Introduction to Criminology and Psychology of Crime

1. It is a type of victims by HENTIG, it is victim who asked for it, often from his or her own family and
friends?
A. Imaginary victim C. Heartbroken
B. Tormentor D. Depressed
2. It is the typology of victims that pretends to be one due to a mental disorder?
A. Most guilty victim C. Imaginary victim
B. Victim more guilty than offender D. Victim with minor guilt
3. It is the undesirable consequence caused by some external forces, or by some individual group or
organization?
A. Victim C. Victimized
B. Victimization D. Victimology
4. This refers to a discipline or study which deals of the nature, causes of victimization, as well as the
programs for auditing and preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimized
B. Victim D. Victimization
5. These victims are unsure of rules of conduct in the surrounding society;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Immigrants
B. The Mentally Defective D. The Young
6. Promiscuous persons would fall under this victim typology;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Depressed
B. The Wanton D. The Tormentor
7. They are often victims of racial prejudice or unequal treatment by the agencies of justice;
A. The Immigrants C. The Minorities
B. The Dull Normal D. The Acquisitive
8. These victims are always wanting for more and looking for quick gains;
A. The Acquisitive C. The Lonesome
B. The Wanton D. The Tormentor
9. They are incapable of physical defense and the object of confidence schemes;
A. The Female C. The Mentally Defective
B. The Old D. The Young
10. At times, the victim is one who asked for the act, often from relatives and friends. What types of victim
is this?
A. The Mentally Defective C. The Tormentor
B. The Wanton D. The Acquisitive

11. Anger, jealousy, or destructive impulses increase chances of being victimized. What type of
characteristics does this exemplify?
A. Target vulnerability C. Target antagonism
B. Target gratifiability D. Target hostility
12. Drinking, taking drugs, and getting involved in crime increase a person’s exposure to offenders. This is
based on what victimization theory?
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Deviant place theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine activity theory
13. Victim’s physical weakness or psychological distress renders him incapable of resisting or deterring
crime. This typifies what type of victim characteristics?
A. Target vulnerability C. Target antagonism
B. Target gratifiability D. Target hostility
14. Some victims have possessions, skills, or attributes that an offender wants to obtain, use, have access
to, or manipulate. This refers to:
A. Target antagonism C. Target gratifiability
B. Target hostilioty D. Target vulnerability
15. According to this theory, victims do not encourage crime but are prone to victimization because they
reside in socially disorganized high-crime areas where they have the greatest risk of coming into contact
with criminal offenders.
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Deviant place theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine activity theory
16. These individuals stay out of trouble, do not have peers that are criminal, are aware of their
surroundings, and attempt to take precautions so as not to become victims.
A. Low-risk victims C. High-risk victims
B. Moderate-risk victims D. Extremely high-risk victims
17. According to this view, some people may actually initiate confrontation that eventually leads to their
injury or death.
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Deviant place theory D. Lifestyle theory
18. A person that is stranded on s dark, secluded highway due to a flat tire, and accepts a ride from a
stranger would be a good example of this type of victim level risk.
A. High-risk victims C. Extremely high-risk victim
B. Moderate-risk victim D. Low-risk victims

