SECTION I:

1. First law of Fryette; states

(a) when the spine is in flexion: side bending to one side will be accompanied by
horizontal rotation to opposite side
(b) when the spine is in extension: side bending to one side will be accompanied by
horizontal rotation to same side
(c) when the spine is in neutral: side bending to one side will be accompanied by
horizontal rotation to same side
(d) when the spine is in neutral: side bending to one side will be accompanied by
horizontal rotation to opposite side
2. Differential diagnosis for physical therapist is important for:
(a) to set up a patient diagnosis away from physician's diagnosis.
(b) to find out the primary causative factor and select the type of tissue to be treated.
(c) to discuss the final diagnosis with the physician.
(d) to compare clinical diagnosis with patient's radiological findings.
3. Spine stabilization system is based on:
(a) passive, active subsystem and control system.
(b) strong back and abdominal muscles, strong ligamentous system and back support
brace.
(c) intact neural system, passive integrated system of fascia, and strong muscles.
(d) equal bony structures, strong muscles, no physical and mental stresses.
4. On examination of a patient suffers from inability to carry any weight by right
hand, the therapist found out a painful and weak biceps muscle of the affected
side. This may indicate
(a) muscle or tendon rupture.
(b) gross trauma or partial rupture of muscle-or-tendon.
(c) nerve lesion.
(d) minor muscle tendon trauma.
5. According to McKenzie protocol Mechanical spinal pain means :
(a) pain arising from deformation of soft tissue.
(b) pain increases or decreases with different body positions or motions.
(c) both a and b
(d) pain that does not respond to positional changes or body movement.].
6. According to Mckenzie protocol, the statement of "Mechanical deformation of
tissues" is applied on":
(a) the postural syndrome.
(b) the dysfunction syndrome.
(c) the derangement syndrome
(d) all of the answers.
7. According to Mckenzie protocol, "abnormal forces on normal tissue" is a statement
of
(a) postural syndrome.
(b) dysfunction syndrome.
(c) derangement syndrome.
(d) none of the answers.
8. According to Mckenzie protocol, "Normal forces on abnormal tissue" is a
statement of
(a) postural syndrome.
(b) dysfunction syndrome.
(c) derangement syndrome.
(d) none of the answers.
9. According to Mckenzie protocol, characteristics of postural syndromes:
(a) Common age is over 30 years of age.
(b) Common age is between 20-55 years old.
(c) Symptoms cease only with a change of position.
(d) Symptoms can be felt locally at the spine or it is referred to the buttocks or legs.
10. According to Mekenzie protocol, characteristics of derangement syndromes are all
the following except:
(a) Centralization phenomenon.
(b) Completely blocked some spinal movement.
(c) Common age is between 20-55 years old.
(d) There is no pathology occurs.
11. According to McKenzie protocol, "centralization phenomenon" characterized by all
the followings except:
(a) Defined as the situation in which pain arising from the spine is reduced and
transferred to be more central.
(b) Happen when improvement took place.
(c) Occurs in the Postural syndrome.
(d) Occurs in the derangement syndrome.
12. ...........describes the motions that occur between the joint surfaces and also the
distensibility or "give" in the joint capsule, which allows the bones to move.
(a) Osteokinematics
(b) Physiological movements
(c) Component motions
(d) Joint play motion
13. In....... new points on one surface meet new points on the opposing surface.
(a) sliding
(b) spinning
(c) rolling
(d) distraction
14. Motions like upward rotation of the scapula and rotation of the clavicle, which
occurs with shoulder flexion, is considered
(a) component motion ☺
(b) spinning
(c) joint play
(d) rolling
15. To inerease flexion in the wrist joint, ........ technique is used
(a) volar glide
(b) dorsal glide
(c) caudal glide
(d) radial glide
16. With hip flexion and internal rotation, the articulating surface slides
(a) caudally
(b) anteriorly
(c) posteriorly
(d) none of the answers
17. When attempting to maintain available range by using joint-play techniques..........
technique can be used.
(a) grade l sustained
(b) grade II oscillating
(c) grade lll oscillating
(d) grade III sustained
18. For painful joints, apply intermittent distraction for………..with a few seconds of
rest in between for several cycles. 10 seconds
(a) 1 to 5 seconds
(b) 7 to 10 second
(c) 10 to 20 seconds
(d) 1 minute
19. In order to increase Range of motion of sub-talar inversion
(a) grade II lateral glide
(b) grade IV lateral glide
(c) grade II medial glide
(d) grade IV medial glide
20. Passive range of motion exercises, or arc stretching procedures, when the bony
lever is used to stretch a tight joint capsule, may cause increased pain or joint
trauma because:
(a) The roll without a slide does not replicate normal joint mechanics.
(b) The amplitude of the motion is small yet specific to the restricted portion
(c) The use of lever significantly decreases the force at the joint
(d) All of the answers
21. A case suffering from post-fracture stiffness of the knee joint with limitation of
knee flexion. With pain experienced after tissue limitation. The recommended
technique is
(a) Grade IV graded oscillation technique anterior glide with medial rotation of tibia
(b) Grade ll graded oscillation technique posterior glide with medial rotation of tibia
(c) Grade lll translatory joint play technique anterior glide with lateral rotation of tibia
(d) Grade lll translatory joint technique posterior glide with medial rotation of tibia
22. Initial mobilization of hip joint from
(a) 10 flexion 10 abduction slight lateral rotation
(b) 30 flexion 30 abduction slight lateral rotation
(c) 30 flexion 30 abduction slight medial rotation
(d) Maximal extension, abduction and internal rotation
23. During ROT right of L2,
(a) left facet in conversion
(b) right facet in conversion
(c) left facet in compression
(d) right facet in compression.
24. During flexion at T10
(a) conversion at the left facet
(b) compression at the right facet
(c) conversion at right facet
(d) diversion at right and left facet
25. ERS left at T10
(a) diversion at the left facet
(b) compression at the left facet
(c) conversion at left side
(d) conversion at right facet.
26. In extension, the lumbar vertebra will tilt
(a) anterior
(b) posterior
(c) lateral
(d) medial.
27. In the case of an NS-left R-right of T12-L2
(a) right facet in conversion
(b) left facet in conversion
(c) right facet in compression
(d) left facet in diversion
28. In the neutral lumbar spine, side bending and rotation are coupled movements
that are mechanically forced to occur
(a) ipsilateral
(b) contralateral
(c) unilateral
(d) bilateral
29. Lumbar facet joint is arranged in sagittal plane at ........ to the transverse plane,
allow flexion and extension.
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 45
(d) 20
30. The alignment of the thoracic ZAJs, the superior joint processes are tilted upright
at an average angle of 70° and are tilted........ anteriorly on the sides.

