PNLE III for Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part 1)

1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is normal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy
when the stool is:
A. Green liquid
B. Solid formed
C. Loose, bloody
D. Semiformed
2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain attack
and left homonymous hemianopsia?
A. On the client’s right side
B. On the client’s left side
C. Directly in front of the client
D. Where the client like
3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are the
first nursing actions of the nurse?
A. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response.
B. Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage.
C. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation.
D. Assess level of consciousness and circulation.
4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and
relieves angina by:
A. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate.
B. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate.
C. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption.
D. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation.
5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the
side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action?
A. Call for help and note the time.
B. Clear the airway
C. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse.
D. Administer two quick blows.
6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse
should:
A. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night.
B. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
C. Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals.
D. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours.
7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been receiving heparin
I.V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla
do?
 A. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician.
B. Continue treatment as ordered.
C. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT.
D. Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal.
8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the stoma?
A. 24 hours later, when edema has subsided.
B. In the operating room.
C. After the ileostomy begin to function.
D. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures.
9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately position
the client in:
A. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue.
B. Flat on back.
C. On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees.
D. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side.
10.While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which
assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure?
A. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70.
B. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat.
C. The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately.
D. The client refuses dinner because of anorexia.
11.Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms may
appear first?
A. Altered mental status and dehydration
B. Fever and chills
C. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea
D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough
12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be
exhibit?
A. Chest and lower back pain
B. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
C. Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and nausea
D. Headache and photophobia
13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic and
afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He
recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the following conditions?
A. Acute asthma
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. Emphysema
14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4
breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the following reactions?
 A. Asthma attack
B. Respiratory arrest
C. Seizure
D. Wake up on his own
15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective knee surgery. Physical examination reveals
shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory distress. Which of the following is a normal
physiologic change related to aging?
A. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs
B. Increased number of functional capillaries in the alveoli
C. Decreased residual volume
D. Decreased vital capacity
16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most
relevant to administration of this medication?
A. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter.
B. Increase in systemic blood pressure.
C. Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor.
D. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).
17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the
client to:
A. Report incidents of diarrhea.
B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
C. Use a straight razor when shaving.
D. Take aspirin to pain relief.
18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse should
treat excess hair at the site by:
A. Leaving the hair intact
B. Shaving the area
C. Clipping the hair in the area
D. Removing the hair with a depilatory.
19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching the client,
the nurse should include information about which major complication:
A. Bone fracture
B. Loss of estrogen
C. Negative calcium balance
D. Dowager’s hump
20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. Cancerous lumps
B. Areas of thickness or fullness
C. Changes from previous examinations.
D. Fibrocystic masses
21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important to:
 A. Provide extra blankets and clothing to keep the client warm.
B. Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss
during thyroid replacement therapy.
C. Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest.
D. Encourage the client to be active to prevent constipation.
22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of
atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the client to:
A. Avoid focusing on his weight.
B. Increase his activity level.
C. Follow a regular diet.
D. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle.
23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse Greta must logroll a client following a:
A. Laminectomy
B. Thoracotomy
C. Hemorrhoidectomy
D. Cystectomy.
24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal with intraocular lens implant. Nurse Oliver
is giving the client discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of the
following?
A. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.25 kg).
B. Lie on your abdomen when in bed
C. Keep rooms brightly lit.
D. Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist.
25. George should be taught about testicular examinations during:
A. when sexual activity starts
B. After age 69
C. After age 40
D. Before age 20.
26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with
evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound.
C. Take a blood pressure and pulse.
D. Pull the dehiscence closed.
27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has suffered a severe cerebrovascular accident.
During routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Strokes respirations. Cheyne-strokes
respirations are:
A. A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods.
B. Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath.
C. Rapid, deep breathing and irregular breathing without pauses.
D. Shallow breathing with an increased respiratory rate.
28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath sounds commonly
auscultated in clients with heart failure are:
A. Tracheal
B. Fine crackles
C. Coarse crackles
D. Friction rubs
29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops
wheezing and breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for this change is that:
A. The attack is over.
B. The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through.
C. The swelling has decreased.
D. Crackles have replaced wheezes.
30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should:
A. Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.
B. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.
C. Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his arms.
D. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head.
31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck
vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a
tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax should the nurse
check for?
A. Infection of the lung.
B. Kinked or obstructed chest tube
C. Excessive water in the water-seal chamber
D. Excessive chest tube drainage
32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client, the client begins choking on his lunch. He’s
coughing forcefully. The nurse should:
A. Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind.
B. Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver.
C. Leave him to get assistance
D. Stay with him but not intervene at this time.
33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information will be most
useful to the nurse for planning care?
A. General health for the last 10 years.
B. Current health promotion activities.
C. Family history of diseases.
D. Marital status.
34. When performing oral care on a comatose client, Nurse Krina should:
A. Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips at least every 2 hours.
B. Brush the teeth with client lying supine.
C. Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered.
 D. Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen peroxide.
35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change in mental
status. He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital signs, she notes he
has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C) a cough producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest pain. The
nurse suspects this client may have which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
C. Pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
36. Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an outbreak
of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today most likely to have
TB?
A. A 16-year-old female high school student
B. A 33-year-old day-care worker
C. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism
D. A 54-year-old businessman
37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware
that which of the following reasons this is done?
A. To confirm the diagnosis
B. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
C. To determine the extent of lesions
D. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased
forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication
right away?
A. Beta-adrenergic blockers
B. Bronchodilators
C. Inhaled steroids
D. Oral steroids
39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of
cigarettes per day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic
nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema
Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.
40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which statement
about bone marrow transplantation is not correct?
A. The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure
 B. The aspirated bone marrow is mixed with heparin.
C. The aspiration site is the posterior or anterior iliac crest.
D. The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days before
the procedure.
41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes disoriented and complains of frequent
headaches. The nurse in-charge first action would be:
A. Call the physician
B. Document the patient’s status in his charts.
C. Prepare oxygen treatment
D. Raise the side rails
42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, “How can I be anemic if this disease causes
increased my white blood cell production?” The nurse in-charge best response would be that the
increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is:
A. Crowd red blood cells
B. Are not responsible for the anemia.
C. Uses nutrients from other cells
D. Have an abnormally short life span of cells.
43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably not reveal:
A. Predominance of lymhoblasts
B. Leukocytosis
C. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow
D. Elevated thrombocyte counts
44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an
emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot
using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and asks her to prepare
the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the client’s room to prepare him, he states that he
won’t have any more surgery. Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse?
A. Explain the risks of not having the surgery
B. Notifying the physician immediately
C. Notifying the nursing supervisor
D. Recording the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes
45. During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first?
A. The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure, blood
pressure of 126/76 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.
B. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, blood pressure of
78/50 mm Hg, and a “do not resuscitate” order
C. The 62-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is
receiving L.V. heparin
D. The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial
fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem)
46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her heart feels
like “it’s racing out of the chest”. She reports no history of cardiac disorders. The nurse attaches
her to a cardiac monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of 136beats/minutes. Breath
sounds are clear and the respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes. Which of the following drugs
should the nurse question the client about using?
A. Barbiturates
B. Opioids
C. Cocaine
D. Benzodiazepines
47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in-charge that she has found a painless lump in her
right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly
suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
A. Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass
B. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges
C. Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated
D. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes
48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this
type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
A. Surgery
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiation
D. Immunotherapy
49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion
according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification
mean?
A. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence
of distant metastasis
B. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant
metastasis
C. Can’t assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
D. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and
ascending degrees of distant metastasis
50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to
care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the
procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”
51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the most common type of
cancer in women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the
most deaths in women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lung cancer
 C. Brain cancer
D. Colon and rectal cancer
52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner’s syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs and
affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome,
the nurse should note:
A. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
B. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.
C. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the affected
side.
D. hoarseness and dysphagia.
53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that it stands for:
A. prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer.
B. protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels.
C. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a bacteria that causes pneumonia.
D. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer.
54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a client who
has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
A. “Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”
B. “Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”
C. “Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”
D. “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”
55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Stool Hematest
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
C. Sigmoidoscopy
D. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
56. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has breast
cancer?
A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.
B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle
57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the
following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Reproductive tract
D. White blood cells (WBCs)
58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule
out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the
client?
 A. The client lies still.
B. The client asks questions.
C. The client hears thumping sounds.
D. The client wears a watch and wedding band.
59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the
following teaching points is correct?
A. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss.
B. To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise.
C. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of
foods.
D. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium
supplement.
60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for
contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?
A. Joint pain
B. Joint deformity
C. Joint flexion of less than 50%
D. Joint stiffness
61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is
characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarily
in men over age 30?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Traumatic arthritis
C. Intermittent arthritis
D. Gouty arthritis
62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client with stroke in
evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution. How many
milliliters per hour should be given?
A. 15 ml/hour
B. 30 ml/hour
C. 45 ml/hour
D. 50 ml/hour
63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which
of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?
A. Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity
B. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return
C. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side
D. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus
64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement is
correct about this deformity?
A. It appears only in men
B. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint
 C. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint
D. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint.
65. Which of the following statements explains the main difference between rheumatoid arthritis
and osteoarthritis?
A. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t
B. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic
C. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized
D. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t
66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the following statements is true
about a cane or other assistive devices?
A. A walker is a better choice than a cane.
B. The cane should be used on the affected side
C. The cane should be used on the unaffected side
D. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without the cane
67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is no
70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client:
A. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH).
B. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH.
C. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH.
D. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH.
68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which medication to a client with gout?
A. aspirin
B. furosemide (Lasix)
C. colchicines
D. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism.
This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion
from which of the following glands?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Parathyroid
70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wetto- dry dressing
change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry
dressings used for this client?
A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the
nurse expect to find?
 A. Hyperkalemia
B. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperglycemia
72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
B. Encouraging increased oral intake
C. Restricting fluids
D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered
73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to
control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the
client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
A. urine glucose level.
B. fasting blood glucose level.
C. serum fructosamine level.
D. glycosylated hemoglobin level.
74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at
7 a.m. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be most at risk for a hypoglycemic
reaction?
A. 10:00 am
B. Noon
C. 4:00 pm
D. 10:00 pm
75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
A. Glucocorticoids and androgens
B. Catecholamines and epinephrine
C. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines
D. Norepinephrine and epinephrine
76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and
hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and
tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance, the
nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows
thyroid surgery?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a general
indicator of cancer?
A. Acid phosphatase level
B. Serum calcitonin level
 C. Alkaline phosphatase level
D. Carcinoembryonic antigen level
78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment
findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea
B. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor
C. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
D. Itching, rash, and jaundice
79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know
more teaching is necessary when the client says:
A. The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”
B. “I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”
C. “Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”
D. “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”
80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to
the home, the nurse should be sure to include which instruction?
A. “Put on disposable gloves before bathing.”
B. “Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water.”
C. “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.”
D. “Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members.”
81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of
findings should the nurse expect when assessing the
client?
A. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse pressure
B. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
C. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
D. Angina, double vision, and anorexia
82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse
Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
A. Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client.
B. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary.
C. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the
client’s vital signs.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered.
83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce
inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to
prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
A. weight gain.
B. fine motor tremors.
C. respiratory acidosis.
D. bilateral hearing loss.
84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After
recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much
as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the
client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provided by which
type of white blood cell?
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Lymphocyte
85. In an individual with Sjögren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:
A. moisture replacement.
B. electrolyte balance.
C. nutritional supplementation.
D. arrhythmia management.
86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever,
and “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the
physician to order:
A. enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test.
B. electrolyte panel and hemogram.
C. stool for Clostridium difficile test.
D. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.
87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6
weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
A. E-rosette immunofluorescence.
B. quantification of T-lymphocytes.
C. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
D. Western blot test with ELISA.
88. A complete blood count is commonly performed before a Joe goes into surgery. What does
this test seek to identify?
A. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and
creatinine levels
B. Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine
C. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels
D. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood’s ability to coagulate properly
89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
A. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
B. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count
C. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels
D. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count
90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse Len should
remember that which of the following foods is a common allergen?
A. Bread
B. Carrots
C. Orange
D. Strawberries
91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone calls
should the nurse return first?
A. A client with hepatitis A who states, “My arms and legs are itching.”
B. A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my right
leg.”
C. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, “I am so nauseous that I can’t
eat.”
D. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, “I am having trouble sleeping.”
92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical floor and has just received report from the
previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A. A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of dark
drainage noted on the dressing.
B. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinous fluid
noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
C. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted in the
previous eight hours.
D. A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client
complaints of chills.
93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment of
Grave’s disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of the following was observed?
A. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit.
B. The client supports his head and neck when turning his head to the right.
C. The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained.
D. The client is drowsy and complains of sore throat.
94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen.
To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions?
A. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed.
B. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours and PRN.
C. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad.
D. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.
95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
A. Assess for a bruit and a thrill.
B. Warm the dialysate solution.
C. Position the client on the left side.
D. Insert a Foley catheter
96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane. Which of
the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates that the teaching
was effective?
A. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can forward followed by the
right leg, and then moves the left leg.
B. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane forward followed by
his left leg, and then moves the right leg.
C. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the
right leg, and then moves the left leg.
D. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by his
left leg, and then moves the right leg.
97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home setting. The client is occasionally confused
and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the following actions, if taken by the nurse, is most
appropriate?
A. Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos.
B. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall.
C. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate.
D. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day.
98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard aluminum walker. Which of
the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client, indicates that the nurse’s teaching was
effective?
A. The client slowly pushes the walker forward 12 inches, then takes small steps
forward while leaning on the walker.
B. The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small
steps forward.
C. The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it forward, then takes
small steps while balancing on the walker.
D. The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while holding
onto the walker for balance.
99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse
knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason?
A. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications.
B. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.
C. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.
D. Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility.
100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should nurse
Jasmine take next?
A. Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing.
B. Check the client’s temperature.
C. Assess the client’s potassium level.
D. Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate.
Answers and Rationales
1. Answer: (C) Loose, bloody. Normal bowel function and soft-formed stool usually do
not occur until around the seventh day following surgery. The stool consistency is
related to how much water is being absorbed.

