Form Number : Paper Code

(1016CMA308519001) *1016CMA308519001*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2019- 2020)

PRE-MEDICAL : ACHIEVER COURSE

PHASE : M4AA1A
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : AIIMS(CBT)
TEST DATE : 06 - 10 - 2019

Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
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1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
;
;
2. Duration of Test is 3½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 200.
3½ = 200 200

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
] ; ;
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
; }
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
= ,
6. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.
1 , ] ;

In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
]

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 Achiever Course/Phase-M4AA1A/06-10-2019
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1. In a double slit experiment the distance 1. }& ] <+
between slits is increased ten times whereas
their distance from screen is halved then the :-
fringe width :-
1 1
1 1 (1) (2)
(1) becomes (2) becomes 20 90
20 90
1
1 (3) (4)
(3) it remains same (4) becomes 10
10
2. In a double slit experiment, the distance 2. }& ] d ]
between the slits is d. The screen is at a D ; , ,
distance D from the slits. If a bright fringe is ] :-
formed opposite to one of the slits, its order is:-
2
d 2
D2 d2
d D2 d2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
dD 2 d 2D dD 2 d 2D

3. In a double slit experiment the angular width 3. }& ] ; 1m

of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen 0.2° /;
placed 1 m away. The wavelength of light used 600 nm ;
is 600 nm. The angular width of the fringe if ;
entire experimental apparatus is immersed in
4
Take :-
4 3
water is Take water :-
3
(1) 0.15° (2) 1° (3) 2° (4) 0.3°
(1) 0.15° (2) 1° (3) 2° (4) 0.3°
4. A diver looking up through the water in a lack 4. , > ;{
sees the outside world contained in a circular ; (4/3)
horizon. If the refractive index of water is
(4/3) and the eye of the diver is situated 13 cm
13 cm ] ;
below the surface, what is the radius of the :-
horizontal circle :-
(1) 13 × 13 × 5 (2) 13 × (4/3)
(1) 13 × 13 × 5 (2) 13 × (4/3)

(3) 13 × (3/ 7 ) (4) 13 × 7 ×3 (3) 13 × (3/ 7 ) (4) 13 × 7 ×3

5. A ray of light is incident at a small angle of 5. A i
incidence, i, on one face of a prism of angle ;
A (assumed to be small) and emerges normally
from the opposite face. If the refractive index i ; :-
of the prism is , the angle of incidence i, is
A A
nearly ewqual to :- (1) (2)
2
A A A
(1) (2) (3) A (4) A
2 2 (3) A (4)
2

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT/06-10-2019
6. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex 6. , 10 cm
lens is 10 cm and the refractive index is 1.5. 1.5 ;
If the plane surface is silvered, then the focal , :-
length will be:-
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
7. Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light 7. ;
ray is incident. If incident ray is turned by 5° ; 5°
and the mirror by 10°, as shown, the angle 10° ? , :-
turned by the reflected ray is :-
5°
5°
Incident Reflected
ray ray
Incident Reflected 30°
ray ray
30°
10°
10°
(1) 15°,
(1) 15°, clockwise
(2) 25°,
(2) 25°, clockwise
(3) 30°,
(3) 30°, clockwise
(4) 25°, anticlockwise (4) 25°,
8. A thin rod of length (ƒ/3) is placed along the 8. ƒ/3 + [;
principal axis of a concave mirror of focal +
length ƒ such that its image which is real and + ]
elongated, just touches the rod. What is the ƒ ?
magnification ?
3 3
3 3 (1) m = – (2) m =
(1) m = – (2) m = 2 4
2 4
4 4
4 4 (3) m = (4) m = –
(3) m = (4) m = – 3 3
3 3
9. Two convex lens each of focal length 20 cm 9. 20 cm 125 cm
are separated by 125 cm. An object of height , 0.5 cm
0.5 cm placed at distance 25 cm left side from 25 cm
the first lens then, find height of the final image. :-
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 0.5 cm (4) 8 cm (1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 0.5 cm (4) 8 cm
10. A person can see clearly objects only when 10.
they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his 50 cm 400 cm /;
eyes. In order to i ncrease the maximum ,
distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type
:-
and power of the correcting lens, the person
has to use, will be :- (1) , –0.2 dioptre
(1) concave, –0.2 Dioptre (2) , +0.15 dioptre
(2) convex, +0.15 Dioptre
(3) , +2.25 dioptre
(3) convex, +2.25 Dioptre
(4) concave, –0.25 Dioptre (4) , –0.25 dioptre

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11. Interference fringes were produced in Young's 11. }& /; 5000 Å }
–3
double slit experiment using light of 2.5 × 10 cm
wavelength 5000 Å. When a film of material ,
2.5 × 10–3 cm thick was placed over one of the 20 fringe
slits, the fringe pattern shifted by a distance &
equal to 20 fringe widths. The refractive index (1) 1.25 (2) 1.33
of the material of the film is :-
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5
12. Up to what height we should fill the glass of 12. 21 cm
21 cm height with water so that it may appear ?
half filled?
(1) 13.33 cm (2) 12 cm
(1) 13.33 cm (2) 12 cm
(3) 14 cm (4) 15 cm (3) 14 cm (4) 15 cm
13. Light is incident normally on face AB of a 13. AB
prism as shown in the figure. A liquid of AC µ
refractive index µ is placed on face AC to the
3
prism. The prism is made of glass of refractive AC
2
3
index . The limit of µ for which total internal ,µ
2
reflection takes place on face AC is :- ?
Liquid Liquid

A C A 30° C
30° 60°
60°

B B
3 3 3
3 3 3 (1) µ (2) µ
(1) µ (2) µ 2 4
2 4
3 3
(3) µ 3 (4) µ (3) µ 3 (4) µ
2 2
14. For a given medium, the polarizing angle is 60°. 14. /; ,/ ; 60° /;
What will be the critical angle for this medium? , ?
–1
(1) sin –1 (0.577) (2) sin –1 (0.177) (1) sin (0.577) (2) sin –1 (0.177)
(3) sin –1 (0.277) (4) sin –1 (0.415) (3) sin –1 (0.277) (4) sin –1 (0.415)
15. For distinct interference pattern to be observed, 15. ,;
necessary condition is that ratio of intensity of
light emission by both the sources should be:- :-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
16. A ray of light is incident on the plane mirror 16. ,
at rest. The mirror starts turning at a uniform , 4 rad/s2 ? : ]
acceleration of 4 rad/s2.The reflected ray at
1
1 s ? ?
the end of s must have turned through 4
4
(1) 90° (2) 45° (3) 22.5° (4) 11.25°
(1) 90° (2) 45° (3) 22.5° (4) 11.25°
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT/06-10-2019
17. If the coordinates of position of object are 17. (–60cm, 6cm) ]
(–60cm, 6cm) then coordinate of the image
will be Y
Y
(–60cm, 6cm)

\\\\\\
(–60cm, 6cm) f = 40cm

\\\\\\
f = 40cm

\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
Object

\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
Object X' X
X' X

Y'
Y'
(1) (–120cm, 12cm) (2) (–120cm,–12cm)
(1) (–120cm, 12cm) (2) (–120cm,–12cm)
(3) (–60cm,–12cm) (4) none of these (3) (–60cm,–12cm) (4)
18. An object is placed at a distance of 30cm from 18. 20cm , , 30cm
a convex lens of focal length 20cm on the other
side of the lens a convex mirror is placed at its }
focus such that the image formed by ,
combination coincides with the object itself.
Find the focal length of convex mirror.