(a) 60°
(b) 70°
(c) 45°
(d) 20°
31. The articular facet joint
(a) synovial joint
(b) fibrous joint
(c) cartilaginous joint
(d) all of the answers.
32. The superior articular surface of facet of L3 facet
(a) backward, and lateral
(b) backward,upward, and lateral
 (c) posterior, downward, and medial
(d) backward, and medial
33. To maximally close a right facet joint in a triplanar fashion.
(a) combined FB, left SB, and right ROT
(b) combined BB, left SB, and right ROT
(c) combined FB, right SB, and left ROT
(d) combined BB, right SB, and left ROT
34. To maximally open a right facet joint in a triplanar fashion.
(a) combined BB, left SB, and left ROT
(b) combined BB, left SB, and right ROT
(c) combined FB, right SB, and left ROT
(d) combined FB, left SB, and right ROT.
35. Centering in Pilates exercise mean:
(a) control of every aspect of every moment
(b) interaction between activity and surrounding
(c) place of starting
(d) attention and commitment.
36. On examination of patient (30-year-old) suffers from low back pain concentrated
on right side, no history of trauma, and negative radiological examination. Looking
for the primary causative factor (s) the therapist may found:
(a) weak back and abdominal muscles that may affect lumbosacral stability.
(b) facet joint arthritis, and/or disc lesion that press on nerve roots.
(c) structural inadequacy of one of lower extremities that make unequal stresses and
scoliosis of thoraco-lumbar spine, or congenital shortening of hamstrings muscles.
(d) the patient may be psychogenic with hysterical attitude.
37. Patient, 35 years-old, suffers from continuous throbbing and pulsating pain on the
top of the head, the therapist may check for:
(a) neck muscles-fascial system, versus temporomandibular joint dysfunction.
(b) physical and/ or mental stresses versus visual acuity.
(c) blood pressure versus first cervical root irritation.
(d) blood glucose level versus neck muscle trigger points.
38. A patient with right shoulder pain went for a center of physical therapy looking for
the primary causative factor treatment. The therapist should investigate the
following structures:
(a) rotated atlas vertebra.
(b) liver and gall bladder dysfunction, intrinsic shoulder structures, diaphragm.
(c) cancer, colitis, heart problems.
(d) thoracic outlet, thoracic spine, and forward head posture.
39. If the predominant symptom is no pain but weakness; the problem may be due to:
(a) dermatological disease
(b) osteoporosis (fragile bone).
(c) myofascial dysfunction.
(d) neurological in order.
40. During treating patient with low back pain in a center of physical therapy, the patient still
suffers from night pain, burning pain during urination, sweating and fever. The therapist
should:
(a) continue the treatment regardless of patient’s complain.
 (b) refer the patient back to physician and discuss the case with the physician.
(c) send the patient for lab examination of kidney and/or urinary tract investigation.
(d) prescribe some analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs for the patient.
41. The intimate relation of the structures of the upper quadrant of the body and the
mechanical and functional relation may lead to the following:
(a) synchronization of motion and feeling of pain in all structures during any disorder.
(b) double crush syndrome between shoulder and cervical spine, postural default., and
motion disorder of both neck and shoulder on the same side.
(c) radiating pain from the shoulder to the lower back and hip joint.
(d) muscle spasm in the thoracic region that cause pain to radiate into the chest.
42. For a patient with inter-scapular pain, the therapist during screening of the patient
should correlate the input of the following structures:
(a) cervical disorders, myofascial pain of the rhomboidi (major and minor), thoracic
