Fisher Mock Examination 2024 Kcse Revision

FISHER REVISION MOCK 2024 EXAMINATION
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FISHER MOCK EXAMINATION 2024
NAME……………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
DATE…………..SIGN……….PREV EXAM MARS…….TARGET…….
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE)
(443/1) AGRICULTURE PAPER 1 (THEORY)

TIME:2 Hours
Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and Admission or index no. on the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
c) Answer all questions in section A and B.
d) Answer any two questions in section C.
e) All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
f) This paper consists of 10 Printed pages.
g) Candidate should check the Question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and that
no question is missing.
h) That all questions are answered in English
For Examiner’s Use Only
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SCORE
A 1-14 30
B 15-18 20
C 19 20
20 20
21 20
SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
1. State four advantages of using farm yard manure. (2mks)

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2. State four merits of minimum tillage in crop production. (2mks)
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3. Mention four practices carried out to maintain grass pastures. (2mks)
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4. List the four types of land reform programmes. (2mks)
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5. Mention four cultural methods of weed control used in crop production. (2mks)
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6. State four ways of overcoming extremes of temperature in crop production. (2mks)
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7. List five precautions observed in harvesting tea to ensure high quality produce.
(21/2mks)
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8. List three ways in which primary cultivation can be achieved. (11/2mks)
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9. An agriculture student was advised to apply complete fertilizer 40:30:10 in a
(20mx10m) plot and at the rate of 400kg per hectare.
(i) Calculate the percentage of P2O5 in the complete fertilizer.
(2mks)
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(ii) (2mks)
Calculate the amount of fertilizer the student would require for the plot.
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10.State four branches of horticultoral farming. (2mks)
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11.List four methods commonly used for applying nitrogenous fertilizers. (2mks
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12.Name four factors influencing soil formation.(2mks)
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13.A farmer owns one hectare on which he can grow maize whose yield is 15
bags/hectare but has chosen to grow sorghum whose yield is 20 bags/hectare. If maize
is sold at Shs. 1200 per bag while sorghum is sold at Shs. 700 per bag. Calculate the
opportunity cost. (2mks)
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14.State four characteristics of plants used for preparation of green manure. (2mks)
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SECTION B (20Marks)
15.Students in an agriculture class set out to investigate the constituents of soil sample
from school. They carried out a series of tests on various portions of the sample. They
then prepared a table as shown below:
Description Quantity
Mass of an empty evaporating disk 10g
Fresh soil on evaporating disk 35g
Mass of dried soil at 105oC on
evaporating disk 28g
Vol. of water in the tin 250cm3
Vol. of water and soil after stirring 410cm3
Mass of empty silica disk 15g
Mass of silica disk and soil after ignition 45g
Mass of silica disk and dried soil before
ignition 65g
Volume of water and soil before stirring 500cm3
a) i)Calculate the percentage of soil water in the sample. (1mk)

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ii) Why was the soil heated at 1050C? (1mk)
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b) Calculate the percentage of soil air in the sample? (1mk)
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c) Calculate the percentage of soil organic matter in the sample.(1mk)
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d) Name one other soil constituent not tested above. (1mk)

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16. i)The diagram below shows a construction on farm. Use it to answer the questions
that follow
a)Identify the structure (1/2mk)
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b)State four areas where water in the channel is directed to (2mks)

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ii)The diagram below shows a field practice in crop production
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a) Identify the practice. (1/2mk)
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b) State two advantages of the practice named in (a) above to Irish potatoes.(2mks)
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17 ) Use the diagram below to answer the questions.
(a) Identify the sorghum variety shown above.(1mk)

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(b) State two bird pests that commonly attack the crop.(2mks)

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(c) Name two other varieties commonly grown by farmers.(2mks)
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18. Study the illustration below of a tomato fruit and answer the questions that follow
(a) Name the pest labelled Z. (1mk)

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(b) State two characteristics symptoms of attack by the pest named in (a) above. (1mk)
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(c)State two cultural control measures of the pest named in (a) above. (1mk)
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(d)Apart from pest Z identified above name two insect pests of tomatoes.
(2mks)
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SECTION C (40 Marks)

ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS
19.(a) Discuss six biotic factors that influence agricultural production.(6mks)

(b) Describe four methods of breaking seed dormancy (4mks)
(c) Describe five nursery management practices (5mks)
(d) Explain five reasons why use of chemicals to control pests should be discouraged
(5mks)
20.(a) Describe the harvesting of pyrethrum (5mks)

(b) State four precautions when harvesting pyrethrum (4mks)
(c) Explain six cultural methods of disease control (6mks)
(d) Explain five methods of water harvesting (5mks)
21.(a) Describe carrot production under the following sub-headings

(i) Field management practices (3mks)
(ii) Land Preparation (3mks)
(b) Explain five factors that determine the stage in which crops are harvested (5mks)
(c) Explain four factors determining the depth of planting (4mks)
(d) Describe five effects of strong wind on agricultural production(5mks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
DATE…………..SIGN………….PREV EXAM MARS…….TARGET…….
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
443/2 Agriculture Paper 2

Time: 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name,, admission number and school in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in section A and B.
• Answer any two questions in section C.
• Answers should be written in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTIONS QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17-20 20
C 20
20
TOTAL
90

SECTION A(Answer all questions in this section)
1. Name four rabbits breeds reared in Kenya (2marks)
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2. State four reasons why dorper breed of sheep is good for mutton production (2marks)
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3. Distinguish between curative drug and prophylactic drug as used in livestock production (2marks)
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4. Name two functions of the crop in the digestive system of chicken (1marks).
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5. List four mineral deficiency disorders in livestock (2marks)
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6. State two methods that are used in selection of breeding stock in livestock (1marks)
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7. Identify two methods of extracting honey from combs (1mark)
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8. Outline two ways of caponisation in poultry (1marks)
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9. Differentiate between mothering ability and prolificacy (1marks)
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10. List four disease of poultry that are controlled by vaccination (2marks)
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11. Give four reasons for controlling livestock diseases (2marks)

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12.A cow was diagnosed with the following symptoms; swollen feet, animal walking with a limping gait, lameness
and pus with rotten smell oozing out of the hooves and animal spending most of time lying down.
a) Suggest the disease the animal was suffering from(1 mark)
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b) Name the possible cause of the disease (1 mark)
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c) Apart from cattle name other two farm animals attacked by the above disease (2marks)
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d) State four control methods of the disease (2marks)
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12. Give two reasons for turning eggs regularly during incubation (1 mark)

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13. State four signs of broodiness in a hen (2 marks)
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14. What is dry cow therapy (1mark)
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16. Give the main reason for each of the following in dairy farming;
a)Milking quickly and evenly(1 mark)
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b) Milking at regular times (1 mark)
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c) Complete milking (1 mark)
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SECTION B
17. Below is an equipment used in poultry production?
a) Identify the structure (1 mark)
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b) State the main function of the structure (1 mark)
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c) Give the function of the following parts in the structure (3 marks)
i. Water
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ii. Source of heat

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iii. Thermometer
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18. The following is a type of a farm structure
i. Identify the structure (1 mark)
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ii. Name the parts labelled I and 3 (2 marks)
1)
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3)
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iii. Give the uses of the parts named in (ii) above (2 marks)
1)
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3)

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19. The diagram below shows the general parts of a woodwork tool
i. Identify the tool (1 mark)
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ii. Name the parts labeled C, D, and E(3marks)
C)
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D)
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E)
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iii. State one maintenance practice carried out on the part labelled F(1 mark)
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20. The diagram below represents an external parasite
a .Name the parasite(1 mark)

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b. List two harmful effects of parasite shown above (2 marks)
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c. State two control measures of the parasite named in (a) above (2 marks)
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SECTION C
21. a) Discuss the economic importance of parasites(10 mark)
b) Describe the ideal body conformation of a dairy cattle (10marks)
22.a) Describe the causes that may lead to egg eating in poultry(5 marks)
b) State the causes of cannibalism in poultry (5marks)
c) Describe the management of deep litter system (10 marks)
23a). Describe five characteristics of goats which make them survive in the arid regions (10 marks)
b) Discuss the management of bees under the following subheading
i. Siting of an apiary (5 marks)
ii. Pests and predators control (5 marks)

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
FORM 4 EXAMINATION
CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate should be provided with:-
Iodine solution
Benedicts solution
1 piece of visking tubing of 10cm
Two pieces of thread of 10cm each
30mls of glucose solution labeled L
30mls of starch solution labelled K
4 test tubes
Test tube holder
Two droppers
Means of heating

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
231/1
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
THEORY
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
- Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
- Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
-
For Examiner’s use only
QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1-26

1. State two characteristics of organisms that are easily observed in both animals and plants. (2marks)
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2. (a) Terrestrial insects such as locusts were captured and their blood was analysed. It was found that the
blood does not have blood pigments such as haemoglobin. Explain. (2 marks)
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(b) State how the tracheal system in insects is adapted to gaseous exchange. (3 marks)
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3. State two functions of a diastema in herbivores. (2 marks)
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4. State three biotic factors that could affect an antelope living in Masai Mara. (3 marks
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5. Describe how the leaves of submerged plants are adapted to gaseous exchange. (3 marks)
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6. Name the part of the seed whose growth brings about epigeal germination. (1 mark)
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7. State three aspects of light that affect the rate of photosynthesis. (3 marks)
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8. (a) Identify the class with organisms that have three body parts and three pairs of legs. (1 mark)
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(b) Suggest three reasons why members of the class named in (a) above are adapted to all types of habita
(3 marks)
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9. (a) List three types of gene mutation. (3 marks)
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(b) (i) What are sex-linked genes? (1 mark)
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(ii) Name two conditions that are sex-linked. (2 marks)
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10. (a) Name two digestive enzymes produced in their inactive form. (2 marks)
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11. Name the organelles that carry out the following functions (4mks)
(i) Destroy old and worn-out organelles

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(i) Formation of spindle fibres
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(ii) Osmoregulation
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(iii) Selective passage of substances into the cell
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12. (a) Why would you give an athlete glucose and not sucrose after a race? (1mk)
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(b)What happens to lactic acid after oxygen debt recovery? (2mks)
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13.The diagram below represents a plant cell that was subjected to a certain treatment.
At the start At the end of the experiment

a) Account for the shape of the cell at the end of the experiment. (2 marks)
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b) Draw a diagram to illustrate how an animal cell would appear if subjected to the same treatment. (1mk)
14. Name two types of valves in the heart. (2 marks)
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15.a) Name the hormones that controls metamorphosis in insects (2marks)
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b) Give one advantage of metamorphosis in insects (1mark)
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16a Name the physiological process by which water molecules move from one cell to the other (1mark)
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b) State the significance of the process in a) above 3marks
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17.The graph below represents growth pattern in a group organism
( a)Name the type of growth curve (1 mark)
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(b) Name the phylum that shows this type of pattern (1 mark)
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(c)State one disadvantage of this type of pattern (1mark)
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18(a) How would you proof that a species of wildbeest in Tanzania belongs to the same species as a similar
looking wildbeest in Kenya (1 mark)
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(b) State two principles of Binomial Nomenclature. (2 marks)

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19. Explain how altitude may affect the rate of breathing (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20. The diagram below shows some processes that take place in the ovary and oviduct around the time of
fertilization.
Name
i) The process labeled A (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Structure X and B (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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B
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iii) The hormone produced by structure labeled X ( 1mark)

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21.(a)State three structural differences between arteries and veins (3marks)
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(b)Name the blood vessels that transports blood to the following; ( 3marks)
i)heart to the lungs
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii)small intestine to the liver
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iii)Aorta to the kidney
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22a). State two theories that explains origin of life (2marks)
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b) State three evidences of organic evolution (3marks)
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23.Name the causative agent of the following diseases ( 2marks)
i) Malaria
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ii)Typhoid
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24. State three factors that increase the rate of traspiration. (3 marks)
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25. Identify three methods that cause fruit dispersal. (3 marks)
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26.State one distinguishing characteristic of Kingdom Monera 1mark)
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NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
231/2
BIOLOGY PAPER 2
THEORY
TIME: 2 HOURS
- This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
- Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
- In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either questions 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided after question 8.
For Examiner’s use only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE

1 8
2 8
A
3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 20
8 20
TOTAL SCORE 80

SECTION A(40 MARKS)
1. The diagram below represents a plant cell organelle;
a) Name the organelle (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) In which of the labeled parts does carbon(IV)oxide fixation occur? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Name the parts labeled A and B and state how each is adapted to its function(4mks)
A
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B
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d) Explain what would have happened to the structure labeled X had the plant been kept in darkness for
48 hours (2mks)
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2. A group of students set up an experiment as shown below. The experimental set ups were left for 20
minutes.
The observation after 20 minutes were as shown in the table below;
Set up Observations
Inside tubing Outside tubing
A Blue black colour Colour of iodine
B Colour of iodine Colour of iodine
a) State the process being demonstrated in this experiment. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Explain the results in set up A; (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Why was there no blue black colour inside the visking tubing in set up B; (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below represents the nitrogen cycle;
a) Name the process labeled; (2mks)

i) L
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) N1 and N2
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the organisms that convert M into nitrates. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Name the organism in plants which promotes process K(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) State the relationship between the organisms stated in (c) above and the plant;(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) How would excess pesticides in the soil interfere with process K;(2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) If F1 is nitrogen fixation by free-living bacteria, F2is nitrogen fixation by what? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. The diagram below shows a mould of the genus Rhizopus;
a) Name the kingdom to which it belongs; (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the structures labeled A and B (2mks)
A
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
B
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Give the functions of the structure labeled B (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) How do the structures labeled B differ from plant roots(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Give two ways in which members of the kingdom you stated in (a) above are useful to man. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. (a) Name the two types of variations. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) In a garden with pea plants, 625 plants had tall stems while 205 had short stems in the F2 generation;
i) Work out the ratio of tall to short plants (give your answer correct to the nearest whole number) (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Using letter T to represent the dominant gene, work out a cross between an F1 offspring and a short
plant. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) What is the genotypic ratio from the cross in b (ii) above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B:
Answer question 6 (compulsory and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8:
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate transpiration and absorption of water in a certain plant
species. The plants were potted and supplied with adequate water. The amount of water lost and
absorbed was determined. The results are shown in the table below;
Time of the day Amount of water in grams