2. Answer: (A) On the client’s right side. The client has left visual field blindness. The
client will see only from the right side.

3. Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation. Checking the
airway would be priority, and a neck injury should be suspected.

4. Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. The significant effect
of nitroglycerin is vasodilation and decreased venous return, so the heart does not
have to work hard.

5. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time. Having established, by stimulating the
client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the nurse should immediately
call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the client’s phone
and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room number to the
operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button.
Noting the time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure.

6. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed
intervals. Food and drug therapy will prevent the accumulation of hydrochloric acid,
or will neutralize and buffer the acid that does accumulate.

7. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered. The effects of heparin are monitored by
the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is 1.5 to 2 times the
normal level.

8. Answer: (B) In the operating room. The stoma drainage bag is applied in the
operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions that are rich in
digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of the skin from
the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these enzymes even
for a short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated.

9. Answer: (B) Flat on back. To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache
that can last for several days, the client is kept in flat in a supine position
for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are believed to be
causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the puncture site. By keeping the
client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the
neurons.

10. Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep
immediately. This finding suggest that the level of consciousness is decreasing.
11. Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration. Fever, chills, hemortysis,
dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia,
but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered lentil status and dehydration
due to a blunted immune response.

12. Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Typical signs and
symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present
from coughing, but isn’t usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not
higher than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren’t usual
TB symptoms.

13. Answer:(A) Acute asthma. Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute
asthma is the most likely diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial
pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and he’s too young to
have developed (COPD) and emphysema.

14. Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest. Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in
large quantities. It’s unlikely the client will have asthma attack or a seizure or wake
up on his own.

15. Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity. Reduction in vital capacity is a normal
physiologic changes include decreased elastic recoil of the lungs, fewer functional
capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in residual volume.

16. Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac

monitor. Lidocaine drips are commonly used to treat clients whose arrhythmias
haven’t been controlled with oral medication and who are having PVCs that are
visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2, blood pressure, and ICP are important factors
but aren’t as significant as PVCs in the situation.

17. Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K. The client should avoid consuming
large amounts of vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with anticoagulation.
The client may need to report diarrhea, but isn’t effect of taking an anticoagulant. An
electric razor-not a straight razor-should be used to prevent cuts that cause bleeding.
Aspirin may increase the risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should be used to pain
relief.

18. Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area. Hair can be a source of infection and
should be removed by clipping. Shaving the area can cause skin abrasions and
depilatories can irritate the skin.

19. Answer: (A) Bone fracture. Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis
that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increased the fragility of bones.
Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause-not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin
D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, But a negative
calcium balance isn’t a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager’s hump results from
 bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal
curvature.

20. Answer: (C) Changes from previous examinations. Women are instructed to
examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred in the breast. Only a
physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous, areas of thickness or fullness that
signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are fibrocystic as opposed
to malignant.

21. Answer: (C) Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest. A client with
hyperthyroidism needs to be encouraged to balance periods of activity and rest.
Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive and complain of feeling very
warm.

22. Answer: (B) Increase his activity level. The client should be encouraged to increase
his activity level. Maintaining an ideal weight; following a low-cholesterol, low
sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all important factors in decreasing the risk
of atherosclerosis.

23. Answer: (A) Laminectomy. The client who has had spinal surgery, such as
laminectomy, must be log rolled to keep the spinal column straight when
turning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn themselves or may be assisted into a
comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an
outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after
surgery.

24. Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at

the waist. The client should avoid straining, lifting heavy objects, and coughing
harshly because these activities increase intraocular pressure. Typically, the client is
instructed to avoid lifting objects weighing more than 15 lb (7kg) – not 5lb. instruct
the client when lying in bed to lie on either the side or back. The client should avoid
bright light by wearing sunglasses.