spine, visceral structures.
(b) congenital anomalies of the cervical and thoracic spine, shoulder dysfunction.
(c) primary causes as osteoporosis, poliomyelitis, idiopathic scoliosis, heart problems.
(d) forward head posture, work nature or demand, middle ear infection.
43. All the following is true about IASTM except
(a) it generates micro-traumatic damage to treat area
(b) it is skilled myofascial method used for soft tissue mobilization
(c) it can be used for treating open wounds
(d) it is used for pain block
(e) it creates inflammatory response.
44. Angle of stroke in Graston technique is usually
(a) 0-30°
(b) 30-60
(c) 60-90°
(d) 70°-90°
45. At the end of GT session....... is used to control bruising.
(a) thermotherapy
(b) electrical stimulation
(c) hydrotherapy
(d) cryotherapy
(e) another session
46. Clinical indications of the spinal traction are the following except
(a) para-spinal muscle spasm
(b) joint hyper-mobility
(c) nerve root impingement
(d) disc bulge or herniation.
47. Contraindications of the spinal traction are the following except
(a) acute injury or inflammation
(b) chronic injury or inflammation
(c) uncontrolled hypertension (140/ 90)
(d) peripheralization of symptoms with traction)
48. Duration for application of static cervical spine traction is
(a) 20 to 30 minutes
(b) 15 to 20 minutes
 (c) 10 to 15 minutes
(d) 5-10 minutes.
49. Electric mechanical traction units can apply
(a) static traction of varying force
(b) intermittent traction of varying force
(c) static or intermittent traction of varying force
(d) static or intermittent traction of same force.
50. Excessive treatment by Graston technique can be prevented by
(a) time of treatment session is 20 m
(b) treating one lesion for 5 m
(c) using excessive pressure
(d) treat area for one hour
(e) treating one area for no more than 1 m.
51. For passive scapular approximation test, pain in the scapular area may be
indicative of:
(a) T1 or T2 nerve root
(b) T3 or T4 nerve root
(c) none of the answers
(d) all of the answers.
52. For thoracic mobilization techniques, anterior directed central gliding technique is
suitable for:
(a) unilateral pain
(b) bilateral pain
(c) all of the answers
(d) none of the answers.
53. Graston technique can be used for
(a) assessment
(b) treatment
(c) assessment and treatment
(d) home program and follow up.
54. Graston technique can improve the following except
(a) range of motion
(b) oxygen and blood flow
(c) infection
(d) inflammation reduction
(e) Iymph flow.
55. Graston technique uses ....... tools made of stainless-steel.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
56. High impact exercise needs:
(a) short time for training
(b) low energy expenditure
(c) one foot off the ground
(d) long time for training.
57. If intermittent traction is used for treatment of a disc problem
 (a) hold time is 60 seconds and relax time is 20 seconds
(b) hold time is 20 seconds and relax time is 60 seconds
(c) hold time is 60 seconds and relax time is 60 seconds
(d) hold time is 20 seconds and relax time is 20 seconds.
58. If traction is being used to treat a spinal joint problem
(a) hold time is 60 seconds and relax time 20 seconds
(b) hold time is 15 seconds and relax time s 15 seconds
(c) hold time is 20 seconds and relax time is 60 seconds
(d) hold time is 20 seconds and relax time is 20 seconds.
59. In first thoracic nerve root stretch test, the patient abducts the arm to
(a) 90°
(b) 120°
(c) 45°
(d) none of the answers
60. In transverse directed rotational gliding, the direction of the pressure should always
(a) away from the painful side
(b) towards the painful side
(c) all of the answers
(d) none the answers].
61. Mobilize broad regions of the spine rather than individual spinal segments,
potentially inducing