Transpiration Absorption
0700-0900 30 15
0900-1100 40 25
1100-1300 48 34
1300-1500 56 45
1500-1700 40 50
1700-1900 25 40
1900-2100 15 28
2100-2300 10 21
a) Using the same axes, plot graphs to show transpiration and absorption of water in grams against time
of the day. (7mks)
b) At what time of the day was the amount of water the same for transpiration and absorption;(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Explain the shape of the graphs of:-
i) Transpiration (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Absorption (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Suggest what would happen to transpiration and absorption of water if the experiment was continued
for another 2 hours; (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Name two factors and explain how they would affect transpiration and absorption at any given time.
(4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. (i) Describe the process of fertilization in flowering plant. (10mks)
(ii) How is the human male reproductive system adapted to its functions? (10mks)
8. (i) Explain the methods of excretion in plants. (10mks)
(iii) Explain how the nephron is adapted to its functions. (10mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
231/3
BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
1HR 45 MINUTES
● Write your name and Index Number and sign in the spaces provided above.
● Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
● You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 13/4 hours allowed for this
paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus
that you may need.
● All workings MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
● Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiners use only.
Question Maximum Score Candidates Score
1 12
2 14
3 14
TOTAL 40
SCORE
This paper consists of 5 Printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the papers are printed as indicated and no
questions are missing.
1. The photograph below shows the arrangements of different type of cells and tissues in a certain living
organism. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
a) i) From what part of the plant was the photograph obtained. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
ii) Name the parts labeled. (3marks)
P
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
Q
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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R
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
S
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T
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b. i) State the function of the part labeled Q. (1mark)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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ii) State two adaptations of structure Q to its function. (2 marks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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c. State two environmental factors which regulate the function of the part labeled P. (2 marks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
d. Measure the length of one cell of region labeled Q on the photomicrograph whose magnification is
X5000.What is the actual length of the cell in micrometer? Show your working. (3marks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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2. You are provided with solution labeled L and K.
a) Use the reagents provided to determine their identity. Record your procedure, observation and
conclusion in the table below. (6 marks)
Food substance procedure observation conclusion

b. Tie one end of the visking tubing provided tightly. Put solution K in the visking tubing and tie the open
end. Imerse the visking tubing in the beaker containing solution L .Let the set up stand for about 30
minutes.
i) Test the contents in the visking tubing with iodine and benedict’s solution. Record your
procedure,observation and conclusion in the table below. (3marks)
Test with procedure observation conclusion
Iodine solution
Benedict’s solution

ii) Test the contents in the beaker with iodine and Benedict’s solution. Record your procedure, observation
and conclusion in the table below.
Test with procedure observation conclusion
Iodine solution
Benedict’s solution
c. Account for your observation in b(i) and (ii) above. (4mks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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d. What does a visking tubing equite to in a living organism?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Study the organisms drawn below and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Use the dichotomous key below to identify the class the organisms belong to. (12 marks)
1. (a) Phylum Chordata ……………………………………………………… go to 2
(b) Phylum Arthropoda ……………………………………………………. go to 3
2. (a) Has scales on the body ………………………………………………… go to 4

(b) Has no scales on the body …………………………………………..… Mammalia
3. (a) Has cephalothorax ……………………………………………….……. Arachnida
(b) Has no cephalothorax …………………………………………………. go to 5
4. (a) Has fins ………………………………………………………………… Pisces
(b) Has no fins ……………………………………………………………... go to 7
5. (a) Has three pairs of legs …………………………………………………. Insecta
(b) Has more than three pairs of legs ……………………………………… go to 6
6. (a) Two pairs of legs per segment ………………………………………… Diplopoda
(b) One pairs of legs per segment …………………………………………. Chilopoda
7. (a) Has feathers ……………………………………………………………. Aves
(b) Has no feathers ………………………………………………………… go to 8
8. (a) Has a tail ……………………………………………………………….. Reptilia
(b) Has no tail …………………………………………………………….. Amphibia
Specimen Step followed Identity
(b) Name the type of reproduction shown by specimen B and state it disadvantage. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
APRIL 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS
END OF TERM 1 ,YEAR 2024 EXAMS
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the space s provided above
3. Answer all questions
4. All answers must be written in the space provided in this booklet
5. Do not remove any pages from this booklet

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Marks
Question 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Marks

1. Give four features of basic human wants. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Outline four reasons why the government trains business people (4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Highlight four factors to consider when selecting a channel of distribution. (4 mks)
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3.
4. Outline four commercial services that are useful to a manufacturer (4 Marks)
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5. Indicate whether the following items are falling in real, nominal or private accounts. (3mks)
Account
(a) Sales
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
(b) Carriage inwards

..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
(c) Fixture and fittings
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
(d) Stock
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
(e) Cash
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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(f) Capital
..............................................................................................................................................................................
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6. Outline four characteristics of multiple shops (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Give four causes of unemployment in Kenya today (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. State the journal that deals with each of the following types of transaction (4 Marks)
Types of transaction Journal
(a) Sale of fixed asset on credit
(b) Correction of errors
(c) Credit purchases
(d) Return of goods by customers
9. Write whether the following transactions will have an increase, decrease or no effect on the balance
sheet totals.
(4mks)
Transaction Effect
a. Withdrew stock for personal use
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………….......................................................................................
b. Paid a creditor by cheque
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………......................................................................................
c. A debtor paid by cash
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………........................................................................................
d. Received a loan by cheque
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………........................................................................................
10. The following figures relate to Jamii Traders. Shs.
Details
Capital 30.4.2022 940,000
Net loss 20,000
Additional investments 420,000
Drawings per month 6,000
Determine capital as at 1.5.2021. (4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. Highlight four roles played by personal secretary (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. The table below shows the supply of milk over a period of three years.
Year 2019 2020 2021

Quantity supplied 50 30 25
(Litres)’’000’’
Outline four reasons for the above trend. (4 mks)

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13. Given the following information of Elisha Traders (4mks)
Land and Building. 490,000
Machinery 300,000
5 year loan 110,000
2 year loan 80,000
Creditors 90,000
Debtors 100,500
Stock 75,600
Cash 40,000
Bank overdraft 69,900
Calculate,
a) Working capital (2 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Current ratio (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Capital owned (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Borrowed capital (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Outline four trends in forms of business units. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. State four reasons that can lead to the termination of an insurance policy. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. State four essential elements in communication. (4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. Given below are transactions to Buda traders for each of the transactions, indicate in the column below
the account to be debited and the account to be credited (4 Marks)
Transaction DR CR
(i) Paid salaries in cash
(ii) Withdraw cash from bank for office use
(iii) Paid telephone bill by cheque
(iv) Purchased office equipment on credit from

Eldoret Holdings

18. State four causes of business failure (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19. State four assumptions of circular flow of income in a two sector economy (4mks)
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20. Highlight four roles of advertising agencies in product promotion. (4mks)
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21. Outline four benefits of commercial production (4mks)
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Give four reasons why firms choose to remain small in an economy dominated by large firms (4 Marks)
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22. .
23. Highlight four features of perfect competitive market. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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24. Name four documents that originate from the seller in the home trade. (4mks)
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25. State four errors that do not affect the agreement of a trial balance (4 Marks)
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NAME…………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL……………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
DATE………..SIGN……….PREV EXAM MARS…….TARGET…….
565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 21/2 HOURS
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
(d) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the answer sheets provided
(e) This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English
For Teacher’s Use Only
Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
20
20
20
20
20
TOTAL 100
SCORE

1 a) James runs a manufacturing firm and has employed seventy workers. Explain five reasons why it
would be beneficial to assign each worker a specific job in production (10 marks)
b) Discuss five factors that will lead to an increase in a country’s national income. (10 marks).
2 a) Explain five factors that a business organization would consider when choosing office equipment. (10
Marks)
b) Discuss five reasons why a government would opt to sell its public corporation (10 marks)
3 a) The following balances relate to kanji stores as at 31 st march 2023
Land and buildings 1000000
Motor vehicle 800000
Stock 100000
Trade debtors 70000
During the week ending 7th April 2023. The following transactions took place –
April 2nd –Bought stock on credit 80000
3rd – Sold stock on credit 42000
6th-Received sh 100000 cash from debtors
Required: open the relevant ledger entries, balance them and extract a trial balance as at 7 th April 2023
(12 marks)
b) Outline four importance’s of insurance in the Kenyan economy (8 marks)
4 a) The following transactions were extracted from the books of daraja traders;
2023 June 1-balance brought forward cash ksh 1900, bank ksh 6500
3-sold goods in cash ksh 1200
5- Paid transport by cheque ksh 2050
7 –bought goods worth ksh 2500 in cash less 5% cash discount
10-paid postage charges by cheque ksh 3000
12-daraja deposited ksh 600 from cash till to the business bank account
13-bought goods ksh 8400 by cheque
15- Sold some old furniture for sh 3900 and received the money in cash
17 –brought a table to be used in the business whose value was ksh 1800
18- Paid electricity bill by cheque ksh 2100

20- Sold some goods against a cheque for ksh 6600 whose value was ksh 6850
21- Took cash ksh 400 for family use
26- Sold goods on credit to kimani valued at ksh 4500
28- Received cash ksh 1500 from bidii stores
30- Deposited all cash with the bank except ksh 3525.
Required: prepare a three colmn cash book duly balanced (10 marks)
b) Outline any five factors to consider while locating a warehouse (10 marks)
5 a) Discuss five challenges that a young population poses to a country (10 marks)
b) Explain five circumstances under which oligopoly market structure may be created (10 marks)
6 a) Explain five factors that should be considered by a firm when deciding on the method to use for
promoting his products (10 marks)
b) With the aid of a suitable diagram. Explain the effects of a decrease in supply on the equilibrium
price and quantity. (10 marks)

CONFIDENTIAL
CHEMISTRY PAPER 3
233/3
Each student should be supplied with the following
Burette
Pipette
Pipette filler
Filter funnel
White tile
Clamp and stand
2 conical flask
100 cm3glass Beaker (empty)

Stop watch
100cm3 measuring cylinder
10cm3measuring cylinder
250 cm3volumetric flask
Metallic spatula
6 clean test tubes

Test tube holder
500ml distilled water
White piece of paper or filter paper
1 filter paper
1 labelling paper
Phenolphthalein indicator
About 90cm3 solution K

About 100cm3 solution L
About 70cm3 solution N
About 90cm3 solution P
About 0.5gNaHCO3
About 1.0g solid Q
Each student should have access to the following solutions:
Mean of heating
2M NaOH
2M HNO3
Pb(NO3)
Acidified KMNO4
Potassium iodide solution
NB: the above solutions should be supplied with a dropper each.

SOLUTIONS PREPARATION AND SOLID MEASUREMENTS
Solution K IS 1M H2SO4
Solution L IS 0.36 M NaOH containing 14.4g OF

NAOH in 1 litre of the solution
Solution N IS 2M HCl
Solution P IS 0.16 M Na2S2O3(Sodium thiosulphate)
Solid Q is a mixture of sodium sulphite(Na2SO3) and

lead (II) carbonate (PbCO3) mixed in the ratio 1:1
(should be thoroughly mixed)

NAME…………………………………………………….………..ADM………………………
SCHOOL…………………………………………………….…….INDEX………………..…..
DATE…………..SIGN………….PREV EXAM MARS…….TARGET……………….
233/1
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(i) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(ii) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 –29 80

1. The samples of equal volumes of water were put in 100cm3 conical flasks and heated for 5 minutes on a
Bunsen flame. It was observed that sample 1 registered a low temperature than sample II
Flame 1 Flame II
(a) Name flame I (1mk)
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(b) State one disadvantage of using flame I for heating (1mk)
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2. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
The diagram shows the method used to separate component of mixture P

X
Hot water
. Lie big condenser
Cold
water
Liquid mixture
Distillate
P
Heat
(a) Name X . (½mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) What is the name given to the method used in separation of mixture P (½mk)
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(c) What would happen if the inlet and outlet of water were interchanged ( 1mk)
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(d) Which physical property is used to separate mixture P (1mk)
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3. The table below shows the solubility of three solids P, Q, and R.

SOLID COLD WATER HOT WATER
P Soluble soluble
Q insoluble insoluble
R insoluble soluble

How would you obtain pure samples of R,P and Q (2mks)
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4. State one physical property that would suggest the presence of each of the following gases from a leaking
gas cylinder:
a) H2S (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) N2O (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Cl2 (1mk)
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5. The PH values of some solutions are given below

PH 14.0 1.0 8.0 6.5 7.0
Solution M L N P Z
(a) Identify the solution with the lowest concentration of hydrogen ion. Give reason for your answer (1mk)
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(b) Which solution would be used as an anti-acid for treating stomach upset. Give reason for your answer
(1mk)
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6. The data below gives the electronic configuration of some selected atoms and ions

Atom/ion A2+ B C2- D2+ E F- G+ H
Electronic configuration 2 2.4 2.8 2.8.8 2.8 2.8.8 0 2.8.2
(a) Select an atom that is a noble gas (1mk)
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(b) What is the atomic number of C and A (1mk)
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(c) Select an element that belong to group 2 and period four (1mk)
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7. Helium is used instead of hydrogen in balloons for metrological research. Explain (1mk)
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8. Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the following equation
Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
1.96g of Zinc metal were reacted with 100cm3 of 0.2M hydrochloric acid
a) Determine the reagent that was in excess (2mks)
Zn=65.2; Molar gas volume at s.t.p 22.4 liters
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(b) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas that was liberated at s.t.p (1mk)
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9. Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds (1mk)
(i) .CH3CH2CH2CH CH3
CH3
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………….
(iii) CH3CH=CHCl (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. 0.9g of potassium chloride and potassium carbonate mixture completely reacted with 25cm3 of 0.2M
hydrochloric acid
(i) Write an equation of the reaction which takes place (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Determine the number of moles of the acid used (1mk)
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(iii) Calculate the mass of potassium chloride in the mixture (K=39.0; C=12.0; O=16.0) (1mk)
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11. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow
Metal M
Dilute Hydrochloric acid Colourlesss gas
White ppt soluble Process I

Solution E Process 2
Ammonia solution White ppt soluble in excess
in excess added drop wise NaOH added
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729125181drop wise

(i) Identify metal M: ………………………………………………………. (1mk)
(ii) Colourless gas: …………………………………………………………. (1mk)
(iii) Write an equation that leads to the formation of white precipitate in process (1mk)
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12. a) Define the term dynamic equilibrium (1mk)
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b) A reaction at equilibrium can be represented as
2CrO2-4[aq] + 2H+[aq] Cr2O7 2[-aq] + H2O{l}
Yellow orange
State and explain the observation made when NaOH is added to the equilibrium mixture (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. Few drops of hydrochloric acid were added into a test tube containing lead {II} Nitrate solution
a) State one observation made (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Write an ionic equation of the reaction that occurred in the test tube (1mk)
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14. A compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen contains 57.15% carbon, 4.76% hydrogen and
the rest oxygen. If its relative molecular mass is 126, find its molecular formula. (C = 12, H = 1,
O = 16) (3mks)

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a) State Grahams law of diffusion. (1mark)
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b) The rate of diffusion of sulphur(IV)oxide gas through a porous material is 40cm3s -1.
Calculate the rate of diffusion of carbon(IV)oxide gas through the same porous
material (S=32,O=16,C=12) (2 marks)
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15. a) Distinguish between strong and concentrated acid ( 1mk)
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b). A solution of ammonia in methylbenzene has no effects on red litmus paper while a
solution of ammonia in water turns red litmus paper blue. Explain (2mks)
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16. Name the process which takes place when

i. Iodine changes directly from solid to gas (1mk)

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ii. Fe2+( aq) changes to Fe3+(aq) (1mk)
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iii. White sugar changes to black when mixed with concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. In the last stage of the solvay process, a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and
ammonium chloride is formed
a) State the method of separation used (1mk)
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b) Write an equation showing how lime is slaked (1mk)
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c) Name the product recycled in the above process (1mk)
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18. The diagram below is a section of a model of the structure of element K
Key
+ + + + + + +
charged nucleus
+ + + + + +
electron
+ + + + + +
a) State the type of bonding that exist in K (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) In which group of the periodic table does element K belong. Give a reason (2mks)
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19. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow
a) State two observations made in the above experiment when sodium react with water (2 mks)
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b) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that takes place (1mk)
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20. (a) Explain why permanent hardness in water cannot be removed by boiling (2mks)
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(b) Name two methods that can be used to remove permanent hardness from water (1mk)
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22. Write an equation to show the effect of heat on the nitrate of: - (2mks)
i) Potassium

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(ii) Silver
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23. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
(a) State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)

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(b) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mk)
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(c) Name gas P (1mk)
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24. Sulphur exists in two crystalline forms.
a) Name one crystalline form of Sulphur. (1mk)
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b) State two uses of Sulphur. (2mks)
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25. Bond energies for some bonds are tabulated below: -
BOND BOND ENERGY KJ/mol
H–H 436
C=C 610
C- H 410
C–C 345
Use the bond energies to estimate the enthalpy for the reaction. (3mks)
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26. Study the set up below and answer the questions that flows
State all the observations that would be made when the circuit is completed (3mks)
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27. Describe how solid samples of salts can be obtained from a mixture of lead (II) chloride,
sodium chloride and ammonium chloride. (3mks)