25. Answer: (D) Before age 20. Testicular cancer commonly occurs in men between
ages 20 and 30. A male client should be taught how to perform testicular
selfexamination before age 20, preferably when he enters his teens.

26. Answer: (B) Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound. The nurse should
first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying
and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician and take the client’s
vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never
try to close it.

27. Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with
apneic periods. Cheyne-Strokes respirations are breaths that become progressively
deeper fallowed by shallower respirations with apneas periods. Biot’s respirations
 are rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath, and equal depth
between each breath. Kussmaul’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing without
pauses. Tachypnea is shallow breathing with increased respiratory rate.

28. Answer: (B) Fine crackles. Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and
commonly occur in clients with heart failure. Tracheal breath sounds are
auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused by secretion
accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation.

29. Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through. During an
acute attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the
airways are so swollen that air can’t get through. If the attack is over and swelling
has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern.
Crackles do not replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.

30. Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his
head. During the active seizure phase, initiate precautions by placing the client on
his side, removing dangerous objects, and protecting his head from injury. A bite
block should never be inserted during the active seizure phase. Insertion can break
the teeth and lead to aspiration.

31. Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube. Kinking and blockage of the chest
tube is a common cause of a tension pneumothorax. Infection and excessive drainage
won’t cause a tension pneumothorax. Excessive water won’t affect the chest
tube drainage.

32. Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene at this time. If the client is coughing, he
should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction. If complete
obstruction occurs, the nurse should perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with the
client standing. If the client is unconscious, she should lay him down. A
nurse should never leave a choking client alone.

33. Answer: (B) Current health promotion activities. Recognizing an individual’s

positive health measures is very useful. General health in the previous 10 years is
important, however, the current activities of an 84 year old client are most
significant in planning care. Family history of disease for a client in later years is of
minor significance. Marital status information may be important for
discharge planning but is not as significant for addressing the immediate
medical problem.

34. Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed
lowered. The client should be positioned in a side-lying position with the head of
the bed lowered to prevent aspiration. A small amount of toothpaste should be used
and the mouth swabbed or suctioned to remove pooled secretions. Lemon glycerin
can be drying if used for extended periods. Brushing the teeth with the client lying
 supine may lead to aspiration. Hydrogen peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not
be used.

35. Answer: (C) Pneumonia. Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain are
common signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The client with ARDS has dyspnea and
hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over time, if not treated aggressively. Pleuritic
chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the constant chest pain during an MI; so
this client most likely isn’t having an MI. the client with TB typically has a cough
producing blood-tinged sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirm the
nurse’s suspicions.

36. Answer: (C) A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism. Clients who
are economically disadvantaged, malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as
a client with a history of alcoholism, are at extremely high risk for developing TB.
A high school student, daycare worker, and businessman probably have a much low
risk of contracting TB.

37. Answer: (C ) To determine the extent of lesions. If the lesions are large enough, the
chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the
diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A chest X-
ray can’t determine if this is a primary or secondary infection.

38. Answer: (B) Bronchodilators. Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for
asthma because broncho-constriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta
adrenergic blockers aren’t used to treat asthma and can cause
bronchoconstriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the
inflammation but aren’t used for emergency relief.

39. Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis. Because of this extensive smoking
history and symptoms the client most likely has chronic obstructive bronchitis.
Client with ARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia and typically need large
amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and emphysema tend not to have
chronic cough or peripheral edema.

40. Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure. Before the
procedure, the patient is administered with drugs that would help to prevent infection
and rejection of the transplanted cells such as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and
corticosteroids. During the transplant, the patient is placed under general anesthesia.

41. Answer: (D) Raise the side rails. A patient who is disoriented is at risk of falling out
of bed. The initial action of the nurse should be raising the side rails to ensure
patients safety.

42. Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells. The excessive production of white blood cells
crowd out red blood cells production which causes anemia to occur.
43. Answer: (B) Leukocytosis. Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized
by increased production of leukocytes and lymphocytes resulting in leukocytosis,
and proliferation of these cells within the bone marrow, spleen and liver.

44. Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having the surgery. The best initial response is
to explain the risks of not having the surgery. If the client understands the risks but
still refuses the nurse should notify the physician and the nurse supervisor and then
record the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes.

45. Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset
atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem). The client with atrial
fibrillation has the greatest potential to become unstable and is on L.V. medication
that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the
client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the
58- year-old client admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs and symptoms
are resolving and don’t require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-
year-old with end stage right-sided heart failure, who requires time-consuming
supportive measures.

