High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A
5. Who proposed the five kingdom
classification?
1. Consider the following statements: 1. Carolus Linnaeus
Among invertebrates, maximum species 2. Aristotle
I: 3. Bentham and Hooker
richness is seen in insects
Among vertebrates, maximum species 4. R. H. Whittaker
II:
richness is seen in mammals
6. A heterogeneous collection of fructose
Among plants, algae have a greater
III: polymers, produced by many types of plants, is:
diversity than angiosperms.
1. Lectin 2. Ricin
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II and III are correct 3. Inulin 4. Concanavalin
3. Both I and III are correct
4. I, II and III are incorrect
7.
2. The egg apparatus is made up of two Pollen grains carry the male gamete from
___________ and one _______________ at the A: microsporangium to micropyle of ovule in
_________________ end of the embryo sac. angiosperms.
1. antipodals, egg cell, micropylar Pollen grain itself a male gamete further
2. synergids, egg cell, chalazal B: divides and form another one on stigma
3. egg cells, synergids, chalazal only.
4. synergids, egg cells, micropylar 1. Both A and B are correct
2. A is correct only
3. An epiphyte is a plant that: 3. B is correct only
I: grows on other plants for physical support 4. Both A and B are incorrect
II: affects the host negatively
8. Which of the following would be correct
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct regarding the comparison of fermentation and
aerobic respiration?
Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4. Fermentation Aerobic respiration
correct incorrect
Complete
Partial breakdown of
I. breakdown of
glucose
4. Filiform apparatus: glucose
is special cellular thickening present in the Net gain of many
Net gain of only two
1. synergids which play an important role in more molecules of
molecules of ATP
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. II. ATP beginning with
beginning with one
one molecule of
is special cellular thickening present in the molecule of glucose
glucose
2. synergids which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the egg cell. NADH is oxidised to NADH is oxidised to
III.
is special cellular thickening present in the NAD+ slowly NAD+ vigorously
3. egg cell which play an important role in 1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. 3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III
is special cellular thickening present in the
4. antipodals which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. 9. As a mechanism of defense against
herbivory, Calotropis:
1. Has a large number of thorns
2. Secretes cardiac glycosides
3. Produces a neurotoxin, strychnine
4. Releases a hallucinogen

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10. A double-stranded DNA molecule globally 13. Which one of the following is a correct
has percentage base pair equality: A% = T% and statement?
G% = C%. One such DNA molecule is found to Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal
have 23 % Adenine. What is the expected % of 1. and leafy stage
Uracil in this DNA? In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-
1. 0 2.
living
2. 23
Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are
3. 27 3.
present in pteridophytes
4. 46
Origin of seed habit can be traced in
4.
11. A diagram of the transverse section of a pteridophytes
monocot leaf is given below with certain parts
indicated as letters of the alphabet. Select the
option which incorrectly matches the alphabet 14. Identify the incorrect comparison between
with the part it represents: cellulose and starch:
Cellulose Starch
Monomer
1. Beta Glucose Alpha Glucose
subunit
Helical
2. secondary Yes No
structure
β(1→4)- α(1→4)-
3. Linkage glycosidic glycosidic
A - Adaxial bonds bonds
1. 2. B - Phloem
epidermis 4. Type Homopolymer Homopolymer
D - Abaxial
3. C - Mesophyll 4.
epidermis
15. Between Telophase I and Prophase II:
1. The nuclear membrane disappears
12. How many of the given statements are true? 2. DNA does not replicate
Amazon rain forest produces 20% of total 3. A tetrad of cells is formed
I: 4. There is a long lasting resting stage
oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere
All the biodiversity hotspots put together
II: 16. Cytochrome c is found:
cover about 10 % of the Earth’s land area
1. attached to outer surface of the inner
About 23 % of all species of gymnosperms
III: mitochondrial membrane
in the world face the threat of extinction
2. attached to inner surface of the inner
India’s share of the global species diversity mitochondrial membrane
IV:
is about 2.4 % 3. in the inter membrane space
1. 1 4. in the mitochondrial matrix
2. 2
3. 3 17. In which of the following plants, the flowers
4. 0 are epigynous and the position of ovary is
described as inferior?
1. Mustard
2. Rose
3. China rose
4. Ray florets of sunflower

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
18. Colchicum autumnale:
1. is non-endospermous
2. has dithecous anther
3. has reticulate venation
4. exhibits axile placentation
19. A common biocontrol agent for the control
of plant diseases is
1. Trichoderma
2. Baculovirus
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Glomus
20. The phloem parenchyma is absent, and
water-containing cavities are present within
the vascular bundles in:
1. Monocot roots 2. Dicot roots
3. Monocot stems 4. Dicot stems
21. Regarding RuBisCO:
It is the most abundant protein in the whole
I:
of the biosphere.
II: Mg2+ is its activator
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
22. Which of the following does not take place I: Enzyme catalyzed reactions are affected by
during diakinesis of Meiosis I?
1. Disappearance of nucleolus
2. Decondensation of chromosomes
3. Nuclear envelope breaks down
4. Assembly of meiotic spindle
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
23. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
Bacillus thuringiensis?
forms protein crystals during a particular
1. phase of their growth which contains a toxic
insecticidal protein.
The Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive
2. protoxin that is converted into an active
form by an alkaline pH in the insect's gut.
Activated toxin binds to the surface of
midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, causes
3.
cell swelling and lysis and eventually death
of the insect.
Proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
4. cryIIAb control the corn borer, that of cryIAb
controls cotton bollworms.
24. T.W. Engelmann:
described a first action spectrum of
1.
photosynthesis
provided evidence for production of glucose
2.
when plants grow
showed that it is only the green parts of the
3.
plant that can release oxygen
first showed that oxygen evolved by the
4. green plant comes from water, not from
carbon dioxide
25. Consider the following two statements:
the change in the temperature and pH.
Change in pH and temperature affects the
II:
tertiary structure of proteins.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
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26. Match the columns: 29. Identify the incorrect comparison between
Column I monocots and dicots in general:
Column II
A. Adenine derivative (i) Ethylene Character Monocots Dicots
B. Terpenes (ii) Kinetin Parallel Reticulate
1. Leaves
C. Gaseous hormone (iii) GA venation venation
D. Caroteinoid derivative (iv) ABA Primary root of
Develops from
short duration,
1. A = (i) , B =(ii) , C = (iii) , D= (iv) the radicle.
replaced by
2. A = (iv) , B =(iii) , C = (i) , D= (ii) Primary root
adventitial
3. A = (ii) , B =(iii) , C = (iv) , D= (i) 2. Roots often persists
roots forming
4. A = (ii) , B =(iii) , C = (i) , D= (iv) forming strong
fibrous or
tap roots and
fleshy root
27. Consider the following four statements (A– secondary roots
systems
D), select the correct option stating which ones
are true (T) and which ones are false (F) Numerous
Organism at each trophic level depends on scattered bundles
(A) those at higher trophic levels for their Ring of primary in ground
energy demands. Plant bundles with parenchyma,
stem: cambium, cambium mostly
Each trophic level has a certain mass of 3.
Vascular differentiated absent, no
(B) living material at a particular time called
bundles into cortex and differentiation
standing crop.
stele between cortical
The amount of inorganic matter present in and stelar
(C) an ecosystem at a given time called regions
standing state.
Parts in threes Fours
The number of trophic levels in a grazing (trimerous) or (tetramerous) or
(D) 4. Flowers
food chain is not restricted multiples of fives
three (pentamerous)
A B C D
1. T T F F
2. F T F T 30. What would be true if you compare the flow
3. T F T F of energy and the flow of chemical nutrients in
an ecosystem?
4. F T T F
Much larger amount of energy flows through
1.
the ecosystem than the amount of nutrients
28. The Ti Plasmid [ having T-DNA] is 2. Energy is recycled, but nutrients are not
considered a natural genetic engineer and can The requirement of nutrients is obligatory
transform: 3. for organisms but the requirement of energy
1. bacterial cells is not.
2. dicot plant cells 4. Nutrients are recycled, but energy is not.
3. monocot plant cells
4. animal cells