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28. The diagram below represents a set-up used to prepare oxygen gas.
(a) Name substance Q. (1mk)
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(b) Complete the set-up to show how oxygen gas is collected. (1mk
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(c) Write the equation for the reaction that occur. (1mk)
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29. Two reagents that can be used to prepare chlorine gas are potassium manganate
(VII) and hydrochloric acid.
(a) Write an equation for the reaction. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Give the formula of another reagent that can be used instead of potassium manganate (VII) (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Using an equation illustrate how chlorine bleach coloured substances. (2mks)
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
233/2
CHEMISTRY
FORM 4
Time: 2 hours
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K. C. S. E)
• Write your name and index no in the spaces provided

• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
• Answer all questions in this paper in spaces provided.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Mathematical tables/electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE
1 13
2 12
3 09
4 12
5 13
6 13
7 08
TOTAL 80
SCORE

1. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follows. The
letters do not represent the symbol of the elements.
Element Atomic Melting point
number (°C)
A 8 -2188
B 9 -219.6
C 12 650
D 13 660
E 14 1410
F 17 -101
G 20 842
a) Write the electron arrangement for the
i) Atom of D. (1mark)
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Ion of F
ii) (1mark)
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Select an element which is

b)
i) The most reactive non-metal. (1mark)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Best conductor of electricity.

ii) (1mark)
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c) To which group of the periodic table does element G belong. (1 mark)

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d) How do the reactivity of element C and G compare? Explain (2 marks)

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e) Using dots [•] and crosses [×] to represent outermost electrons, show the bonding in the
compound formed between elements B and D. (1 mark)

f) Explain why the melting point of element D is higher than that of element C.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Write a chemical equation for the reaction that will occur between C and A. (1 mark)
g)
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h) Compare the atomic and ionic radius of element F. (2 marks)

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2. (a) The following diagrams show the structures of two allotropes of carbon. Study them
and answer the questions that follow.
(i) What is meant by the term allotropy? (1mark)

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ii) Name allotrope

M and N (2mark)
M
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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N
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) Give one use of N (1mark)

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iv) Which allotrope conducts electricity? Explain (2mark)

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b) In an experiment, carbon (IV) oxide gas was passed over heated charcoal and the gas produced collected
as shown in the diagram below
Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube (1mark)
i)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Name another substance that can be used instead of sodium hydroxide (1mark)
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i)Describe a simple chemical test that can be used to distinguish between carbon(IV)oxide and
carbon(II) oxide (3marks)
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ii) Give one use of carbon (II) oxide (1mark)

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3. The flow chart below represents some industrial processes leading to the
formation of two nitrogenous fertilizers.
a) Name each of the process above

j) Process 1 (1mark)
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ii) Process 2 (1mark)
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b) Name the catalyst used in

i) Process 2 (1mark)
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ii) Ostwald process (1mark)

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iii) Contact process (1mark)
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c) Name compound Y (1mark)
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d) Write the equation for the reaction that leads to formation of ammonium sulphate (1mark)
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e) Ammonium nitrate is a better fertilizer than ammonium sulphate. Explain and show your working.
(N = 14, H = 1, O = 16, S = 32). (2 marks)
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4. a) Study the table below and answer the questions that follows
Formula of hydrocarbon Boiling points (K)

C2H4 -104
C3H6 -47.7
C4 H8 -62
C5 H10 30
C6H12 63.9
i) What name is given to a series of organic compounds like the ones in the table? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) To what class of organic compounds does the above hydrocarbon belong? (1 mark)
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iii) Select one hydrocarbon that would be a gas at room temperature (298K); give a reason for
your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) Give the formula of the seventh member of the above series. (1 mark)
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v) What is the relationship between the boiling point and the relative molecular masses of
the hydrocarbons in the table above? Explain your answer. (2marks)
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b. S t u d y the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
Conc. H₂SO₄ HCl
a. Write the formula of

i) Alcohol X (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Compound Z (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Name process Y. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Propane and chlorine react as shown below;
CH3CH2CH3 ⟶ CH3CH2CH2Cl + HCl
iv) Name the type of reaction that takes place. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………………..
v) State the condition under which this reaction takes place. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) The table below gives the volume of the gas produced when different volumes of 2M sulphuric (VI)
acid were reacted with 0.6g of magnesium powder at room temperature.
Volume of sulphuric acid(cm3) Volume of gas (cm3)

0 0
10 240
20 480
30 600
40 600
50 600
a) On the grid provided plot a graph of the volume of gas produced against volume of the acid used.
(3marks)

b) Write an equation for the reaction between sulphuric (VI) acid and magnesium (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) From the graph determine
The volume of the gas produced if 12.5cm3 of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid has been used.
(i) (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
The volume of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid which reacted completely with 0.6g of magnesium powder.
(ii)
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Explain the effect on rate of production of the gas if;

i) 0.6g of magnesium ribbon was used instead of magnesium powder (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………….
ii) 3M sulphuric (VI) acid was used instead of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Given that one mole of a gas occupied 24000cm3 at room temperature, calculate the relative atomic
mass of magnesium. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) In another experiment, aqueous iron (III) chloride reacts with hydrogen sulphide gas in a closed
system as shown below.
2FeCl3(aq) + H2S (g) ⇌ 2FeCl2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) + S(S)
(pale brown) (pale green)
State and explain the observation that would be made if dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the
system at equilibrium. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. The curves below represent the variation of temperature with time when pure and impure
samples of a solid were heated separately.
a) Which curve shows the variation in temperature for the pure solid? Explain. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the effect of impurities on the melting and boiling points of a pure substance.
i. Melting points (1/2mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Boiling points (1/2mark)

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c) The diagram below shows the relationship between the physical states of matter.
A
B C
E D
i) Identify the processes B and D.

B (1/2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D (1/2 mark).
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Name process A (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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State two substances in chemistry that undergo the process A

iii) (2marks)
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Is the process E exothermic or endothermic? Explain

iv) (2marks)
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7 a ) What method can be used to separate a mixture of ethanol and propanol. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain how a solid mixture of Sulphur and sodium chloride can be separated into solid
Sulphur and sodium chloride crystals. (3marks)
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c) The table below gives the solubility’s of potassium bromide and potassium sulphate at 00C and 400C
Substance Solubility g/100g water at

400C 800C
Potassium bromide 55 75
Potassium sulphate 85 95
When an aqueous mixture containing 60g of potassium bromide and 70 g of potassium sulphate
in 100g of water at 800C was cooled to 400C some crystals were formed
i) Identify the crystals. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………....................
ii) Determine the mass of the crystals formed. (1mark)

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....................................................................................................................................................................
iii) Name the method used to obtain the crystals. (1mark)

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iv) Suggest one industrial application of the method named in (iii) above. (1mark)
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233/3
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(iv) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(v) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Score Score
1 15
2 12
3 13
Total Score 40

QUESTION 1
▪ You are provided with solution K and L
▪ Solution K is 1M H2SO4
▪ Solution L contains 8.7g of the hydroxide of metal M (with formulae MOH) in 600cm3 of
the solution
▪ You are required to carry out the experiment to determine;
i. Concentration of solution L
ii. R.A.M of metal M
Procedure
1. Measure 75cm3 of solution K and put into a clean 250cm3 volumetric flask and add
distilled water up to the mark
-label this solution W
2. Fill a clean burette with solution W
3. Pipette 25cm3 of solution L into a clean conical flask and add 2 drops of phenolphthalein
indicator
4. Titrate the solution W in the burette against solution L in the conical flask and record the
results in the table below
5. Repeat {3} and {4} above as you fill the table below.
TABLE 1
I II III
3
Final burette reading {cm }
Initial burette reading {cm3}
Volume of solution W used {cm3}
(4mks)
{a} Calculate the;
(i) Average volume of solution W used (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Concentration of solution W (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Number of moles of solution W that reacted with each 25cm3 portion of
solution L
[2mks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
{b}Calculate the;
{i} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide {MOH} in solution L that reacted with
each portion of solution W [2mks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Concentration of solution L [1mk]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….……
{iii} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide [MOH]in 600cm3 of solution L
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………….……………………………
(iv) R.A.M of metal M [0=16, H=1] (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION 2
You are provided with solution N and P

▪ Solution N is 2M HCl
▪ Solution P is 0.16M sodium thiosulphate
▪ You are required to carry out the experiment below to determine how concentration
affects the rate of reaction between HCl and sodium thiosulphate solutions
PROCEDURE
1. Fill a clean burette with solution P.

Measure 25cm3 of the solution P from the burette into a clean 100cm3 glass beaker and
place on a white piece of paper with a cross[x] marked on it

2. Add 10cm3 of solution N into it and immediately start a stop watch and note the time
taken for the cross beneath the mixture to become invisible
3. Clean the 100cm3 beaker and measure into it 20cm3 of solution P form the burette, and
add 5cm3 of distilled water into the solution solution
4. Repeat step [2] above and note the time taken for the cross to become invisible
5. Repeat the experiment using volumes indicated on the table below and as you record the
results
TABLE 2
Expt
1 2 3 4 5
Volume of solution p(cm3) 25 20 15 10 5
Volume of water added to solution 0 5 10 15 20
p{cm3}
Volume of solution N 10 10 10 10 10
Time taken for the cross to become
invisible [in seconds]
1
S-1
𝑡
(4mks)
1
(a) Plot a graph of against volume of solution P on the grid provided (4mks)
𝑡

{b} From the graph
(i) Determine the time taken for the cross to become invisible when 12.5cm3 of
solution P is used (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Explain the effect of concentration on the rate of reaction between HCl and
sodium thiosulphate solution (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION 3
▪ You are provided with solids Q
▪ You are required to carry out the tests below as you record your observations and
inferences
(i) SOLID Q
-Add about 5cm3 of distilled water to solid Q, shake the mixture thoroughly for a
while and then filter it
NOTE: Retain both the filtrate and the residue for the tests below
Divide the filtrate into 4 portion
A) (i) To the first portion, add 4 drops of NaOH
OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES
(1mk) (2mk)
ii) Scoop the 2nd portion on a metallic spatula and ignite on a non-luminous flame

(1mk) (1mk)
iii) To the 3rd portion, add 2 drops of Pb{NO3}[aq]
(1mk) (1mk)
iv) To the 4th portion, add acidified KmnO4
(1mk) (1mk)

B (i) Put the residue in a test tube and add about 2cm3 of HNO3
(1mk) (1mk)
(ii) To the mixture in b{i} above, add 2 drops of KI solution
(1mk) (1mk)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
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313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
2024
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
-This paper consists of six questions
-Answer ONLY FIVE questions.
-Each question should be done on a separate foolscap.
-Questions must be answered neatly in a good hand writing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL 100

1. (a ) Explain how learning of Christian religious education in secondary school promote the goals of national
development.(6mks)
(b) State six similarities found in both biblical and traditional views on creation. (6mks)
(c) Identify eight ways in which people in traditional African communities take care of God`s creation (8mks)
2. (a) Describe the incident when Abraham was willing to sacrifice his son Isaac.(Genesis 22:1-19) (7mks)
(b) Give differences between the Jewish and the traditional African practice of circumcision .(8mks)
(c) Outline 5 examples of covenants made in Kenya today(5mks)
3. (a) Explain six ways used by king David to promote the worship of Yahweh in Israel. (6mks)
(b)With reference to 1st king 21 :17-29, Give the forms of punishment prophesied by Elijah to
Ahab and queen Jezebel.(7mks)
c.Give seven ways in which Christians fight corruption in Kenya today.(7mks)
4. (a) Describe the categories of true prophets in the Old Testament. (6mks)
(b) Explain the vision of the basket of summer fruits shown to prophet Amos by God (Amos 8:1-3) (6mks)
(c)Identify eight problems experienced by church leaders in their work (8mks)
5. (a) Outline seven occasions when Nehemiah prayed.(7mks)
(b) Explain why Nehemiah introduced the policy of separation of Jews from foreigners.(7mks)
(c)List six ways in which the government of Kenya support church leaders in their work.(6mks)
6. (a) Explain the significance of rituals performed after the death of a person in traditional African communities
.(7mks)
(b)Give the importance of bride wealth in traditional African communities (6mks)
(c)state the factors that undermine the role of medicine men in kenya today.(7mks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
-This paper consists of six questions
-Answer ONLY FIVE questions.
-Each question should be done on a separate foolscap.
-Questions must be answered neatly in a good hand writing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL 100

1(a) Outline Micah’s prophecies about the messiah (Micah 5:1-5). (7 marks)
(b)With reference to Luke 1:13-17 outline the message of angel Gabriel about John to Zechariah.
(7 marks)
(c)Give lessons Christians learn from the incident when Jesus was dedicated. (6 marks)
2. (a) Explain the teachings of Jesus on the Qualities of true discipleship ( Luke 6:20-49).
(8marks)
(b)Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman (Luke 7:36-50) .(7 Marks)
(c)State five lessons Christians learn from the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman.
(5marks)
3.|(a)Discuss reasons why Jesus celebrated the last supper with His disciples. ( 7 marks )
(b)Give six reasons why Jesus used bread and wine during the last supper. (6 marks)
(c)Give virtues that Christians acquire during the celebration of the holy communion.
(6 marks)
4(a) Describe the healing of the Gerasene demoniac in (Luke 8:26-39). (8 marks)
(b)State ways in which the Holy Spirit was manifested on the day of Pentecost. (6 marks)
(c)Outline the role of the Holy Spirit in the church today . (6 marks)
5 (a) Identify five sources of Christian Ethics. (5 marks)
(b)Outline the Christian teachings on Marriage. (8 marks)
(c)Give seven advantages of monogamous marriage. (7 marks)
6 (a) State five similarities between traditional African and Christian view on human sexuality .
(5 marks)
(b)Identify the causes of pre-marital sex among the youth in Kenya today. (8 marks)
(c)Give seven reasons why Christians in Kenya condemn homosexuality. (7 marks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
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101/1
ENGLISH
Paper 1
Functional Skills
Time: 2 hours
Instructions to the candidate

a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper
d) This paper consists of 8 Printed pages.
e) Candidates should check the questions paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
f) Candidates must answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use only

score score
20
1
10
2
30
3
Total score

1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
a) Your cousin has read an advertisement in your local daily newspaper for the position of a library
assistant in a public library. He advised you to apply for the job. Write a curriculum vitae for the
purpose of applying for this job (12mks)
b) Assume you have been offered the job as a library assistant. Write a thank you note to your cousin
for his good advice (8mks)
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)
A……………………..1 was arraigned before the magistrate in the Kilimani law ……………………2
Yesterday afternoon. Aged about thirty-three, the man was ……………………….3 of trespassing into his neighbor’s
……………………………..4 and stealing oranges. The man however, pleaded not ………………………….5. He claimed he
did not even know Onyango, the complainant. He even ………………………………..6 having met him as he escaped
with the oranges. The man …………………………7 laughter when he claimed he did not even take oranges as he is
allergic to them. He said Onyango was trying to ……………………….8 old scores with him by taking him to court.
The magistrate ordered him to be …………………9 in custody until proper ……………………………10 were carried out.
3. ORAL SKILLS (30MKS)

A. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follows
Do not stand at my grave and weep
Do not stand at my grave and weep

I am not there, I do not sleep
I am in a thousand winds that blow
I am the softly falling snow
I am the gentle showers of rain