46. Answer: (C) Cocaine. Because of the client’s age and negative medical history,
the nurse should question her about cocaine use. Cocaine increases myocardial
oxygen consumption and can cause coronary artery spasm, leading to tachycardia,
ventricular fibrillation, myocardial ischemia, and myocardial infarction. Barbiturate
overdose may trigger respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can cause
marked respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and
confusion.

47. Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges. Breast cancer tumors are fixed,
hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and
easily delineated is most often a fluid-filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may
or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction
— not eversion — may be a sign of cancer.

48. Answer: (C) Radiation. The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external
or intravaginal radiation therapy. Less often, surgery is performed. Chemotherapy
typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is diagnosed in an early stage, which is
rare. Immunotherapy isn’t used to treat vaginal cancer.

49. Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence
of distant metastasis. TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal
regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary
tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is
classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can’t be assessed
and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A
progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph
 nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4;
N0; and M1, M2, or M3.

50. Answer: (D) “Keep the stoma moist.” The nurse should instruct the client to keep the
stoma moist, such as by applying a thin layer of petroleum jelly around the
edges, because a dry stoma may become irritated. The nurse should
recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm air before it
enters the stoma. The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance
as soon as possible to gain independence in self-care activities.

51. Answer: (B) Lung cancer. Lung cancer is the most deadly type of cancer in both
women and men. Breast cancer ranks second in women, followed (in
descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic cancer, ovarian
cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer,
stomach cancer, and multiple myeloma.

52. Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the
face. Horner’s syndrome, which occurs when a lung tumor invades the ribs and
affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia, is characterized by miosis, partial eyelid
ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Chest pain, dyspnea, cough,
weight loss, and fever are associated with pleural tumors. Arm and shoulder pain and
atrophy of the arm and hand muscles on the affected side suggest Pancoast’s tumor,
a lung tumor involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within
the brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client with lung cancer suggests that the tumor
has extended to the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia suggests that the lung tumor
is compressing the esophagus.

53. Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for

prostate cancer. PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for
prostate cancer. The other answers are incorrect.

54. Answer: (D) “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” The nurse
should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by the physician.
Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block don’t alter the gag reflex. No
interactions between local anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics don’t cause
hematuria.

55. Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy. Used to visualize the lower GI tract, sigmoidoscopy
and proctoscopy aid in the detection of two-thirds of all colorectal cancers. Stool
Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of colorectal cancer; however, the test
doesn’t confirm the diagnosis. CEA may be elevated in colorectal cancer but isn’t
considered a confirming test. An abdominal CT scan is used to stage the presence of
colorectal cancer.

56. Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin. A fixed
nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is common during late stages of
 breast cancer. Many women have slightly asymmetrical breasts. Bloody nipple
discharge is a sign of intraductal papilloma, a benign condition. Multiple firm,
round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle indicate
fibrocystic breasts, a benign condition.

57. Answer: (A) Liver. The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites.
The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract,
and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.

58. Answer: (D) The client wears a watch and wedding band. During an MRI, the client
should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong magnetic field can
pull on them, causing injury to the client and (if they fly off) to others. The client
must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the test by way of
the microphone inside the scanner tunnel. The client should hear thumping sounds,
which are caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field.

59. Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide
variety of foods. Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per
day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. It’s often, though
not always, possible to get the recommended daily requirement in the foods we eat.
Supplements are available but not always necessary. Osteoporosis doesn’t show up
on ordinary X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can
detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for
women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise won’t cause fractures.

60. Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50%. Arthroscopy is contraindicated in clients
with joint flexion of less than 50% because of technical problems in inserting the
instrument into the joint to see it clearly. Other contraindications for this
procedure include skin and wound infections. Joint pain may be an indication, not
a contraindication, for arthroscopy. Joint deformity and joint stiffness
aren’t contraindications for this procedure.

61. Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis. Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is characterized by
urate deposits and pain in the joints, especially those in the feet and legs.
Urate deposits don’t occur in septic or traumatic arthritis. Septic arthritis results from
bacterial invasion of a joint and leads to inflammation of the synovial lining.
Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint or ligament. Intermittent
arthritis is a rare, benign condition marked by regular, recurrent joint effusions,
especially in the knees.

62. Answer: (B) 30 ml/hour. An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500
ml of saline solution yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of solution.
The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the unknown quantity) equals
1,500 units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour.
63. Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return. In clients with
hemiplegia or hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases venous return and
may cause swelling of the affected extremity. Contractures, or bony calcifications
may occur with a stroke, but don’t appear with swelling. DVT may develop in
clients with a stroke but is more likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke
isn’t linked to protein loss.