(a) hypo mobility

(b) hyper mobility
(c) normal mobility
(d) No mobility.
62. Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by except......pain
(a) acute musculoskeletal
(b) presence of trigger points
(c) muscle spasm
(d) referred
(e) visceral
63. One of local deep muscle of lumbar core is
(a) multifidus muscle
(b) psoas major muscle
(c) rectus abdominis
(d) quadratus lumborum).
64. One of the characteristics of Pilates is:
(a)one foot off the ground
(b)high energy expenditure
(c)both foot off the ground
(d)high impact between foot and ground.
65. One of low impact exercise is:
(a) Pilates
(b) running
(c) jumping
(d) squat jumps.
66. One Pilates roll up is equal to
(a) five regular set up exercises
(b) six regular set up exercises
(c) seven regular set up exercises
(d) four regular set up exercises.
67. Over-the-door cervical traction units can be used for the application of
(a) Intermittent cervical traction only
(b) static lumbar traction only
(c) static cervical traction only
(d) Intermittent lumbar traction only.
68. Static mechanical lumbar traction is useful for the following except
(a) Inflammation
(b) joint dysfunction
(c) disc protrusion
(d) symptoms aggravated by motion.
69. The application of lumbar traction exceeding 50 % of the patient's total body
weight may
(a) increase the prior symptoms
(b) decrease the prior symptoms
(c) radiate pain
(d) improve function
70. The Hold/relax time (seconds) for cervical Joint distraction is
(a) 5/5
(b) 15/15
(c) 20/60
(d) 60/20.
71. The Hold/relax time (seconds) for Decrease cervical muscle spasm is
(a) 5/5
(b) 15/15
(c) 20/60
(d) 60/20.
72. The most preferable term of Pilates is
(a) pilates exercises
(b) pilates system
(c) pilates training
(d) pilates maneuvers.
73. The spine become in V-shape in any exercise:
(a) roll up exercise
(b) the teaser exercise
(c) side kick exercise
(d) one leg kick exercise.
74. The target muscle in one leg kick exereise is:
(a) hamstrings
(b) tibialis anterior
(c) gluteus minimus
(d) gracilis
75. The target muscle in swimming exercise is:
 (a) transversus abdominis
(b) gluteus medius
(c) gluteus minimus
(d) gracilis.
76. The theory states that an injury to muscle fibers disrupt SR, which allow for
abnormal increase in the release of calcium is called ......theory
(a) radiculopathic pain
(b) muscle spindle
(c) pain-spasm
(d) integrated hypothesis
(e) pain gate.
77. Traction unit and Spreader bar are from components of
(a) electrical mechanical traction
(b) weighted mechanical traction
(c) positional traction
(d) auto-traction.
78. When the exercise performed in smooth, steady and continuous manner, it is
called:
(a) Precision
(b) Flow
(c) Contrology
(d) concentration.
79. When treating with Graston technique, the therapist.
(a) uses instrument with large surface
(b) slows rate of movement
(c) moves deep enough to reach restriction
(d) strokes in multiple directions
(e) apply electrotherapy
80. The kyphotic deformity of the thoracic spine that result from post-menopausal
osteoporosis is
(a) round back deformity
(b) hump back
(c) dowager’s hump
(d) Flat back
81. A number of other spinal traction devices are also available for home application
of static or intermittent Lumbar or cervical traction. These devices offer more
treatment options but are
(a) less expensive than over- the door devices
(b) less complex to use
(c) take up less space in the home
(d) more expensive and complex.
82. Axillary ultrasound is preferable to be used in
(a) axillary lymphedema
(b) referred neck pain
(c) adhesive capsulitis
(d) impingement syndrome
(e) referred shoulder pain.
83. Basic principles of Mulligans' MWM, NAGs and SNAGs include
(a) mobilizations are painful
(b) performed in no weight bearing positions
(c) they follow Kalten born passive mobilization treatment plane rule
(d) mobilizations couldn't produce immediate relive of pain
(e) both a and b.