I am the fields of ripening grain
I am in the morning hush
I am in the graceful rush
Of beautiful birds in circling flight

I am the star shine of the night
I am in the flowers that bloom,
I am in a quiet room.
I am in the birds that sing

I am in each lovely thing
Do not stand at my grave and cry
I am not there. I do not die
(By Mary Elizabeth Frye)
1. Comment on the rhyme scheme of this poem (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Identify and illustrate any two sound patterns used in the poem above (2mk
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………
3. How would you say the last line of the poem (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. With a reason, state the words you would stress in the first line of the poem(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
B. For each of the word given below, write down another word with similar pronunciation (4mks)
i. Hire
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………
ii. Guest
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Flour
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Plum
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
C. Indicate the correct intonation for the following sentences (4mks)

i. How did she travel to Nairobi?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Can I take you home?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. You are the new student, aren’t you?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. I have been working very hard for the coming examination.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D. Your neighbouring school has invited you as a guest speaker to give a talk on drug abuse. At the end
of the speech, the students commented that the talk was delivered. Give reasons why they
commented so. (4mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
E. You have been invited to a very important interview. Explain briefly what you need to do before the
occasion to ensure that you look presentable (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
F. We all have to give direction to other people from time to time, sometime we will have to write
directions. However, we often have to give directions orally. What are some of the things you would
mention to make the directions more accurate (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
G. Below is a telephone conversation between friends. Fill the missing parts (4mks)
Jane: Hello, may I talk to Judy please?
Judy
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………..:…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jane: Oh, how are you? How have you been?
Judy:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jane: I am very sorry, where was the accident?
Judy:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jane: Good to hear that your injuries were not too serious. You will pull through
Judy:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Jane: We will visit you as soon as we can. Bye for now and I wish you a quick recovery.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
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101/2
ENGLISH PAPER 2
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
- 2½HOURS
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES.
1. Write your name, admission number, date and signature in the spaces above.
2. Answer ALL the questions in this paper.
3. All answer must be written in English and in a black or blue pen.
4. This paper has 11 printed pages
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and that
no questions are missing.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTION TESTED AREAS TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 COMPREHENSION 20
2 EXCERPT 25
3 POETRY 20
4 GRAMMAR 15
TOTAL 80

1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
On Sunday, Eliud Kipchoge made world headlines again when he smashed his own world record with a time of two
hours, one minute, and nine seconds in the Berlin Marathon. With that, he sliced 30 seconds off his previous best mark
of 02:01:39 on the same course in 2018.
Kipchoge had run so fast that he crossed the line four minutes and 49 seconds ahead of his compatriot Mark Korir,
time that could have seen him have a rapid shower and dried himself just as Korir came home. But there he was,
saying, “My legs and body still feel young, but the most important thing is my mind-and that also feels fresh and
young.” The man might bring this thing below two hours before he turns forty.
The spectacular success of Kipchoge and other distance stars from Ethiopia, Uganda, Morocco, and others, is an
allegory of the possibility of national progress and African global competitiveness. He and his ilk have succeeded
because they have taken natural resources and opportunity and turned them into world-bearing products. It is
something Africa is very bad at. The Democratic Republic of Congo is said to be the most resource-rich country, but it
has done bugger all with it. It is one of the poorest countries and remains mired in conflict. If you have that much
natural wealth, you can buy a lot of peace and stability with it if you are smart in its use; ask the Saudis, Emiratis, and
Qataris.
There have been plans to build a Grand Inga Dam on the Congo River. Its potential can provide up to 40 per cent of
the continent’s electricity needs. That would be more than twice the electricity generated by the most powerful dam
in the world, The Three Gorges Dam in China. Nothing has happened. The Kipchoge treatment would have that dam
up, and supplying power-cut plagued South Africa and Nigeria.
Until recently, Nigeria was Africa’s largest exporter of oil. But due to corruption and sabotage, its now fourth, behind
Angola, Algeria and Libya. Save for Algeria, all the other three import refined petroleum products. And Nigeria and
Angola are plagued by fuel shortages at the fuel pump. If Nigeria had a Kipchoge touch, it would be one of the world’s
leading exporters of refined fuel products.
Economists keep throwing figures about to show that Africa is de-industrialising. That could be because they are
measuring the wrong thing. One of the biggest industries in Africa is whining and moaning about how Europeans,
Americans, Chinese, the Gulf States, and everyone else is exploiting and rigging the global system against us.
Yes, global injustices and imperialist exploitation must be called out and resisted, but the payoff is in overcoming and
bragging about it. Africa cannot continue blaming all its miseries on an evil world. Too many of us believe that it is
possible to overcome the odds.

In 2019, Kipchoge demonstrated this in Vienna ineos marathon challenge. He clocked 1:59:40:02, something that had
been seen as an impossibility to run a marathon under two hours. However, the historic result didn’t toward an official
marathon record, because he ran it under controlled near-laboratory conditions. He was the only competitor and had
41 pacesetters, divided into nine teams. That meant for every four kilometres plus, he had a fresh set of pacesetters.
But, the point had been made.
If we were all Kipchoges, we would say Africa will be a world superpower and richest continent and just do it.
Questions
a) According to paragraph one, what made Eliud Kipchoge to make world headlines?(1 mark)
b) Why has Africa failed to develop, according to the passage? (2 marks)
c) Pick a line from the passage to show that Kipchoge is of advanced age. (1 mark)
d) Explain one instance of irony in the passage. (2 marks)
e) Nothing has happened.

Rewrite the sentence, supplying a question tag. (1 mark)
f) Why did Kipchoge’s record of running under two hours in the Ineos 1:59 challenge fail to receive the marathon
body’s recognition? (2 marks)

g) Which common problem affects Nigeria and South Africa? (1 mark)
h) Comment on the language use in paragraph six. (2 marks)
i) What is the author’s attitude on how African countries perceive their problems? (3 marks)
j) From the passage, what is the secret behind Kipchoge and other African athletes’ success? (2marks)
k) Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the passage. (3 marks)
i) Allegory
ii) Plagued
iii) The point had been made
2. Paul B. Vitta, Fathers of Nations.

Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)

“Tad,” said the cranky passenger as he was settling down in economy class, in a seat next to Dr Afolabi’s.
“Tad Longway,” he added. His voice, deep, lingered on like the boom of a big drum. He held out a card.
Dr Afolabi took it. It said the man was a Director of Special Projects at the Agency for Governance and
Development in Africa. “Pleased to meet you, Mr Longway,” Dr Afolabi said. “My name is Abiola Afolabi. I teach at
the University of Ibadan, Nigeria.”
“You gave an excellent keynote address the other day, Dr Afolabi,” said the cranky passenger. Sparks of
earnestness were crossing his eyes, both crystal-green like toy marbles, confirming the compliment was sincere.
“Your keynote address at the Foundation for Democratic rule, I mean. It was brilliant.”
“I’m glad you liked it, Mr Longway,” Dr Afolabi said. His voice had become warm. “You were there, then, Mr
Longway?”
“Yes, but back in the last row. As a mere spectator, I did not want to be obtrusive. Anyway, you were
superb, Dr Afolabi. If you don’t mind by adding this, I was more impressed by the points that the audience raised
afterwards, during the question –and–answer period.”
Dr Afolabi felt the praise he had just heard turn into reproach. “So what were those points, Mr Longway?”
he asked. His voice was less warm.
“Remember the guy from Grassroots International: short fellow, round of body and outspoken of manner?
What was his name? It’s on the tip on my tongue.”
“You must mean the fire-eater who kept accusing me of looking for answers where I shouldn’t even look,” Dr
Afolabi said.
“Exactly, that’s our man. Yes, I thought he was right on point, Dr Afolabi. He too was unhappy with the
present state.”
“Wait, the present state of what?”
“Africa.”
“I don’t understand.”
“No problem: I’ll spell it out for you. You see, Dr Afolabi, Africa, in its present state, has two new arrivals:
corruption and impunity. The first is a crime the second protects from punishment, the second is another crime the
first rewards with kickbacks. That is Africa in its present state. Now can it change?”
“Tell me. Can it?”
“Well, let’s ask the Law of Will.”
“What?”
“Unless there is will to change, there will be no change.’
Questions
(a) Place this excerpt in its immediate context. (4 marks)
(b) Discuss one character trait of Dr Afolabi and two of Tad Longway. (6 marks)

(c) Highlight and illustrate two themes evident in this passage. (4 marks)
(d) Identify and illustrate two stylistic devices evident in this passage. (4marks)
(e) (i) Unless there is will to change, there will be no change. (Rewrite using “if”) (1 mark)
(ii)It’s on the tip of my tongue. (Rewrite beginning: “On…”) (1 mark)
(f) Explain the meaning of the following words and expressions as used in the excerpt. (5 marks)
i. Cranky
ii. Keynote address
iii. Obtrusive

iv. On the tip of my tongue
v. Kickbacks
3. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
My parents
My parents kept me from children who were rough.
Who threw words like stones and who wore torn clothes
Their thighs showed through rags. They ran in the streets-
And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams
I feared more than tigers their muscles like iron

Their jerking hands and their knees tight on my arms.
I feared the salt Coarse pointing of those boys
Who copied my lisp behind me on the road?
They were lithe, they sprang out behind hedges

Like dogs to bark at my world. They threw mud
While I looked the other way, pretending to smile
I longed to forgive them, but they never smiled.
Questions
(a) What is the poem about? (4 marks)
(b) Describe the character of the following: (4 marks)

i) The speaker’s parents

(c) Identify the persona. Illustrate. (2 marks)
(d) Describe the tone used in the poem. (3 marks)
(e) Identify and illustrate four stylistic devices used in the poem. (4 marks)
(f) What is the role of the parents as depicted in the poem? (2 marks)
(g) Explain the economic background of the children in the poem. (2 marks)
(h) Rewrite the following sentence replacing the word in bold with its opposite word.
And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams (1 mark)

4. GRAMMAR (15 MARKS)
A. Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. Do not change the meaning.
(3 marks)
i. Njoki did not know it was a dangerous vocation. (Rewrite using: “...how...”)
ii. Someone saw Kirimi leaving the plane in Khartoum. (Begin: Kirimi...)
iii. She opened the window and a bat flew out. (End in: “...a bat.”)
B. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets, (3 marks)
i. Living in the (industry) part of the town can e very distressing.
ii. The student was punished for treating the old lady . (respect)
iii. The mock examinations (analyse) has been completed.
C. Use the correct order of the adjectives provided in brackets to complete the given sentences
(3 marks)
i. I enjoyed carrying my (metallic, heavy,
rectangular) box every time we opened and closed school.
ii. Magoha married an (intelligent, American,
young) woman.
iii. Please buy me a reasonably (cheap, big,
purple)umbrella.
D. Complete the following sentences with the appropriate collective noun. (3 marks)
i. The cargo arrived at the port in a of ships.

ii. The teacher talked to a of girls from class.
iii. A of monkeys attacked the leopard.
E. Replace the phrasal verbs underlined with one word similar in meaning. (3 marks)
i. I will work hard to make up for the wasted time.

ii. Kipkorir takes after his grandfather
iii. The project has really eaten into my savings.

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM…………..………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX………………..…..…..
DATE…………..SIGN………….PREV EXAM MARS…….….TARGET…..…….
101/3 ENGLISH - PAPER 3

(Creative Composition and Essay Based on Set Text)
TIME: 2½ HOURS,
Instructions to the Candidates

1. Write your details in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. Answer three questions only.
3. Questions one is compulsory and choose any two as instructed by your teacher.
4. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
5. Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.
6. Candidates must answer the questions in English.

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60
Answer three questions only

1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY) (20 MARKS)
EITHER
(a) Write a composition beginning with the following words

I woke up on Christmas day feeling excited.
OR
(b) Write a composition on the negative effect of social media and explain how the youth can avoid its
negative aspects.
2. PLAY, THE SAMARITAN By John Lara (20 MARKS)
(a) Bad leaders will not escape punishment due to their evil deeds. Using illustrations from John Lara’s
The Samaritan, write an essay to support this statement.
(b) Standing firm in doing what is right yields good results. Using Nicole, in John Lara’s, The
Samaritan, write an essay in support of this statement.
3. EITHER
(a) The short story ( A Silent Song and Other Stories)
I. Some people can misuse the power in their hands and en up regretting when they lose it.With
close reference to Naguib Mahfouz’s story A Man of Awesome Power write an essay to
justify this statement. (20 marks)
OR
II. Drawing illustrations from Meja Mwangi’s, An Incident in the Park, write an essay to discuss
the problems of urbanization. (20 marks)
OR
(b) Drama –Adipo Sidang’-Parliament of Owls.

Choices have consequences. With relevant examples from Sidang’s Parliament of Owls, discuss the
validity of this statement. (20 marks)
OR
(c) The novel-Kazuo Ishiguro. An Artist of the Floating World

War causes many negative results. Drawing examples from Ishiguro’s An Artist of The Floating
World, write an essay to show the truth of this statement. (20 marks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
312/1
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES
• This paper has two sections A and B
• Answer ALL the questions in section A.
• In section B answer question 6 and any other TWO questions
For Examiners Use Only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score
A 1–5 25
B 6 25
25
25
TOTAL SCORE 100
SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section
1. (a) What is the relationship between Geography and Mathematics? (2 marks)

(b) Identify three branches of Geography (3 marks)
2. (a) Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow.