64. Answer: (B) It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden’s nodes appear
on the distal interphalageal joint on both men and women. Bouchard’s node appears
on the dorsolateral aspect of the proximal interphalangeal joint.

65. Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis

is systemic. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic.
Osteoarthritis isn’t gender-specific, but rheumatoid arthritis is. Clients have
dislocations and subluxations in both disorders.

66. Answer: (C) The cane should be used on the unaffected side. A cane should be used
on the unaffected side. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate
with a cane, walker, or other assistive device as needed; their use takes weight and
stress off joints.

67. Answer: (A) 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). A
70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct
substitution requires mixing 21 U of NPH and 9 U of regular insulin. The other
choices are incorrect dosages for the prescribed insulin.

68. Answer: (C) colchicines. A disease characterized by joint inflammation (especially

in the great toe), gout is caused by urate crystal deposits in the joints. The physician
prescribes colchicine to reduce these deposits and thus ease joint inflammation.
Although aspirin is used to reduce joint inflammation and pain in clients with
osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, it isn’t indicated for gout because it has no
effect on urate crystal formation. Furosemide, a diuretic, doesn’t relieve gout.
Calcium gluconate is used to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle
cramps, not to treat gout.

69. Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex. Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex
is responsible for the client’s hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule,
where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen
ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The
adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine. The
parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.

70. Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by
secondary intention. For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most
appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and
necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist,
 transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound
environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms
and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound
from mechanical trauma and promote healing.

71. Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia. In adrenal insufficiency, the client has hyperkalemia due
to reduced aldosterone secretion. BUN increases as the glomerular filtration rate is
reduced. Hyponatremia is caused by reduced aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol
secretion leads to impaired glyconeogenesis and a reduction of glycogen in the liver
and muscle, causing hypoglycemia.

72. Answer: (C) Restricting fluids. To reduce water retention in a client with the
SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would
further increase the client’s already heightened fluid load.

73. Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level. Because some of the glucose in the
bloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays attached during the 120-
day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide
information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3 months. Fasting
blood glucose and urine glucose levels only give information about glucose levels at
the point in time when they were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide
information about blood glucose control over the past 2 to 3 weeks.

74. Answer: (C) 4:00 pm. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks 8 to 12
hours after administration. Because the nurse administered NPH insulin at 7 a.m.,
the client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from 3 p.m. to 7 p.m.

75. Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal glands have two divisions,
the cortex and medulla. The cortex produces three types of hormones:
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The medulla produces
catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine.

76. Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if the
parathyroid glands were removed accidentally. Signs and symptoms of
hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 days after surgery. Thyroid surgery
doesn’t directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium
abnormalities. Hyponatremia may occur if the client inadvertently received too much
fluid; however, this can happen to any surgical client receiving I.V. fluid
therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid surgery. Hyperkalemia
and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced renal excretion
of potassium and magnesium, not thyroid surgery.

77. Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level. In clients who smoke, the level of
carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated. Therefore, it can’t be used as a general
indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in monitoring cancer treatment because
the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if treatment is successful.
 An elevated acid phosphatase level may indicate prostate cancer. An elevated
alkaline phosphatase level may reflect bone metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin
level usually signals thyroid cancer.

78. Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor. Signs of iron-deficiency anemia
include dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue, listlessness, irritability,
and headache. Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea may signal acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia may be signs
of hepatitis B. Itching, rash, and jaundice may result from an allergic or hemolytic
reaction.

79. Answer: (D) “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a
baby.” The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted from mother to
child via the transplacental route, but a Cesarean section delivery isn’t necessary
when the mother is HIV-positive. The use of birth control will prevent the
conception of a child who might have HIV. It’s true that a mother who’s HIV
positive can give birth to a baby who’s HIV negative.

80. Answer: (C) “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.” The human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, is most concentrated in the
blood. For this reason, the client shouldn’t share personal articles that may be blood-
contaminated, such as toothbrushes and razors, with other family members. HIV
isn’t transmitted by bathing or by eating from plates, utensils, or serving dishes used
by a person with AIDS.

81. Answer: (B) Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore
tongue are all characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other clinical
manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a smooth, beefy red tongue; a wide
pulse pressure; palpitations; angina; weakness; fatigue; and paresthesia of the hands
and feet. Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure, weight gain, and double vision aren’t
characteristic findings in pernicious anemia.