O C
O C

30 cm 20 cm
30 cm 20 cm
(1) 20cm (2) 10cm (3) 15cm (4) 30cm
(1) 20cm (2) 10cm (3) 15cm (4) 30cm
19. Maximum height reached by a rocket fired 19. 60%
with a speed equal to 60% of the escape } %&
velocity from earth's surface is :-
R 16R 9R R
R 16R 9R R (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 9 16 8
2 9 16 8
20. The gravitational field due to a mass
20. ; { =
K
K E , X- ]}
distribution is given by E in X-direction. x3
x3
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at ; ; ] x
infinity, find its value at a distance x.
K 2K 4K 2K K 2K 4K 2K
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2x 2 3x 2 x4 x3 2x 2 3x 2 x4 x3
21. The escape velocity from a spherical planet is 21. ; v
v. The escape velocity corresponding to /; ? ,
another planet of twice the radius and half the :-
mean density is :-
v
(1) 2v (2) (3) 2 v (4) 4 v
v 2
(1) 2v (2) (3) 2 v (4) 4 v
2

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22. Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of 22. f1 f2
frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the ; % v1 v2
photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are
:-
respectively (v 1 and v2) then :-
1/2
1/2 2h
2h (1) v1 v 2 (f1 f2 )
(1) v1 v 2 (f1 f2 ) m
m
2 2h
2 2 2h (2) v1 v 22 (f1 f2 )
(2) v 1 v 2 (f1 f2 ) m
m
1/ 2
1/ 2 2h
2h (3) v1 v2 (f1 f2 )
(3) v1 v2 (f1 f2 ) m
m

2h 2 2h
2
(4) v1 v 22 (f1 f2 ) (4) v1 v 22 (f1 f2 )
m m
23. If maximum velocity with which an electron can 23.
be emitted from a photo cell is 4 × 108 cm/s the 4 × 108 cm/s (
stopping potential is (mass of electron = 9×10–31 kg) = 9×10–31 kg)
(1) 30 volt (1) 30 volt
(2) 45 volt (2) 45 volt
(3) 59 volt (3) 59 volt
(4) information insufficient (4)
24. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle 24. 2.25 × 108 m/s
moving with a velocity 2.25 × 108 m/s is equal /; , /;
to the wavelength of a photon the ratio of , (
kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of
3 × 108 m/s):-
the photon is (velocity of light is 3 × 108 m/s):-
1 3 5 7
1 3 5 7 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 8 8 8 8
8 8 8 8
25. An electron is moving through a field. It is moving 25. , {= ; (i) {=
(i) opposite an electric field (ii) perpendicular to (ii) ;{=
a magnetic field as shown, for each situation the
de-Broglie wave length of electron :-
/; :-

v v v
v e–
e– e–
E e– E
B B
(1) Increasing, increasing (1) <+ ] <+
(2) Increasing, decreasing (2) <+ ]?
(3) Decreasing, same (3) ]
(4) Same, same
(4) ]
26. In a radioactive substance at t = 0 the number
of atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3 years. 26. ;t=0 , ;
The number of atoms 1 × 104 will remain after [; 8 × 104 3 ;
interval :- 4
; [; 1 × 10 :-
(1) 9 years (2) 8 years (3) 6 years (4) 24 years (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 24
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27. Radioactive I131 has a half life of 8.0 days. A 27. I131 8.0 ,
131
sample containing I131 has activity 20 µci at I t=0 20 µci t = 4.0
t = 0. What is its activity at t = 4.0 days :- &
(1) 28 ci (2) 14 ci (1) 28 ci (2) 14 ci
(3) 32 ci (4) 7 ci (3) 32 ci (4) 7 ci
28. A nucleus contains 30 neutrons. The ratio of 28. [; 30
radii of nucleus to that of Helium nucleus is (14)1/3
(14)1/3. The atomic number of nucleus will be:- :-
(1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 56 (4) 30 (1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 56 (4) 30
29. The length of a rubber cord is l1 metre (when 29. , 4N l1
the tension is 4N) and l 2 metre (when the 6N l2
tension is 6N) respectively. The length (when 9N :-
tension is 9N) is :-
(1) (2.5 l2 – 1.5 l1)m (2) (6 l2 – 1.5 l1)m
(1) (2.5 l2 – 1.5 l1)m (2) (6 l2 – 1.5 l1)m
(3) (3 l1 – 2 l2)m (4) (3.5 l2 – 2.5 l1)m (3) (3 l1 – 2 l2)m (4) (3.5 l2 – 2.5 l1)m
30. A U-tube with limbs of diameter 5mm and 2mm 30. U- %
contains water of surface tension 7 × 10–2N/m 5mm 2mm
–2
angle of contact 0º and density 103 kg/m3. If 7 × 10 N/m 0º ? 103 kg/m3
g = 10 m/s2 the difference is levels in the two g = 10 m/s2
limbs is :- :-
(1) 8.4 mm (2) 8.4 cm (1) 8.4 mm (2) 8.4 cm
(3) 8.4 m (4) 0.84 mm (3) 8.4 m (4) 0.84 mm
31. If the excess pressure inside a soap bubble is 31. , ; 2mm
balanced by an oil column of height 2mm, then ?
the surface tension of soap solution will be
(r = 1cm ? d = 0.8 gm/cc) :-
(r = 1cm and density d = 0.8 gm/cc) :-
(1) 3.9 N/m (2) 3.9 × 10–2 N/m (1) 3.9 N/m (2) 3.9 × 10–2 N/m
(3) 3.9 × 10–3 N/m (4) 3.9 dyne/m (3) 3.9 × 10–3 N/m (4) 3.9 dyne/m
32. Eight spherical rain drops of the same mass and 32. 6 cms–1
radius are falling down with a terminal speed
; ; ,
of 6 cms–1. If they coalesce to form one big
drop. What will be the terminal speed of the :-
bigger drop :- (1) 1.5 cm s–1 (2) 6 cm s–1
(1) 1.5 cm s–1 (2) 6 cm s–1
(3) 24 cm s–1 (4) 32 cm s–1
(3) 24 cm s–1 (4) 32 cm s–1
33. A wooden ball of mass m and density is tied 33. m ,
to a string the other end of the string is fixed ,
to the bottom of a tank. The tank it filled with
a liquid of density with > . What is the
tension is the string :- ] &

(1) mg (2) mg (1) mg (2) mg

mg mg mg mg
(3) (4) (3) (4)