(i) What type of eclipse is represented by the diagram? (1 mark)
(ii) Explain how the above eclipse occurs. (2 marks)
(b) What is the time at Malindi on 40° E, when the time at Accra on Longitude 0° is 12.00 noon? (3 marks)
3. (a) Apart from fold mountains, name three other features resulting from folding. (3 marks)
(b) State two factors that determine the folding of crustal rocks. (2 marks)
4. (a) Give three reasons why some lakes in Kenya have saline water. (3 marks)
(b) Outline two economic uses of lakes. (2 marks)
5. (a) What is natural vegetation? (2 marks)
(b) State three characteristics of the Mediterranean type of vegetation. (3 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Mumias 1:50,000 (Sheet 101/2) provided and answer the following questions.
(a)(i) Identify two types of scales that have been used in the map extract. (2 marks)
(ii) What was the magnetic declination of Mumias as at January 1965? (2mks)
(iii)Name three districts covered by the map of Mumias. (2mks)

(iv)Measure the length of the dry weather road from the junction at grid reference 6028 up to the bridge at grid
reference 6434. Give your answer in KM (2mks)
(b) (i) Reduce by two, the area to the East of Easting 50 and enclosed by Northing 30 to 40.(2 marks)
On it mark and name;
• River Nzoia (1mk)

• All weather road loose surface (1mk)
• District boundary (1mk)
• Seasonal swamp (1mk)
(ii) Calculate the scale of the reduced area (2mks)
(c) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)
(d) Citing evidence from the map, identify two economic activities carried out in the area covered by the map.
(4mks)
7. (a) (i) Define the term rock. (2mks)
(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals;
• Tenacity (2mks)
• Lustre (2mks)
• Cleavage (2 marks)
(b) (i) Name two examples of extrusive igneous rocks. (2mks)
(ii) Describe the formation of Plutonic rocks. (4mks)
(c) Explain three significance of rocks to the economy of Kenya. (6 marks)
(d) Your class is planning to carry out a fieldwork on rocks around your school.
(i) Outline two activities you would engage in before the study. (2 marks)
(ii) State three challenges you are likely to face during the field study. (3 marks)
8. (a) (i) Outline any two types of river erosion. (2 marks)
(ii) State three factors that influence river erosion. (3 marks)
(b) Describe how the river erodes through the following processes.
(i) Hydraulic action. (4 marks)
(ii)Solution (2 marks)
(c) Describe how the following features are formed.
(i) Interlocking spurs. (4 marks)
(ii) Natural levees. (4 marks)

(d)Explain three negative effects of rivers to the human environment. (6 marks)
9. (a) (i) Differentiate between Vulcanicity and Volcanicity. (2 marks)
(ii) Describe how a lava plateau is formed. (4 marks)
(b) The diagram below shows some intrusive features formed by vulcanicity.
Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name the features marked E, F and G. (3 marks)

(ii) Explain how the feature marked E is formed. (4 marks)
(c ) Students carried out a field study on volcanic rocks.
(i) Give four reasons why it is necessary to collect rock samples during such a field study. (4 marks)
(ii) Outline four follow up activities the learners would be engaged in afte the field study. (4 marks)
(d)Give four causes of earth quakes. (4 marks)
10. (a) (i) What is a soil catena? (2 marks)
(ii) Give three factors that determine the colour of soil. (3 marks)
(iii)State three ways in which mulching helps in soil conservation. (3 marks)
(b) Explain how the following farming practices causes soil erosion.
(i) Burning (4 marks)
(ii) Over cultivation (4 marks)
(c ) Give two economic uses of soil (2 marks)
(d) You are supposed to carry out a field study of an eroded area.
(i) State three methods you would use to control soil erosion. (3 marks)
(ii) Give two disadvantages of using secondary sources of collecting data in this kind of study. (2 marks)
(iii)Identify two methods you would use to record the observations. (2 marks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
312/2
GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES
- This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
- Answer ALL the questions in section A.
- In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and any other 2 questions.
For Examiners Use Only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 25
B 6 25
7 25
8 25
9 25
10 25

SECTION A: (25MARKS):
Answer ALL questions in this section:
1. (a) Define the term Geography. (2mks)
(b) Name three divisions of human and economic geography. (3mks)
2. (a) Name two forest reserves in Kenya. (2mks)
(b) State three characteristics of equatorial rain forest. (3mks)
3. (a) State three physical conditions that favour large scale sugarcane growing in Kenya. (3mks)
(b) Name two areas where sugarcane is grown in large scale in Kenya. (2mks)
4. (a) Name two underground methods of mining. (2mks)
(b) Name three ways in which derelict land can be rehabilitated. (3mks)
5. (a) Define eco-tourism (2mks)
(b) State three measures being taken in Kenya to promote domestic tourism. (3mks)
SECTION B: (75 MARKS):

Answer question 6(compulsory) and any other two.
6. The table below shows the various modes of transport used by tourists visiting Kenya between the
years 2006 and 2009. Use it to answer the following questions;
Mode of 2006 2007 2008 2009

transport/year
Road 100,000 50,000 150,000 200,000
Air 600,000 650,000 700,000 800,000
water 200,000 150,000 100,000 50,000
(a) (i) State two reasons why tourists preferred air transport over the other modes of transport over
the period. (2mks)
(ii) Calculate the percentage increase in the number of tourist between the year 2008 and
2009. (3mks)
(iii) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 100,000 tourists, draw a compound bar graph to represent the
number of tourists who visited Kenya using the different modes of transport.
(9mks)

(b) (i) Explain three roles played by transport in the economy of Kenya. (6mks)
(ii) Name one highway created in Africa to ease transport across the continent. (1mk)
(c) Four form students from St. Christopher’s secondary School visited Kisumu Airport for a field
study.
(i) Identify two methods they used to record their data. (2mks)
(ii) Give two follow up activities they engaged in after the visit; (2mks)
7. (a) (i) Differentiate between land reclamation and land rehabilitation. (2mks)

(ii)Give three ways in which the government is trying to rehabilitate overgrazed lands in Kenya
(3mks)
(b) Explain three conditions that favour irrigation farming in Kenya. (6mks)
(c)(i) Name three polders that make up the Zuyder Zee reclamation project in the
Netherlands. (3mks)
(ii)Describe the stages of reclamation of land from the sea in the Netherland. (6mks)
(d)Your school intends to carry out a field study in Mwea Tebere irrigation scheme.
(i) Identify the two types of hypothesis you would develop for the study.(2mks)
(ii) Give three reasons why you would need to sample the area of study.(3mks)
8. (a)(i)What is fossil fuel? (2mks)
(ii)List two fossil fuels that have recently been discovered in Kenya (2mks)
(iii)State three formations in which mineral ores occur. (3mks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence mining.
(i) Value of minerals. (2mks)
(ii)Transport (2mks)
(c) (i) Describe how solution mining method is carried out; (5mks)
(iii) Give three negative effects of mining to the environment. (3mks)
(d) (i)Name two areas where diamond is mined in South Africa. (2mks)
(ii)Describe how diamond is processed. (4mks)
9. (a)(i) Name three trees species found in the soft wood forest of Canada. (3mks)
(ii)State three physical factors that favour the growth of soft wood forest in Canada.
(3mks)
(b) State four characteristics of softwood forest in Canada. (4mks)
(c) Give three reasons why it is necessary to carry out afforestation programs in Kenyan
forests. (3mks)
(e) State the difference between softwood forest in Canada and Kenya under the following
subheadings. (6mks)
(i) Tree species
(ii) Harvesting
(iii) Mode of transport of logs

(e) Explain three significance of forests in Kenya to human activities. (6mks)
10. (a)(i) Name two types of fishing. (2mks)
(ii) State three reasons why marine fisheries are under developed in Kenya. (3mks)
(iii) Identify four solutions to the problems facing the fishing industry in Kenya. (4mks)
(b) (i) Give two modern methods of fish preservation. (2mks)
(ii)Describe the basket method of fishing. (5mks)
(c)(i) Name three countries in the North West Atlantic fishing ground. (3mks)
(ii)Compare fishing in Kenya and Japan under the following topics:

a) Continental Shelf (2mks)
b) Coastline (2mks)
c) Ocean Currents (2mks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION (K.C.S.E)
311/1 HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT PAPER 1
Time: 2 HRS 30 MINS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES;
I. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
II. Answer All questions in section A, three in section B and two in section C.
III. Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer sheets provided V. Answer all
questions in English
Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
Total Score 100

SECTION A: 25 MARKS:
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. Identify the branch of history that studies the occupation of people (1 mark)
2. Name the species that was discovered at Fort Ternan in 1961 (1 mark)
3. Give one community that is classified under Southern Cushites (1 mark)
4. Identify two written documents that contain the history of East African Coast before 1500AD
(2 marks)
5. Give two functions of mission centres established by missionaries in Kenya (2 marks)
6. State one right that is limited to a person held in custody in Kenya (1 mark)
7. Identify one social interactions that can promote national unity in Kenya (1 mark)
8. State two rights guaranteed to the youth in Kenya (2 marks)
9. Identify one house of parliament created by the independence constitution (1 mark)
10. Name two communities in Kenya that showed mixed reactions to the British Rule in Kenya (2 marks)
11. State two reasons why some leaders of the Agikuyu collaborated with the British (2 marks)
12. Identify the treaty that finalised the partition of East Africa (1 mark)
13. State two contribution of the independent schools during the colonial period (2 marks)
14. Name two members of African elected members organisation AEMO at its inception in 1957
(2 marks)
15. State the main function of the Public Service in Kenya (1 mark)
16. State two reasons why elections are held regularly in Kenya (2 marks)
17. State one way through which the Harambee spirit among Kenyans promotes national unity
(1 mark)
SECTION B: 45 MARKS:
ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS ONLY FROM THIS SECTION
18. (a) Give five reasons for migration of the Luo from their original homeland (5marks)
(b) Describe the social organisation of the Maasai during the pre-colonial period (10 marks)
19. (a) Give three reasons why the British used indirect rule in Kenya (3marks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the Nandi resistance to British rule lasted for a long time (12marks)

20. (a) Mention three political organisation that Ronald Ngala worked with in his political career (3 marks)
(b) Explain six problems faced by the trade unions during the colonial period (12 marks)
21. (a) Give three reasons why the Kenya-Uganda railway was constructed during the colonial period
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the British government invited Europeans settlers in Kenya (12 marks)
SECTION C: 30 MARKS:
ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
22. (a) Identify three economic factors that promote national unity (3marks)
(b) Explain six functions of the Kenya National Human Rights and equality commission (12marks)
23. (a) State five conditions that may necessitate a by-election of a member of county assembly in Kenya
(5 marks)
(b) Explain five functions of correctional services in Kenya (10marks)
24. (a) Identify three subordinate courts in Kenya (3marks)
(b) Explain six factors that undermine the administration of justice in Kenya (12 marks

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
HISTORY & GOVERNMENT PAPER 2

311/2
TIME: 2HR 30MIN
INSTRUCTIONS
(a) This paper consists of three sections; A, B AND C
(b) Answer all the questions in Section A, three questions from Section B and two
questions from Section C
For examiner’s use only

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
Total Score 100

SECTION A: 25 MARKS
Answer all the questions in the answer sheets provided
1. State two benefits of studying History and Government. (2 mk)
2. Give two reasons that made early human beings to live in groups (2mk)
3. Identify the main method used to plant cereal crops when early agriculture begun.
(1mk)
4. State two effects of land enclosure system to small scale farmers in Britain (2 mks)
5. Give one advantage of horn blowing as a means of communication during pre-s
colonial period (1mk)
6. Identify the main source of energy used at the onset of industrial revolution (1mk)
7. Identify one symbol of unity in the ancient kingdom of Asante (1mk)
8. Name two African communities who participated in the Maji Maji rebellion. (2mk)
9. State two political effects of partitioning of Africa by European powers. (2mk)
10.Identify the type of constitution used in Britain (1mk)
11.Give two external factors that promoted nationalism in Mozambique. (2mk)
12.State two reasons why the assimilation policy worked in Senegal (2mk)
13.Identify two approaches used by Nationalists against the apartheid regime in South
Africa (2mk)
14.Give the immediate cause of the first world war in 1914 (1mk)
15.What was the Von Schlieffen plan. (1mk)
16.Name one organ of the league of Nations (1mk)
17.Name the party that led Ghana to independence (1mk)
SECTION B (45MARKS)
Answer three questions from this section in the answer sheers provided
18. A) Give three reasons why Africa is considered the cradle land for mankind (3mk)
B) Describe six ways in which the upright posture improved early man’s way of life
(12mk)
19.A) State three ways through which iron working technology spread in Africa (3mk)
B) Explain six effects of scientific inventions on the field of medicine. 12mks

20.A) State five positive impacts of modern means of transport (5mks)
B) Explain five factors that favoured rise of African nationalism (10mks)
21.A) State three reasons why Lewanika collaborated with the British (3mks)
B) Explain six factors that favored growth of industries in Brazil (12mks)
SECTION C: 30 MARKS
Answer any two questions in the answer sheets provided
22. A) State three reasons why USA delayed in joining the first world war (3mks)
B) Explain six effects of the Versailles treaty (12mk)
23.A) State five reasons why the British used Direct rule in Zimbabwe (5 mks)
B) Explain five differences between the French and British systems of administration
(10 mks)
24.A) Identify three officers who assisted the emperor to administer the Shona kingdom
(3mk)
B) Describe the political organization of the Baganda during pre-colonial period
(12mks)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
102/1 – KISWAHILI – karatasi ya 1
INSHA
Muda: saa 134
Maagizo
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
c) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya tatu zilizobakia.
d) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
e) Kila insha ina alama 20
f) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
g) Karatasi hii ina kurasa mbili zilizopigwa chapa.
h) Watahiniwa wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na kuwa
maswali yote yamo.
Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee
Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
Jumla 40
LAZIMA
1. Wewe ni mwanaharakati wa kutetea haki za watoto. Wahutubie wanafunzi wa shule
ya Uzalendo kuhusu la vyanzo vya mimba za mapema miongoni mwa watoto wa kike.

2.Wewe ni mwenyekiti wa jopo kazi lililoteuliwa kuchunguza kiini cha kupanda kwa
gharama ya Maisha na jinsi serikali inaweza kusuluhisha swala hili. Tayarisha ripoti hii.
3. Andika kisa kinachoafiki maana ya methali ifuatayo :

Fahali wawili wapiganapo nyasi ndizo ziumiazo.
4. Andika insha utakayoanza kwa maneno yafuatayo:

Walipofungua mlango huo, wengi hawakuweza kuzuia hisia zao. Walitoa kwi! Kwi!
kwa maafa waliyoshuhudia…

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102/2 KISWAHILI karatasi ya 2

(LUGHA)
Muda:saa 2 ½
Hati ya Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari
Maagizo
1. Andika jina lako na namba yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
2. Tia sahihi yako na tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
3. Jibu maswali yote.
4. Andika majibu yako katika nafasi zilizoachwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
5. Karatasi hii ina kurasa 13 zilizopigwa chapa.
6. Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
7. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa Kiswahili.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE
SWALI UPEO Alama

1 Ufahamu 15
2 Ufupisho 15
3 Matumizi ya 40
4 Lugha
Isimu Jamii 10
JUMLA 80

1. UFAHAMU: (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali:
Takwimu zilizothibitishwa zaonyesha kuwa kila sekunde nane mtu mmoja hufa duniani kutokana na
utumiaji wa tumbako. Kwa siku basi, watu 10,800 hufa. Wengi wa wavuta sigara huanza katika umri kati
ya miaka kumi na mitatu hadi kumi na tisa. Takwimu zaonyesha kuwa mtu akivuta sigara kwa zaidi ya
miaka ishirini huupunguza umri wake kwa kati ya miaka 20 hadi 25 zaidi ya ambaye hajawahi kuvuta. Hii
ni kwa kuwa tumbako ina zaidi ya kemikali 4,000 zinazodhuru afya.
Mojawapo ya madhara makuu zaidi yanayosababishwa na sigara ni saratani. Kunayo saratani ya ngozi –
vidonda visivyopona huchubuka ngozini na baada ya muda hugeuka na kuwa kansa. Iri ya mapafu hutokea
vifuko vya hewa vinapopasuka na hivyo kutatiza uvutaji wa oksijeni na utoaji wa kabondayoksaidi. Moshi
pia husababisha madhara kwa njia ya kupitisha hewa, yaani umio, ambapo njia hii yaweza hata kuzibika
hivyo kulazimu tundu kutobolewa kooni ili mgonjwa aweze kupumua. Kabla ya kufika kooni na mapafuni,
moshi hupitia mdomoni. Saratani ya mdomo na ulimi basi hupatikana zaidi miongoni mwa wavuta sigara.
Pia kidonda chochote, kwa mfano baada ya kung’olewa jino, huwa vigumu kupona kwa mvutaji sigara.
Kwa wanawake, kuna hatari ya kupatwa na iri ya fuko la uzazi. Madhara kwenye njia nzima ya uzazi
huifanya iwe vigumu kwa wanawake wavuta sigara kuhimili. Ni rahisi pia kuzaa njiti. Mtoto wa mvutaji
huzaliwa akiwa mwepesi zaidi ya kawaida. Hii husababishwa na kabonimonoksaidi kutoka kwa sigara
inayomdhuru mtoto tumboni. Saratani hii husababisha hata kifo cha mtoto aliye tumboni. Wengine
wazaliwapo huwa na hatari ya kupatwa na saratani zaidi ya waliozaliwa na akina mama wasiovuta sigara.
Aina zaidi za saratani zinazowakumba wavuta sigara ni kama vile saratani ya pua, ya tumbo, ya figo, ya
kibofu cha mkojo, ya kongosho, ya njia ya kinyesi na hata saratani ya matiti inayowaathiri zaidi wanawake.
Shida za sigara sio saratani pekee; sigara husababisha shida za macho na masikio kwa kiasi kikubwa.
Mboni ya jicho yaweza kufunikwa na utando, hali inayoweza kusababisha hata upofu. Macho yaweza
kuwashwa na moshi mkali wa sigara au mishipa ya macho iathirike na kemikali zinazofika kwayo kupitia
kwa mishipa mapafu yanapoathirika. Masikio nayo huathiriwa na uchafu wa tumbako unaoganda kwenye
mishipa hadi sehemu za ndani za masikio. Damu hupunguza mwendo ufaao masikioni hivyo yanaugua.
Moshi na kemikali za tumbako pia hujeruhi sehemu za ndani na athari hii yaweza kuenea hadi ubongoni na
kusababisha utando unaofunika ubongo. Hali hizi zaweza kusababisha uziwi.
Mifupa na meno huathirika pia. Mifupa huwa myepesi, hukosa nguvu na kuwa rahisi kuvunjika. Mvuta
sigara akivunjika mfupa huchukua muda wa asilimia themanini (80%) kupona zaidi ya mtu asiyevuta. Meno
nayo hutatizika katika ukuaji wake kutokana na kugandwa na moshi wenye kemikali. Hali hii husababisha
harufu mbaya, uchafu pamoja na kuoza kwa meno.
Ngozi ya mvuta sigara hukaushwa na kemikali kwa sababu uwezo wake wa kujirekebisha na kujilainisha
hupunguzwa pakubwa. Hali hii husababisha ukavu unaoonekana pamoja na makunyanzi yanayomfanya
mvuta sigara aonekane mzee zaidi ya umri wake. Vidole navyo vilevile hugandwa na kutu ya sigara, nazo
kucha na vidole hugeuka rangi vikawa vya manjano, hudhurungi au maji ya kunde. Vidole pia hukaushwa
na moto na kemikali ya sigara. Nywele za mvuta sigara pia huathirika kwa kuwa kemikali huipunguza
kinga ya mwili hivyo mizizi ya nywele kukosa nguvu. Nywele za mvuta sigara zaweza kung’oka mapema.

