Ece301 Midterm by Mark 1 To 40

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ECE301

MIDTERM

BY

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Contact No: 0319 9315310


Topic 1: Theory and Research in Child Development I
1. Which of the following is a key component of child development research?
- A) Random sampling
- B) Hypothesis testing
- C) Both A and B
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C) Both A and B

2. Which research method involves detailed, in-depth information about a single


individual?
- A) Experimental study
- B) Longitudinal study
- C) Case study
- D) Cross-sectional study
- Answer: C) Case study

3. What is the primary goal of developmental research?


- A) To compare different species
- B) To understand the processes of development
- C) To create new educational policies
- D) To diagnose developmental disorders
- Answer: B) To understand the processes of development

Topic 2: Theory and Research in Child Development II


1. Which theory emphasizes the role of social interaction in cognitive
development?
- A) Behaviorism
- B) Piaget's Theory
- C) Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory
- D) Freud's Psychoanalytic Theory
- Answer: C) Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory

2. In a longitudinal study, researchers:


- A) Observe a single group at one point in time
- B) Observe different groups at different times
- C) Follow the same group over a period of time
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C) Follow the same group over a period of time

3. Which research design is best suited for identifying developmental changes


over time?
- A) Cross-sectional design
- B) Experimental design
- C) Longitudinal design
- D) Case study
- Answer: C) Longitudinal design

Topic 3: Theory and Research in Child Development III


1. What is the main limitation of a cross-sectional study?
- A) It is time-consuming
- B) It cannot identify individual developmental changes
- C) It is more expensive than longitudinal studies
- D) It provides less data
- Answer: B) It cannot identify individual developmental changes

2. Which method allows researchers to infer causality?


- A) Correlational study
- B) Case study
- C) Experimental study
- D) Observational study
- Answer: C) Experimental study

3. What does a high correlation between two variables indicate?


- A) One variable causes the other
- B) The variables are related
- C) There is no relationship
- D) Both variables are dependent
- Answer: B) The variables are related

Topic 4: How Human Development Occurs


1. Human development is considered to be:
- A) Static
- B) Continuous
- C) Sporadic
- D) Inconsistent
- Answer: B) Continuous

2. The nature vs. nurture debate is primarily concerned with:


- A) Biological influences
- B) Environmental influences
- C) Both A and B
- D) Neither A nor B
- Answer: C) Both A and B
3. Which of the following stages is NOT part of Erikson's theory of
development?
- A) Trust vs. Mistrust
- B) Initiative vs. Guilt
- C) Generativity vs. Stagnation
- D) Motivation vs. Ability
- Answer: D) Motivation vs. Ability

Topic 5: Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development I


1. According to Erikson, the primary task in adolescence is:
- A) Trust vs. Mistrust
- B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
- C) Intimacy vs. Isolation
- D) Industry vs. Inferiority
- Answer: B) Identity vs. Role Confusion

2. The challenge of "Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt" occurs during:


- A) Infancy
- B) Early childhood
- C) Adolescence
- D) Adulthood
- Answer: B) Early childhood

3. Erikson's stage of "Generativity vs. Stagnation" is most relevant to which age


group?
- A) Young adults
- B) Middle-aged adults
- C) Adolescents
- D) Elderly adults
- Answer: B) Middle-aged adults

Topic 6: Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development II


1. In the stage of "Intimacy vs. Isolation," individuals primarily focus on:
- A) Developing a sense of trust
- B) Establishing intimate relationships
- C) Building a career
- D) Exploring their identity
- Answer: B) Establishing intimate relationships

2. The outcome of successfully navigating the "Integrity vs. Despair" stage is:
- A) A sense of accomplishment
- B) Wisdom
- C) Intimacy
- D) Independence
- Answer: B) Wisdom

3. Which stage focuses on the challenge of "Initiative vs. Guilt"?


- A) Preschool years
- B) Elementary school years
- C) Adolescence
- D) Young adulthood
- Answer: A) Preschool years

Topic 7: Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory


1. Bandura's theory emphasizes the importance of:
- A) Genetic inheritance
- B) Observational learning
- C) Biological maturation
- D) Cognitive development
- Answer: B) Observational learning

2. The "Bobo doll" experiment demonstrated:


- A) The effects of reinforcement
- B) The impact of observational learning
- C) The stages of cognitive development
- D) The process of classical conditioning
- Answer: B) The impact of observational learning

3. According to Bandura, which of the following is crucial for learning?


- A) Attention
- B) Memory
- C) Motivation
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D) All of the above

Topic 8: Social Interaction and Stages of Kohlberg’s Moral Development


Theory I
1. Kohlberg's theory of moral development is divided into:
- A) Two levels
- B) Three levels
- C) Four levels
- D) Five levels
- Answer: B) Three levels

2. The first level of Kohlberg's theory is:


- A) Postconventional
- B) Conventional
- C) Preconventional
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C) Preconventional

3. At the preconventional level, moral reasoning is based on:


- A) Social norms
- B) Personal principles
- C) Avoidance of punishment and seeking rewards
- D) Law and order
- Answer: C) Avoidance of punishment and seeking rewards

Topic 9: Stages of Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory II


1. The conventional level of moral development is characterized by:
- A) Self-interest
- B) Social approval
- C) Ethical principles
- D) Avoidance of punishment
- Answer: B) Social approval

2. Which stage involves the belief in law and order?


- A) Stage 1
- B) Stage 2
- C) Stage 3
- D) Stage 4
- Answer: D) Stage 4

3. At the postconventional level, individuals base their moral decisions on:


- A) Obedience to authority
- B) Social expectations
- C) Universal ethical principles
- D) Personal gain
- Answer: C) Universal ethical principles