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31. Which of the following statement is true 34. Match List - I with List - II
about the difference between Cycas and Pinus? List - I List - II
(Phenotypic
Pinus has coralloid roots associated with N2- (Type of cross)
ratio)
1. fixing cyanobacteria, whereas Cycas has (A) Monohybrid cross (I) 1:1
roots with fungal association in the form of (B) Dihybrid cross (II) 1:2:1
mycorrhiza
Incomplete
Cycas is heterosporous, whereas Pinus is (C) (III) 3:1
2. dominance
homosporous
(D) Test cross (IV) 9:3:3:1
Male cones and female megasporophylls are
Choose the correct answer from the options
3. borne on different trees in Cycas, whereas
given below:
they are borne on the same tree in Pinus
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
Stems of Cycas are branched, whereas Pinus
4. 1. III IV II I
has unbranched stems
2. II IV III I
3. II III IV I
32. The products of non-cyclic 4. IV III I II
photophosphorylation include:
1. ATP and P700 2. ATP and NADPH
3. ADP and NADP 4. P700 and P680 35. Following compatible pollination:
the pollen germinates on the stigma to
I: produce a pollen tube through one of the
33. Match each item in Column I with one in germ pores present in the pollen intine.
Column II and select the correct match from the the contents of the pollen grain move into
II:
codes given: the pollen tube.
Group of protozoans Example pollen tube grows through the tissues of the
III:
A Amoeboid P Entamoeba stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
B Flagellated Q Paramecium if pollen grains are shed at two-celled
C Ciliated R Trypanosoma condition the generative cell divides and
IV:
forms the two male gametes during the
D Sporozoan S Plasmodium
growth of pollen tube in the stigma.
1. Only I, II and III are correct
Codes:
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
A B C D 3. Only II, III and IV are correct
1. Q S P R 4. I, II, III and IV are correct
2. S Q R P
3.
4.
P
R
R
P
Q
S
S
Q Botany - Section B
36. Which of the following is the correct
description of an anther?

1. Pollen sac
The pollen-producing reproductive organ of
2.
a flower
3. The male gametophyte of angiosperms
4. The part of a stamen that contains the pollen

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37. Single-membrane compartment found in 40. Match the terms in Column I with their
plant cells and mainly functioning in the correct description in Column II and select the
conversion of fat into sugars are: correct match from the codes given:
1. Peroxisomes COLUMN I COLUMN II
2. Glyoxysomes The first stage in development
3. Lysosomes A Protonema P
of the gametophyte in mosses.
4. Ribosomes
The photosynthetic
B. Prothallus Q
gametophyte in ferns.
38. Match each item in Column I with the one in
Column II regarding C4 plants and select the In bryophytes, the stalk that
correct match from the codes given: C. Seta R supports the capsule, if
present.
COLUMN I
COLUMN II The stem-like part of the
D. Stipe S thallus of brown algae such as
Primary acceptor of carbon
A P RuBP kelp
dioxide
Cells in which Calvin cycle
B Q PEP Codes
takes place
A B C D
Primary carbon dioxide Bundle
C R 1. P Q R S
fixation product sheath
2. Q P R S
D Example S Mesophyll
3. P Q S R
T PGA
4. Q P S R
U OAA
V Sorghum
W Wheat 41. Identify the part labelled as 3 in the given
diagram:
Codes:
A B C D
1. Q S U V
2. P S T W
3. Q R U V
4. P R T W

1. Micropyle 2. Nucellus
39. Who, amongst the following, was the first 3. Funiculus 4. Hilum
scientist to discover that plants give off oxygen
as a result of splitting water molecules during
photosynthesis, not carbon dioxide molecules 42. What term is used for ATP synthesis coupled
as thought before? to electron transport and proton movement?
1. C. B. Van Niel 2. T. W. Engelmann 1. Chemiosmosis
3. Robert Hill 4. Jan Ingenhousz 2. Oxidation
3. Glycolysis
4. Cell respiration

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43. India successfully protected itself against 48. The most thoroughly studied of the known
biopiracy in a case where in late 1997, the bacteria-plant interactions is the:
United States Patent and Trademark Office
granted a patent to: Gall formation on certain angiosperms by
1. Co-667 1.
Agrobacterium
2. Sharbati Sonora Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen-
3. Lerma Rojo 2.
fixing bacteria
4. Basmati
Plant growth stimulation by phosphate–
3.
solubilising bacteria
44. Consider the given two statements:
Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic
In water pollinated plants such as 4.
Statement ferns
seagrasses, female flowers remain
I:
submerged in water.
Statement Pollen grains in such plants are
49. In a plant, genes A, B and C are located on
II: released on to the surface of water.
different autosomes. Two plants with genotypes
AaBbCc are inter-crossed. The number of
Statement I is correct; Statement II is phenotypes and genotypes that can occur in
1.
correct their progeny will respectively be:
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 1. 6 and 8 2. 8 and 9
2.
correct 3. 4 and 16 4. 8 and 27
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 50. What acts as the terminal electron acceptor
4.
incorrect when glucose is completely oxidised inside a
cell in the presence of oxygen?
1. Hydrogen sulphide 2. Water
45. In drought-prone areas, sprays of which of 3. Oxygen 4. Pyruvic acid
the following can be used as anti-transpirant?
1. ABA 2. GA3
3. IAA 4. Benzyl amino purine
Zoology - Section A
51. First heart sound is due to
46. The detritus food chain: 1. Opening of tri and bi-cuspid valves
I: begins with dead organic matter 2. Closure of tri and bi-cuspid valves
is the major conduit of energy flow in 3. Opening of semilunar valves
II: 4. Closure of semilunar valves
aquatic ecosystem.