Sigara husababisha magonjwa ya moyo na vidonda vya tumbo. Kwa moyo, sigara husababisha shinikizo la
damu na hatimaye mshtuko wa moyo waweza kutokea na kusababisha hata kifo. Kwa tumbo, sigara
hupunguza uwezo wa kinga zake wa kuikinga dhidi ya asidi zinazosaga chakula. Pia hupunguza uwezo wa
mwili wa kujikinga dhidi ya vidonda vya tumboni. Vidonda vya tumbo vya mvuta sigara huwa vigumu
kupona na, ni rahisi kutokea tena baada ya kupona.
Kwa mwanamume, mpigo wa damu kwenye sehemu za uzazi huathiriwa. Hali hii ikizidi husababisha hata
upungufu wa nguvu ya mbegu kwenye shahawa. Hata ugumba waweza kutokea. Pia watoto wa mwanamke
mvuta sigara waweza kuzaliwa wakiwa na kasoro. Mimba zingine zilizotungwa na wanawake wavuta
sigara pia hutunguka. Na si hayo tu; madhara ya sigara ni mengi zaidi.
Maswali
a) Yape makala haya kichwa. (alama 2)

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b) Mbali na athari kwa uzazi kwa wanawake na wanaume na sura/umbo la binadamu, taja madhara
mengine ya uvutaji sigara kwa binadamu. (alama3)
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c) Kwa kurejelea kifungu onyesha kwamba sigara kwa wanawake hasa ni hatari mno.
(alama 4)
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(d) Je, ni kweli kuwa vifo vingi hutokea kwa sababu ya uvutaji sigara? Toa sababu. (alama 2)
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(e) Eleza namna ambavyo uvutaji sigara huathiri sura ya mhusika. (alama 3)
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(f) Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumiwa kwenye taarifa. (alama 1)
Gandwa
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UFUPISHO: (Alama 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali
Runinga kama kifaa kingine chochote cha mawasiliano kina manufaa yake. Kwanza kabisa, ni nyenzo
mwafaka ya kufundishia. Vipindi vinavyopeperushwa katika runinga huwa na mafunzo kemkemu kwa mtu
wa kila rika. Halikadhalika, runinga huweza kuleta vipindi ambavyo huwafahamisha watu mambo
yanayoendelea katika mazingira yao na duniani. Aidha, runinga ikitumika pamoja na michezo ya video huauni
katika ukuzaji na ustawishaji wa stadi ya kujifundisha au kujielimisha. Michezo ya video, hasa ya kielimu,
huwafanya watu kujenga umakini pamoja na kuchua misuli ya ubongo na kuwafanya watu kuwa macho
wanapofanya kazi.
Fauka ya hayo, televisheni ni chemchemi bora ya kutumbuiza na kuchangamsha. Hakuna mtu
asiyependa kuchangamshwa. Televisheni ni mojawapo ya vyombo mwafaka vya kutekeleza hayo kutokana
na vipindi vyake. Uburudishaji huu huwa ni liwazo kutokana na shinikizo na migogoro tunayokabiliana nayo
kila siku. Uburudishaji huu hupatikana kwa urahisi majumbani mwetu. Vivyo hivyo, runinga hutumika kama
nyenzo ya kuendeleza utamaduni, kaida na amali za jamii. Vingi vya vipindi vya runinga huwa ni kioo
ambacho huakisi mikakati na amali za jamii.
Kwa upande mwingine, hakuna kizuri kisichokuwa na dosari. Licha ya manufaa yake, televisheni
imedhihirika kuwa na udhaifu wake. Kwanza, baadhi ya vipindi vya runinga na video hujumuisha ujumbe
usio na maadili, kama vile matumizi ya nguvu za mabavu, ngono za kiholela, lugha isiyo ya adabu, ubaya wa
kimavazi na maonevu ya rangi, dini, jinsia, kabila na utamaduni. Si ajabu kuwa baadhi ya vijana wetu wanaiga
baadhi ya mambo haya. Vijana wetu siku hizi wameingilia ulevi wa pombe na afyuni, ngono za mapema
kabla ya ndoa na mavazi yanaowaacha takribani uchi wa mnyama. Wengi wamekopa na kuyaiga haya kutoka
katika runinga. Ukiwauliza wafanyacho, watakujibu kuwa ni ustaarabu kwani wameupata katika runinga.
Matumizi ya runinga na michezo ya video yasiyodhibitiwa huweza kuwa kikwazo cha mawasiliano
bora miongoni mwa familia. Matumizi kama haya huwapa wanafamilia fursa ya kujitenga. Imedhihirika
kuwa runinga haichangii kujenga uhusiano bora wa kijamii. Ukilinganisha na vyombo vingine vya burudani
ambavyo hutoa nafasi ya watu kutangamana na kujenga uhusiano bora, televisheni haichangii haya. Badala
yake, tajriba ya televisheni huwa ya kibinafsi. Hali hii inapotokea katika kiwango cha familia, televisheni
inaweza kutenganisha wazazi na watoto wao.
Halikadhalika, runinga na video aghalabu hueneza maadili yasiyofaa. Mathalani, baadhi ya vipindi
vya televisheni huendeleza hulka ya kuhadaa, ngono za kiholela, kuvunjika kwa ndoa, na kadhalika. Hulka
hizi zisizoendeleza maadili ya kijamii huchukuliwa kama zinazofaa na zinazofuatwa na waliostaarabika. Huu
ni upotovu.
Isitoshe, baadhi ya matangazo huhimiza matumizi ya dawa za kulevya kama tembo na sigara. Vitu
hivi vinapotangazwa, hupambwa kwa hila na udanganyifu mwingi ambao huwavutia vijana na watoto wengi.
Si ajabu mtu anapouliza wanaotumia vileo hivi walivyoanza, watajibu kutokana na athari za matangazo katika
runinga na vyombo vingine.
Utafiti umeonyesha kuwa vipindi vya runinga na video ni chanzo cha matumizi ya nguvu za mabavu
miongoni mwa wanafunzi. Wazazi wengi huchukulia vibonzo katika televisheni kuwa vinalenga kuburudisha
tu na havina ubaya wowote. Lakini ukweli ni kuwa vipindi vingi vya vibonzo hushirikisha matumizi ya hila
na nguvu za mabavu. Haya huibusha hamu ya vijana na watoto huyaiga.
Kwa hivyo, ni muhimu wazazi na jamii kutambua madhara ya televisheni. Utambuzi huu utawafanya
wawaelekeze vijana na watoto jinsi ya kutumia televisheni na video ili kuepukana na madhara yake.
a) Fupisha aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 70 – 75 (alama 8, 1 ya utiririko)
Matayarisho
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b) Eleza udhaifu wa runinga na video. (maneno 50 – 51) (alama 5, 1 ya utiririko)
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3.MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)
a) Eleza maana ya kipashio kidogo cha lugha. (alama 1)

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b) Andika maneno yenye sifa zifuatazo: (alama 2)
i) kikwaruzo ghuna cha ufizi, vokali ya chini-wastani, kizuiwa ghuna cha midomo, kiyeyusho cha midomo,
irabu ya chini-kati
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ii) Kipua ghuna cha ufizi, kipasuo cha ufizi, irabu ya mbele-juu, nazali ghuna ya midomo, irabu ya nyuma-
juu.
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c) Ainisha uamilifu wa kisarufi wa mofimu kwenye neno hili. (alama 3)
Lilimjisha
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d) Tunga sentensi moja kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya “tu”. (alama 2)
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e) Unda kitenzi kutokana na nomino mwandishi kisha ukitungie sentensi. (alama 2)
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f) Yakinisha kwa kutumia kiambishi cha masharti ya uwezekano kwa wingi. (alama 2)
Usiposoma kwa bidii hutofaidika.

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g) Tumia nomino ya ngeli ya mahali dhahiri pamoja na kivumishi kirejeshi cha kati kwa sentensi.
(alama 2)
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h) Andika kinyume cha sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Mjomba alimtwika mwanawe mzigo akabana mlango.
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i) Bainisha shamirisho katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 1)
Tajiri huyo shupavu ana magari makubwa mno.
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j) Tunga sentensi kwa kutumia chagizo cha ulinganisho. (alama 2)
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k) Andika upya sentensi kwa wakati uliopita hali endelevu, . (alama 2)
Wenyeji wamewapokea wageni kwa taadhima.
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l) Tunga sentensi moja kuonyesha maana mbili za neno tema. (alama 2)
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m) Ainisha aina ifuatayo ya sentensi kiutendakazi. (alama 1)
Safari imekuwa ikitusumbua sana.
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n) Onyesha kiima na utambue muundo wake katika utungo huu. (alama 2)
Pesa zote zilihifadhiwa na mwekahazina shujaa.
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o) Tumia kishazi tegemezi kwenye sentensi kuonyesha vigezo vifuatavyo. (alama 2)
i) Wakati
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ii) Jinsi
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p) Changanua kwa kielelezo cha mistari. (alama 4)
Aliponijia kwa mkopo, nilikuwa nasali sebuleni.
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q) Andika upya kwa kuanza na yambwa tendewa. (alama 2)
Mvua iliwanyea wanunuzi sokoni hivi majuzi.

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r) Tunga sentensi ukitumia kihusishi cha uhusiano. (alama 2)
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s) Eleza matumizi ya kiambishi po katika sentensi. (alama 2)
Achezapo anapofika, sisi hushangilia.
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t) Twasema oyee tunapofurahia jambo………………………………..tunapotahadharisha na ……………….
Tunapotoa himizo. (alama 2)
4. ISIMU JAMII .
Aziz: Ingia 46! Adams mbao Kenyatta, railways beba! 46 Adams mbao Kenyatta railways!
Shiku: Namba nane ngapi?
Aziz: Mbao ingia, blue.
Shiku: Nina hashuu
Aziz: Blue Auntie
Shiku: Sina
Aziz: Ingia. 46 Adams mbao, Kenyatta railways gari bebabeba.
Ahendera: Mimi sinako shirini. Chukuako tu kumi.

Aziz: Dinga inakunywanga petrol mzee.
Ahendera: Kumi mingi.
Aziz: Haaya ingia twende. Dere imeshona twende. Beba mbele.
b) Taja sifa zozote tano za Sajili hii. (alama 5)
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c) Kulingana na habari zinazotufikia hivi punde, maafisa watatu wa polisi jana walikana mashtaka ya
mshukiwa wa mauaji ya watoto 13 kutoroka kutoka kituo cha polisi.
i) Tambua sajili inayorejelewa. (alama 1)
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ii) Eleza sifa tano za sajili hii. (alama 4)
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SHULE YA UPILI
2024
KIDATO CHA NNE
KARATASI YA TATU 102/3
𝟏
MUDA: 2 masaa
𝟐
Maagizo-
• Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
• Chagua maswali mengine matatu kutoka kwa sehemu zililosalia.
• Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
• Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
• Kila swali ni alama ishirini.

SEHEMU YA A ;
SWALI LA LAZIMA-FASIHI SIMULIZI
1.
a) Fafanua maana ya lakabu (alama 2)
b) Sifa za lakabu ni zipi (alama 5)
c) Kwa nini lakabu ni muhimu katika jamii? (alama 3)
d) Jadili manufaa ya utafiti katika fasihi simulizi. (alama 10)
Hadithi fupi
Mapambazuko ya machweo na Hadithi nyingine
2. Eleza nafasi ya vijana na wazee katika hadithi ya Mapambazuko ya machweo. (alama 20)
Nafasi ya vijana
AU
3. ‘Sasa ni saa ngapi? Si wajua mtoto angali anakusubiri? Mtoto analala!’
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)
b) Bainisha mtindo katika dondoo hili (alama 3)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji katika kuendeleza maudhui katika hadithi ya Harubu ya maisha.
(alama 10)
d) Kwa hoja tatu, eleza umuhimu wa msimulizi katika kuendeleza hadithi ya mzimu wa
kipwerere (alama 3)
TAMTHILIA YA BEMBEA YA MAISHA NA TIMOTHY AREGE

4. “…haikuwa mara moja mnavyofikiria. Ilianza pale chuoni. Wenzangu walinipa mvinyo kunirai
kuonja ulevi.”
a) Eleza maudhui manne yanayojidokeza katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Eleza athari za mhusika anayerejelewa kujitosa katika suala linalooredheshwa kwenye
dondoo. (alama 6)
c) Kwa kurejelewa mifano tano katika tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha, eleza tofauti iliopo
katika maisha ya ndoa ya zamani na sasa (alama 10)
AU
5. Jadili sababu kumi zilizompeleka mwandishi T. Arege kuandika Tamthilia hii. (alama 20)
RIWAYA YA NGUU ZA JADI NA PROFESA CLARA MOMANYI

6. “Samahani… Nina shida kidogo. Ninaomba usaidizi. Sikuwa nikilipa ushuru katika biashara zangu.
Sasa wanataka kuzifunga na kunipeleka kotini.”
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo (alama 4)
b) Bainisha toni katika dondoo hili (alama 2)
c) Msemaji wa maneno haya na wengine ni adui ya wananchi wa Matuo. Eleza ukweli wa kauli hili.
(alama 14)
AU
7. Matumizi mabaya ya mamlaka ni tatizo sugu sana katika mataifa mengi ya Afrika yanayoendelea
kiuchumi. Kwa kutolea hoja mwafaka, tetea ukweli wa kauli kwa mujibu wa riwaya ya nguu za jadi.
(alama 20)

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.
Jiulize ni kwa nini, uanzapo kuongea

Sana sana makundini, watu hukuondokea
Ndugu ujitathmini, hakika umepotea
Sisi twakuombea, mwenye damu ya kunguni!
Mwenye damu ya kunguni, nayo lugha ya ajuza