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34. Water from a tap emerges vertically 34. / 1.0 m/s

downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 m/s. The { = 10 –4 m 2
cross-sectional area of the tap is 10 –4 m 2 .
0.15 m / {= :-
Assume that the pressure is constant through
out the stream of water and the flow is steady. (1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2
The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15 m (2) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
below the tap is :-
(3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2
(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2 (2) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
(3) 5.0 × 10 m–5 2
(4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2 (4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
35. Air is streaming past a horizontal air plane wing 35. /
such that its speed is 120 m/s over the upper 120 m/s
surface and 90 m/s at the lower surface. If the 90 m/s ; ? 1.3 kg/m3
density of air is 1.3 kg/m 3 and wing area is
{ 20 m2 /;
20 m2 the pressure difference on the two sides
:-
of the wing is :-
(1) 4095.0 pascal (2) 409.50 pascal (1) 4095.0 pascal (2) 409.50 pascal
(3) 40.95 pascal (4) 4.0950 pascal (3) 40.95 pascal (4) 4.0950 pascal
36. For the pitch of a screw 0.1 cm and 36. ( ) 0.1 cm ;
200 divisions on circular scale. The least count 200 :-
will be :
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm (4) 0.0005 mm (3) 0.005 mm (4) 0.0005 mm
37. Volume of liquid flowing per second through 37. ;
4 4
K x 2 x1 K x 2 x1
a capillary tube is given by V V ] x1 x2
y 2 y1 y 2 y1
where x1 and x2 are inner and outer radii and ] y2 y1 }
y2 and y1 are positions crossed by the liquid.
The dimensional formula for K is :-
K ; = :-
(1) M0L0T0 (2) MLT2 (1) M0L0T0 (2) MLT2
(3) ML–1T–1 (4) M0L0T–1 (3) ML–1T–1 (4) M0L0T–1
38. If a car at rest accelerated uniformly to a speed
38. , , :
of 144 km/hour in 20 second it covers a
; 20 second 144 km/hour
distance :
;
(1) 400 m (2) 1440 m (3) 2880 m (4) 25 m
(1) 400 m (2) 1440 m (3) 2880 m (4) 25 m
39. A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 m high.
39. 122.5 m 2
After the first ball has fallen for 2 second, a
second ball is thrown straight down after it, what ,;
must be the initial velocity of the second ball be, ,
so that both the balls hit the surface of water at (1) 26.1 m/s
the same time ? (2) 9.8 m/s
(1) 26.1 m/s (2) 9.8 m/s (3) 55.5 m/s
(3) 55.5 m/s (4) 49 m/s (4) 49 m/s
40. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity 40. ;
at half of the height is 10 m/s, then the maximum 10 m/s
height attained by it will be : (g = 10 m/s2)
: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 25 m
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 25 m
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT/06-10-2019
41. Which of the following is endothermic 41. :-
process:- –
(1) S(g) S(g)
–
(1) S(g) S (g)
–
– (2) Na (g) Cl(g) NaCl (s)
(2) Na (g) Cl(g) NaCl (s)
–
–
(3) N (g) N(g) (3) N (g) N(g)
2
(4) Al (g) Al (g)3 (4) Al (g)2 Al (g)3
42. In which of the following pair of elements, both 42. ;
elements have same no. of e– in their outer most e –
[; :-
shell:- (1) Na, Ca (2) Mn, Cu
(1) Na, Ca (2) Mn, Cu (3) Cu, K (4) P, Se (3) Cu, K (4) P, Se
43. Which of the following has least ionisation 43. :-
energy :- (1) Li (2) Ba
(1) Li (2) Ba (3) Cs (4) Ca (3) Cs (4) Ca
44. Which of the following process is exothermic:- 44. :-
(1) O + S– S + O– (1) O + S– S + O–
+
(2) He + Ne Ne + He+ (2) He + Ne +
Ne + He+
(3) N + O+ N+ + O (3) N + O+ N+ + O
(4) Cl + F– F + Cl– (4) Cl + F– F + Cl–
45. Which order of radius is correct :- 45.
(1) Ni > Cu > Zn (2) Ti < Zr < Hf (1) Ni > Cu > Zn (2) Ti < Zr < Hf
–3 –2 –
(3) N < O < F (4) Sc < Y < La (3) N–3 < O–2 < F – (4) Sc < Y < La
46. Which of the following is not a correct match:- 46.
(1) [Ar] 3d 5 4s1 ; 4th period , 6th group, d block (1) [Ar] 3d 5 4s1 ; 4th period , 6th group, d block
(2) [Kr] 4d 10 ; 5th period , 12th group, d block (2) [Kr] 4d 10 ; 5th period , 12th group, d block
(3) [Rn] 7s2 6d2 ; 7th period , 3rd group, f block (3) [Rn] 7s2 6d2 ; 7th period , 3rd group, f block
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 ; 6th period , 4th group, d block (4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 ; 6th period , 4th group, d block
47. Which of the following combination of atomic 47.
orbitals does not form bond. If z axis is ; z ; &
internuclear axis.
(1) px + px (2) dxz + dxz
(1) px + px (2) dxz + dxz
(3) px + dxz (4) pz + dyz (3) px + dxz (4) pz + dyz
48. Which of the following molecules has p –p 48. p –p :-
bond:- (1) XeO 4 (2) SiO2 (3) XeO2F 2 (4) C3O2
(1) XeO 4 (2) SiO2 (3) XeO2F 2 (4) C3O2
49. XeOF4 Xe d
49. In XeOF4 molecule, which d orbital of Xe is not
:-
involved in bond formation :-
(1) d x 2 y 2 (2) dxz (3) dyz (4) None (1) d x 2 y2
(2) dxz (3) dyz (4) None
50. Which of the following has maximum bond angle:- 50. :-
(1) H2 O (2) OF 2 (3) NH3 (4) NCl3 (1) H2 O (2) OF 2 (3) NH3 (4) NCl3
51. In which of the following conversion, 51.
Hybridization of underlined atom is changed:- :-
(1) BF 3 + NH3 — [BF 3.NH3] (1) BF 3 + NH3 — [BF 3.NH3]
(2) NO2 — N2O4 (2) NO2 — N2O4
(3) C F3 — C2F 6 (3) C F3 — C2F 6
(4) BeCl2(g) — BeCl2(s) (4) BeCl2(g) — BeCl2(s)

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52. Select correct order of dipole moment :- 52. }/ :-
(1) NH3 < NF3 (2) H2O > NH3 (1) NH3 < NF3 (2) H2O > NH3
(3) H2O < HF (4) PCl3F2 > PCl2F3 (3) H2O < HF (4) PCl3F2 > PCl2F3
53. Which of the following molecular species is 53. 2p HOMO
having 2p as HOMO (highest occupies :-
molecular orbital) :- (1) O 2 (2) N2
(1) O 2 (2) N2 (3) C2 (4) F2 (3) C2 (4) F2
54. Which of the following is not a correct 54. :-
match :- (1) HCl > HBr > HI > HF ;
(1) HCl > HBr > HI > HF ; order of volatility (2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He ;
(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He ; ease of liquification
(3) H2O2 > H2O > NH3 ; enthalpy of vaporisation (3) H2O2 > H2O > NH3 ;
(4) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 ; boiling point order (4) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 ;
55. Which of the following is not related with 55. ; /
polarisation in ionic compounds :- :-
(1) AgF is water soluble while AgI is water (1) AgF ; AgI ;
insoluble. (2) LiCl , ]
(2) LiCl is more soluble in alcohol, pyridine ;
than in H2O. (3) SnCl4 , SnCl2
(3) SnCl4 hydrolyses easily as compared SnCl2
(4) Melting point of AlF3 is lower than Al2O3 (4) AlF3 Al2O3
56. Which of the following does not give CO2 on 56. CO2 -
heating. (1) Li2CO3 (2) MgCO3
(1) Li2CO3 (2) MgCO3
(3) CaCO3 (4) Na2CO 3 (3) CaCO3 (4) Na2CO 3
57. Which of the following is a non redox reaction:- 57. :-