1. Only I is correct 52. Which part of the human brain is

2. Only II is correct concerned with the regulation of body
3. Both I and II are correct temperature?
4. Both I and II are incorrect 1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebellum
3. Cerebrum
4. Hypothalamus
47. How many ATP molecules are directly
synthesized in glycolytic pathway from one
glucose molecule?
1. 2 2. 4
3. 6 4. 10

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53. ELISA works on the principle of: 58. Leydig cells, found adjacent to the
seminiferous tubules in the testicle, secrete
1. antigen-antibody interaction their hormones when stimulated by:
2. radioactive probe tagging 1. Androgens
2. LH
3. culture of microbe in an artificial medium
3. FSH
4. histopathology 4. GnRH

59. The hormone, essential for maintaining

54. It is desirable to use restriction enzymes pregnancy, secreted in large amounts by the
that create sticky ends in recombinant DNA corpus luteum is:
technology procedures because this: 1. Estrogen
1. facilitates the action of DNA ligase
2. Progesterone
makes selection of recombinant DNA
2. 3. LH
possible
4. FSH
3. increases the copy number of rDNA per cell
will create multiple fragments of the vector
4.
DNA 60. In frogs:
I: neck and tail are absent.
II: a pair of nostrils is present.
55. The lac operon can be described as:
a membranous tympanum (ear) receives
III:
an inducible operon with a positive sound signals.
1. 1. Only I and II are correct
regulation by the repressor protein
2. Only I and III are correct
an inducible operon with a negative
2. 3. Only II and III are correct
regulation by the repressor protein
4. I, II and III are correct
a repressible operon with a positive
3.
regulation by the repressor protein 61. Which of the following will not be equal in
a repressible operon with a negative normal physiological conditions?
4.
regulation by the repressor protein Partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated
1. blood and partial pressure of oxygen in
tissues
56. Dysentery in humans can generally be Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli
caused by: 2. and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
I. bacterial infections oxygenated blood
II. parasitic infections
Partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated
III. viral infections
3. blood and partial pressure of oxygen in
1. Only I and II
alveoli
2. Only II
3. Only III Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in tissues
4. I, II and III 4. and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
deoxygenated blood
57. Both Molluscs and Echinoderms:
1. exhibit radial symmetry as adults
2. have segmented bodies
3. are diploblastic
4. are coelomates

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
62. Oral contraceptive combination pills:
I: Inhibit ovulation
II: May prevent implantation
Retard passage of sperms through the
III:
cervix
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
63. Identify the correct statements about I:
symbiotic relationships:
in a parasitic relationship, one organism is
I:
harmed and the other is benefited.
coevolution is a feature of many symbiotic
II:
relationships.
a relationship that appears to be
III: commensalism may in fact be mutualistic
or parasitic.
the most efficient type of parasite is one
IV:
that kills its host.
1. I, II and III only 2. I, III and IV only
3. II, III and IV only 4. I, II, III and IV
64. Consider the following statements:
Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed
I:
by the efferent arteriole
Afferent arteriole forms the peritubular
II:
capillary network
Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
III:
juxtamedullary nephrons
1. Only III is correct
2. I is correct but II and III are incorrect
3. I, II and III are incorrect
4. I and II are correct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
65. Identify the incorrect statement:
Leukaemias are diagnosed by blood and
1.
bone marrow tests.
2. CT scan uses X rays.
MRI uses ionising radiation and strong
3.
magnetic fields.
Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens
4. can be used for the detection of certain
cancers.
66. In a plasmid such as pBR322:
Ori controls the copy number of DNA per
cell
Multiple cloning sites are recognition
II:
sequences of common restriction enzymes
Genes for antibiotic resistance are used as
III:
selectable markers
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II, and III are correct
67. Plasmids are good cloning vectors mainly
because:
1. they are circular
2. they replicate autonomously
they are extra-chromosomal DNA molecules
3.
found in many bacterial cells
they carry genes vital for normal survival
4.
and reproduction
68. Two butterfly species are competing for the
same nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive
and coexist together, they may avoid
competition in the same garden by:
1. feeding at the same time.
2. choosing different foraging patterns.
3. increasing time spent on attacking each
other.
4. predating on each other.
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69. The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also 73. Match each item in Column I with the one in
held together in the middle of this band by a Column II and select the correct match from the
thin fibrous membrane called: codes given:
1. I-band 2. Z-line Column I Column II
3. M-line 4. Myofibril Between carpal and
A Pivot joint P
metacarpal of thumb
Saddle Between atlas and axis
B. Q
70. All the following statements regarding joint vertebrae
Medical Termination of Pregnancy are correct Gliding
except: C R Between carpal bones
joint
Hinge
It accounts for about 1/5th of the total D S Humero-ulnar joint
1. joint
number of pregnancies conceived in a year Codes
It was legalized by the Government of India A B C D
2.
in 1975
1. P Q R S
It is considered safe during the first
3. 2. Q P S R
trimester of pregnancy
3. Q P R S
4. It is legalized induced abortion
4. P Q S R

71. At which stage of HIV infection does one

usually shows symptoms of AIDS? 74. During post-transcriptional modification of
hnRNA in eukaryotes:
When viral DNA is produced by reverse
1. Capping is done at the 5’ end and tailing at
transcriptase. I:
the 3’ end
When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-
2. lymphocytes and damages a large number of II: Exons are removed from the split gene to
these. form the cistron
Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
3. 1. Only I is correct
infected person.
When the infecting retrovirus enters host 2. Only II is correct
4. 3. Both I and II are correct
cells.
4. Both I and II are incorrect

