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Botany - Section A
1. Consider the given two statements:
Meiosis is responsible for maintaining the
I: chromosome number across generations in
sexually reproducing organisms.
Meiosis results in reduction of chromosome
II:
number by half in the daughter cells.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
2. Mango and wheat belong to the same:
I. Division II. Class III. Order
1. Only I 2. Both I and II
3. Only III 4. I, II, and III
3. Which is the correct set of options with
respect to the following?
1. Dicot stem – Differentiated ground tissue.
Monocot stem – Endarch xylem.
Dicot leaf – Isobilateral leaf.
Monocot leaf – Dorsiventral leaf.
2. Dicot stem – Scattered vascular bundle.
Monocot stem – Arranged vascular bundle.
Dicot leaf – Amphistomatic.
Monocot leaf – Hypostomatic.
Dicot stem – Endodermis is called a starch
3.
sheath.
Monocot stem – Vascular bundle surrounded
by a sclerenchymatous sheath.
Dicot leaf – Palisade and spongy
parenchyma.
Monocot leaf – Stomata present on
both surfaces.
4. Dicot stem – Arranged vascular bundle.
Monocot stem – Endodermis is called a
starch sheath.
Dicot leaf – Amphistomatatic.
Monocot leaf – Palisade and
spongy parenchyma.

4. How many of the comparisons between

Pinus and Cycas given below are correct:
Pinus Cycas
Mycrorrhizal
I: Coralloid roots
associations
II: Stems are branched Stems are unbranched
The male or female
The male or female
cones or strobili are
III: cones or strobili are
borne on different
borne on the same tree
trees
1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3

5. Which of the following amino acids is not an

aromatic amino acid?
1. Tyrosine
2. Tryptophan
3. Threonine
4. Phenylalanine

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6. What is incorrect regarding DNA replication?
For a cell to divide, it must first replicate its
1.
DNA.
DNA replication is an all-or-none process;
2. once replication begins, it proceeds to
completion.
DNA replication (DNA amplification) cannot
3. be performed in vitro (artificially, outside a
cell).
Once replication is complete, it does not
4.
occur again in the same cell cycle.
7. Regarding the mature monosporic female
gametophyte of angiosperms:
The egg apparatus is at the chalazal end and 3. is captured and transformed into chemical
1.
the antipodals at the micropylar end.
2. The central cell has a diploid polar nucleus.
3. The structure is 8-celled and 7-nucleate.
Three sequential mitotic divisions lead to its
4.
formation.
11. For the synthesis of glucose, the source of
hydrogen atoms is:
1. Water 2. NADPH
3. FADH2 4. Monosaccharides
12. In a photosystem:
The reaction centre is where light is
captured, while the antenna complex is
1.
where this light energy is transformed into
chemical energy.
The antenna complex is where light is
captured, while the reaction centre is where
2.
this light energy is transformed into
chemical energy.
The antenna complex is where light energy
energy.
The reaction centre is where light energy is
4. captured and transformed into chemical
energy.

13. The following reaction will be catalyzed by

8. Which of the following represent maximum an enzyme classified as a/an:
number of species among global biodiversity? A–B + H2O → A–OH + B–H
1. Algae 1. Oxidoreductase 2. Hydrolase
2. Lichens 3. Lyase 4. Transferase
3. Fungi
4. Mosses and ferns
14. An energy yielding step in glycolysis is:
9. Which family is regarded as the most 1. phosphorylation of glucose
advanced & highly evolved and is considered to 2. splitting of fructose 1,6-biphosphate
occupy the highest position in the plant 3. phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate
kingdom? 4. conversion of BPGA to 3-phosphoglyceric
1. Compositae acid
2. Gramineae
3. Cruciferae 15. The number and linear sequence of amino
4. Orchidaceae acids in a protein are considered as the:
1. primary structure of a protein
10. Which of the following complexes of 2. secondary structure of a protein
Electron Transport system is neither involved 3. tertiary structure of a protein
in transport of electrones in inner membrane 4. quaternary structure of a protein
nor involved in transport of proton in the Inter
Membrane Space of Mitochondria from 16. A low frequency recombination indicates
Mitochondrial Matrix? that the genes are:
1. Complex I 1. Located far apart from each other
2. Complex II 2. Located close to each other
3. Complex III 3. Not linked
4. Complex V 4. Present on different c

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17. Specialized plastids like amyloplasts are 23. The algae shown in the diagram below
differentiated forms of: belongs to the class which has:
1. Chloroplasts 2. Chromoplasts
3. Leucoplasts 4. Gerontoplasts

18. In brinjal, stamens are:

1. Epipetalous
2. Epiphyllous
3. Monoadelphous
4. Six in number

19. Which of the given statement/s regarding
embryogenesis in angiosperms is/are correct?
Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the
I:
embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
Development of a zygote usually occurs
II:
after some endosperm formation.
1. Only I 2. Only II
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
1. 2-8 equal and apical flagella
2. 2 unequal and lateral flagella
3. 2 unequal and apical flagella
4. 2-8 equal and lateral flagella
24. The number of ATP and NADPH molecules
required to make one molecule of glucose
through the Calvin pathway respectively is:
1. 6 and 6 2. 6 and 9
3. 12 and 15 4. 18 and 12

20. Monarch butterflies are toxic and

unpalatable to predators because they:
incorporate the toxic chemicals from the
1.
milkweed they eat
2. produce their own secondary compounds
break down the toxic chemicals from the
3.
milkweed they eat
4. live with symbionts that secret toxins
25. RNA interference:
involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to
a complementary dsRNA molecule that
I:
binds to and prevents translation of the
mRNA (silencing).
has been used to create transgenic tobacco
II: plants resistant to nematode Meloidogyne
incognita

1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct

21. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap
Both I and II are Both I and II are
one another but not in any particular direction, 3. 4.
correct incorrect
the type of aestivation is called:
1. Valvate and is seen in Calotropis
2. Twisted and is seen in Lady’s finger
26. Hyphae, that are continuous tubes filled
3. Imbricate and is seen in Cassia
with multinucleated cytoplasm, are seen in the
4. Vexillary and is seen in pea
members of:
1. Ascomycetes
22. Meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms
2. Phycomycetes
creates new variations by shuffling the
3. Deuteromycetes
available genetic material and leads to the
4. Basidiomycetes
formation of a recombinant DNA which is
created at:
1. Pachytene of Prophase I
2. Diplotene of Prophase I
3. Anaphase I of Meiosis I
4. Anaphase II of Meiosis II