Wengi hawamtamani, maneno yake yaliza
Yeye ana walakini, dosari kuliko pweza
Kama wewe umefunza, sote hutuona duni!
Sote hutuona duni, na hilo tumezowea

Kazi zetu zote guni, yeye tu amebobea
Umewachokoza mbuni, mateke anapokea
Sisi twakuombea, upae hadi hewani!
Upae hadi hewani, ujione kama bingwa

Mewashinda gazetini, wandishi kwako wapingwa
Yeye kwetu mpinzani, metia mipaka tingwa
Twakuombea mtafiti, hesabu hadi mizani!
Hesabu hadi mizani, utunge kwa kukosoa

U hodari hesabuni, nasi tushakuzoea
We nduli kwa majirani, na waja mekutegea
Kurekebisha hujui, ywatanika peupeni!
Ywatanika peupeni, ywajisifu mjuaji

Amezidi zetu mboni, na amevijunjia mji
Twamwachia waamuzi, kesi wasome majaji
Sisi twakuombea, sirekebike kidogo!
a) Eleza ujumbe unaojitokeza katika shairi hili (alama 6)

b) Tambua miundo wa shairi hili (alama 4)
c) Tambua bahari ya shairi hili kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa maneno. (alama 2)
d) Andika ubeti wa tatu kwa lugha nathani (alama 4)
e) Tambua aina tatu za takriri zinazojitokeza (alama 3)
f) Onyesha toni ya shairi hili (alama 1)

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
MATHEMATICS PAPER 121/1
TIME: 𝟐 𝟏⁄𝟐 HOURS
NSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, index number, signature and date of the examination in the spaces provided
• The paper contains two sections. Section I and section II
• Answer ALL questions in section I and any five questions in section II
• Answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question
• Show all steps in your calculation below each question
• Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong
• Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used, except
where stated otherwise
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
SECTION I
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
MARKS
SECTION II
QUESTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
MARKS
GRAND TOTAL

SECTION I (50 MKS) Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1.33×0.15
1. Evaluate without using tables or a calculator the value of (3marks)
0.19×0.0017
2. When a certain number is divided by 48, 72 or 100 the remainder is 3 in each case. Find the number. (3marks)
3 849.6×2.41
3. Using logarithm table evaluate √ . (4marks)
3941
4. A 890kg culvert is made of a hollow cylindrical material with outer radius of 76cm and an inner radius
of 62cm. It crosses a road of width 3m. Determine the density of the material used in its construction
in Kg/m3 correct to one decimal place. (3marks)
5. Evaluate the value of x in 81𝑥+1 + 34𝑥 = 246. (3marks)

4𝑥 2 −9
6. Simplify the equation . (3marks)
2𝑥 2 +5𝑥+3
7. The diagram below represents a prism whose Cross-section is a right-angled triangle. Draw the net of
the solid. (3marks)
8. During an annual general meeting at Elimu Mixed Day, goats and chicken were slaughtered. The
number of heads for both chicken and goats were 45. The total number of legs were 100. Determine
the exact number of goats and chicken slaughtered. (3marks)

9. In a mixed school there are 900 students, out of these 600 are girls.
(a) Find the ratio of boys to girls. (2marks)
(b) What is the percentage of boys in this school? (1mark)
𝑡−1 4+𝑡
10. Find the value of t in the equation − = 0. (3marks)
3 4
11. The sum of interior angles of a polygon is 19800. Find the number of sides of the polygon and name
the polygon. (3marks)
12. Solve the following inequalities and represent the solution on a single number line. (3mks)
3-2x<5
4-3x≥-8

13. Line K whose equation is 2𝑦 − 6 = 4𝑥 is perpendicular to another line Q. Find the equation of line Q
if it passes through point. (-2, 7).
(3marks)
14. The figure below is not drawn to scale.
Find correct to 1 decimal place;

(a) Length PQ. (2 marks)
(b) Angle ABC (2 marks)
15. The marked price of a car ina dealers shop was Ksh.450 000. Kawira bought the car at 7% discount.
The dealer still made a profit of 13%. Calculate the amount of money the dealer had paid for the car to
the nearest shillings. (3marks)

16. The figure below shows triangle T with vertices P(2,4), Q(6,2) and R(4,8). It is mapped onto triangle
T/ with vertices P/(10,0), Q/(8,-4) and R/(14, -2) by a rotation.
(a) Draw on the same axis T/ the image of triangle T. (1 mark)
(b) Determine the center and angle of rotation. (2marks)
SECTION II(50 marks). Answer only five questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. The diagram below shows a solid made of a hemisphere and a cylinder. The radius of both the
cylinder and the hemisphere is 3cm. The length of the cylinder is 12cm.
a) i) Calculate the volume of the solid. (3marks)

ii) The solid fits in a box in the shape of a cuboid 15 cm by 6cmby 6cm. Calculate
thevolume of the box not occupied by the solid correct to four significant figures.
(2marks)
b) i) Calculate the total surface area of the solid correct to four significant figures. (3marks)
ii) The surface of the solid is to be painted. One millilitre of paint covers an area of
8cm2.The cost of paint is Ksh 900 per litre. Calculate the cost of the paint required. (2marks)
18. An expedition has 5 sections AB, BC, CD, DE and EA. B is 200m on a bearing of 050 0 from A. C is
500m from B. The bearing of B from C is 3000. D is 400m on a bearing 2300 from C. E is 250m on a
bearing 0250 from D.
(a) Sketch the route (1 Mark)
(b) Use the scale of 1cm to 50m to draw the accurate diagram representing the route. (5 Marks)
(c) Use your diagram to determine
(i) Distance in metres of A from E (2 Marks)
(ii) Bearing of E from A (2 Marks)

19. A trader bought 2 cows and 9 goats for a total of Ksh. 98,200. If she had bought 3 cows and 4 goats,
she would have spent Ksh. 2, 200 less.
(a) Form two equations to represents the above information. (2marks)
(b) Use the matrix method to determine the cost of a cow and that of a goat. (4marks)
(c) The trader later sold the animals she had bought making a profit of 30% per cow and 40% per goats.
i) Calculate the total amount of money she received. (2marks)
ii) Determine corrects to 4 significant figures the percentage profit the trader made from the
sale of animals. (2marks)

20. Two towns, Meru and Maua are 80km a part, Kimathi started cycling from Meru to Maua at 10:00
30a.m at an average speed of 40km/h. Mutuma started his journey from Maua to Meru at 10:30 a.m
and travelled by car at an average speed of 60km/h.
(a) Calculate:
i) The time taken by Kimathi and Mutuma to meet. (3marks)
ii) The distance from Meru when Kimathi and Mutuma met. (2marks)
iii) The time of the day when the two met. (2marks)
(b) Murianki cycled from his home to a school 6km away in 20minutes. He stopped at the school for 5
minutes, before taking a motorbike to a town 40 km away. The motorbike travelled at 75km/h. On
the grid provided, draw a distance time graph to represent Murianki’s journey. (3marks)

21.In the figure below AOC is a diameter of the circle centre O; AB = BC and ACD = 350. EBF is a
tangent to the circle at B. G is a point on the minor arc CD.
D G
350(
A C
O
E B F
Giving reason
(a) Calculate the size of
(i) BAD (3 Marks)
(ii) The obtuse BOD (2 Marks)
(iii) BGD (2 Marks)
(b) Show that ABE = CBF (3 Marks)
(𝑥+3) 1
22. a) Solve the equation = (𝑥−2)
(4 marks)
24
(b). The length of a floor of a rectangular hall is 9m more than its width. The area of the floor is 36m2.
(i). Calculate the perimeter of the floor. (4 marks)

(ii). A rectangular carpet is placed on the floor of the hall leaving an area of 28m2. If the length of the
carpet is twice its width, determine the width of the carpet. (2 marks)
23. Using a pair of compass and ruler only construct.

(a) Triangle PQR in which PQ =5cm∠QPR = 300 and ∠PQR=1050. (3marks)

(b) A circle that passes through the vertices of the triangle PQR. Measure its radius. (3marks)
(c) The height of triangles PQR with PQ as the base. Measure the height. (2marks)
(d) Determine the area of the circle that has outsides the triangle correct to 2 decimal places. (2marks)
24. (a). The equation of a line L1 is 7𝑦 − 5𝑥 − 20 = 0 ⋅ Find the x-intercept of the equation (1mark)
b). Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-5, 3). Find the equation of L2. (3marks)
c). L3 passes through (0,-3) and parallel to the line L4 whose equation is 3𝑦 − 8𝑥 = 3 find the equation of
L3. (3marks)

d). Calculate the coordinates of point of intersection between the lines L1 and L3. (3marks)
.
NAME…………………………….……………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL……………………..………………………….INDEX……………..…..
DATE……………..SIGN………….PREV EXAM MARS…….TARGET..…….

MATHEMATICS PAPER 121/2
TIME: 𝟐 𝟏⁄𝟐 HOURS
NSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, index number, signature and date of the examination in the spaces provided
• The paper contains two sections. Section I and section II
• Answer ALL questions in section I and any five questions in section II
• Answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question
• Show all steps in your calculation below each question
• Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong
• Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used, except
where stated otherwise
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
SECTION I
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
MARKS
SECTION II
QUESTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
MARKS
GRAND TOTAL
SECTION I (50 MKS)

SECTION I (50 MARKS)Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. Make y the subject of the formula : (3 marks)
2. Solve for x in the equation: 𝐿𝑜𝑔8 (6 − 2𝑥) − 𝐿𝑜𝑔8 (𝑥 − 2) = −1⁄3 (3
marks)
3. Three quantities P, Q and R are such that P varies directly as the cube of Q and inversely as the
square root of 𝑅. Find the percentage change in P if Q decreases by 10% and R decreases to
36%. (3
marks)
4. A circle with its Centre at O (-2, 0) passes through a point (1, 4). Write down the equation of the
circle in the form 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 (3 marks)
𝐶𝑂𝑆 300
5. Express: in surd form and simplify by rationalizing the denominator
tan 450 +√3
(3
marks)
6. In a transformation, an object with area 9cm² is mapped onto an image whose area
𝑥 𝑥−1
is 54cm². Given that the matrix of transformation is (2 4 ) Find the value
of X (3 marks)
7
(2 marks)
1
7 a) Find the binomial expansion of(1 + 2𝑥) up to the 4th term with increasing powers of x.

b) Hence estimate the value of (1.05)7 correct to 4 decimal places. (2 marks)
8. A computer with a marked price of Kshs. 40000 can also be bought on hire purchase terms. Kibet
bought the computer on hire purchase by making a deposit of Ksh 10000 and cleared the balance with
equal 12 monthly installments of KShs. 3500 each. Determine the monthly interest rate of hire purchase
to 2 significant figures. (3 marks)
9. A dealer blends Kericho tea that costs sh 300 per 100g packet with Ketepa that costs ksh 160 per
200g packet. In what ratio must the dealer mix the two so that by selling a 100g packet of the
blend for ksh 250, a profit of 25% is made? (4 marks)
10. Solve for x in the equation: 𝑆𝑖𝑛 2θ = −0.5 for 00 ≤ θ≤ 3600 (3 marks)

11. Use completing of the square method to solve: 2𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 4 = 0 (3 marks)
12. A carpenter wishes to cut a 1m long piece of wood into 3 equal parts. He approximates the
length of each piece to 0.33m. Calculate the percentage error due to this approximation (3
marks)
13. Calculate length DT in the figure below given AT and DT are secants that intersect at T and AB =
5 cm, BT = 4 cm and DC = 9 cm. (3 marks)
D
C
B
A

14. An arc of a circle of diameter 7 cm subtends an angle of 1.2 radians to the Centre of the circle.
What is the length of the arc? (2 marks)
𝑥 − 2𝑥 𝑥−4
15. Given matrix 𝐴 = ( ). Find the possible values of 𝑥 if 𝐴 is a singular matrix.
𝑥 2
(3 marks)
16. Working together two taps A and B can fill a tank in 2 hours. By itself tap A can fill the tank in 6
hrs. Tap A and B are opened at the same time and after running for 1 hour, an outlet taps which
can drain the full tank by itself in 12 hours is opened and Tap A is closed. Find the total time
taken to fill the tank. (4 marks)

SECTION II – 50 MARKS Answer only FIVE questions from this section.
17. In a form 4 class there are 24 girls and 30 boys. The probability that a girl participates in games is
0.4 whereas that of a boy is 0.6.
a) A student is picked at random from the class. Find the probability that the student picked:
i) Is a boy and will participate in games (2 marks)
ii) Will not participate in games (2 marks)
b) Two similar bags A and B are such that, bag A contains 3 blue balls and 7 red balls while bag B
contains 4 green balls and 8 blue balls. The balls are similar in shape and size. A ball is drawn from
bag A and bag B. Determine the probability that:

i) One of the balls drawn is green. (2 marks)
ii) The balls drawn are of the same colour. (2 marks)
iii) None of the balls drawn is red (2 marks)

18. In the triangle OAB below, OA = a, OB = b and 3OA = 2OC. M divided OB in the ratio 1:1 .

a) Express in terms of a and b only, the vectors
i) BA (1 mark)
ii) OC (1 mark)
iii) MC (1 mark)
b) Given further that MN = hMC and BN = kBA,
i) Express vector MN in two different ways in terms of a, b, h and k (2 marks)
ii) Find the value of h and k. (4 marks)
c) State the ratio MN:MC (1 mark)
19. A group of people planned to contribute equally towards buying a plot valued at Ksh. 270,000.
After the contribution, 2 members joined of the group. As a result, a refund of Ksh 1500 was
made to the members who had already contributed.
a) Let the original number of people be x, express in terms of x:
i) The original contribution (1 mark)
ii) The new contribution (1 mark)
b) Find how much each member contributed finally (5 marks)
c) Calculate the percentage decrease in the contribution per person caused by the members who
joined. (3 marks)
20. The table shows income tax rates for a certain year.
Monthly taxable pay K£ Rate of tax in Ksh. Per K£

1- 434 2
435 - 866 3
867- 1298 4
1299 - 1730 5
Over 1730 6
A company employee earns a monthly basic salary and is also given taxable allowances amounting
to Ksh 10480. If the employees’ tax on the 5th band is Ksh 3420,
a) Calculate the employee’s monthly taxable income tax in K£. (2 marks)
b) The employee is entitled to a personal tax relief of Ksh. 1056 per month. Determine the net tax.
(4
marks)
c) In a certain month, the employee received a 25% increment in his basic salary. Calculate his net
monthly pay. (4 marks)
21.(a) In a geometrical progression the sum of the second and third term is 12 and the sum of the third
and fourth terms is −36. Find the first term and the common ratio. ( 4 marks)

(b) In an arithmetic progression the 12𝑡ℎ term is 25 and the 7𝑡ℎ term is three times the second term,
find;
i) The first term and the common difference ( 4 marks)
iii) The sum of the first 10 terms of the arithmetic progression. (2 marks)
22 a). The table below shows the frequency distribution of marks scored by students in a test.
Marks 1-10 11-20 21-30 31-40 41-50

Frequency 2 4 8 4 2

On the grid provided, draw a cumulative frequency curve for the data. (3 marks)
b). Use your graph to determine;
( i). The pass mark if only 6 students passed the exam. (2 marks)

(ii). The upper quartile mark (1 mark)
c). Find the percentage change if the upper quartile in b(ii) above was found by calculation. ( 3 marks)
23 a) Complete the table below for 𝑦 = −2 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 and 𝑦 = 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥. (2 marks)
x 0° 30° 60° 90° 120° 150° 180° 210° 240° 270° 300° 330° 360°
-2 Sin x 0.00 -1.73 -1.00 0.00 2.00 1.73
3 Cos x 3.00 1.50 -2.60 -3.00 0.00 1.50
b,) Draw the graph 𝑦 = −2 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑥 and 𝑦 = 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 using 1 cm to represent 30° horizontal axis and
2 cm to represent 1 unit on the vertical axis. (5 marks)

c) Use the graph to solve:
i) 3 Cos x + 2sin x = 0 (1 mark)
ii) 1 - 2sin x = 2 (2 marks)
24. A triangle ABC with vertices at A (1,-1) ,B (3,-1) and C (1, 3) is mapped onto triangle A1B1C1 by a
 −1 0
transformation whose matrix is   .Triangle A1B1C1 is then mapped onto A11B11C11 with
 0 1 
vertices at A11 (2, 2), B11 (6, 2) and C11 (2,-6) by a second transformation.
(i) Find the coordinates of A1B1C1 (3 marks)

(ii) Find the matrix which maps A1B1C1 onto A11B11C11. (3 marks)
(iii) Determine the ratio of the area of triangle A1B1C1 to triangle A11B11C11. (1 mark)
(iv) Find the transformation matrix which maps A11B11C11 onto ABC (3 marks)

FISHER MOCK
EXAMINATION
PHYSICS CONFIDENTIAL
QUESTION 1
2 new dry cells size D

A cell holder.
One 100cm resistance wire mounted on millimeter scale.(Swg 32)
1 switch.
1 Voltmeter 0 – 3V.
1 Ammeter 0 – 1A.
8 connecting wires (4 with at least 1 crocodile clip).
Resistor wire mounted on cardboard. (Swg 28)
QUESTION 2
A meter rule
Two identical 100g masses labelled A and B.
About 200ml of liquid L in 250ml beaker
Three pieces of thread, each about half metre long.
Stand with clamps
Tissue paper.
PART B

Marble, watch glass, plasticine.
Stop watch
Vernier calliper

NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
232/1
PHYSICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.