72. Which of the following will not be an

example of passive immunity? 75. The untranslated regions:
are present at only the 5’ end of the mature
I:
Foetus receiving antibodies from their mRNA in eukaryotes
1.
mother, through placenta. are not required during translation and
II:
Immunity conferred by IgA antibodies hence are spliced out of the mature mRNA
2.
present in colostrums.
Giving antivenom [containing antibodies 1. Only I is correct
3.
against venom] after snake bite 2. Only II is correct
A person developing immunity after natural 3. Both I and II are correct
4.
infection by a pathogen
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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76. Given below are the pairs of contrasting 80. Which diseases given in Column I is not
traits in Pisum sativum as studied by Mendel. correctly matched with sign and symptoms in
Select the incorrectly mentioned option from Column II?
the table given below: COLUMN I COLUMN II
Character Dominant Recessive Inflammation and swelling in
1. Filariasis
1. Flower position Terminal Axial lower limbs and scrotum
2. Seeds shape Round Wrinkled Internal bleeding, muscular
2. Ringworm
3. Pod colour Green Yellow pain, fever, and anaemia
4. Pod shape Inflated Constricted Abdominal pain, stools with
3. Amoebiasis
excess mucous, and blood clots
Fever, chills, cough, breathing
4. Pneumonia
77. Which of the following organelles in a difficulties
eukaryotic cell have circular DNA, 70 S
ribosomes and make some of their own
proteins? 81. Alec Jeffreys pioneered the technique for:
1. Golgi apparatus and Vacuole 1. DNA profiling
2. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus 2. Amplification of DNA
3. Plastids and mitochondria 3. Separation of DNA fragments in gel
4. Nucleolus and ribosomes electrophoresis
4. Artificial synthesis of gene
78. In the taxonomic categories, which
hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is 82. The tunica media in veins when compared
correct in the case of animals? to the tunic media in arteries:
1. is much thinner
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, 2. is much thicker
1. 3. is equally developed
Genus, Species
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, 4. is absent
2.
Genus, Species
83. Identify the incorrect statement:
Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order,
3.
Genus, Species
Arrangement of axonemal microtubules in
Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, 1.
4. cilia and flagella is described as 9 + 2
Genus, Species
Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is
2.
described as 9 + 0
79. Which of the following is not true regarding 3. Centrosome is involved in spindle formation
phenylketonuria? in plant cell division
Centrioles form the basal body of cilia and
4.
It is inherited as an autosomal recessive flagella
1.
condition.
The affected individual lacks the enzyme
2. 84. Which of the following is not facilitated by
phenylalanine hydroxylase.
LAB?
The affected individuals lack the capability
3.
of converting tyrosine to phenylalanine. 1. Increasing nutritional quality
Clinical features include mental retardation 2. Increasing vitamin B12 in curd
4. and a reduction in hair and skin 3. Checking disease causing microbes in
pigmentation. intestine
4. Conversion of milk to curd

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85. In the human genome: 89. The '?' in the given figure shows:
1. there are 3164.7 billion base pairs
2. largest known gene is HbS
3. more than 20 percent part codes for proteins
4. chromosome 1 has most genes

Zoology - Section B
86. The testes descend into the scrotum during
foetal life. Undescended testes are associated 1. Tight junctions
with reduced fertility. Which of the following, if 2. Adhering junctions
true, will explain normal fertility in descended 3. Gap junctions
testes? 4. Desmosomes

About 80% of undescended testes descend by 90. The spine of the scapula bone is located on
1. its:
the first year of life.
Most such cases are actually anorchia – an 1. lateral border 2. medial border
2. 3. ventral surface 4. dorsal surface
absence of testes.
The temperature of the testes in the scrotum
3. is at least a few degrees cooler than in the
abdomen. 91. The karyotype of a healthy human being
There is a high rate of anomalies of the will not show:
4. 1. Metacentric chromosomes
epididymis in boys with undescended testes.
2. Submetacentric chromosomes
3. Acrocentric chromosomes
4. Telocentric chromosomes
87. The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland
mainly control the menstrual cycle. A series of
92. In males, the Follicle Stimulating Hormone:
physiological and anatomical processes of
puberty culminates in menarche. Which of the stimulates primary spermatocytes to
following is the most important causal reason I: undergo the first division of meiosis, to form
for the onset of puberty? secondary spermatocytes.
The release of pulses of GnRH by the enhances the production of androgen-
1. II: binding protein by the Sertoli cells of the
hypothalamus
testes
The release of gonadotropins by the anterior
2.
pituitary
1. Only I 2. Only II
Inhibition of GnRH due to increase in
3. 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
circulating gonadotropins
Secretion of estrogen by the ovaries in
4.
response to pituitary hormones
93. The decrease in the rate of heartbeat, speed
of conduction of action potential and thereby
the cardiac output is under the control of
88. Dictyotene is:
1. Neural signals through the sympathetic
1. Abnormal meiosis in fungi
nerves
2. Prolonged resting phase in oogenesis
2. Neural signals through the parasympathetic
3. Failure of homologues to separate during
nerves
meiosis
3. Adrenaline
4. State of hypermotility in sperms
4. ANS

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

94. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the 96. Match the parts of the human brain in
heart can cause the release of ANF. ANF: Column I with function in Column II and select
I: is a potent vasoconstrictor the answer from the codes given:
II: can cause a decrease in blood pressure COLUMN I COLUMN II
III: acts as a check on RAAS Coordinating center for
Medulla
A. a. sensory and motor
oblongata
1. Only I and II are correct signaling
2. Only III is correct Regulation of gastric
3. Only II and III are correct B. Thalamus b.
secretions
4. Only I is correct Thermoregulation and
C. Hypothalamus c.
osmoregulation
Consolidation of short
95. Match each item in Column I with one in D. Hippocampus d. term memory into long
Column II and select the correct match from the term memory
codes given:
Codes
COLUMN
COLUMN II
I A B C D
A Heart P Synthesis of angiotensinogen 1. a b c d
Secretion of atrial natriuretic 2. b a d c
B. Lungs Q
peptide
3. a b d c
Primary site for conversion of
C. Kidneys R 4. b a c d
angiotensin I to angiotensin II
4. Liver S Secretion of renin
Codes: 97. In metamerism, there is serial repetition of
A B C D unit subdivisions of:
1. P Q R S I. Ectoderm products
2. R Q P S II. Mesoderm products
3. Q R S P III. Endoderm products
4. Q R P S 1. Only II 2. Only I and II
3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III

98. A double stranded DNA molecule from a

bacteriophage is found to consist of 23%
adenine bases. The expected percentage of
guanine in this DNA molecule will be:
1. 23 % 2. 27 %
3. 46 % 4. 54 %

99. If the heart rate is 60 per minute, the

duration of each cardiac cycle will be:
1. 0.8 seconds 2. 0.75 seconds
3. 1.0 second 4. 1.2 second

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

100. Match the follwing columns and select the 103.

correct option.
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease Product (A) in the above mentioned reaction is-
Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
1. 2. No reaction
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Chemistry - Section 3. 4.