(1) PbO2 (2) Li2CO3 (1) PbO2 (2) Li2CO3

(3) LiNO3 (4) NH4(Cr2O7)2 (3) LiNO3 (4) NH4(Cr2O7)2

58. In which of the following molecule vacant 58.
p orbital of underlined atom is involved in p
bond formation :-
(1) N(SiH3)3 (2) PF 3
(1) N(SiH3)3 (2) PF 3
(3) B3N3H6 (4) None (3) B3N3H6 (4) None
59. In which of the following hybridization of 59. ;
bridging atom is same as of central atom :- :-
(1) BeCl 2 (Dimer) (2) AlCl3 (Dimer) (1) BeCl 2 (Dimer) (2) AlCl3 (Dimer)
(3) ICl3 (Dimer) (4) None (3) ICl3 (Dimer) (4)
60. Which of the following gives oxy acid of side 60.
atom on hydrolysis :- :-
(1) BCl3 (2) PCl3 (1) BCl3 (2) PCl3
(3) NCl3 (4) ClF3 (3) NCl3 (4) ClF3
61. In which of the following oxy acid X–X bond 61. X–X
is not present (X-central atom) :- (X- ; ) :-
(1) H4P 2O6 (2) H2S 2O5 (1) H4P 2O6 (2) H2S 2O5
(3) H2S 4O6 (4) H2S 2O7 (3) H2S 4O6 (4) H2S 2O7
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62. Select correct match :- 62. :-
(1) Ca2Cu2Si3O10.4H2O ; cyclic silicate (1) Ca2Cu2Si3O10.4H2O ; cyclic silicate
(2) Be3Al2Si6O18 ; single chain silicate (2) Be3Al2Si6O18 ; single chain silicate
(3) Zn3Si2O7.Zn(OH)2.3H2O ; pyro silicate (3) Zn3Si2O7.Zn(OH)2.3H2O ; pyro silicate
(4) ZrSiO4 ; 2-D silicate (4) ZrSiO4 ; 2-D silicate
63. Metals having low boiling point are purified by: 63. / :-
(1) Distillation (2) Poling (1) (2)
(3) Liquation (4) Slag (3) (4)
64. In thermite process, which is used as reducing 64. :-
agent :- (1) Fe (2) Cr
(1) Fe (2) Cr (3) Al (4) Mn (3) Al (4) Mn
65. The number of cis-trans isomer possible for the 65. G.I ?
following compound :

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

66. Geometrical isomerism is shown by : 66. ; G.I show ?
H CH3 H CH3
(1) C=C (1) C=C
H H H H

I CH3 I CH3
(2) C=C (2) C=C
CH3 H CH3 H

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(3) C=C (3) C=C
CH3 H CH3 H

Br CH3 Br CH3
(4) C=C (4) C=C
Br H Br H
67. In the given conformation, if C2 is rotated about 67. C2–C3 120º
C2–C3 bond anticlockwise by an angle of 120°
then the conformation obtained is : 4 CH
3
4 CH
3
H H
H H
3
H 2 H
3
H 2 H
1 CH3
1 CH3
(1) fully eclipsed conformation (1) fully eclipsed conformation
(2) partially eclipsed conformation (2) partially eclipsed conformation
(3) gauche conformation (3) gauche conformation
(4) staggered conformation (4) staggered conformation

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68. Which of the following compound is achiral? 68.

O O O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O O O

O O O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)
O O O O
69. What is the configuration of the following 69.
compound ?

CH3 CH3
H Cl H Cl
Cl H Cl H
CH2CH 3 CH2CH 3

(1) 2S, 3R (2) 3R, 3S (1) 2S, 3R (2) 3R, 3S

(3) 2S, 3S (4) 2R, 3R (3) 2S, 3S (4) 2R, 3R
70. Given molecules are: 70. ; /;
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH HO H
Cl H H3 C H Cl H H3 C H
CH3 Cl CH3 Cl
(1) Identical (2) Diastereomers (1) Identical (2) Diastereomers
(3) Enantiomers (4) Structural isomers (3) Enantiomers (4) Structural isomers
71. Which of the following compounds has 71. ?
restricted rotation ?
H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3
(1) C=C (1) C=C
H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3

CH3 CH3
(2) C (2) C
H H

(3) C C (3) C C

(4) All of these (4) All of these

72. The correct configuration assigned for 72. %
compound (i) and (ii) respectively is :
COOH CH 3
COOH CH 3
H CH3 C
H CH3 C (i) (ii) HOOC
(i) (ii) HOOC COOCH3
COOCH3 COOCH 3 H
COOCH 3 H
(1) R, R (2) S, S (3) S, R (4) R, S (1) R, R (2) S, S (3) S, R (4) R, S

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73. How many stereoisomers can exist for the 73.
following acid ?
H–C(OH) CO2H H–C(OH) CO2H
H–C CO 2H H–C CO 2H
H–C(OH) CO2H H–C(OH) CO2H
(1) Two (2) Four (1) Two (2) Four
(3) Eight (4) Sixteen (3) Eight (4) Sixteen
74. Which out of the following is aromatic 74. ,
hydrocarbon ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

O O

(3) (4) (3) (4)

N N
75. Stability order of the following resonating 75.
structure will be :

O O O O

O O O O
(i) (ii) (i) (ii)

O O O O

O O O O
(iii) (iv) (iii) (iv)

(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv (1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv
(3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) i > iii > ii > iv (3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) i > iii > ii > iv
76. Arrange stability of the given carbocation in 76.
decreasing order :

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

(i) (ii) (i) (ii)

OCH3 CH3 OCH3 CH3

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

(iii) (iv) (iii) (iv)

NH2 Cl NH2 Cl
(1) ii > ii < i > iv (2) i > ii > iii > iv (1) ii > ii < i > iv (2) i > ii > iii > iv
(3) iii > i > ii > iv (4) ii > iii > i < iv (3) iii > i > ii > iv (4) ii > iii > i < iv

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77. Most stable carbocation is : 77. &

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH2 CH2

(3) (4) (3) (4)

78. Which of the following acids has lowest value 78. Ka minimum
of dissociation constant ?
(1) CH3—CH—COOH (1) CH3—CH—COOH
F F
(2) CH2—CH2—COOH (2) CH2—CH2—COOH
F F
(3) CH2—CH 2—COOH (3) CH2—CH 2—COOH
Br Br
(4) CH3—CH—COOH (4) CH3—CH—COOH
Br Br
79. The resonance energy of each of the following 79.
is :

(i) (i)

(ii) (ii)

(iii) (iii)

(1) i > ii > iii (2) ii > iii > i (1) i > ii > iii (2) ii > iii > i
(3) i > iii > ii (4) iii > ii > i (3) i > iii > ii (4) iii > ii > i
80. Which of the following is a pair of resonance 80.
structure ?