82. Answer: (B) Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client
if necessary. To reverse anaphylactic shock, the nurse first should administer
epinephrine, a potent bronchodilator as prescribed. The physician is likely to order
additional medications, such as antihistamines and corticosteroids; if these
medications don’t relieve the respiratory compromise associated with anaphylaxis,
the nurse should prepare to intubate the client. No antidote for penicillin exists;
however, the nurse should continue to monitor the client’s vital signs. A client who
remains hypotensive may need fluid resuscitation and fluid intake and
output monitoring; however, administering epinephrine is the first priority.

83. Answer: (D) bilateral hearing loss. Prolonged use of aspirin and other salicylates
sometimes causes bilateral hearing loss of 30 to 40 decibels. Usually, this
adverse effect resolves within 2 weeks after the therapy is discontinued.
 Aspirin doesn’t lead to weight gain or fine motor tremors. Large or toxic
salicylate doses may cause respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

84. Answer: (D) Lymphocyte. The lymphocyte provides adaptive immunity —

recognition of a foreign antigen and formation of memory cells against the
antigen. Adaptive immunity is mediated by B and T lymphocytes and can
be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to phagocytosis. The
basophil plays an important role in the release of inflammatory mediators. The
monocyte functions in phagocytosis and monokine production.

85. Answer: (A) moisture replacement. Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder

leading to progressive loss of lubrication of the skin, GI tract, ears, nose, and
vagina. Moisture replacement is the mainstay of therapy. Though malnutrition
and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of Sjogren’s syndrome’s effect on
the GI tract, it isn’t the predominant problem. Arrhythmias aren’t a problem
associated with Sjogren’s syndrome.

86. Answer: (C) stool for Clostridium difficile test. Immunosuppressed clients — for
example, clients receiving chemotherapy, — are at risk for infection with C.
difficile, which causes “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. Successful treatment begins
with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test. The ELISA test is diagnostic
for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and isn’t indicated in this case. An
electrolyte panel and hemogram may be useful in the overall evaluation of a client
but aren’t diagnostic for specific causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may
provide useful information about bowel function but isn’t indicated in the case of
“horse barn” smelling diarrhea.

87. Answer: (D) Western blot test with ELISA. HIV infection is detected by analyzing
blood for antibodies to HIV, which form approximately 2 to 12 weeks after exposure
to HIV and denote infection. The Western blot test — electrophoresis of
antibody proteins — is more than 98% accurate in detecting HIV antibodies
when used in conjunction with the ELISA. It isn’t specific when used alone.
Erosette immunofluorescence is used to detect viruses in general; it doesn’t confirm
HIV infection. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is a useful monitoring test but isn’t
diagnostic for HIV. The ELISA test detects HIV antibody particles but may yield
inaccurate results; a positive ELISA result must be confirmed by the Western blot
test.

88. Answer: (C) Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels. Low
preoperative HCT and Hb levels indicate the client may require a blood transfusion
before surgery. If the HCT and Hb levels decrease during surgery because of blood
loss, the potential need for a transfusion increases. Possible renal failure is indicated
by elevated BUN or creatinine levels. Urine constituents aren’t found in the
blood. Coagulation is determined by the presence of appropriate clotting factors, not
electrolytes.
89. Answer: (A) Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. The
diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time,
platelet count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as
well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC
count, calcium levels, and potassium levels aren’t used to confirm a diagnosis of
DIC.

90. Answer: (D) Strawberries. Common food allergens include berries, peanuts, Brazil
nuts, cashews, shellfish, and eggs. Bread, carrots, and oranges rarely cause allergic
reactions.

91. Answer: (B) A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in
my right leg.” It may indicate neurovascular compromise, requires
immediate assessment.

92. Answer: (D) A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago;
client complaints of chills. The client is at risk for peritonitis; should be assessed
for further symptoms and infection.

93. Answer: (C) The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is
obtained. Carpal spasms indicate hypocalcemia.

94. Answer: (D) Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.Using comfort
measures and pillows to position the client is a non-pharmacological methods of
pain relief.

95. Answer: (B) Warm the dialysate solution. Cold dialysate increases discomfort. The
solution should be warmed to body temperature in warmer or heating pad; don’t
use microwave oven.

96. Answer: (C) The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward
followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. The cane acts as a support and
aids in weight bearing for the weaker right leg.

97. Answer: (A) Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or
mementos.Photos and mementos provide visual stimulation to reduce sensory
deprivation.

98. Answer: (B) The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes
several small steps forward. A walker needs to be picked up, placed down on all
legs.

99. Answer: (C) Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings. Gradual loss of
sight, hearing, and taste interferes with normal functioning.
100. Answer: (A) Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing. Purse lip
breathing prevents the collapse of lung unit and helps client control rate and depth of
breathing.