A
101. In the structure of diborane (B2H6) , the
hybridised state of B & the maximum number
of atoms which are present in one plane, 104. The hybridisation of Ni in the complex
respectively, are [Ni(CN)4]2- is:
1. sp2 & 4 (Atomic number of Ni = 28)
2. sp3 & 4 1. dsp2
3. sp2 & 6 2. sp3
4. sp3 & 6 3. d2sp2
4. d2sp3
102.
0.1 M solution of glucose has the 105. Which of the following would have a
Assertion
same decrement in the freezing permanent dipole moment:
(A):
point as 0.1 M solution of urea. 1. BF3
Reason 2. SF4
Kf for both has the same value.
(R): 3. SiF4
4. XeF4
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True and (R) is False.
4. (A) and (R) both are False.

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

106. Hydration of the given below compound in 111. Which is not the product of hydrolysis of
the presence of H2 SO4 /H gSO4 , and/H2 O XeF6 ?
gives- 1. XeO3
2. XeO2F2
3. XeOF4
4. XeOF2

112. The correct order of ionic mobility of ions

1. 2. in an aqueous solution is:
1. K+> Na+> Rb+> Cs+
2. Cs+> Rb+> K+> Na+
3. Rb+> K+> Cs+> Na+
3. 4.
4. Na+> K+> Rb+> Cs+

113.
107. In esterification reaction, H+ ion attacks
on
1. oxygen atom of alcohol
2. doubly bonded oxygen atom of carboxylic
acid
3. singly bonded oxygen atom of carboxylic
acid
Which π bond is most reactive towards the
4. Any of the oxygen atom
attack of H + ?
1. A
108. A liquid that decomposes at its boiling
2. B
point can be purified by:
3. C
1. Distillation at atmospheric pressure 4. All π bonds have same reactivity
2. Distillation under reduced pressure
3. Fractional distillation 114. Element which has the lowest ionisation
4. Steam distillation. potential among the following is:
1. C
2. Si
109. At 100 oC the vapour pressure of a solution 3. Sn
containing 6.5 g a solute in 100g water is 4. Pb
732mm. If Kb = 0.52 oC m-1, the boiling point of
115. The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in
this solution will be +,
−
NO , NO and N H
+
are respectively:
1. 102o C 3 2 4

2. 100o C 1. sp, sp2 , sp3

3. 101o C 2. sp2 , sp, sp3
4. 100.52o C 3. sp, sp3 , sp2
4. sp2 , sp3 , sp
110. The pH of 10-6 M CH3COOH will be (ka of
CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10-5 & log 4.24 =0.63)
1. 5.37
2. 7
3. Slightly more than 6
4. 6.95

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

116. The oxidation number of sulphur in Caro's 121. Case Study:

Acid (H2SO5) is A buffer solution is defined as a solution whose
1. +8 pH remains practically constant even when
2. +7 small amounts of an acid or a base are added to
3. +6 it.
4. +5 Types of buffer solutions :
Acidic buffer: It is a solution of a mixture of
117. For the given reaction: H2NCOONH4 (s) ⇌ a weak acid and a salt of this weak acid
(i) with a strong base (e.g. CH COOH +
2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g), 3
total pressure at equilibrium is found to be 18 CH 3 COONa)
atmospheres. The value of Kp for the above Basic buffer: It is the solution of a mixture
equilibrium will be (ii) of a weak base and a salt of this weak base
1. 72 atm 3 with a strong acid (e.g. NH4OH + NH4Cl)
2. 144 atm3
Henderson's equation is used to determine pH
3. 432 atm3
of buffer mixtures of differ types:
4. 864 atm3 for acidic buffer Henderson's equation is
[Salt]

118. In which species does the central atom pH= pKa + log [Acid] (ka = ionisation constant
have one or more lone pairs of valence of weak acid )
electrons: for basic buffer Henderson's equation is :
1. AlCl− [Salt]
4
POH = Pkb + log (kb = ionisation
2. CO2 [Base]

3. P Cl+ constant of weak base )

4

4. SO2 When CH3COONa is added in CH3COOH

solution, then pH of the solution
119. 2.5 litre mixture of CO and CO2 is passed 1. Decreases
2. Increases
through red hot charcoal in a tube. The new
3. Remains unchanged
volume becomes 3.5 litre. All measurements are
4. First decreases and then increases
made at same temperature and pressure.
Percentage composition of original mixture by
volume will be
1. CO = 50%, CO2 = 50% 122. Insulin is a type of protein. How many
2. CO = 60%, CO2 = 40% amino acids form Insulin ?
3.CO = 40%, CO2 = 60% 1. 21
4.CO = 20%, CO2 = 80% 2. 31
3. 41
120. Which of the following molecules contain 4. 51
bond angles of 180° in their gaseous states?
(Atomic numbers: H = 1; Be = 4; C = 6; Cl = 17) 123. 23 % NaCl and 19.5 % MgCl2 is present in
A. BeCl2 salt water by weight. The degree of dissociation
B. C2H2 of both salts is 100%. The normal boiling point
C. CCl4 of salt water (in ºC).
1. A and C only (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) (Nearest integer) is-
2. A and B only 1. 116 oC
3. A only 2. 121 oC
4. B and C only 3. 113 oC
4. 100 oC

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

124. The correct order of least negative to most 130. Which of the following compounds has the
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F smallest bond angle?
and O is: 1. SO2
1. Al < Ca < O < C < F 2. H2O
2. Al < O < C < Ca < F 3. H2S
3. C < F < O < Al < Ca
4. NH3
4. Ca < Al < C < O < F

125. If 60% of a first-order reaction was 131. Which of the following pair of elements
completed in 60 min, 50% of the same reaction has same number of unpaired electrons in the
would be completed in approximately: ground state?
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) 1. S and Cr
2. N and Sc
1. 50 min 2. 45 min
3. O and Mn
3. 60 min 4. 40 min 4. As and V

132. The correct order of dipole moments for

126. The ionization energy of the hydrogen molecules N H3 , H2 S, CH4 and H F is :
atom is 13.6 eV and the first ionization energy
1. CH4 > H2 S > N H3 > H F
of the sodium atom is 5.1 eV. The effective
nuclear charge experienced by the valence 2. H2 S > N H3 > H F > CH4
electron of the sodium atom is - 3. N H3 > H F > CH4 > H2 S
(Round off to one decimal place) 4. H F > N H3 > H2 S > CH4
1. 2.8
2. 1.8
3. 1.2 133. Which of the following compounds
4. 2.2 undergo 𝐸2 reactions more easily?
(CH3)2C∙CH2CH3
127. The pair of compounds, from the following
pairs, that contains both the compounds with 1. |
net zero dipole moments is: Br
1. CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 2. CH3(CH2)2CH2Cl
2. 1,4-dichlorobenzene and 1,3,5- 3. CH3(CH2)2CH2I
trichlorobenzene
3. Benzene and p-Anisidine
4. Cis-dichloroethene and trans-dichloroethene 4.