+ +
(1) + (1) +

(2) + (2) +
O OH O OH

(3) (3)

(4) + + + +
(4)

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81. Given below is a DNA segment showing 81. DNA
components of lac operon :- :-
P i P O z y a P i P O z y a
In this lac operon : :
(1) Only z, y, a genes are transcribed (1) z, y, a
(2) RNA polymerase binds to operator site (2) RNA polymerase
(3) High amount of glucose induce the expression (3)
of structural genes
(4) Access of RNA polymerase to promoter is (4) RNA , }
induced by allolactose

82. 82.

Given structure exhibit %&

(1) A nucleoside of RNA (2) A nucleotide of RNA (1) RNA (2) RNA
(3) A nucleoside of DNA (4) A nucleotide of DNA (3) DNA (4) DNA
83. What shall be the blood group of father, if the 83. ‘O’ ]
mother and baby both are 'O' blood group type?
(1) AB (1) AB
(2) A, B or O (2) A, B O
(3) A with homozygous genotype (3) A
(4) B with homozygous genotype (4) B
84. Which of the following is not a salient feature 84. , [;
of Human Genome project?
(1) Less than 2% of the genome codoes for proteins (1) 2%
(2) About 1.4 million locations occur as single (2) 1.4 , [
nucleotide differences called SNPs SNPs
(3) Human's largest gene present on chromosome 1 (3) 1
(4) Chromosome 1 has most genes and Y has the (4) =, =Y
fewest
85. Match the column–I with column–II ? 85. –I –II ,?
Column - I Column - II -I - II
(i) Golden rice (A) Increased shelf (i) Golden rice (A) Increased
life shelf life
(ii) Flavr savr (B) HGH (ii) Flavr savr (B) HGH
tomato
tomato
(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A
(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A
(iv) Brassica (D) Hirudin (iv) Brassica (D) Hirudin
napus napus

(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D (1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A (2) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D (3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C (4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

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86. Which part would be most suitable for raising 86. ( ) ,
virus free plants for micropropagation ? , ?
(1) Meristem (2) Node (1) ( ) (2) ( )
(3) Bark (4) Vascular tissue (3) (4) ;
87. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of 87. ;
a certain type of traits in humans. Which one [ ( )
of the following conditions could be an , ,
example of this pattern? ,

Female Male
Mother Father

Daughter Son =

(1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemia (1) (2)

(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Sickle cell anaemia (3) (4)
88. Select the incorrect statement for continuous 88. = , ;
culture system :- , :-
(1) In this used medium is drained out from (1) , , /; ,
one side while fresh medium is added from /;
other side.
(2) In this cells are maintained in their (2) ;:
physiologically less active lag phase of ; (lag) ,
growth.
(3) It produces larger biomass (3)
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product. (4)
89. Read the following four statements (A-D) 89. (A-D) <;
(A) Inner wall of pollen grain is pecto-cellulosic (A)
in nature.
(B) In pollen grain generative cell is bigger and (B)
contains abundant food reserve [|
(C) In all angiosperms, pollen grain are shed at (C) 2 ;
2-celled stage
(D) Sporogenous cell directly behaves as the (D) ;{ :
megaspore mother cell
How many of the above statements are wrong? ?
(1) Four (2) One (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
90. Geitonogamy does not occur in :- 90. :-
(1) Monoecious plant (2) Dioecious plant (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) All angiosperms (3) (1) (2) (4) ,
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91. Which one of the following option gives the 91. ,
correct characterisation of layers of anther wall (A, (A, B, C) ;
B, C) according to the their nature or function:- :-

A B C
A B C
Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum ,. /;
(1) Hygroscopic Callose Ubisch body (1) ;
bands
(2)
(2) Protection Ephemeral Dehiscence
(3) |
(3) Hygroscopic Storage of Nourishes
food granules ;
(4) Ephemeral Nourishes Stroge of food (4) |
granules ;

92. Choose the correct sequence in artificial 92.

hybridisation/pollination
(1) Selection of parent plant, bagging, (1) ] ] ] ]
emasculation, pollen dusting, rebagging
(2) Selection of parent plant, emasculation, (2) ] ] ] ]
bagging, pollen dusting, rebagging
(3) Selection of parent plant, pollen dusting, (3) ] ] ] ]
bagging, emasculation, rebagging
(4) Selection of parent plant, bagging, (4) ] ] ] ]
emasculation, rebagging, pollen dusting
93. A typical dicotyledons embryo consist of 93.
(1) Embryonal axis (1) ;
(2) Cotyledons (2) =
(3) (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Embryonal axis and seed coat (4) ;
94. In angiosperm after fertilization normally :- 94. :-
(1) The zygote divides earlier than the primary (1) ]
endosperm nucleus.
(2) The primary endosperm nucleus divides (2) ];
earlier than the zygote.
(3) Both the zygote and primary endosperm (3) ,
nuclei divides simultaneously
(4) Both the zygote and primary endosperm (4)
nuclei undergo a resting phase.
95. Parthenocarpy is not advantageous in those 95. :-
plants in which ?
(1) [| (2) [|
(1) Epicarp is edible (2) Mesocarp is edible
(3) ,. [| (4) [|
(3) Endocarp is edible (4) Seeds are edible

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96. Testa of a seed is produced by : 96. ?
(1) Hilum of ovule (1)
(2) Ovary wall (2) ;
(3) Funicle (3)
(4) Outer integument of Ovule (4) /;
97. Select the correct statement :- 97. ; , :-
(1) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of (1) < <+
skin called fore skin.
(2) The male accessory glands include paired (2) ; ;]
seminal vesicle, unpaired prostate and , ;
paired bulbourethral glands.
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Penis is primary sex organ (4)
98. ............. which affects many people in our 98. .............
society is an auto-immune disease :- :-
(1) Goitre (2) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) (2)
(3) Polio (4) Urticaria (3) (4)
99. Morphogenetic movements occur in : 99. ] &
(1) Zygote (1)
(2) Morula stage of embryo (2)
(3) Blastula stage of embryo (3)
(4) Gastrula stage of embryo (4)
100. Which of the following statement is incorrect 100. ; ;
about amoebic dysentry? &
(1) It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica (1) ,. }
(2) Culex mosquito act as a mechanical carrier (2) ;
(3) It is a parasite of large intestine (3) =
(4) Patients suffer from constipation, abdominal (4) ] ] ; ,
pain and cramps.
101. Which of the following statement is false ? 101. ; &
(1) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs (1) } AIDS
is only partially effective. :
(2) Normal cells show a property called contact (2) ; ,
inhibition.
(3) Treatment of AIDS can only prolong the life (3) AIDS <+
of the patient but cannot prevent death, ;
which is inevitable.
(4) B-helper cell continue to produce HIV and (4) B HIV
in this way acts as HIV factory. HIV
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102. Match the column 'A' with column 'B' and 102. 'A' 'B' ,, ;
select the correct option : ,:
Column A Column B A B