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27. Which of the following statements will be 30. Consider the following statements about
correct regarding restriction endonucleases Mustard:
used in constructing recombinant DNA
molecules?
1. They are RNA molecules acting as enzymes.
The enzymes used in such experiments cut
2.
dsDNA randomly at any site.
3. They have been isolated from bacterial cells.
All restriction enzymes are thermostable and
4.
hence can be used in PCR procedures.
28. Consider the given two statements:
Dicot roots do not undergo secondary
I:
growth.
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is
II:
completely secondary in origin.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
29. A ‘continuous culture system’ method
usually produces a larger biomass mainly
because:
the environmental conditions for the growth
1. of the microbes are very easily maintained
in such a system
such a system keeps most of the cells in their
2.
active/log exponential phase
it is very cheap with respect to other systems
3.
and hence cost of production is low
such a system uses larger sized bioreactors
4.
than other systems
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Its ovary is one-chambered but becomes
I: two-chambered due to formation of a false
septum
There may be variation in the length of
II:
filaments within its flowers
III: Its flower is zygomorphic
Its flowers are located at the rim of the
IV:
thalamus almost at the same level
1. Only I and II are correct
2. All I, II, III and IV are correct
3. Only I, III and IV are correct
4. Only I, II and III are correct
31. The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 pathway is:
a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate
1.
(PEP) and is present in the mesophyll cells.
a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate
2. (PEP) and is present in the bundle sheath
cells.
a 5-carbon molecule RuBP and is present in
3.
the mesophyll cells.
a 5-carbon molecule RuBP and is present in
4.
the bundle sheath cells.
32. The genetic code is:
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and
1.
read in a contiguous fashion
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and
2.
read in an overlapping fashion
doublet, degenerate, nearly universal and
3.
read in a contiguous fashion
triplet, ambiguous, totally universal and read
4.
in a contiguous fashion
33. An alga lacks flagellar insertions in its life
cycle and stores food as floridean starch. This
alga can be:
1. Chara
2. Fucus
3. Porphyra
4. Ectocarpus
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34. Which part of the endomembranous system 38. All living organisms - past, present and
of a eukaryotic cell is rich in acid hydrolases? future are linked to each other. All organisms
1. Peroxisome have arisen from a single distant ancestor. The
2. Lysosome strongest evidence for this will be:
3. Vacuole
4. Golgi apparatus 1. All organisms have a triplet genetic code
DNA is the genetic material of almost all
35. How many of the following PGRs does/do 2.
living organisms
not show acidic nature?
The genetic code is degenerate but non-
A. Auxin 3.
ambiguous
B. Gibberellins
C. Cytokinin The amino acids specified by particular
D. Ethylene 4. triplets are almost always identical between
E. ABA any two organisms.
1. One
2. Two
3. Three 39. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates
4. Four the transfer of electrons from:
Cyt b6f complex to
1. 2. PS-I to NADP+
Botany - Section B PS-I
PS-II to Cytb6f
36. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest 3. PS-I to ATP synthase 4. complex
in South America
1. Produce 20% of the total O2 in the earth's
atmosphere 40. Consider the given two statements:
2. Has 3000 species of birds In over 60 per cent of angiosperms,
3. Has 378 species of fishes Statement
pollen grains are shed at 2-celled
4. Is home to 4000 species of plants I:
stage.
In the remaining species, the
37. There are certain limitations of ecological
vegetative cell divides mitotically
pyramids including all the following except: Statement
to give rise to the two male
It does not take into account the same II:
gametes before pollen grains are
1. species belonging to two or more trophic
shed (3-celled stage).
levels.
It assumes a simple food chain, something
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
that almost never exists in nature. 1.
correct
3. It does not accommodate a food web.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Saprophytes are given multiple levels in 2.
4. correct
ecological pyramids.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

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41. The numbers of FADH2, ATP, Carbon dioxide 45. Identify the incorrect statement:
and NADH molecules produced in a single turn
of citric acid cycle respectively are: All cellular life-forms use a primase to
One, Two, Three and One, One, Two and synthesize a short RNA primer with a free 3′
1. 2. 1.
Four Three OH group which is subsequently elongated
One, Two, Two and Two, One Two and by a DNA polymerase.
3. 4.
Three Three DNA is read by DNA polymerase in the 5′ to 3′
2. direction, meaning the new strand is
synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction.
42. Microbodies in eukaryotic cells include all The leading strand is the strand of new DNA
the following except: 3. that is synthesized in the same direction as
1. Peroxisomes 2. Glycosomes the growing replication fork.
3. Lysosomes 4. Glyoxysomes The lagging strand is the strand of new DNA
4. whose direction of synthesis is opposite to
the direction of the growing replication fork.
43. Centromeres split leading to the separation
of sister chromatids and the pulling of the
separated sister chromatids to the opposite 46. Which one of the following acids is a
poles is seen in: derivative of carotenoids?
I: Mitotic anaphase 1. Indole-butyric acid 2. Indole-3-acetic acid
II: Anaphase I 3. Gibberellic acid 4. Abscisic acid
III: Anaphase II
1. Only I
47. The number of alleles, the genotypic
2. Only I and II
combinations, and phenotypes in the ABO
3. Only III system are respectively:
4. Only I and III 1. 3, 6 and 4 2. 3, 4 and 6
3. 2, 3 and 4 4. 2, 3, and 6

44. Identify the incorrect statement:

The process of separation and purification of
1. expressed protein before marketing is called
as downstream processing
DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
2. biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
with a divalent cation such as calcium ion
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
3. for availability of oxygen throughout the
process
Reporter genes can be used as markers for
4.
selecting successfully transformed cells
48. Given below are two statements:
Fermentation takes place under
Assertion (A): anaerobic conditions in
prokaryotes only.
In oxidative phosphorylation,
Reason (R): water is the ultimate acceptor
of electrons.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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49. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 52. The cell shown in the given diagram:
primary productivity in an ecosystem?
It occurs only through the process of
1.
photosynthesis.
Almost all life on Earth relies directly or
2.
indirectly on primary production.
is a bone marrow stem cells committed to
Net primary production is available for 1.
3. produce RBCs
consumption by herbivores.
2. is the megakaryocyte
Gross primary productivity minus the
4. respiratory loss is the net primary 3. is the commonest WBC and is phagocytic
productivity. is responsible for acquired immunity in
4.
humans

50. Functionally cross-pollination but

genetically similar to autogamy is 53. Given below are two statements:
1. Xenogamy Normal expiration is a passive
Assertion (A):
2. Geitonogamy process.
3. Chasmogamy Expiration occurs due to
4. Cleistogamy Reason (R): relaxation of diaphragm and
external intercostal muscles.