19. This theory asserts that there are three variables of victimization – the availability of suitable targets,
the absence of capable guardians, and the presence of motivated offenders.
A. Deviant place theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Victim precipitation theory D. Lifestyle theory
20. Which of the following can be considered a high-risk potential victim?
A. A person stranded on a dark C. All Prostitute
B. A person who takes all precautions D. All of these
21. It is a stage of victim that describe the state of the victim prior to being victimized?
A. Pre-impact stage C. Post impact stage
B. Impact stage D. Behavioral stage
22. It entails the degree and duration of personal and social disorganization following victimization, what
stage of victimization is this?
A. Pre-impact stage C. Post impact stage
B. Impact stage D. Behavior stage
23. It is other types of victimization that do not come under the jurisdiction of the criminal law and they
are hard to detect.
A. Collective victimization C. Institutional victimization
B. Corporate victimization D. Multiple victimization
24. This type of victimization presents serious methodological problems, but may be of great help in
understanding certain types of victimization.
A. Collective victimization C. Institutional victimization
B. Corporate victimization D. Multiple victimization
25. It is other types of victimization that victimization is directed at, or affecting the whole group,
members have nothing or not much in common, and the group as not targeted as a specific entity.
A. Collective victimization C. Institutional victimization
B. Corporate victimization D. Multiple victimization
26. This victimization in which the victim had been subjected to the same type of criminal victimization
several types.
A. Cross-crime victimization C. Repeated victimization
B. Instantaneous victimization D. Continuing victimization
27. This refers to households that experience different types of victimization during the reference period.
A. Cross-crime victimization C. Repeated victimization
B. Continuing victimization D. Instantaneous victimization
28. It occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or fighting words, or even attack first.
A. Victim precipitation C. Passive precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Lifestyle theory
29. Which among the following have higher fear of crime?
A. Male C. Lesbian
B. Female D. Homosexual
30. It occurs when the victim exhibits some personal characteristics that unknowingly threaten or
encourage the attacker.
A. Victim precipitation C. Passive precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Lifestyle theory
31. It refers to a social scientist who deals with the study of the causes of victimization and the programs
of preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimization
B. Victimologist D. Victimized
32. It refers to treat unfairly, to make into a victim or cause somebody to become a victim to cause or suffer?
A. Victim C. Victimology
B. Victimize D. Victimization
33. It refers to somebody hurt or killed by somebody or something especially in a crime, accident or
disaster?
A. Victimize C. Victimologist
B. Victimization D. Victim
34. He coined the term victimology, through which he earned the title, “father of victimology” of this sub-
disciple of criminology;
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelsohn
B. Cesare Lombroso D. Andre Michel Guerry
35. This scientist wrote the book “The Criminal and His Victim,” which played the way to understanding
the victim’s role in crime occurrence;
A. Andre Michel Guerry C. Cesare Lombroso
B. Hans Von Hentig D. Benjamin Mendelsohn
36. Suicide victims are of this type?
A. Most Guilty Victim C. Victim with Minor Guilty
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
37. There is no provocation or facilitating behavior on the part of this victim;
A. Imaginary Victim C. Completely Innocent Victim
B. Victim with Minor Guilt D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
38. This type of victim places himself in a compromising situation;
A. Victim with Minor Guilt C. Victim as Guilty as Offender
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Imaginary Victim
39. When the victim provoked or instigated the causal act, he is classified as what victim type;
A. Victim as Guilty as Offender C. Victim with Minor Guilt
B. Victim More Guilty the Offender D. Most Guilty Victim
40. What type of victim is one who started off as the offender and was hurt in return?
A. Victim More Guilty then Offender C. Most Guilty Victim B. Victim as Guilty as
Offender D. Victim with Minor Guilt