84. Characteristics of roll include:

(a) joint surfaces are maximally congruent
(b) roll results in swing of the bone
(c) rolling is always in the opposite direction of the swing of the moving bone
(d) new points on one surface contact the same point on the opposing surface.
85. Difficulty in swallowing may indicates
(a) ligament softness
(b) swelling of soft tissue
(c) tear of soft tissue
(d) all of the answers
(e) none of the answers
86. Compression test of the cervical spine will test
(a) narrowed foramen
(b) widened foramen
(c) vascular compression
(d) bone disease
(e) ligament tightness
87. Failure to improve the sign with Mulligans' mobilization may be due to
(a) the technique is not indicated
(b) using accurate grade of mobilization, on the spinal segmen
(c) the correct treatment plane was used
(d) all of the answers
(e) none of the answers
88. Most of cases diagnosed as lumbar disc prolapse can be treated without surgery,
this depends on
(a) patient's posture
(b) laboratory reports
(c) patient's symptoms
(d) physician referral
(e) none of the answers].
89. Myotome test of ........is mainly for wrist extension.
(a) C5
(b) C6
(c) C7
(d) C8
(e) T1
90. Myotome test of ........... is mainly for little finger movements.
(a) C5
(b) C6
 (c) C7
(d) C8
(e) T1

91. Opening gate of pain will be due to stimulation of

(a) T-cells
(b) substantia gelatinosa
(c) small nerve fibres
(d) cerebellum
(e) cerebrum.
92. Quadrant test of the cervical spine will test the........system
(a) nervous
(b) muscular
(c) ligamentous
(d) articular
(e) vascular
93. Sclerotome of the humerus is mainly supplied from ...... spinal segment.
(a) C1-C2
(b) C2-C3
(c) C5-C6
(d) T1-T2
(e) none of the answers
94. Spurling's sign when it is positive indicates muscle strain at the
(a) opposite side
(b) same side
(c) both sides
(d) ipsilateral arm
(e) contralateral arm.
95. The physical therapist has done shoulder joint mobilization techniques and has
asked you to instruct the patient in interventions to maintain the new ROM.
You could choose from any of the following except:
(a) shoulder joint self-stretching
(b) isometric strengthening of targeted muscle groups
(c) auto-mobilization techniques
(d) active ROM exercises.
96. To palpate the thoracic facet joints
(a) move medially 2 to 3 cm
(b) move laterally 2 to 3cm
(c) move medially 1 to 5 cm
(d) none of the answers
97. Triceps brachii tendon reflex will test...... spinal segment.
(a) C1-C2
(b) C2-C3
(c) C5-C6
(d) C1-C5
(e) C7-C8
98. When there is a difficulty in finger wiggle, the main problem will be from
 (a) motor nerve
(b) sensory nerve
(c) autonomic nerve
(d) nerve plexus
(e) nerve ending.
99. When there is a loss of pain in pinch test, the main problem will be from
(a) motor nerve
(b) sensory nerve
(c) autonomic nerve
(d) nerve plexus
(e) nerve ending.
100. Which joint mobilization technique is the concurrent application of a
therapist-applied mobilization and an active movement to end range by the
patient?
(a) manipulation
(b) physiological movement
(c) accessory movement
(d) mobilization with movement.

SECTION II:
1) Mobilization is the passive movement of a joint through its' physiological or accessory
ranges of motion. Compare between; roll, slide, traction, compression and spin procedures.
Drawings can be used
2) In treating a patient’s case you have to frame your plan in some criteria (important to topics)
Explain your method of thinking in treatment of any patient referred for physical therapy
3) Explain cervical nerve root syndrome
4) Lambo-sacral disc causes various clinical problems Discuss
5) Define mulligan concept types and basic principles Explain the physiological effects of
mulligan technique