Physiological (A) ; (i)

(A) (i) Interferon
barrier
Physical (B) (ii)
(B) (ii) Skin and mucosa
barrier
Cytokine PMNL, monocytes PMNL,
(C) (iii) (C) (iii)
barrier & NK cells NK

Cellular ;
(D) (iv) Fever and HCl (D) (iv) HCl
Barrier
Option :- Option :-
(1) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii (1) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii (2) A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv (3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv (4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
103. Match the column-I and column-II :- 103. -I -II , :-
Column-I Column-II -I -II
A. One month of (i) Major organ system A. (i) [;
pregnancy formed
B. Second month (ii) First movements of B. ; (ii)
of pregnancy foetus
C. Fifth month of (iii) Limbs and digits C. (iii)
pregnancy develops
D. First trimester (iv) Embryo's heart is D. (iv) ;
of pregnancy formed

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) (1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
104. Select the incorrect statement :- 104. ; , :-
(1) IUDS within 72 hours of coitus have been (1) 72 ? IUDS
found to be very effective as emergency :
contraceptive
(2) In intrauterine insemination, semen from (2) %
husband or donor can be used.
(3) Indian population crossed 1.2 billion in may (3) [; 2001 1.2
2001.
(4) 'Saheli' is anti estrogenic weekly pill. (4) ,
105. Animal husbandry and plant breeding 105. :-
programme are examples of :-
(1) (2)
(1) reverse evalution (2) artificial selection
(3) mutation (4) natural selection (3) (4)

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106. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved 106.
because :- :-
(1) The young ones are left on their own (1) +
(2) The young ones are protected by thick shell (2)
(3) The young ones are protected inside the (3)
mother body and are looked after when they
are born leading to more chances of survival <+
(4) The embryo takes time to develop (4) ;
107. Male moth recognise female moth of their 107.
species by sensing pheromones signals. This ; :-
is an example of :-
(1) ; (2) ;
(1) Gametic isolation (2) Habitat isolation
(3) Behavioural isolation (4) Mechanical isolation (3) (4)
108. The Industrial melanism phenomenon demostrate:- 108. :-
(1) Gene mutation (2) Genetic drift (1) (2)
(3) Natural selection (4) 2 and 3 both (3) (4) 2 3
109. Evolution term and survival of fittest basic idea 109. ;
was given by :- :-
(1) A.R. wallace (2) Aristotle (1) (2)
(3) Herbert spancer (4) Plato (3) (4)
110. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by:- 110. ; ; :-
(1) Ability to defend itself (1) ;
(2) Strategy to obtain food (2) {
(3) Number of off spring (3) [;
(4) Dominence over other individuals (4)
111. Which of the following has led to large scale 111.
bee keeping practices :- <+ :-
(1) Use of honey in polishes of various kind (1)
(2) Use of honey in paints and cosmetics (2)
(3) Increased demand of honey (3) <+
(4) All of the above (4)
112. The mating of more closely related individuals 112. /; 4-6 <+
within the same breed for 4-6 generations is :-
termed as :- (1) % (2) %
(1) Out crossing (2) Inbreeding
(3) Cross breeding (4) Inter specific hybridisation (3) (4) %
113. Match the column I with column II :- 113. I II :-
Column I Column II Column I Column II
Name of countries Name of grassland Name of countries Name of grassland
(i) New Zealand (a) Prairies (i) New Zealand (a) Prairies
(ii) Russia (b) Pampas (ii) Russia (b) Pampas
(iii) South Africa (c) Stepps (iii) South Africa (c) Stepps
(iv) South America (d) Veldts (iv) South America (d) Veldts
(v) Canada North America (e) Tussock (v) Canada North America (e) Tussock
(1) i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b, v-a (1) i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b, v-a
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-e, v-a (3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-e, v-a
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-a, v-b (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-a, v-b
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114. Which interaction shows co-evolution ? 114. ?
(1) Hermit crab and sea anemone (1) &,
(2) Bee and orchid (2) +
(3) Clown fish and sea anemone (3) ,
(4) Epiphytes (4)
115. Succession of plant community on rocky area 115. ; ]
which was previously unoccupied and self } ]
replacement of communities was found, is/are :-
called :- (a)
(a) Primary succession (b)
(b) Autogenic succession
(c)
(c) Autotrophic succession
(d)
(d) Secondary succession
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, a (4) a, b, c (3) c, d, a (4) a, b, c
116. Natural and human induced disturbances, can 116. ;
convert a particular seral stage of succession ;
to an earlier stage it is called as :- :-
(1) Primary succession (1)
(2) Secondary succession (2)
(3) Progressive succession (3)
(4) Retrogressive succession (4)
117. Which is not correct about wetlands ? 117. ; ?
(1) They include marshes, swamps and low (1) ]
land along with streams
(2) They occupy 26% of the world's land surface (2) 26% ?
(3) They help in cleaning and purifying water runoff (3)
(4) Marine wetlands provide food and habitat (4) ] [;
to numerous organisms
118. Causes of Allogenic succession is :- 118. ;= :-
(a) Self community (a) ;
(b) Physiogarphic factor (b)
(c) Fire (c)
(d) Human activity (d)
(1) a (2) b,c (3) c,d (4) b,c,d (1) a (2) b,c (3) c,d (4) b,c,d
119. Which of the following is not an symptoms for 119. :-
Altitude Sickness ? (1) <+
(1) Increasing breathing rate
(2) ;
(2) Increase Heart palpitations
(3)
(3) Nausea
(4) Fatigueness (4)
120. Species diversity occur in :- 120. :-
(1) Individuals of same species in particular area (1) ,
(2) Individuals of same species in different area (2) ,
(3) Population (3) (Population)
(4) Community (4) ;

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DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 [; 121 180 ,
These questions consist of two statements each, ,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
; , ,
answering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A. , ;
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B. , ; ] ]
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
C. ; ] ;
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.
D. ;
121. Assertion :- If an object placed on the optic axis 121. :-
of a lens is illuminated by white light, then image ]
formed will be coloured and not exactly white. ,
Reason :- The lens has different focal lengths :-
for different colours.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion :- It is not possible to see a virtual 122. :- } ( )
image by eye.
Reason :- The rays that seem to emanate from :- ( )
a virtual image do not in fact emanate from the
image.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion :- When the upper half of a converging 123. :- ,
lens is missing, a real image formed by the lens ]
for a real object will lack its lower half.
Reason :- The real image formed by a thin lens :- , }
for a real object will be always erected.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion :- Focal length of lens depends on 124. :-
refractive index of surrounding.