41. Who are most likely to suffer violent crime?
A. Child C. Male
B. Women D. Old
42. Who are more likely to be a victim of rape or sexual assault?
A. Male C. Female Old
B. Female D. Young female
43. When men are the victims of violent crime the perpetrator is a ___________?
A. Friend C. Acquaintance
B. Stanger D. Kumpadre
44. On social status, who are much likely to become a crime victims?
A. Lowest income C. Average people
B. More affluent D. Educated people
45. Poor individuals are most likely the victims of crime because they live in ______ areas;
A. Subdivisions C. Secluded area
B. Sub-urban area D. Crime prone
46. On marital status who are most often victimized by crime?
A. Divorced C. Married people
B. Widow D. Widower
47. As to the gender who are more fearful of crime?
A. Female C. Lesbian
B. Male D. Transgender
48. As to the income fear of crime victimization __________ with increasing family income?
A. Improve C. Decline
B. Increase D. Advance
49. The person’s fear in crime become low, when the level of the education become ________.
A. Moderate C. Lower
B. High D. Average
50. What is the basis of Victim Compensation Program?
A. R.A. No. 7039 C. R.A. No. 7930
B. R.A. No. 7390 D. R.A. No. 7309
51. Who advocated the classical school of thought;
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Enrico Ferri D. Alphose Bertillon
52. Who argued that the right act or policy was that which would cause “the greatest good for the greatest
number of people”;
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Enrico Ferri
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Lombroso
53. Study of the relationship between criminality and population;
A. Criminal Etiology C. Criminal Ecology
B. Criminal Epidemiology D. Criminal Demography
54. He agreed with Lombroso on the biological bases of criminal behavior, his interest led him to
recognize the importance of social, economic and political determinants;
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Enrico Ferri
55. The study of the relationship between environment and criminality;
A. Criminal Epidemiology C. Criminal theories
B. Criminal Demography D. Criminal Ecology
56. It is the study of mental and behavioral disorders in relation to criminality?
A. Criminal psychology C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychologist D. Criminal demography
57. This refers to the entire body of knowledge regarding crimes, criminals and the effort of the society to
prevent and repress them?
A. Criminalistics C. Criminal
B. Criminalist D. Criminology
58. The French anthropologist Paul Topinard used Criminology for the first time in French: thus, the
French word of Criminology is:
A. Crimenology C. Criminologie
B. Criminalogy D. Criminologia
59. It refers to an anti-social act that is injurious, detrimental or harmful to the norms of the society; they
are the unacceptable acts?
A. Offense C. Delinquency
B. Crime D. Misdemeanor
60. It is a principle believes that all individuals have freewill and make choices on that freewill?
A. Pain pleasure principle C. Freewill principle B. Atavism principle
D. Utilitarianism principle
61. It is a principle understood that dominant motive in making choices to be the seeking of pleasure and
the avoidance of pain, people can choose legal or illegal means to get what they want?
A. Pain pleasure principle C. Freewill principle B. Atavism principle
D. Utilitarianism principle
62. An individual with a strongly self centered pattern of emotion fantasy and thoughts;
A. Delusion C. Masochism
B. Megalomania D. Hallucination
63. Who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurement;
A. George L. Wilker C. Alphonse Bertillon B. Cesare Beccaria
D. David W. Maurer
64. Morbid propensity to love and make love;
 A. Erotomania C. Masochism B. Necrophilism
D. Megalomania
65. Uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal;
A. Necrophilism C. Kleptomania B. Masochism
D. Dipsomania
66. Transmission of physical characteristics from parents to offspring;
A. Delusion C. Inheritance B. Hallucination
D. Masochism
67. Mental disorder which the subjects thinks himself great or exalted;
A. Melancholia C. Autophobia
B. Megalomania D. Hallucination
68. A sexual perversion in which the subject derives pleasure from being dominated or cruelly treated;
A. Masochism C. Necrophilism B. Megalomania
D. Erotomania
69. Morbid craving usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies;
A. Megalomania C. Masochism
B. Erotomania D. Necrophilism
70. It is a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of spirits?
A. Megalomania C. Delusion
B. Melancholia D. Masochism