Zoology - Section A Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
51. Match each item in Column I with one in 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Column II and select the correct answer from Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
the codes given: 2.
correct explanation of (A).
COLUMN I COLUMN II 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Heart Lowered ejection fraction of a 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
A. a.
failure ventricle
Heart
B. b. Damage to the cardiac muscle
attack 54. Beginning with a single template DNA, a
Abnormal delay in PCR reaction is allowed to continue for 30
C. Heart block c.
conduction in nodal tissue cycles. The number of copies of the template
Cardiac DNA at the end is expected to be about:
D. d. Sudden stoppage of the heart
arrest 1. 256 2. 256,000
3. 1 million 4. 1 billion
Codes

A B C D
55. Which of the following joints is not expected
1. a b c d to allow any movement?
2. b a c d 1. Sutures in the skull
3. b a d c 2. Joint between adjacent vertebra
4. a d b c 3. Gliding joint
4. Joint between carpal and metacarpal of the
thumb

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56. Consider the two statements: 59. The increase of the level of which of the
Use of chemical fertilisers in following in the sarcoplasm of a skeletal muscle
Assertion (A): agriculture worldwide should fibre will lead to the contraction of a muscle?
be avoided. 1. Acetylcholine
Chemical fertilisers, contrary to 2. ATP
popular belief, are ineffective 3. Calcium ions
Reason (R): 4. Troponin C
and do not add any nutrients to
the soil.
60. Identify a disease that is caused by an
abnormality where the ability of the acquired
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1. immune system to distinguish between self and
explains the (A).
non-self is compromised:
2. (A) is True; (R) is False.
Creutzfeldt Jakob Rheumatoid
3. (A) is False; (R) is True. 1. 2.
Disease arthritis
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not Oculo-cutaneous
4. 3. 4. Diabetes insipidus
correctly explain the (A). albinism

57. To produce human recombinant insulin, Eli 61. The only known carriers of the bacterium,
Lily: Salmonella typhi, are the:
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding 1. Humans 2. Bats
to A and B chains of human insulin and
1. 3. Rodents 4. House flies
introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to
produce insulin chains.
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding 62. Match the structures in Cockroach given in
to A and C chains of human insulin and Column I with their location in Column II and
2.
introduced them in plasmids of Yeast to select the correct match from the codes given:
produce insulin chains.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
used reverse transcription of the hnRNA A Testes P 6th abdominal
3. transcript of the insulin gene to make
segment
complementary DNA.
B Ovaries Q 4th – 6th abdominal
used fragments created by restriction
segments
4. enzyme digestion to isolate and used the
gene for insulin from pancreatic cells. C Mushroom R 6th – 7th abdominal
gland segments
D Spermatheca S 2nd – 6th abdominal
58. Which of the following is the correct segments
description of the relation between T cells and
B cells? Codes:
A B C D
Both are processed in bone marrow and 1. S Q R P
1.
respond to antigen from thymus 2. Q S R P
2. T cells help B cells produce antibodies 3. P R Q S
B cells increase the phagocytic capabilities of 4. R S P Q
3.
T cells
While B cells are involved in first response to
4. an antigen, T cells respond to subsequent
encounters with the same antigen

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63. In the Avery, Macleod, and McCarty 69. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
experiment, the use of which of the following 1. LH surge: Ovulation
will affect bacterial transformation? 2. Corpus luteum: Ruptured Graafian follicle
1. trypsin 3. hCG: Secreted by the ovary during pregnancy
2. chymotrypsin 4. Oxytocin: Milk ejection
3. ribonuclease
4. deoxyribonuclease 70. Consider the given two statements:
Sexually transmitted infections can lead to
64. In traditional DNA fingerprinting [such as I: pelvic inflammatory disease.
RFLP], the DNA that has been collected is first Pelvic inflammatory disease increases the
cut into smaller fragments by: II:
risk of ectopic pregnancy.
1. probe molecules 2. restriction enzymes
3. gel electrophoresis 4. denaturation 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
65. Which gene in the lac operon codes for an
intracellular enzyme that cleaves the 4. Both I and II are incorrect
disaccharide lactose into glucose and galactose?
1. Lac A
2. Lac Y 71. A monovalent antibody molecule can be
3. Lac Z represented as:
4. Lac I 1. H5N1 2. H1L1
3. H2L2 4. H1N1
66. The rod-shaped bacteria belongs to which of
the following category of bacteria?
1. Vibrio
72. Which of the following cofactors required
2. Bacillus
by enzymes is often vitamins or made from
3. Coccus
vitamins?
4. Spirillum
1. Apoenzymes 2. Prosthetic groups
67. Erythroxylum coca, Atropa belladonna, and 3. Zymogens 4. Co-enzymes
Datura innoxia are plants:

that are critically endangered according to 73. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. 1. Obelia Metagenesis
the IUCN list.
which have become invasive in Indian Free living with
2. 2. Planaria
ecosystems. high regeneration capacity
3. with hallucinogenic properties. 3. Ancylostoma Acoelomate
found only in the Himalayan region of the 4. Nereis Parapodia
4.
Indian subcontinent.