128. In aqueous medium, K4[Fe(CN)6] is 40%

dissociated. The value of van't Hoff factor (i) for
K4[Fe(CN)6] will be: 134. Among
1. 5 P2 O5 , As2 O3 , Sb2 O3 and Bi2 O3 , the
2. 3.6 most acidic oxide is
3. 2.6 1. P2 O5
4. 2 2. As2 O3
3. Sb2 O3
129. Which of the following compounds has the 4. Bi2 O3
lowest boiling point?
1. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
2. CH3 CH = CH − CH2 CH3
3. CH3 CH = CH − CH = CH2
4. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

135. At equilibrium, which of the following is 140. From the given set of 14th group elements,
always zero? the element having the lowest ionisation
1. ΔGsystem 2. ΔST otal potential is
3. ΔSsystem 4. Both (1) and (2) 1. Si 2. Ge
3. Sn 4. Pb

Chemistry - Section 141. For which of the following processes will

the entropy increase?
B 1. Reaction of magnesium with oxygen to form
magnesium oxide
136. An element among the following has the
2. Reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to form
highest first ionization energy is:
ammonia
1. Tl 2. Ga 3. Sublimation of dry ice
3. Al 4. In 4. Condensation of steam

142. In Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, if

137. Calculate the approximate mass of CO2 uncertainty in the position (Δx) is equal to the
produced when 1 gm of butane (C4 H10 ) is uncertainty in the momentum (Δp) then
burned with uncertainty in the velocity (Δv) will be
an excess of O2 to form CO2 . 1 h
1. √
1. 1g 2. 2g m 2π

3. 3g 4. 4g 2.
1
√
h

2m π

1 h
3. m
√
π
138. The following equilibrium are given
1 h
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2N H3 . . . . . . . . K1 4. 2m
√
2π
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2N O . . . . . . . K2
1
H2 +
2
O 2 ⇌ H2 O . . . . . . . . K3 143. 3% (W/V) solution of glucose is isotonic
The equilibrium constant of the reaction with 1% (W/V) solution of a non-volatile and
2N H3 +
5
O2 ⇌ 2N O + 3H2 O, in terms of
non electrolyte substance. The molecular mass
2
of the substance would be
K1 , K2 and K3 is :
K1 K2
1. 180 g/mol
1. 2. 360 g/mol
K3

K1 K
2
3. 420 g/mol
2.
3

K2 4. 60 g/mol
3
K2 K

3.
3

K1 144. The molecular formula of a saturated

4. K1 K2 K3 compound is C2H4Br2. This formula permits the
existence of:
139. In the dichromate ion Cr2O72-, 1. Functional isomers
1. 4 Cr-O bonds are equivalent 2. Optical isomers
2. 6 Cr-O bonds are equivalent 3. Positional isomers
3. All Cr-O bonds are equivalent 4. Cis-trans isomers
4. None of Cr-O bonds are equivalent

Page: 18
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

145. The lattice energies of NaCl, NaF, KCl and 150. The following data were obtained during
RbCl follow the order the first order thermal decomposition of
1. KCl < RbCl < NaCl < NaF N2 O5 (g) at constant volume

2. NaF < NaCl < KCl < RbCl 2N2 O5 (g) → 2N2 O4 (g) + O2 (g)
3. RbCl < KCl < NaCl < NaF
4. NaCl < RbCl < NaF < KCl S. No. Time Total Pressure (atm)
1. 0 1
146. The following reaction is taking place:
2NO + Br → 2NOBr
2. 100 s 1.25
2

Step-01 : NO + Br2 ⇌ NOBr2 (f ast)

The rate constant of the reaction is:
Step-02 : NOBr2 + NO → 2NOBr(slow)

The order of the reaction is: 1. 0.693 s

1. 1 2. 6.93 s
3. 6.93 × 10
−2
2. 2 s

3. 3 4. 6.93 × 10
−3
s
4. 4

147. When one mole ethyl methyl ketone is Physics - Section A

oxidised with acidic K2Cr2O7 then the product 151. D1 , D2 are ideal diodes and the output
formed is (VAB ) of the transformer is 10 V (rms). The
1. Two moles of CH3COOH current through the resistor is:
2. One mole of C2H5COOH and one mole of
HCOOH
3. One mole of C2H5COOH and one mole of CO2
4. One mole of CH3COOH and 2 mole of HCOOH

148. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)4NO2Cl]SO4 is :

1. Chloronitroplatinum(IV)sulphate
2. Tetraamminechloridonitrito-
Nplatinum(IV)sulphate 1. zero
3. 2. 20 mA
Chloronitrotetraammineplatinum(IV)sulphate 3. 40 mA
4. Platinum(IV)tetraamminenitrochloro
4. 20√2 mA
sulphate
152. Photons and electrons of the same
149. What mass of copper will be deposited by
wavelength are compared. Which one carries
passing 2 faraday of electricity through a
larger momentum?
solution of Cu(II) salt?
1. 35.6 g
2. 63.5 g 1. photon
3. 6.35 g 2. electron
4. 3.56 g 3. neither, since both have equal momenta
4. it could be either, depending on the energy

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

153. An ideal monoatomic gas at a temperature 155. Plane waves of light of wavelength λ are
of 300 K and a pressure of 10 atm is suddenly incident onto a convex lens, and the beam is
allowed to expand into vacuum so that its brought to a focus. A plane slab of thickness t
volume is doubled. No exchange of heat is having refractive indices μ1 , μ2 in the upper
allowed to take place between the gas and its and lower halves is placed parallel to the
surroundings during the process. After incoming wavefronts. The phase difference
equilibrium is reached, the final temperature between the wavefronts at the focus, coming
is: from the upper and lower halves of the slab is:
1. 300 K
300
2. K5/3
2
300
3. 2/3
K
2

4. 600 K

154. A capacitor is constructed by taking

metallic circular discs of radius r placed face-
to-face with a separation of d. A dielectric slab
is inserted into the space between the plates so
that it fills the entire width, but only half the
area between the plates. The dielectric constant 1. 2π
[(μ1 − 1) t + (μ2 − 1) t]
λ
is K. Then, the capacitance is: 2π

Kε πr
2 2. (μ1 − μ2 ) t
1.
0 λ

2π t t
d

Kε πr
2 3. (
μ1
−
μ2
)
λ
2. 2d
0

2π t t
K+1 ε πr
2 4. ( + )
3. 2
0 μ1 μ2
λ
d

4. None of the above

156. An inductor (L) and a resistor (R) are
connected in series and a battery is connected,
as shown in the figure. Once the current
becomes steady, the power in the resistance is
PR and the energy stored in the inductor is UL .