71. When a person commits a crime without intent, and offender does not know the nature of his act, due
to mental disease, he committed what crime?
A. Culpa or fault C. Irrational crime
B. Rational Crime D. Dolo or deceit
72. What is a crime that is committed only during a certain period of a year?
A. Seasonal crime C. Situational crime
B. Episodic crime D. Continuing crime
73. Those are committed only when given a situation conducive to its commission, this is what crime?
A. Static crime C. Situational Crime
B. Instant crime D. Seasonal crime
74. What crime that can be committed by a series of act in a lengthy space of time?
A. Instant Crime C. Situational Crime
B. Episodic Crime D. Continuing Crime
75. These are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money without being detected, what
criminal is this?
A. Professional Criminal C. Organized Criminal
B. Situational Criminal D. Ordinary Criminal
76. A person who violates criminal law because of the impulse of moment, fit of passion or spell of extreme
jealousy, is what criminal?
A. Acute Criminal C. Criminality
B. Chronic Criminal D. Normal Criminals
77. Pedro killed Juan by stabbing killing the person instantly, after doing the crime he throw the victim to
the river, what crime Pedro commit?
A. Continuing Crime C. Instant crime
 B. Extinctive crime D. Static Crime
78. Are those felonies that the commission of which the penalty of arresto mayor;
A. Light felonies C. Grave felonies
B. Less grave felonies D. Light crime
79. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies it is considered what crime:
A. Single crime C. Complex crime
B. Grave felonies D. Culpa or fault
80. What is crime that is committed by merely duplication of what was done by others?
A. Crime by passion C. Crimes by imitation
B. Crime by duplication D. Crime by copying
81. It is a crime that refers to crimes committed through rendition of a service to satisfy desire of
another.
A. Chronic Crime C. Static crime
B. Render crime D. Service crime
82. It is a crime committed by a government through mass destruction or annihilation of a human
population.
A. Political crime C. Transnational crime
B. Patriarchal crime D. Genocide
83. It is an act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code?
A. Crime C. Felony
B. Omission D. Misdemeanor
84. It is the unlawful acts that interfere with the normal operation of society and the ability of people to
function efficiently?
A. Violent Crime C. Economic Crime
B. Public Order Crime D. White collar crime
85. It’s primarily committed to bringing financial gain to the offender?
A. Violent crime C. Public order crime
B. White collar crime D. Economic crimes
86. This means “wrong because it is prohibited”, it is an offense that are illegal because laws define them
as such, it lack universality and timelessness?
A. Mala in se C. Actus reus
B. Mens rea D. Mala Prohibita
87. It is any standard or rule regarding what human beings should and should not think, say or do under
given circumstances.
A. Deviance C. Norms
B. Crime D. Felony
88. It refers to conduct which the people of a group consider so dangerous or embarrassing or irritating
that they bring special sanctions to bear against the persons who exhibit it.
A. Norms C. Deviance
B. Felony D. Crime
89. It is latin word which refers to a criminal intent or a guilty state of mind;
A. Mala prohibita C. Mala in se
B. Actus reus D. Mens rea
90. This is the driving force, the reason why the accused committed the crime.
A. Motive or Desire C. Opportunity
B. Instrument D. Intent
91. It is an act against the unwritten social norms in a locality.
A. Sin C. Crime
B. Immorality D. Felony
92. It refers to the time and place of the commission of the crime.
A. Motive C. Desire
B. Instrument D. Opportunity
93. It is a form of sexual assault, involving sexual intercourse where a participants does not provide
consent?
A. Sexual abuse C. Rape
B. Sexual harassment D. Lascivious act
94. It is any unwanted contact caused by another person resulting in harm, injury and or discomfort?
A. Physical abuse C. Sexual abuse
B. Sexual harassment D. Domestic violence
95. It is a form of domestic violence, a traditional practice involving the murder of a woman for bringing
shame upon a family?
A. Acid throwing C. Domestic violence
B. Sexual harassment D. Honor killing
96. It is an assault or abuse between spouses with the likelihood of victimization being more likely between
people sharing a bond of intimacy?
A. Honor killing C. Domestic violence
B. Stalking D. Acid throwing
97. It refers to the acquisition of persons by means of force, fraud or deception with the intent of
exploitation?
A. Sexual abuse C. Emotional abuse
B. Human trafficking D. Prostitution
98. It refers to the use of negative comments that are offensive, embarrassing or threatening?
A. Verbal abuse C. Physical abuse
B. Social abuse D. Sexual abuse
99. It deals with the types of violations that degrades one’s dignity, provoke from, and or inflicts trauma on
another person?
A. Verbal abuse C. Psychological/Emotional abuse
B. Social abuse D. Sexual abuse
100. It refers to any behavior resulting in the isolation and alienation of a woman from friends or family,
or any action that suggest she is inferior due to her gender or different socio-economic background?
A. Physical abuse C. Sexual abuse
B. Social abuse D. Emotional abuse

NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION LEA 3

MT Villanueva Avenue., Naga City Intro to Security Management Concept
College of Criminal Justice Education Final Examination
===============================================================================
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

1. It refers to an act or condition affecting the safe operation of a facility.

A. Hazards C. Security Hazards
 B. Exposure to danger D. Dangerous

2. The potential damage or loss of an asset is referred to as?

A. Loss C. Risk
B. Vulnerability D. Liabilities

3. An individual, group, organization, or government that conducts activities detrimental to the individual, private,
or government entity is known as?
A. Enemy C. Competitor
B. Adversary D. Enemy agent

4. What is the term referring to any information, facility, material, information, or activity which has a positive or
government entity?
A. Property C. Asset
B. Resources D. Strength

5. What action taken or the physical security used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerabilities?
A. Physical security C. Security measures
B. Security barriers D. Countermeasures

6. What is the term referring to the chance or likelihood that a loss will take place?
A. Probability C. Possibility
B. Criticality D. Hazard

7. The impact of a loss as measured in financial terms is termed as?

A. Probability C. Criticality
B. Damage D. Loss

8. The act of eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government, or industrial environment.
A Risk reduction C. Risk avoidance
B. Asset D. Risk spreading

9. It is the act of decreasing the risk by minimizing the probability of potential loss.
A. Risk reduction C. Risk avoidance
B. Asset D. Risk spreading

10. This is done through compartmentation or decentralization to limit the impact of the potential loss.
A. Compartmentation C. Risk reduction
B. Risk spreading D. Risk self-assumption

11. This is done by availing of property and life insurances.

A. Risk management C. Risk transfer
B. Risk spreading D. Countermeasures

12. It is the situation that has the potential to be hazardous, but no people, property, or environment are currently
affected.
A. Potential C. Dormant
B. Active D. Mitigated

13. It is the hazard that is certain to cause harm, as no intervention is possible before the incident occurs.
A. Mitigated C. Potential
B. Dormant D. Active

14. It is a potential hazard that has been identified, but actions have been taken to ensure it does not become an
incident.
 A. Potential C. Mitigated
B. Active D. Dormant

15. This is a situation where the hazard is in the position to affect persons, property, or the environment.
A. Potential C. Mitigated
B. Active D. Dormant

16. Generally, however, hazards can be classified into?

A. Natural and artificial C. Natural and man-made
B. Man-made and divine D. Divine and artificial

17. The following are types of natural hazards or disasters, EXCEPT:

A. Floods caused by typhoons C. Earthquake
B. Lightning storms D. Fire caused by human

18. Man-made hazards are the result of, EXCEPT:

A. a state of mind C. attitude
B. divine cause D. weaknesses
19. In the sphere of security operations, this can be a questionable virtue. Those persons in which trust of their
fellowmen is an abiding instinct, and who consider themselves a definite threat to effective security, for the entire
training an enemy is aimed at deceiving this type of person;
A. Conceit C. Faith
B. Enthusiasm and pride D. Ignorance

20. These are common causes of indiscretion. Anyone truly interested in his job finds it difficult not to talk and write
about it.
A. Faith C. Conceit
B. Ignorance D. Enthusiasm and Pride

21. It is an act of stealing small item or items of little value;

A. theft of small items C. little stealing
B. slow theft D. pilferage

22. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection is no plan
or premeditation and he is usually a “loner” on the job.
A. Systematic pilferer C. Casual pilferer
B. Accidental pilferer D. Occasional pilferer

23. Anyone who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
gain. Pilferers of this kind can be employees or outsiders of the establishment;
A. Systematic pilferer C. Casual pilferer
B. Accidental pilferer D. Occasional pilferer

24. This can be described as the deliberate destruction or the deliberate damaging or destroying of property or
equipment;
A. Espionage C. Pilferage
B. Theft D. Sabotage

25. It is described as the activity of spying or the use of spying or spies to gather secret information;
A. Pilferage C. Espionage
B. Sabotage D. Theft

26. These acts involve the taking of another's property with the intent to gain without the owner's consent, without
violence against or intimidation of persons nor force upon;
A. Pilferage C. Robbery
 B. Sabotage D. Theft

27. These acts involve the taking of another's property with the intent to gain without the owner's consent, involves
intimidation of persons or force upon things;
A. Robbery C. Pilferage
B. Theft D. Sabotage

28. This is the act of unfaithfulness to one’s organization;

A. Disloyalty C. Sabotage
B. Espionage D. Disaffection

29. This is manifested by losing satisfaction thereby causing the dissatisfied person to commit acts that may cause
peril to his organization;
A. Sabotage C. Disloyalty
B. Disaffection D. Espionage

30. These are activities designed to overthrow the government or intended or likely to undermine or overthrow a
government or other institution;
A. Subversive activities C. Disloyalty
B. Disaffection D. Sabotage

31. This is the set of policies, procedures, and rules and regulations designed to reduce to an absolute minimum the
possibility of espionage, sabotage, and compromise of classified information of an office or a whole establishment?
A. Security survey C. Security system
B. Survey D. Inspection