74. Identify the correctly matched pair:

68. Which of the following is a continuous 1. Dodo: Mauritius
process during cell cycle? 2. Quagga: Australia
a. Growth 3. Thylacine: Russia
b. DNA synthesis 4. Stellar’s sea cow: Africa
1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b

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75. Identify the part of the nephron that: 80. The allele of a gene locus that is least
frequent, in a population, has a frequency
is lined by cuboidal brush bordered greater than 0.01. Such a gene locus will be
I: called:
epithelium
reabsorbs 70-80 percent of electrolytes and 1. Redundant
II: 2. Degenerate
water
3. Polymorphic
4. Hot spot
1. Proximal convoluted tubule
2. Loop of Henle 81. The secondary oocyte completes the second
3. Distal convoluted tubule meiotic division:
4. Collecting duct 1. At the time of insemination
2. At puberty
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
76. Often described as infoldings of bacterial 3. ovum
cell membrane, which of the following
4. Just before birth
structures help in cell wall formation and DNA
replication?
1. Inclusion bodies
2. Chromatophores 82. What is incorrect regarding the ovary in
3. Fimbriae humans?
4. Mesosomes
The surface is covered with simple cuboidal
1.
77. In Cardiac muscle tissue: epithelium, called the germinal epithelium.
Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes Follicles in various phases of development
I: 2.
of cardiac muscle cells are seen in the ovarian cortex
Communication junctions allow the cell to It is connected to the uterus and pelvic floor
II: 3.
contract as a unit by tendons
4. It is a primary sex organ
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
83. A female is a "carrier" for the trait red color
3. Both I and II are correct
blindness [remember this trait is X-linked and
4. Both I and II are incorrect colour blindness is sex-linked recessive
condition], marries a normal male. What
proportion of their female progeny will be
78. Identify the group of antagonistic hormones affected by the disorder?
amongst the following: 1. ¾
1. thyroxine and calcitonin 2. ½
2. insulin and glucagon 3. ¼
3. growth hormone and epinephrine 4. 0
4. ACTH and glucocorticoids

79. What is the mechanism of sex

determination in honey bees?
1. XX / XY male heterogamety
2. ZZ / ZW female heterogamety
3. Haplo-diploidy
4. XX / XO male heterogamety

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84. Consider the given two statements:
The bacterium Streptococcus is the
Statement source of an enzyme used in
I: patient of myocardial infarction
leading to heart attack.
The enzyme is streptokinase that
Statement
enhances the action of anti-
II:
coagulant heparin.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
85. Identify the set of hormones secreted by I: human heart.
placenta that are essential to maintain
pregnancy:
1. hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin
2. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
3. hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens
4. hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids 2. Only II is correct
87. Find the incorrect statement/s
Flocs are masses of anaerobic bacteria
a:
associated with fungal filaments
BOD gets reduced significantly when the
b: secondary treatment is done using aerobic
microbes
Activated sludge can be sedimented only
c:
after anaerobic digestion of sewage
Mixture of gases is released during aerobic
d:
digestion of sewage
1. a, b, c & d
2. Only c
3. All, except b
4. a, b & d
88. Consider the given two statements:
SA node is the natural pacemaker of the
SA node is the only part of that nodal
II:
musculature that is auto-excitable.
1. Only I is correct
3. Both I and II are correct

Zoology - Section B 4. Both I and II are incorrect

86. Alexander von Humboldt is known for the

concept of:
1. Competitive release
2. Character displacement
3. Species Area relationship
4. Interference competition
89. An action potential in the nerve fibre is
produced when positive and negative charges
on the outside and the inside of the axon
membrane are reversed, because
More potassium enters the axon as
1.
compared to sodium ions leaving it
More sodium enters the axon as compared to
2.
potassium ions leaving it
3. All potassium ions leave the axon
4. All sodium ions enter the axon

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90. Given below are two statements:
Vertebrochondral ribs are
Assertion (A):
called true ribs.
Vertebraochondral ribs are
attached to the thoracic
Reason (R): vertebrae dorsally and are
ventrally connected to the
sternum.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
91. All the following features are present in
bony fishes except:
1. operculum
2. air bladder
3. placoid scales
4. terminal mouth
93. Consider the given two statements:
An impairment affecting synthesis
or release of ADH results in a
Assertion
diminished ability of the kidney to
(A):
conserve water leading to water
loss and dehydration.
Vasopressin acts mainly at the
Reason kidney and stimulates resorption of
(R): water and electrolytes by the distal
tubules.
1. (A) is True; (R) is False
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain the (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
3.
explains the (A)
4. (A) is False; (R) is True
94. Animal cells cannot be transformed with
the help of:
1. Microinjection 2. Ti Plasmid
3. Retroviral vectors 4. Liposomes

92. Which of the following statements are

correct? 95. An infertile couple has been suggested
Basophils are most abundant cells of the Artificial Insemination into the uterus [IUI].
A:
total WBCs. This should be done:
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and just after the completion of the menstrual
B: 1.
heparin. flow
Basophils are involved in inflammatory 2. near the time of ovulation
C:
response. 3. in the middle of the follicular phase
D: Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus. after corpus luteum starts the synthesis of
E: Basophils are agranulocytes. 4.
progesterone
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A and B only 2. D and E only 96. What is the major conduit for energy flow
3. C and E only 4. B and C only in an aquatic ecosystem?
1. Grazing food chain
2. Detritus food chain
3. Sun
4. Hydrothermal vents

97. Our lungs remove large amounts of carbon

dioxide [approximately 200 mL/minute]. This
translates to about:
1. 156 L/day
2. 288 L/day
3. 412 L/day
4. 504 L/day

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

98. What would not be true regarding Down’s 100. Consider the following statements:
Syndrome? Impulses travel by the visceral nervous
I: system from the CNS to the viscera and from
1. It is also known as trisomy 21 the viscera to the CNS.
The parents of the affected individual are Impulses travel by the autonomic nervous
2.
usually affected from the disorder. II: system from the CNS to the involuntary
3. There is no cure for Down syndrome. organs and smooth muscles of the body.
The extra chromosome 21 material may also
1. Only I is correct
4. occur due to a Robertsonian translocation in
2. Only II is correct
2–4% of cases.
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
99. Given below are two population pyramids,
both of India, one for year 2000 and another for
year 2020:
Chemistry - Section
A
101. Which of the following is/are correct about
isothermal expansion of work?
1. ωirreversible = ωreversible
2. ωirreversible > ωreversible
3. ωirreversible < ωreversible
4. All of thes above

102.
Statement The electronegativity of any given
I: element is not constant.
1. Pyramid A is of 2020 as it has a broader base Electronegativity varies depending
Statement
Pyramid B is of 2000 as it has more females on the element to which it is
2. II:
in the younger age groups bound.
Pyramid B is of 2020 as it has more females In light of the above statements, choose the
3. correct answer from the options given below.
in the younger age groups
4. Pyramid A is of 2000 as it has a broader base Statement l is incorrect but Statement ll is
1.
correct.
2. Both Statements l and ll are correct.
3. Both Statements l and ll are incorrect.
Statement l is correct but Statement ll is
4.
incorrect.