The switch is suddenly (and smoothly) toggled

to the position B allowing the inductor to
discharge. The time in which the energy stored
1
becomes 2 its initial value is

UL
1. PR

UL ln2
2.
PR

2UL ln2
3.
PR

2UL
4. PR

Page: 20
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. A light rod AB is hinged at A so that it is 159. Given below are two statements:
free to rotate about A. It is initially horizontal
with a small block of mass m attached at B, A nucleus may be left excited after
and a spring (constant - k) holding it vertically Statement emission of α or β particles,
up at its mid-point. The time period of vertical I: which then radiates γ -ray
oscillations of the system is photons.
Statement Nucleus has discrete energy levels
II: as present in the atom.

1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
m 4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
1. 2π√
k

m
2. π√
k 160. A block of wood is immersed in water
3. 4π√
m (assume that the wood is impervious to water),
k
and it floats half immersed. It is placed in an
4.
π
√
m elevator which is accelerating upward. Then,
2 k
the block floats, slightly more of it out of the
1. water.
158. The resistance between A, B is found to be
500 Ω while that between A, C is 400 Ω. The
the block floats, slightly less of it out of the
minimum possible value of R2 is: 2. water.

3. the block floats, half-immersed.

4. the block sinks completely.

161. A household ac circuit has an applied

voltage of 220 V (RMS) and the current flowing
through the circuit is 2.2 A (RMS), the phase
∘
difference between them being 60 . Then,

1. 100 Ω
1. the impedance in the circuit is 100 Ω.
2. 200 Ω 2. the resistance in the circuit is 200 Ω.
3. 400 Ω 3. the power dissipated is 484 W.
4. 900 Ω 4. all the above are true.

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

162. A block of 1 kg is released from a top of a
smooth curve AB, and then it encounters a
rough surface BC, coming to rest at C. The work
done by friction is: (g = 10 m/s2)
164. Two small paramagnetic samples are
placed in an (otherwise uniform) strong
external magnetic field B. If the two samples
are placed with a separation that is along the
direction of the external field B, then, the force
exerted by the two samples on each other is:

1. attractive.
2. repulsive.
3. zero.
any of the above depending on the external
4.
field B and the sample separation.

1. 25 J 165. A particle moves around a circle with a

2. 50 J
3. −25 J
4. −50 J
163. A block of mass m, placed on a rough
incline (as shown) – is observed to remain at
rest. The coefficient of friction is μ. The net
force exerted by the incline on the block equals
(in magnitude)
unique uniform speed in each revolution. After
the first revolution and during the 2nd
revolution: its speed doubles; and during the 3
rd revolution, its speed becomes 3 times the
initial speed and so on. The time for the 1st
revolution is 12 sec. The average time per
revolution, for the first four revolutions, is:
1. 4.8 s
2. 9.6 s
3. 6.25 s
4. 6 s

166. The radiation emerging from a furnace

(blackbody) is found to have a most probable
wavelength λm and the gas molecules (air)
emerging from it have an rms speed v. As the
temperature of the furnace is varied:

1. mg cosθ + μmg cosθ

2. mg cosθ√1 + μ2
3. mg sinθ
4. mg

1. λm ∝ v
1
2. λm ∝
v

3. λm ∝ v
2

1
4. λm ∝
v2

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

167. A heavy but uniform rope of length L is 171. At the moment of projection of a projectile
suspended from a ceiling, Velocity of a (mass: m, initial speed: u, angle of projection: θ)
transverse wave travelling on the string as a the power due to the force of gravity is
function of the distance from the lower end is : 1. -mg u
1. √gx 2. mg u cosθ
2. 2√gx 3. -mg u cos2θ
g
4. -mg u sinθ
3. √ x
g
172. A projectile is fired so as to give a
4. 2√ x maximum horizontal range of 1 km. What
would be the maximum height reached by it if
it were to be fired vertically upward?
1. 2 km
168. Which, of the following, is dimensionless? 2. 1 km
1
1. impedance × conductance 3. 2 km
emissive power 1
2. 4. 4
km
emissivity

electric field
3. 173. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a
magnetic field

inductance positive charge q distributed uniformly over it.

4. The net potential at the center O is:
capacitance

169. In the given circuit, A, B and C are the

inputs and Y is the output. Then Y is:

q
1. − 2πε
1. high for all the low inputs. 0r

2. high when A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 . 2. − 4πε

0r

q
3. low when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 . 3. 4πε0 r

4. low for all low inputs. 4. 0

170. A ray of light is incident on a mirror which

is lying on the x − y plane. The reflected ray
travels along the direction of the vector
3 i − 4 j + 2k. The incident ray must be along:
^ ^ ^

1. −3^
i + 4^ ^
j + 2k

2. 3^
i − 4^ ^
j − 2k

3. ^ ^ ^
−3 i − 4 j + 2k

4. ^ ^ ^
−3 i + 4 j − 2k

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

174. The center of mass of a combination of a 176. Two identical capacitors, each of
hemispherical shell and a cylindrical shell, both capacitance C, are connected in series and are
having the same height and radii and same charged by means of an ideal battery of emf E.
mass, lies at a distance h from the center of the They are disconnected and reconnected in
hemisphere. Then, h equals parallel and connected to the same battery.
During this reconnection, the positive terminals
of the capacitors are connected to the positive
terminal of the battery and their negative
terminals are similarly connected together. Let,
the work done by the battery during the first
connection be W1, and during the second be
W2. Then,
1. W1 = W2
R
1. 2 2. 2W1 = W2
2.
R
3. W1 = 2W2
π

3. π
2R 4. 4W1 = W2
4. zero
177. Given below are two statements:
175. The electric field, at the centre of a square The pressure within a small air
with charges placed at its four vertices as Assertion (A): bubble under water is greater
shown in the figure, is: than the corresponding
1 pressure outside the bubble.
(k = )
4πε 0 This additional pressure within
the air bubble is due to the
Reason (R):
force of the surface tension of
water.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A).
1. zero
kq
2. 4 2
a
kq
3. 2 2
a
kq
4. 2√2 2
a

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 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

178. A large cylindrical piece of a dense solid 180. The acceleration due to gravity, g, near a
elastic metal stands on its end as shown in the spherically symmetric planet's surface
figure. The metal is uniform and isotropic. The decreases with height, h according to the
stress in the material as a function of height is relation:
shown correctly by: g(h) = gs - k·h, where h ≪ the
radius of the planet.
The escape speed from the planet's surface is
g
1.
s

2 √k
gs
2.
√k

2gs
3.
√k

1. 4. gs √
2

181. Identical cells are connected to identical

square wire loops as shown in the two
diagrams, and the magnetic fields are
respectively B1 and B2 at the centres.
2.