32. This is also known as a security audit which is a fact-finding probe to determine a plant's adequacy and deficiency
in all aspects of security, with the corresponding recommendations?
A. Security survey C. Security audit
B. Security assessment D. None of these

33. It is the term applied to the first detailed "look-see" conducted by a team?
A. Inspection C. Survey
B. Audit D. Monitoring

34. Security inspection is the term referring to the succeeding surveys after the initial surveys which are also known
as?
A. Progressive surveys C. Follow-up surveys
B. In-depth surveys D. All of these

35. It is conducted when there is business recognition with corresponding changes in object and physical by-outs of
the complex.
A. Special surveys C. Supplements surveys
B. Complementary surveys D. Random surveys

36. This is directed by management if the initial survey appears to have left certain portions or aspects involving
security due to change in policy or operation that will greatly affect the total security picture?
A. Special surveys C. Supplements surveys
B. Complementary surveys D. Random surveys

37. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management officials of a plant before security survey is
conducted;
A. Preliminary conference C. Security conference
B. Entrance conference D. Exit conference
38. A conference similar to the entrance conference done after the completion of the security survey;
A. Preliminary conference C. Survey conference
B. Entrance conference D. Exit conference

39. Who among the following refers to a group of people or organization entrusted with the job of protecting
somebody or something, especially a building or institution, against crime?
A. Security officers C. Security managers
B. Guards D. Protectors

40. The act governing the organization and management of private security agency, company guard forces and
government security forces is known as –
A. RA 8551 C. RA 8553
B. RA 5487 D. RA 6975

41. What is the process of removing the security classification from classified information or matter?
A. Reclassifying C. Regrading
B. Declassifying D. Compartmentation

42. A situation which takes place through the loss of security which results from unauthorized persons obtaining
knowledge of classified matters;
A. Risk C. Compromise
B. Declassify D. Security hazard

43. What is the act of assigning the information or matter to the higher classification than that previously assigned
to it?
A. Compartmentation C. Upgrading
B. Classify D. Regrading

44. What is the process of assigning information or material, one of the four security categories after a determination
has been made that the information requires security protection as provided?
A. Declassify C. Classifying
B. Regrading D. Compartmentation

45. It is the certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared for access to classified matter
the appropriate level;
A. Certificate of destruction C. Need to know
B. Security clearance D. Document security

46. It is any equipment, projects, books, reports, articles that fall within the general term of “matter”;
A. Document C. Information
B. Matter D. Item

47. The protection of documents and classified papers from loss, access by unauthorized persons, damage, theft and
compromise through disclosure is called;
A. Compartmentation C. Document Security
B. Upgrading D. None of these

48. It is any information and material the unauthorized disclosure of it would endanger national security;
A. Top Secret C. Secret
B. Restricted D. Confidential

49. It is the analysis of risk which includes examinations of the vulnerability, probability and critically of potential
threats and include natural and man-made risk.
A. Risk Analysis C. Risk Evaluation
B. Risk Transfer D. Risk Management
50. It is a process of selecting and implementing security countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at
an acceptable cost.
A. Risk Analysis C. Risk Evaluation
B. Risk Transfer D. Risk Management

NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION, INC. CDI 2

M.T. Villanueva Ave., Naga City Specialized Crime Investigation
College of Criminal Justice Education with Legal Medicine
 Final Examination S/Y
2019-2020

Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item.

A special study of modern techniques in the investigation of serious and specific crimes.
Crime investigation
Special crime investigation
Crime control
Scene of crime operation

A court order demanding that a public official deliver an imprisoned individual to the court and show a
valid reason for that person’s detention.
Writ of habeas corpus
Bill of attainder
Bill of rights
Individual rights

Skillful questioning of a person who is not cooperating with the investigator.

Information
Interview
Interrogation
Instrumentation

In the United States it allows police to briefly detain a person based on reasonable suspicion of involvement
in criminal activity.
Frye case
Terry doctrine
Daubert case
Terry stop

A person who has confessed to or has been convicted by a court for the violation of a criminal law.
Suspect
Criminal
Witness
Investigator

An art or process which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal
offender to justice.
Custodial investigation
Crime science
Dactyloscopy
Criminal investigation

Simple questioning of a person who is cooperating with the investigator.