103. Number of optically active isomers among

all the isomers of C6H13Br are
1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 17

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

104. Choose the correct statement considering 109. Given the following compounds:
the information given below. C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2, NH3, C6H5CH2NH2 and (C2H5)2NH
−1 −2
19
F ,
16
O ,
20
Ne The correct increasing order of basic strength
-2 −
1. Both O and F are isoelectronic. of the compounds, given above, in gas phase is:
2. All given have an equal number of e− C2H5NH2 < C6H5NH2 < NH3 < C6H5CH2NH2 <
1.
3. F− and Ne have an equal number of e- (C2H5)2NH
4. All are correct. C H NH2 < C6H5NH2< NH3< (C2H5)2NH <
2. 2 5
C6H5CH2NH2
105. The mass ratio of ethylene glycol (62 g/mol)
C H CH NH2 < C6H5NH2< NH3 < (C2H5)2NH <
required to make (500 ml, 0.25 M) and (250 ml, 3. 6 5 2
0.25 M) solutions is: C2H5NH2
1. 1:1 2. 1:2 C6H5NH2 < NH3<C6H5CH2NH2 < C2H5NH2 <
4.
3. 2:1 4. 4:1 (C2H5)2NH

106. The correct order of 3rd ionisation 110.

potential of Na , Mg, Al and Si will be: Elements like He, Ne, and nitrogen
1. Si > Al > Mg > Na Statement
show positive electron gain
2. Mg > Si > Al > Na I:
enthalpies.
3. Mg > Na > Si > Al
The formation of Cl- from Cl and
4. Na > Mg > Si > Al Statement 2-
II: O from O- are exothermic
107. Which of the following have non-zero processes.
dipole moment? 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1. C6 Cl6 incorrect.
2. C2 Cl6 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. C(CCl3 )4 correct.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. : CCl2
incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
108. Which of the following is not true about
correct.
resonance?
1. The resonating structures are hypothetical. 111. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give
The unpaired electrons in various resonating CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The alcohol is:
2.
structures are the same. 1. CH3CH2CH2OH
The energy of the resonance hybrid is less 2. (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
3. than the energy of any single canonical
3. CH3(CH2)2CHOH
structure.
4. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3
In resonance, both 𝝅 electrons and
4.
σ electrons can move.
112. Identify Z in the following series.

1. C2 H5 I
2. CHI3
3. CH3 CHO
4. C2 H5 OH

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

113. The value of ΔH for the reaction,
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) ⇌2XY4 (g)
is less than zero. Formulation of XY4(g) will be 1. Basic oxides - I n2 O3 , K2 O, SnO2
favored at
1. low pressure and low temperature
2. high temperature and low pressure
3. high pressure and low temperature
4. high temperature and high pressure
118. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
2. Neutral oxides - CO, N O2 , N2 O
3. Acidic oxides - M n2 O7 , SO2 , T eO3
4. Amphoteric oxides -BeO, Ga2 O3 , GeO
119. The number of moles of carbon and
oxygen required to produce 6.023 × 10
23

114. The total number of possible structural molecules of CO2 are:

isomers with the molecular formula C5H10O 1. 0.01 mol and 0.01 mol
having either aldehyde or ketone functional 2. 0.5 mol and 0.1 mol
group are: 3. 10.0 mol and 5.0 mol
1. 6 4. 1.0 mol and 1.0 mol
2. 4
3. 5 120. What would happen when a solution of
4. 7 potassium chromate is treated with an excess of
dilute nitric acid ?
115. 1. Cr3+ and Cr2 O2− 7
Which one of the following statements is 2−
2. Cr2 O7 and H2O are formed
correct when SO2 is passed through acidified
K2Cr2O7solution? 3. Cr2 O2−
4
is reduced to +3 state of Cr
1. The solution is decolorized. 4. None of the above
2. SO2 is reduced.
121. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar
3. Green coloured Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
mass 250g mol) was dissolved in 51.2 g of
4. The solution turns blue. benzene. If the freezing point depression
constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1, the
freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:
116. Consider the reaction 1. 0.4 K
a K2Cr2O7 + b HCl → c KCl + d CrCl3 + e H2O + f 2. 0.3 K
3. 0.5 K
Cl2
4. 0.2 K
The value of a,d & f, respectively, are
1. 2, 4, 8 122. The water soluble vitamin is
2. 1, 2, 3 1. A
3. 2, 2, 3 2. C
4. 1, 2, 4 3. D
4. E
117. In which of the following transitions of
hydrogen atom, radiation of minimum
frequency is emitted ?
1. n2 = ∞ to n1 = 1
2. n2 = 2 to n1 = 1
3. n2 = 3 to n1 = 2
4. n2 = ∞ to n1 = 3

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
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123. 127. The correct statements among the

For an exothermic reaction, the
Assertion (A): value of Kc decreases on
increasing the temperature.
Rate constant for a backward
reaction increases more than
Reason (R):
the increase in the rate constant
for a forward reaction.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1. correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
128. The rate constant is given by the equation
k = P . Ze
following is:
A porous membrane used in reverse
(i) osmosis is a film of cellulose acetate placed
over a suitable support.
To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft
(ii) drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed
under high pressure.
In osmosis, only the solvent moves while
(iii)
in diffusion both solute and solvent move.
1. Only (i) and (ii) 2. Only (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii) 4. (i), (ii) and (iii)
−E /RT
. Which factor should register
a

124. The alkyl halide is converted into an a decrease for the reaction to proceed more
alcohol by rapidly?
1. Addition 2. Substitution 1. T
3. Dehydrohalogenation 4. Elimination 2. Z
3. E
4. P
125. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the
129. The products X and Y in the below
Cu2+/Cu couples is:
[Given, ECu
o
= 0.34 V; K Cu(OH) = 1×10- sequence of reactions are:
2+
/Cu sp 2
19]

1. 0.34 V 2. -0.34 V
3. 0.22 V 4. -0.22 V

126. Which among the following complex is

optically active?
1. [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ]
2. [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] Br
3. [Ni(NH3 )6 ] Cl2 X Y
4. [Pt (NH3 ) (H2 O) (en)ClBr] 1. CrO2Cl2/CCl4 CH3OH / H+
2. KMnO4 CH3OH / H+
3. CrO2Cl2/CCl4 CH3CO2O
4. KMnO4 CH3CO2O