3 4
Reason :- Convex lens in water :- ,
2 3

4 3
will behave as diverging lens.
3 2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. Assertion :- A real object is kept on principal axis 125. :- [;
of mirror. Size of image measured is equal to size ;
of object. The mirror must be a plane mirror.
Reason :- For any mirror, magnification is unity. :- ,
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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126. Assertion :- Consider a combination of two thin 126. :-
lenses in contact. If the combination has to ; ;{ ,
behave as an achromatic system with a non-zero ;
power, the two lenses then must be of different
materials, must have different focal lengths and
must be opposite nature.
Reason :- Condition for acromatism of two thin :-

lenses in contact is 1 2
0 ; here and
1 2
0
f1 f2
1 2 f1 f2 1 2

are dispersive powers of the materials of the lenses f1 f2

and f1 and f2 are their focal lengths respectively. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion :- In a simple microscope, image 127. :- ] ,
formed is virtual, erect and magnified.
Reason :- Object to be seen is held between :- ,
optical centre and focus of the convex lens.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion :- Deviation produced by a prism 128. :- }
of refractive index and small angle A is given = ( –1)A
by = ( –1)A.
Reason :- For a prism of refractive index and :-

A A
sin sin
2 2
refraction angle A, and for A
A A
sin sin
2 2

small sin sin

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion :- Time period of simple pendulum 129. :- ? ,
in an orbiting geostationary satellite is infinite.
Reason :- Earth’s gravitational field becomes :- { = .;
negligible at large distance from it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- When planet moves in elliptical 130. :-
orbit around Sun. Its angular momentum about ] ;
sun remains conserved.
Reason :- Total mechanical energy of planet - sun :- ; ;
system remains conserved.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- The viscosity of liquid increases 131. :- <+ <+
rapidly with rise of temperature.
Reason :- Viscosity of a liquid is the property :-
of the liquid by virtue of which it opposses the
relative motion amongst its different layers.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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132. Assertion :- The velocity increases when water 132. :-
flowing in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe <+
Reason :- According to equation of continuity, :- ; {=
product of area and velocity is constant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- Hot soup tastes better than the cold 133. :-
soup.
Reason :- Hot soup spread properly on taste :-
buds due to lower surface tension.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- Stress is the internal restoring force 134. :- {
per unit area of a body.
Reason :- Rubber is more elastic than steel. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion :- Though light of a single frequency 135. :- ;| / ,
is incident. On a metal the energies of emitted
photo electrons are different.
Reason :- The energy of electrons emitted from :- /
inside the metal surface is lost in collisions with / [
the other atoms in the metal.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- Group velocity of matter wave is 136. :- ;
equal to the velocity of particle.
Reason :- Group velocity have no physical :-
signification while phase velocity have
physical significance.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- Density of all nuclei is same. 137. :- ?
Reason :- Radius of nucleus is directly :- [; ?
proportional to the cube root of mass number.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion :- A dimensionally correct equation 138. :- ;:
need not be actually an exact (correct) equation.
Reason :- A dimensionally wrong (incorrect) :- ;: :
or inconsistent equation must be wrong.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- An object can have constant speed 139. :-
but variable velocity.
Reason :- Speed is a scalar but velocity is a :- , ,
vector quantity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- The speed of a body can be negative. 140. :-
Reason :- If the body is moving in the opposite
direction of positive motion, then its speed is :- /
negative.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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141. Assertion :- IE of Ne+ is more than that of Ne. 141. :- Ne+ IE Ne IE
Reason :- Ne has more stable configuration. :- Ne e–
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Covalent radius of F is more than 142. :- F O
covalent radius of O. :- O Zeff F
Reason :- O has more Zeff than F.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
– –
143. Assertion :- Conversion of N (g) — N (g) is 143. :- N(g) — N (g)
endothermic.
:- N e–
Reason :- N has stable half filled configuration.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- F 2 has low bond dissociation 144. :- F2 Cl2
energy that of Cl 2 .
:- F2 Cl2
Reason :- Bond length of F2 is less than that of Cl2.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- Bond angle of NH3 is more than 145. :- NH3 H2O
that of H2 O.
:- NH3 p – bp H2 O
Reason :- In NH3 p – bp repulsion is more
than that of H2 O.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion :- NO and NO2 both are paramagnetic. 146. :- NO2 NO ;
Reason :- NO and NO2 both are linear molecules. :- NO NO2 ;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- PCl5 exist but PH5 does not. 147. :- PCl5 PH5
Reason :- P does not have vacant d-orbital in :- P d-
its valence shell.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- H2O2 is a polar molecule. 148. :- H2O2 / ;
Reason :- In H2 O2 both polar as well as non :- H2O2 / ;, ;
polar bond is present.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- Both O2 and B2 is paramagnetic 149. :- O2 B2 ;
Reason :- Bond order of both O2 and B2 is fraction. :- O2 B2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- o-Nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol 150. :- o- , p- ]
can be separated from each other by fractional ,
distillation. :- p- o-
Reason :- p-nitrophenol has higher boiling
point than o-nitrophenol.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- BF 4– has higher B-F bond length 151. :- BF4– B-F BF3 B-F
than that of BF3 .
Reason :- In BF4– ,B is sp3 hybridised while in :- BF 4– B sp3 BF 3
BF 3 B is sp2 hybridised. sp 2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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152. Assertion :- In froth floatation process, sodium 152. :- ,
ethyl xanthate act as collector.
Reason :- Sulphide ore is soluble in water. :- ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :– The melting point of fumaric acid 153. :–
is higher than that of maleic acid.
Reason :– The molecules of fumaric acid are :–
more symmetric than those of maleic acid and
hence it gets closely arranged in the crystal lattice.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :– trans–1–chloro propene has higher 154. :– –1–
dipole moment than cis–1–chloro propene. – 1–
Reason :– The resultant of two vectors :– –1–
in trans–1–chloropropene is more than in – 1–
cis–1–chloro propene.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :– Trihydroxyglutaric acid 155. :–
(COOH—CHOH—CHOH—CHOH—COOH) (COOH—CHOH—CHOH—CHOH—COOH)
exists in four stereoisomeric forms, two of
which are optically active while the other two :
are meso–forms.
:– ,
Reason :– It contains two asymmetric and one
pseudo–asymmetric carbon atom.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :– All meso form of compound are 156. :– :
optical isomer.
Reason :– Meso form is optically inactive. :– : ;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :– Benzaldehyde forms two oximes 157. :– NH2OH
on reacting with NH2 OH.
Reason :– The two oximes arise due to :– ]C N
geometrical isomerism around C N bond.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :– Pyrrole is a weaker base than its 158. :– ]
hydrogenated product pyrrolidine. {
Reason :– Lone pair of electrons on nitrogen :– , ;
is delocalized in pyrrole.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :– Acidity of the following compounds 159. :– ; ?
decreases in the order
HC CH > CH2 CH2 > CH3 —CH 3
HC CH > CH2 CH2 > CH3—CH3
Reason :– Acidity of the compounds increase
as the electronegativity of the carbon increases :– C–H <+
to which H is attached. ; <+
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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160. Assertion : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much 160. :– ],
more stable than allyl anion.
Reason : Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic :– ,
in character.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Bond present between amino acid 161. :- , t-RNA 3'
and 3' end of t-RNA is ester bond. ,
Reason :- Formation of ester bond takes place :- –COOH
between –COOH group of amino acid and –OH t-RNA 3' –OH
group present on 3' end of t-RNA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- Dominance is an autonomous feature 162. :- ,
of a gene if gene control more than one phenotype.
Reason :- Mendel received recessive progeny :- F1
in F 1 in many crosses.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- In incomplete dominance phenotypic 163. :-
and genotype ratio is similar, in F2 generation. F2 <+ ,
Reason :- In incomplete dominance F 1 :- F1 ,
resemble either one of the parent.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Only one DNA strand is transcribed 164. :- DNA ;[ ,
in a segment of double stranded DNA.
Reason :- More amount of similar proteins can :-
be synthesised if both strands are transcribed.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- During megasporogenesis, 165. :- ]
generally four functional megaspore is formed.
Reason :- Four functional megaspore forms :-
ovule.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- Pollination is never essential for 166. :- ] ,
fertilization in angiosperms.
Reason :- Embryosac is post fertilization :- ]
product in angiosperms.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Pollen grains are well preserved as 167. :-
fossils.
Reason :- The exine of pollen grain is composed :- (exine)
of sporopollenin.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- Endosperm is a post fertilisation 168. :-
product in angiosperms.
Reason :- Endosperm is formed by germination :-
of megaspore.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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169. Assertion :- At the end of menstrual cycle 169. :- %
degeneration of endometrium lead to
menstruation.
:-
Reason :- In the absence of fertilization, corpus
luteum degenerates.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- Testes are formed in abdominal 170. :-
cavity, but before birth they descend to scrotum.
Reason :- Spermatogenesis begin in embryonic :- ;
life.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Amniocentesis is used to detect 171. :-
genetic abnormalities in foetus. ,
Reason :- An ideal contraceptive should not :-
interfere with sexual drive or desire of user.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Graft rejection is mainly due to 172. :- /;
antibody mediated immunity. , [; :
Reason :- Both B and T lymphocytes are :- B T
formed and matured in bone marrow.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Ginko biloba is a living fossil. 173. :- ,
Reason :- Organism which have persisted and :- :
remain unchanged for past several million ;
years. While their other relatives disappeared.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- About 65 mya dianosaurs disappeared 174. :- 65
from this earth.
Reason :- Major climatic change and meteorite :-
content strike was major cause of their extinction. [;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- Apis dorsata yeilds maximum 175. :-
honey per hive.
Reason :- It is easily domesticated honey bee :-
in the world.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Prolonged inbreeding increases 176. :- ; %
productivity and fertility. { <+
Reason :- Prolonged inbreeding increases :- ; %
usefull genes which are eliminated by selection. <+ ;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Rainfall is very less in Tundra biome. 177. :-
Reason :- Precipitation is very high in Tundra biome. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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178. Assertion :- Excessive irrigation without proper 178. :-
drainage of water leads to salinity in the soil.
Reason :- Waterlogging draws salt to the :-
surface of the soil.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- The plants produce highly 179. :- ]
poisonous cardiac glycosides.
Reason :- It is a physiological adaptation of :- ,, ;
plant to protect from cattles.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- In most ecosystems, all the pyramids 180. :- [;
of number of energy and biomass are upright.
Reason :- Trophic level represents a functional :- ],
level not a species.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. Choose the correct alternative that will continue 181. ,
the same pattern and replace the question mark
in the given series. 6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ?
6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ? (1) 201 (2) 202
(1) 201 (2) 202 (3) 203 (4) 205 (3) 203 (4) 205
182. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z 182. A, P, R, X, S Z S Z /
are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting ; A P R, A
to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ? P
(1) A (2) X (3) S (4) Z (1) A (2) X (3) S (4) Z
183. A father is now three times as old as his son. 183. ] =
Five years back, he was four times as old as his ] = =
son. The age of the son (in years) is: ( ) ,:
(1) 12 (2) 15 (1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 18 (4) 20 (3) 18 (4) 20
184. Onam : Kerala : : Pongal : ? 184. : :: :?
(1) Orissa (2) Tamil Nadu (1) (2)
(3) Punjab (4) Gujarat (3) (4)
185. Choose the one which is different from other three. 185. , ;
(1) Beijing (2) Seoul (1) (2)
(3) Tokyo (4) Turkey (3) (4)
186. A seller marks his goods 30% above their cost 186. ; 30%
price but allows 15% discount for cash , 15%
payment. His percentage of profit when sold
in cash, is :
(1) 10.50% (2) 15% (1) 10.50% (2) 15%
(3) 9% (4) 8.50% (3) 9% (4) 8.50%
187. Yen : Japan :: ? 187. : :: ?
(1) Dollar : France (1) :
(2) Euro : Russia (2) :
(3) Franc : Switzerland (3) :
(4) Dinar : Saudi Arabia (4) :