3. 4.

Then, we can conclude that

1. B1 > 0, B2 = 0
2. B1 > B2 > 0
179. An equimolar mixture of helium (H e) and 3. B2 > B1 > 0
hydrogen (H2 ) gases is kept in a vessel at a 4. B1 = 0, B2 = 0
temperature of 500 K. Then:
182. Photons of wavelength λ cause the
Helium and hydrogen molecules have the emission of photoelectrons from a metallic
1.
same kinetic energy on average. surface, the de-Broglie wavelength of the fastest
1 1
RMS speeds of helium and hydrogen photoelectron being λd . A graph of vs is:
2. λ λ
molecules are equal.
d

The translational kinetic energy of hydrogen 1. a straight line passing through the origin.
3.
and helium molecules is equal.
2. a circle.
4. All of the above are true.
3. an ellipse.
4. a parabola.

Page: 25
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section B
183. Given below are two statements:
In total internal reflection, the
angle of incidence must be 186. Calculate the time period of a simple
Statement I: greater than a certain minimum pendulum of length 1 m. Acceleration due to
angle which depends on the gravity at the place is π 2 ms−2 .
media involved. 1. 1 s
Total internal reflection cannot 2. 2 s
occur when light is travelling 3. 3 s
Statement II: 4. 4 s
from an optically rarer to a
denser medium.

Statement I is incorrect and statement II is 187. A long cylindrical solenoid of length L and
1. total number of turns N produces a magnetic
correct.
field B0 at its centre with a current of 1 A
Both statement I and statement II are
2. flowing through its coils. If the same current of
correct.
1 A is sent through a circular wire of radius R
Both statement I and statement II are then the same field B0 is produced at its centre.
3.
incorrect.
Then, R/L equals
Statement I is correct and statement II is 1. N
4.
incorrect. 1
2.
N

3. 2N
1
184. Light, having a wavelength equal to the 4. 2N
first line of the Balmer series, is incident onto a
metal of work-function 2 eV. The kinetic energy 188. Two blocks of masses 2m, m are placed on
of the ejected electron is: a smooth horizontal table and they are in
1. 1.4 eV contact on their smooth slanted surfaces. A
2. 0.5 eV horizontal force F, equal to mg, is applied to the
3. 0.1 eV system from the left, which causes them to
4. no electrons are ejected accelerate. Let N be the normal reaction from
A
the table on A, and NB on B. Then
185. An electromagnetic waveform which has
an
→ = E0 [^ı cos(ωt − kz) + ^ȷ cos(ωt − kx)]
electric field given by: E
and the waveform propagates. The maximum
electric field has the magnitude:
E0
1.
1. NA = 2 mg, NB = mg
√2

2. √2 E0
2. NA > 2mg, NB < mg
3. Eo
4. 2Eo 3. NA < 2mg, NB > mg
4. NA < 2mg, NB < mg

Page: 26
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

189. In a Wheatstone's network, P = 2Ω , Q = 2Ω 191. A uniform rod of mass m and length L is

, and R = 2Ω and S = 3Ω . The resistance with struck at both ends by two particles of masses
which S is to be shunted in order that the m, each moving with identical speeds u, but in
bridge may be balanced is opposite directions, perpendicular to its length.
1. 1Ω The particles stick to the rod after colliding
2. 2Ω with it. The system rotates with an angular
3. 4Ω speed:
4. 6Ω

190. A uniform cylinder of mass M , radius R

and height 3R is placed upright on a horizontal
surface. A particle of mass m is placed on the
top of the cylinder at its edge. For what
minimum value of m will the cylinder topple?

u
1. L
2u
2. L
12u
3. 7L
6u
4. L

1. m = 3M 192. A gas is compressed adiabatically. Which

M of the following statements is not correct?
2. m =
3
1. Internal energy is constant
3M
3. m =
2
2. Temperature increases
No value of m will cause the cylinder to 3. |Work done| = |change in internal energy|
4.
topple. 4. Heat is not supplied to the system

193. In a certain region of space, equipotential

surfaces of the electric field are drawn -
corresponding to
V = 10 volt and V = 9.9 volts. There is no

field along the z-direction. At a certain point P ,

on the 10−volt surface, the distance P Q1 , to
−
−→
the 9.9 volt surface is 2 mm when P Q1 is along
−
−→
the x-axis. On the other hand, if P Q2 is taken
parallel to the y-axis, the corresponding
distance P Q2 = 1 mm. The electric field at P is
along:
1. 2^
ı + ^
ȷ

2. 2^
ȷ + ^
ı

1
3. ^
ı + ^
ȷ
4

1
4. ^
ȷ + ^
ı
4

Page: 27
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

194. The self-inductance of a long solenoid of 197. Two particles A, B move along the
cross-section A, total length L and total periphery of a circle of radius R, with the same
number of turns N , is (approximately): uniform speed u. Particle A follows B, a
μ A
1. L ⋅ N
0
quarter of the circumference behind it. The
μ A
acceleration of A relative to B is
2. L ⋅ N 2
0

3
μ0 L
3. ⋅ N
A
3
μ0 L
4. ⋅ N
2

195. A parallel beam of light is incident onto a

converging lens (L1 ) of focal length 20 cm. A
second identical lens (L2 ) is to be placed
behind L1 , coaxially, so that the emerging 1. zero 2
2u
beam is parallel. The distance between L1 and 2. R
L2 should be:
2
u
3.
√2R
2
√2u
4.
R

198. Assuming that the diodes D1 and D2 used

in the electric circuit as shown in the figure are
ideal. The value of current flowing through the
1 Ω resistance will be:

1. 10 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 40 cm
4. zero

196. Given below are two statements:

Water flows through a smooth
horizontal tube with a
2
Assertion (A): narrowing cross-section and its 1. 3
A

pressure increases. 2. 2 A
3. 1 A
Bernoulli's equation for fluids 1
4. 2 A
1
Reason (R): states that P + 2 ρv2 + ρgh =
constant along a streamline. 199. Two sources of sound vibrating at 200 Hz
and 204 Hz are sounded together. The beat
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the frequency heard is:
1. 1. 202 Hz
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 2. 404 Hz
2. 3. 4 Hz
correct explanation of (A).
4. 2 Hz
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Page: 28
 High Yield Test #20 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

200. A force 2xˆ i − 3y j acts on a particle

2ˆ

when it is at the location (x, y). This force is:

1. non-conservative
conservative and the potential energy is
2. 2 3
(x − y )

conservative and the potential energy is

3. 3 2
(y − x )

conservative, but it cannot have a potential

4.
energy

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