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section
130. When a copper wire is immersed in a
solution of AgNO3, the colour of the solution
becomes blue because copper:
1. Forms a soluble complex with AgN O3 B
2. Is oxidised to Cu2+ 136. Which of the following contains the
3. Is reduced to Cu 2− greatest number of nitrogen atoms ?
4. Splits up into atomic form and dissolves 1. 500 ml of 2.0 M NH3
2. One mole of NH4 Cl
131. The relative lowering of vapour pressure 3. 6. 02 × 1023 molecules of NO2 gas
caused by dissolving 71.3g of a substance in 4. 22.4 litres of N2 gas at 0ºC and 1 atm.
1000g of water is 7.13 X 10-3. The molecular
mass of the substance is: 137. Which compound can react with Na as
1. 180 2. 18 well as NaOH but not with N aH CO3 ?
3. 1.8 4. 360 1. Ethanol
2. Picric acid
3. Carbolic acid
132. Which of the following pairs of species 4. Ethyne
have the same bond order?
− 138. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is
1. O2 , N O+
-0.186oC . Elevation of the boiling point of the
2. CN − , CO
− same solution is (Kf =1.86o mol-1 kg and Kb =
3. N2 , O2
2. CO,NO 0.512o mol-1 kg)
1. 0.186o
133. All elements of 14th group form MX4 2. 0.0512o
(Tetrahalides) except PbI4 because 3. 1.86o
1. Pb2+ is a more stable than Pb4+ 4. 5.12o
2. I- ion is a better reducing agent
139. How many electrons are there in a copper
3. Pb4+ is most stable atom (29 Cu), whose (n+l) = 4?
4. I- ion is an oxidising agent 1. 6
2. 7
134. From the following, the incorrect assertion 3. 8
with respect to dipole moments of the species 4. 4
given is:
1. CH3 Cl > CH Cl3 140. The nonaromatic species, amongst the
2. CH2 Cl2 = CCl4 following, is:
3. N H3 > N F3
4. BF3 = CO2
1. 3.
135. In solid PCl5, the hybridised state of
phosphorous will be
1. sp3d 2. 4.
2. sp3
3. sp3 and sp3d
4. sp3 and sp3d2

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

141. Find out the stability order of the 145. For the general reaction X→ Y, the plot of
intermediate : concentration of X vs. time is given in the
figure. The order of the reaction and units of
rate constant, respectively, are:
(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

1. I>II>III>IV
2. I>II>IV>III
3. IV>I>II>III 1. Zero, mol-1 L-1 s-1 2. First, mol L-1 s-1
4. III>I>I>IV 3. First, s-1 4. Zero, L-1 mol s-1

142. For a reaction, A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g); ΔH = 4

kJ & ΔS = 10 JK-1. At what temperature, is 146. Identify the pair of elements with similar
this reaction spontaneous? electronegativity from the options given below:
1. >400 K 1. B and C
2. < 400 K 2. B and Al
3. 400 K 3. B and Si
4. 27 oC 4. Al and C

143. Solubilities of AgCl in 0.01M NaCl, 0.01M 147.

CaCl2, 0.05M AgNO3 , pure water and in 0.01M When 2 faraday of electricity is
Assertion passed through dilute H SO (aq),
NH4OH are S1 , S2 , S3 , S4 and S5 respectively. 2 4
(A):
The correct order of these solubilities is 11.2 litre O2 evolved at STP.
1. S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 > S5 Reason
Molecular weight of oxygen is 32.
2. S3 > S2 > S1 > S5 > S4 (R):
3. S5 > S4> S1 > S2 > S3
4. S5 > S4 > S3 > S2 > S1 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
144. Alkyl cyanide R − C ≡ N and alkyl 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
+ correct explanation of (A).
isocyanides R − N ≡ C − are: 3. (A) is True and (R) is False.
1. Tautomers 2. Metamers 4. (A) is False and (R) is True.
3. Functional isomers 4. Geometrical isomers

148. The correct order of the boiling point of

the hydrides of 15th group is:
1. NH3>BiH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3
2. BiH3>NH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3
3. BiH3>SbH3>NH3>AsH3>PH3
4. BiH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3>NH3

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A
149.
Assertion Boron is the hardest element in
(A): group-13. 151. Light of wavelength λ falls
High lattice enthalpy is due to the perpendicularly onto a single slit of width d. A
Reason (R): diffraction maximum is formed at P on a
strong crystalline lattice.
faraway screen placed parallel to plane of the
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the slit. The first diffraction minimum is formed at
1. Q, as shown on the screen. Let C be a 'point' so
correct explanation of the (A)
AC 1

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not that it divides the slit AB in the ratio = ,
2. CB 2

the correct explanation of the (A) 1 rd

i.e. AC represents the upper of the slit. The
3. (A) is correct but (R) is the wrong statement 3

total amplitude of the oscillation arriving from

4. Both (A) and (R) are correct AC at Q is A1 and from CB at Q is A2 .

Then,

150. The lowest energy d → d transition of the

complexes follows the order
1.
3+ 3+ 3−
[Cr(H2 O)6 ] < [Cr(N H3 )6 ] < [Cr(CN )6 ]

2.
3− 3+ 3+
[Cr(CN )6 ] < [Cr(N H3 )6 ] < [Cr(H2 O)6 ]

3.
3− 3+ 3+
[Cr(CN )6 ] < [Cr(H2 O)6 ] < [Cr(N H3 )6 ]

4.
3+ 3− 3+
[Cr(N H3 )6 ] < [Cr(CN )6 ] < [Cr(H2 O)6 ]

1. 2A1 = A2
2. A1 = 2A2
3. √2A1 = A2
4. A1 = A2

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

152. Two long straight wires carrying currents 156. If the rate of rotation of the earth were to
i1 , i2 are placed as shown in the figure, just increase, the apparent acceleration due to
avoiding contact. The separation between the gravity on the equator would
wires is negligible, and the wires are aligned 1. increase
along x & y axes respectively. 2. decrease
3. remain unchanged
4. change in direction away from the cente