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188. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of acid and 188. 60 , ,
water is 2 : 1. If the ratio of acid and water is 2:1 ; , 1:2 ]
to be 1:2, then the amount of water (in litres) ( )
to be added to the mixture is
(1) 55 (2) 60 (1) 55 (2) 60
(3) 50 (4) 45 (3) 50 (4) 45
189. Which one will replace the question mark ? 189. = [;

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6

190. Find out the next series from the Answer Figure 190. = ,
that follows the sequence of the Question Figure.

Question Figure Question Figure

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer Figure Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

191. Choose a figure which would most closely 191. = , = (Z) [ ,:
resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

X Y Z X Y Z

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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192. Select a figure from the given four alternatives 192. , ,
which fits exactly into Figure-X to form a , , = (X)
complete square.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

193. Whose birth anniversary on August 20 193. 20 :
is commemorated as Sadbhavana Diwas
(harmony day)? (1)
(1) Morarji Desai (2)
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(3)
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Rajiv Gandhi (4)
194. Which of the following has been awarded the 194. [ 2019
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2019?
(1) Virat Kohli (2) Bajrang Punia (1) (2)
(3) Hima Das (4) Mary Kom (3) (4)
195. Who has won the women’s singles US Open 195. 2019 ,
title of 2019?
(1) Venus Williams (1)
(2) Serena Williams (2)
(3) Barbora Strycova (3)
(4) Bianca Andreescu (4) ,
196. Name the country which will host the ICC 196. , 2023
World Cup 2023?
(1) India (2) New Zealand (1) (2)
(3) Pakistan (4) Sri Lanka (3) (4)
197. According to Greenpeace data, which country 197. ]
is the largest emitter of Sulphur dioxide(SO2)? (SO2)
(1) USA (2) China (1) (2)
(3) India (4) Japan (3) (4)
198. Who among the following Presidents held office 198.
for two consecutive terms ? ,
(1) Rajendra Prasad (2) S. Radhakrishnan (1) (2)
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ (4) Zakir Hussain (3) ‘1’ ‘2’ (4)
199. The currency of Brazil is_______ 199. _______
(1) Dollar (2) Ruble (1) (2)
(3) Rial (4) Real (3) (4)
200. ‘Black Revolution’ is related to? 200. ‘ ’
(1) Food grain Production (1)
(2) Petroleum Production (2)
(3) Honey and Horticulture Production (3)
(4) Fish Production (4)

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