Information
Interview
Interrogation
 Instrumentation

The knowledge which the investigator gathered and acquired from other person.
Information
Interview
Interrogation
Instrumentation

A Police Officer who is tasked to conduct the investigation of all criminal cases as provided for and
embodied under the Revised Penal Code/Criminal Laws and Special Laws, a well-trained, disciplined and
experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and responsibilities.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator

A United States Supreme Court case that ruled that a defendant’s involuntary confession that is extracted
by police violence cannot be entered as evidence and violates the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth
Amendment.
Miranda v. Texas Arizona
Frye case
Brown v. Mississippi
Escobedo v. Illinois

Shall assume full responsibility over the crime scene during the conduct of CSI.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator

The privilege of the writ of habeas corpus shall not be suspended except in cases of
Instigation
Riot
Rebellion
War

Shall include the practice of issuing an “invitation” to a person who is investigated in connection with an
offense he is suspected to have committed, without prejudice to the liability of the “inviting” officer for any
violation of law.
Custodial investigation
Arrest
Crime scene investigation
Criminal investigation

A United States Supreme Court case determining the standard for admitting expert testimony in federal
courts.
Miranda v. Texas Arizona
Daubert case
Brown v. Mississippi
 Escobedo v. Illinois

An act or omission punishable by law under the Revised Penal Code and other special laws.
Felony
Offense
Infraction of laws
Crime
It establishes the relationship of the individual to the State and defines the rights of the individual by
limiting the lawful powers of the State.
Writ of habeas corpus
Bill of attainder
Bill of rights
Ex post facto law

Under Section 14 of the Bill of Rights, no person shall be held to answer for a criminal offense without
what?
Trial
Assisting counsel
Constitutional mandate
Due process of law

A person who is in-charge with the duty of carrying out the objectives of criminal investigation.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator

A United States Supreme Court case holding that criminal suspects have a right to counsel during police
interrogations under the Sixth Amendment.
Miranda v. Texas Arizona
Escobedo v. Illinois
Brown v. Mississippi
Frye case

“You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law.
You have the right to an attorney. If you cannot afford an attorney, one will be provided for you.”
Human rights
Bill of attainder
Constitutional mandate
Miranda warning

An act defining certain rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation as well as the
duties of the arresting, detaining and investigating officers, and providing penalties for violations thereof.
R. A. No. 9165
R.A. No. 8353
R.A. No. 7438
E.O. No. 218

Shall include his or her spouse, fiancé or fiancée, parent or child, brother or sister, grandparent or
grandchild, uncle or aunt, nephew or niece, and guardian or ward.
Immediate family
 Family member
Family court
Clan

Shall refer to any PNP personnel who is duly designated or assigned to conduct the inquiry of the crime by
following a systematic set of procedures and methodologies for the purpose of identifying witnesses,
recovering evidence and arresting and prosecuting the perpetrators.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator

Any lawyer, except those directly affected by the case, those charged with conducting preliminary
investigation or those charged with the prosecution of crimes.
Prosecutor
Assisting counsel
Defense lawyer
Attorney on case

The Supreme Court ruled that detained criminal suspects, prior to police questioning, must be informed of
their constitutional right to an attorney and against self-incrimination.
Miranda v. Texas Arizona
Daubert case
Brown v. Mississippi
Escobedo v. Illinois

The application of methods of physical sciences in detecting crime.

Information
Interview
Interrogation
Instrumentation

Under Section 13 of the Bill of Rights, this right shall not be impaired even when the privilege of the writ of
habeas corpus is suspended.
Right of habeas corpus
Right to bail
Bill of rights
Human rights

When police stop and search a pedestrian, this is commonly known as what?
Terry stop
Terry doctrine
Search and seizure
Stop and frisk

A justifiable protective search for weapons, even in the absence of probable cause to arrest, where there is
a suspicion that an individual is armed and dangerous.
Frye case
Terry doctrine
Daubert case
Terry stop
To meet the standard, scientific evidence presented to the court must be interpreted by the court as
“generally accepted” by a meaningful segment of the associated scientific community.
Miranda v. Texas Arizona
Frye case
Brown v. Mississippi
Escobedo v. Illinois