157. The equation of vibration of a taut string,

fixed at both ends, is given by:
πx −1
y = (4 mm) cos( ) sin(400π s t)
30 cm

The wire along the x-axis experiences The speed of waves on the string is:
1. 30 m/s
1. a force along +y axis only. 2. 60 m/s
3. 90 m/s
2. a force along −y axis.
4. 120 m/s
3. zero force, but a torque.
4. no force and no torque. 158. A block is suspended from a spring and
causes an extension of 2 cm. It is now imparted
a kinetic energy E so that the block rises up by
153. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the exactly 2 cm. If the block were to be given the
ratio of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear same kinetic energy upward, without being
densities would be: attached to a spring, it would rise up by:
1. 1 : 3 1. 1 cm
2. 3 : 1 2. 2 cm
3. (3) 1/3
: 1 3. 4 cm
4. 1 : 1 4. 8 cm

154. Which, of the following, does not suffer 159. Given below are two statements:
from chromatic aberration? If the sun were to 'suddenly' be
1. convex lens removed, then the earth would
Assertion (A):
continue to move around in its
2. plano-convex lens
orbit.
3. concave lens
Angular momentum of a system
4. concave mirror Reason (R): of particles is conserved when
there is no external torque.

155. Following diagram performs the logic

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
function of: 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
1. AND gate 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. NAND gate 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. OR gate
4. XOR gate

Page: 20
 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

160. The average electric field associated with 163. Which, of the following circuits, shows a
the plane electromagnetic wave Zener diode being used properly? Here
→ VA > VB
^
E = E0 i sin(wt − kz) is:
1. E0 ^
i
E0
2. ^
i
1.
√2

3. √2E0 ^ i

4. zero (null)

161. A uniform rod of length L is standing

upright, pivoted at its lower end. The rod can 2.
freely rotate about the pivot. If it is slightly
disturbed so that it falls to the ground, the
speed of the highest point, when it strikes the
ground will be:

3.

1. √2gL
4.

2. √3gL

3. √6gL

4. √gL

164. Two stones A and B are projected

162. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron simultaneously with the same speed: one (A)
in the ground state of a H -atom is λ1 and that vertically up and the other (B) horizontally
on the H e+ -ion is λ2 . The kinetic energies of from the same point. Stone A rises up to a
the electrons in the H -atom and the H e+ -ion – maximum height H and falls down. The
having the same de-Broglie wavelength are E1 separation between A and B, when A reaches
and E2 . its maximum height
λ1
The ratio is:
λ2
1. is less than H
1. 4
2. is greater than H
2. 2
1 3. is equal to H
3. 2
1
4. cannot be related with H
4. 4

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

165. During a certain atmospheric process, a
pocket of air near the earth's surface rises
upwards very rapidly into the upper regions of
the atmosphere. As a result, the temperature of
this air
168. A uniform ladder of mass 10 kg is placed at
an angle against a frictionless vertical wall, as
shown in the figure, by applying a horizontal
force F at the bottom (B) of the ladder,
towards the wall. (Take g = 10 m/s2).

1. increases.
2. decreases.
3. remains constant.
4. first increases, then decreases.

166. The circuit shown in the diagram given

below, is set up with all the capacitors initially Assume that the ground is frictionless. The
uncharged. force F equals
1. 100√3 N
2. 50√3 N
100
3. N
√3

50
4. N
√3

169. A viscous liquid is flowing through a

The potential difference between A and
straight tube under the action of a pressure
difference across the ends of the tube. The tube
is aligned with the x-axis. The force exerted on
the tube by the liquid has the form (a, b > 0)
B,

after A is connected to Y and B to X, is

1. 2.6 V
2. 2.4 V
3. 6 V
4. zero

167. An elevator moving up is decelerating at 1

m/s2. Then, the apparent 'weight' of a 50 kg
man, on a weighing machine, will be (g = 10 1. ^
ai
m/s2)
2. ^
−a i

3. ^ ^
a i + bj

4. ^ ^
−a i + b j

1. 55 kg
2. 45 kg
3. 40 kg
4. none of the above

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

170. A particle of mass m collides with another 173. A boat, when rowed perpendicular to the
particle of mass m′ , which is at rest and the flow of a 500 m wide river, reaches its opposite
combined mass moves with 10% reduction in bank in 10 min. If the boat is rowed
∘
velocity. The ratio of the masses is: downstream at an angle of 30 with the flow, it
will cross in
′
m 1
1. m
=
10
m
′
1 1. 10 min 2. 5 √3 min
2. m
=
9 10
m
′
1 3. 20 min 4. min
3. m
=
8
√3

′
m 1
4. m
=
2

174. A ray is incident normally onto the surface

171. An alternating emf (ac) is applied across AB of the prism (∠A = 30∘ , ∠B = 90∘ ). The
the circuit shown in the figure. Let VAX be the refractive index of the material of the prism is
voltage across the inductor L, and VXY be the √
2. The deviation of this ray is:
voltage across the resistor R. Let the angular
frequency be ω. The phase difference between
VXY and VAX :

1. depends on the ratio

ωL 1. 30 downward
∘
R
2. 15 downward
∘
2. depends on the quantity √(ωL)2 + R
2
3. 30 upward
∘

3. depends on L and R, but not on ω 4. 15 upward

4. is independent of L, R, ω
172. A heavy uniform rope is suspended from
the ceiling, and a block equal to 3 times the
mass of the rope is suspended from the bottom.
The ratio of the speed of a transverse pulse at
the top (vt ) to its speed at the bottom (vb ) of
vt
the rope, vb
=
175. A piece of iron is heated until it is red hot.
It is placed in a solenoid. As the temperature of
the iron decreases, the magnetic field inside it
1. first increases, then decreases.
2. first decreases, then increases.
3. increases.
4. decreases.

4
1. 3

4
2. √
3

3
3. 4

3
4. √
4

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 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

176. A straight horizontal wire AB of length l 179. Two cells are balanced on a potentiometer
falls from rest under gravity. A uniform and give balance length readings of 20 cm and
horizontal magnetic field B acts perpendicular 30 cm respectively. If the cells are connected in
to the plane of motion of AB, as shown. The parallel (with their like terminals connected
induced emf across AB, E , is proportional to: together), the balance length of the
combination is found to be 28 cm. Their
resistances are in the ratio:
1
1. 3
3
2. 1
1
3. 4
4
4.
1. B 1

2. l
3. time, t 180. If the volume of an ideal gas is doubled,
4. all of the above isothermally, the final pressure is 1 atm. If the
process were adiabatic, the pressure would
177. Assume that electron orbits around a have been:
nucleus in a circular orbit and Newton's Laws 1. 1 atm
are valid. The ratio of the K.E. of the electron to 2. 0.5 atm
the P.E. in orbit is (in magnitude): 3. less than 1 atm
1. 1: 2 4. greater than 1 atm
2. 2: 1
3. 1: 1 181. What does the following logic circuit
4. none of the above represent?

