) Blame the external factors for the team's issues

B) Delay the sprint until the external factors are resolved

D) Reduce the scope of the sprint to accommodate

21. A project manager is leading a software development project for a client.

A) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.

B) Working software over comprehensive documentation.

C) Responding to change over following a plan.

D) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.

22. A project manager is leading a cross-functional agile team. The team is

A) Daily stand-up meetings.