Non programmable silent scientific calculators may be used
SECTION A 25 MARKS (ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS)
1. Water is normally used as a coolant in many internal combustion systems. Explain why
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Give the reading indicated in the section of the Vernier calipers shown below (2mks)
3. One advantage of friction force is that it enables motion. State one disadvantage of
friction (1mk)
179
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Steel bars are used to reinforce concrete beams. Give a reason why (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. A stone of mass 50g is whirled in a vertical circle at a linear speed of 25m/s when
attached to a string of length 0.5m. Calculate the tension on the string when the stone
is at the bottom of the circular path. [g=10N/kg](3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. An inflated balloon is left on the sun for some time. The balloon burst, give a reason
why it bursts. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Name two factors that determine momentum of a body. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. It is common practice by motor vehicle body builders to make luggage compartments

of buses underneath passengers’ seats. How does this enhance safety of those
travelling in such buses? (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. An empty density bottle has a mass of 20g. When full of water, its mass is 70g and
when full of a liquid X, its mass is 55g. Given that density of water is 1000kg/m3, find
the density of liquid X. (3mks)
180
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Figure below shows a system used to transfer a liquid from a tank A to tank B on
earth’s surface.
(a). Give the name of this method (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). When some young astronauts tried the method on the moon’s surface, they failed. Give a
reason why they were unsuccessful (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. An object of mass 90kg weighs 360N on the surface of a certain planet. Find the
acceleration due to gravity of this planet (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
181
SECTION B (55 MARKS) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
13. (a). State Hooke’s law (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). State three factors that affect spring constant (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
©.A spring has a spring constant of 40N/cm. 3 such springs are used to suspend a mass of
180kg as shown in the figure below.
Find the extension of the system (3mks)
(d). A spring of elastic constant 50N/cm is compressed 2cm inside the muzzle of a shotgun.
If the gun is to shoot a bullet of mass 20g when trigger is released. Find;
i. The initial velocity of the bullet as it leaves the gun (4mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. The recoil velocity of the gun if it has a mass of 4kg. (3 decimal places) (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
182
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a). What is an ideal gas (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). Absolute zero temperature is practically not attainable. Explain why (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
©. A gas has a volume of 2m3 at 25˚C. What will be the volume of the gas at a
temperature of 77˚C keeping pressure constant (2.d.p) (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d). A hot air balloon is sometimes used by merry makers to rise to high heights. Explain how
it works (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
183
(e). Figure below represents a cross-section of a large ship.
i. What is the use of the large metal plate underneath the ship (2mks)
ii. The ship can carry heavier luggage in sea-water than in fresh water. Explain (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. A loaded ship whose total weight is 4000 tonnes is moving in sea water of density
1030Kg/m3. Find the volume of ship under the water surface (1.d.p) (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. (a). Define the term velocity ratio of a machine (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). Figure below shows part of a hydraulic press. The plunger is the piston where effort is
applied while the Ram piston is the piston where the load is applied. The plunger has a
cross-sectional area a m2while Ram piston has a cross-section area, A m2.
184
When the plunger moves down a distance d the Ram moves up a distance D. Derive an
expression for the velocity ratio (V.R.) in terms of A and a . (4mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
©. A machine of velocity ratio 45 overcomes a load of 𝟒. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝑵 when an effort of 135N is

applied. Determine
i. The mechanical advantage (M.A) of the machine (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Efficiency of the machine (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. The percentage of work that goes to waste (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d). State two properties of fluid suitable for use in such a hydraulic machine (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
185
16. (a). Define the term specific latent heat of fusion (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). You are provided with the apparatus shown in the figure below. Describe an experiment
to determine the specific latent heat of steam L using the set up. In your answer clearly
explain the measurements to be made and how these measurements could be used to
determine L (6mks)
©. A block of metal of mass 150g at 100˚C is dropped into a lagged calorimeter of heat
capacity 40JK-1 containing 100g of water at 25˚C. The temperature of the resulting mixture is
34˚C. (Specific heat capacity of water =4200JKg-1K-1). Determine:
i. Heat gained by calorimeter (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Heat gained by water (2mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Heat lost by the metal block (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Specific heat capacity of the metal block (2mks)
186
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
187
NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
232/2
PHYSICS
TIME :2 HOURS
INSTRUCTION TO CANDINDATES
1 write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
2 Answer all the questions both in section A and B in the spaces provided below in each question .
3 All working must be clearly seen, marks may be awarded for correct steps even if the answers are wrong .
4 silent electronic calculator and KNEC mathematical table may be used.
For examiners use only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDINDATE SCORE

A 1 12 25
13 11
B 14 12
15 13
16 12
17 7
TOTAL SCORE 80
188
SECTION A(25 MKS)
1. State two properties of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Recharging is one of the practices of maintenance of accumulators; state two measurements which need to be
taken to help you decide when the accumulator is ready for recharging. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Two students stand 300m from a wall. One bangs two pieces of wood together and at the same time the other
starts a stop watch. They hear an echo after 1.8 seconds. Determine the speed of sound in air. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. State one use of gold leaf electroscope. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequencies
Infrared, X rays ,visible light, Radio waves . (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. The figure represents displacement time graph for a wave.
0
0.002 0.004 0.006 0.008
189
Determine the frequency of the wave. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Describe the change on the image formed when the following adjustment are made on a pinhole camera:
(a) Size of the hole increased (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Length of the pinhole camera increased (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Two pins are hanging from a magnet as shown in the diagram below.
State and explain why they do not hang vertically downwards (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. The figure below shows magnetic field pattern due to current flowing through a conductor
190
Using . or a x State the direction of electric current in the conductor. (1mk)
10. (a) What do you understand by the label 100W, 240v indicated on an electric bulb? (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What property does a fuse wire have that makes it suitable for protecting excessive current in the circuit?
(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) What is the operating resistance of an electric lamp rated by manufacturer at 80W , 240 V (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum. Explain. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Other than the same frequency, state other two conditions for formation of stationary wave. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (55 MKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED
13 (a) State Snell’s law. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The figure below shows a ray of light incident on air glass interface. Study it and answer the questions
that follow.
191
Air
60O
30O
Glass
From the diagram determine
(i) The refractive index of the medium (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The critical angle of the medium (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State two conditions under which total internal reflection occurs. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) The figure below shows an optical fibre. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
192
(i) Explain how the ray of light is transmitted from one point of incidence until it emerges at B through the
tube. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State two advantages of using optical fibre in communication. (2mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a) State two physical quantities that affect the electrical resistance of a conductor at a constant temperature.
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The cell in the figure below has an emf of 1.8V and negligible internal resistance.
2Ω
3Ω
A
V
3Ω
Determine
(i) Total resistance in the circuit. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Current in the circuit. (2mks)
193
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Reading of the voltmeter. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Reading of the ammeter. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15 (a) Plane water waves produced in a ripple tank are passed from a region of deep water into a region of
shallow water. The figure below shows the top view of the tank .
(i) State what happens at the boundary to the frequency of the waves. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The waves have a speed of 24cm/s in the deep water. Consecutive waves crests are 0.08M apart in the
deep water. Calculate the frequency of the source producing the waves. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain how an increase in temperature affects the speed of sound in air. (1mk)
194
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State one application of a capacitor. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) The figure below shows three capacitors connected in a circuit

2V
2µF
3µF
6µF
Calculate
(I) The total capacitance of the circuit. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(II) The charge stored in the circuit. (2mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(III) The potential difference across the 2µF capacitor. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) Define the following terms as used in mirrors
(i) Principal axis. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The pole. (1mk)

195
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The figure shows two rays of incident on a converging lens.
F’ F
Complete the ray diagram to show the rays after passing through the lens. (2mks)
(c) (i) State two differences between the human eye and the camera lens. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii ) State the name of the part of the eye that enables the lens to focus images of objects at different
distances. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) An object which is 3cm tall is placed 20cm from a converging lens of focal length 12 cm.
Calculate:
(i) The distance of the image from the lens. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Magnification. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
196
17 (a) The figure below shows a circuit with two bulbs X and Y study the diagram and answer the question that
follow.
X
Soft iron bar
Springy
iron bar
Explain the following observations
(i) When the switch S is closed, bulb Y lights continuously. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) When the switch S is closed bulb X flickers. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) You are provided with the following apparatus; a white screen, a metre rule, and a concave mirror and a mirror
holder. Using the apparatus describe an appropriate method to determine the focal length of the mirror. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
197
NAME………………………………………………………..ADM……………
SCHOOL…………………………………………….INDEX……………..…..
232/3
PHYSICS
PRACTICAL
TIME: 2HRS 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
- Write you name, index number, admission number and your class.
- Use the first 15 minutes to study the questions properly.
- answer all questions
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAX. SCORE CAND. SCORE
1 20
2 20
40
This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all
pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.
198
QUESTION ONE
1.You are provided with the following apparatus.

• 2 new dry cells size D
• A cell holder.
• One 100cm resistance wire mounted on millimeter scale.
• 1 switch.
• 1 Voltmetr 0 – 3V.
• 1 Ammeter 0 – 1A.
• 8 connecting wires (4 with at least 1 crocodile clip).
• Resistor wire mounted on cardboard.
(a) Connect the circuit as shown below in figure 3.0.
Figure 3.0
Record the reading of

(i) Ammeter, I = __________________ A (1mk)
(ii) Voltmeter, V = ________________ V (1mk)
V
(iii) Given that K = , find K = ___________________ (1mk)
I
(b) Disconnect figure 3.0 above and arrange the apparatus as shown below.
(i) Adjust the position of crocodile clip on the resistance wire to a point such that L = 10cm.
199
(ii) Record in the table 2, the value of p.d across R and corresponding current
through R.
(iii) Repeat procedure in (2) above for L = 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70cm.
L(cm) 10 20 30 40 50
V(V)
I(A) (5mks)
(iv) On the grid provided plot the graph of V (Y-axis) against I (X-axis). (5mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v)Find the slope of the graph. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) What quantity is represented by the slope of the graph? (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION TWO
This question has two parts A and B. answer both parts.
PART A
You are provided with the following:
- A meter rule
- Two identical 100g masses
- About 200ml of liquid L in 250ml beaker
- Three pieces of thread, each about half metre long.
- Stand with clamps
- Tissue paper.
Proceed as follows:
(a) Using a stand and one piece of thread, suspend the metre rule in air such that it balances
horizontally. Record the position of the centre of gravity. G.
G = ________________________ cm
200
NOTE: The metre rule should remain suspended at this point through out the experiment.
(b) Set up the apparatus as in figure 2 below.
Suspend the mass A at a distance x = 50mm. adjust the position of mass B until it balances mass A
immersed in liquid L.
Record the distance d, of mass B from the pivot.
Repeat the same process for other values of x in table 2 below and complete the table.
x(cm) 5.0 10.0 15.0 20.0 25.0 30.0
d(cm)
(3 mks)
(c) Plot a graph of d (y axis) against x. (5mks)
201
(d) Determine the slope, S of the graph. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
F
(e) Given S = , where F is the apparent weight of object A in the liquid L and W is the actual
W
weight of A, find:-
(i) The value of F. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………
(ii) The upthrust, U (3mks)
202
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART B
You are provided with the following apparatus:
• Marble, watch glass, plasticine.
• Stop watch
• Vernier callipers
Proceed as follows
a). Measure the diameter of the marble using a vernier callipers.
Diameter d=……………………………………………cm (1mk)
Radius r= ………………………………………………cm (1mk)
b). Arrange the apparatus as shown in fig 1. Below
Figure 1
c) i). Set the marble oscillating and record the time taken to make six complete oscillations.
Repeat the experiment three times and then find the average.
t1=…………………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
t2 =…………………………………………………………………………………..(1mk)
t3=…………………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
t1 + t 2 + t 3
Average, t=
3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………(1mk)
……………….………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii). Determine the period T, for the marble,
T= …………………………………………………………………………………(1mk)
iii). Calculate the value of b, from the following where g= 10m/s2 (2mks)
203
7(b − r )
T=2π
5g
204

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FISHER REVISION MOCK 2024 EXAMINATION

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(443/1) AGRICULTURE PAPER 1 (THEORY)

SECTION A (30 Marks)

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1. State four advantages of using farm yard manure. (2mks)

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a) i)Calculate the percentage of soil water in the sample. (1mk)

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a)Identify the structure (1/2mk)

b)State four areas where water in the channel is directed to (2mks)

(a) Identify the sorghum variety shown above.(1mk)

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(a) Name the pest labelled Z. (1mk)

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SECTION C (40 Marks)

19.(a) Discuss six biotic factors that influence agricultural production.(6mks)

20.(a) Describe the harvesting of pyrethrum (5mks)

21.(a) Describe carrot production under the following sub-headings

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443/2 Agriculture Paper 2

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1. Name four rabbits breeds reared in Kenya (2marks)

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a) Suggest the disease the animal was suffering from(1 mark)

b) Name the possible cause of the disease (1 mark)

d) State four control methods of the disease (2marks)

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a)Milking quickly and evenly(1 mark)

17. Below is an equipment used in poultry production?

a) Identify the structure (1 mark)

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i. Identify the structure (1 mark)

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i. Identify the tool (1 mark)

a .Name the parasite(1 mark)

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21. a) Discuss the economic importance of parasites(10 mark)

b) Describe the ideal body conformation of a dairy cattle (10marks)

b) State the causes of cannibalism in poultry (5marks)

c) Describe the management of deep litter system (10 marks)

b) Discuss the management of bees under the following subheading

i. Siting of an apiary (5 marks)

ii. Pests and predators control (5 marks)

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1 piece of visking tubing of 10cm

Two pieces of thread of 10cm each

30mls of glucose solution labeled L

30mls of starch solution labelled K

Test tube holder

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For Examiner’s use only

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

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