178. The left plate A of an air capacitor is

connected to the positive terminal while the
right plate B is connected to the negative 1. AND
terminal of a cell of voltage V0 . Assume that the 2. OR
plate area is A, and the plate separation is d. If 3. NOR
a slab of dielectric constant K is inserted into 4. XOR
the space between the plates, the electric field
in the dielectric will be: (compared to the air 182. The effective spring constant in calculating
capacitor) the time period of SHM of the system of springs
and the block is:

1. (k1 + k2 )
2. |k1 − k2 |
−1
1 1

1. more. 3. ( k +
k2
)
1

2. less. 1 1
−1

4. ∣∣ k −
∣
3. equal. 1 k2 ∣

more or less or equal depending on the value

4.
of K .

Page: 24
 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section B
183. Given below are two statements:
Gauss's law for electric fields is a
Statement
consequence of the conservation 186. The potential difference VAB (in volts) is
I:
of energy. plotted as a function of the resistance R. The
Coulomb's law for electric charges graph is given by
Statement
leads to a conservative electric
II:
field.

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is

1.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. 1. 2.
incorrect.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
incorrect.

184. A simple pendulum is made with a thin

wire (length: l, area: A, Young's modulus: Y )
attached to a heavy bob of mass M . The
pendulum is released from the rest with the 3. 4.
bob at the same level as the point of suspension
and swings down in a circular arc. The
elongation in the wire when the bob reaches
the lowest point is:
3M gl
1.
AY
2M gl
2.
AY
3M gl
3. 2AY
M gl
4.
AY
187. The electric field associated with a light
wave is given by E = E0 (sinω1 t) (sinω2 t).
185. Find the dimension of the quantity: ε0 hc,
This light wave falls on a metal having a
where
threshold frequency, νo . The maximum kinetic
ε0 =permittivity of free space
energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be: (h
h=Planck's constant
is Planck's constant)
c=speed of light in vacuum

1. (charge) × (energy) hω1 hω2

2. (energy)
2 1. Either 2π
or 2π

3. (charge)
2 hω1 hω
2. Either( 2π
− hν0 ) or ( 2π − hν0 )
charge
4. h(ω1 +ω2 )
energy
3. − hν0
2π

h(ω1 +ω2 ) h|ω1 −ω2 |

4. Both 2π
− hν0 and 2π
− hν0

Page: 25
 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

188. The magnitude of the integral of the 191. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener
→ → diode is 5.6 V in the given circuit.
quantity ∫ B ⋅ dl around the loop P QR of the
equilateral triangle is K. The field at the center
of the long solenoid is

The current IZ through the Zener is:

1. 7 mA
2. 10 mA
3. 17 mA
4. 15 mA

192. A particle moves in a circle of radius R

1.
K

a with a constant speed v. The average

K
2. 1
th

b acceleration of the particle in during (

6
)
K
3. a−b revolution is:
K
4. a+b 1.
2
v

R
2
2πv

189. An elastic ball is projected vertically 2. 6R

upward with a speed u, and it returns to the 3. πv
2

6R
ground and rebounds, the motion is periodic 3v
2

with a period T . A simple pendulum, having a 4. πR

length equal to maximum altitude attained by
this ball, would have a time period of: 193. As light traverses through an optical
1. T medium, it is observed that its wavelength
2. πT decreases.
3. π√2T In this case, the frequency of
Statement I:
4.
π
T light increases.
√2
In the above case, the refractive
Statement II:
index of the medium increases.
190. An astronaut, in a space shuttle, orbiting
close to the earth's surface (take g = 10 m/s2),
suddenly fires his engines so as to give him a 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
3g correct.
forward acceleration of 4 along the direction
Both Statement I and Statement II are
of his motion. At that instant, his apparent 2. correct.
weight is Both Statement I and Statement II are
1. 25% more than his real weight. 3.
incorrect.
2. 25% less than his real weight. Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
3. 75% more than his real weight. incorrect.
4. 75% less than his real weight.

Page: 26
 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

194. The moment of inertia of a uniform semi- 196. The quantity of heat required to take a
circular disc of mass m and radius r, about its system from A to C through the process ABC
open diameter is: is 20 cal. The quantity of heat required to go
1
1. mr2 from A to C directly is:
2

1
2. 4
mr
2

1 1
3. greater than 4
mr
2
but less than 2
2
mr

1
4. less than 4
mr
2

195. A rod of mass M and length L is suspended

vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so
that it is horizontal and free to rotate about A 1. 20 cal 2. 24.2 cal
and then released. There is no friction 3. 21 cal 4. 23 cal
anywhere.

197. A submarine having a fixed volume is

floating submerged underwater. Air, at high
pressure, is pumped into the submarine using
pipes. Due to this, the submarine will

1. rise.
2. sink.
3. float in the same position.
either rise or sink depending on the air
The angular speed of the road, when it reaches 4.
pressure.
its lowest position, is ω. Then ω2 =
g
1. L
2.
2g
198. The unit of coefficient of volume
L
3g
expansion of metal is:
3. L
1. (∘ C)−1
∘
2. m3 / C
12g
4.
L
3. ∘ C
4. ∘ C/m3

Page: 27
 High Yield Test #19 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

199. Three charges are placed at the three

corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in Fill OMR Sheet*
the figure. The potential at the mid-point of a
side with opposite charges is 2 V. The potential *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
at the centre of the triangle is: from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
there

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
1.
2.
2

3
V
V
NEETprep course
3. 2 √3 V
2
4. V
√3

200. Match the quantities in List-I with their

appropriate units in List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) inductance × current (i) V
(b) frequency × capacitance (ii) Wb
(c) frequency × magnetic flux (iii) Ω−1
(d) electric flux (iv) V-m

1. a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)

2. a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
3. a - (iii), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iv)
4. a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)

Page: 28