Topic 10: Stages of Psychosexual Development


1. Freud's theory of psychosexual development includes how many stages?
- A) Three
- B) Four
- C) Five
- D) Six
- Answer: C) Five

2. The latency stage occurs during which period?


- A) Infancy
- B) Early childhood
- C) Middle childhood
- D) Adolescence
- Answer: C) Middle childhood

3. Which stage is characterized by the focus on genital pleasure?


- A) Oral stage
- B) Anal stage
- C) Phallic stage
- D) Genital stage
- Answer: D) Genital stage

Topic 11: Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory of Psycho-Social


Development II
1. Piaget's stage where children begin to think logically about concrete events is
called:

- A) Sensorimotor stage
- B) Preoperational stage
- C) Concrete operational stage
- D) Formal operational stage
- Answer: C) Concrete operational stage

2. The preoperational stage is marked by:


- A) Logical thinking
- B) Abstract thinking
- C) Egocentric thinking
- D) Object permanence
- Answer: C) Egocentric thinking

3. Which stage involves hypothetical and abstract thinking?


- A) Sensorimotor stage
- B) Preoperational stage
- C) Concrete operational stage
- D) Formal operational stage
- Answer: D) Formal operational stage

Topic 12: Prenatal Development and Birth


1. The period of prenatal development that lasts from conception to two weeks
is called:
- A) Embryonic period
- B) Germinal period
- C) Fetal period
- D) Neonatal period
- Answer: B) Germinal period

2. Which of the following is the longest period of prenatal development?


- A) Embryonic period
- B) Germinal period
- C) Fetal period
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C) Fetal period

3. The stage in which the basic structures of the brain and organs are formed is:
- A) Germinal period
- B) Embryonic period
- C) Fetal period
- D) Neonatal period
- Answer: B) Embryonic period

Topic 13: Physical Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood I


1. Which reflex is present at birth and helps infants find nourishment?
- A) Moro reflex
- B) Rooting reflex
- C) Grasping reflex
- D) Stepping reflex
- Answer: B) Rooting reflex

2. The process by which unused neural connections are eliminated is called:


- A) Synaptic pruning
- B) Myelination
- C) Synaptogenesis
- D) Neurogenesis
- Answer: A) Synaptic pruning

3. At what age do most infants typically begin to walk independently?


- A) 6 months
- B) 9 months
- C) 12 months
- D) 18 months
- Answer: C) 12 months

Topic 14: Physical Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood II


1. The term "cephalocaudal trend" refers to:
- A) Growth from the feet to the head
- B) Growth from the head to the feet
- C) Growth from the center of the body outward
- D) Growth in the limbs before the torso
- Answer: B) Growth from the head to the feet

2. Which developmental milestone typically occurs first in infants?


- A) Crawling
- B) Sitting without support
- C) Walking
- D) Reaching and grasping
- Answer: D) Reaching and grasping

3. The development of fine motor skills involves:


- A) Large muscle activities
- B) Coordination of small muscle movements
- C) Balancing and walking
- D) Running and jumping
- Answer: B) Coordination of small muscle movements

Topic 15: Cognitive Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood I


1. In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, infants learn through:
- A) Abstract thinking
- B) Language and symbols
- C) Sensory and motor interactions
- D) Logical reasoning
- Answer: C) Sensory and motor interactions

2. Object permanence is the understanding that:


- A) Objects exist even when they cannot be seen
- B) All objects have a permanent shape
- C) Objects change shape when moved
- D) Objects cannot disappear
- Answer: A) Objects exist even when they cannot be seen

3. At what age do infants typically begin to show signs of object permanence?


- A) 3 months
- B) 6 months
- C) 8 months
- D) 12 months
- Answer: C) 8 months

Topic 16: Cognitive Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood II


1. The concept of "deferred imitation" refers to:
- A) Imitating an action immediately
- B) Imitating an action after a delay
- C) Not imitating at all
- D) Random imitation
- Answer: B) Imitating an action after a delay

2. During which substage of the sensorimotor stage do toddlers begin to engage


in trial-and-error experimentation?
- A) Reflexive schemes
- B) Primary circular reactions
- C) Tertiary circular reactions
- D) Coordination of secondary circular reactions
- Answer: C) Tertiary circular reactions

3. Piaget's theory suggests that infants develop schemas through:


- A) Imitation
- B) Observation
- C) Adaptation processes
- D) Language acquisition
- Answer: C) Adaptation processes

Topic 17: Language Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood I


1. The initial stage of language development where infants produce repetitive
sounds is called:
- A) Babbling
- B) Cooing
- C) Telegraphic speech
- D) Holophrastic speech
- Answer: B) Cooing

2. By the end of the first year, most infants can:


- A) Use complex sentences
- B) Understand simple instructions
- C) Write simple words
- D) None of the above
- Answer: B) Understand simple instructions

3. The term "holophrase" refers to:


- A) A sentence consisting of multiple words
- B) A single word expressing a complete thought
- C) Repetitive babbling sounds
- D) The use of sign language
- Answer: B) A single word expressing a complete thought
Topic 18: Language Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood II
1. Telegraphic speech typically includes:
- A) Complete sentences
- B) Key content words without grammatical markers
- C) Babbling sounds
- D) Advanced vocabulary
- Answer: B) Key content words without grammatical markers

2. The vocabulary spurt typically occurs around:


- A) 6 months
- B) 12 months
- C) 18 months
- D) 24 months
- Answer: C) 18 months

3. Joint attention is important for language development because it:


- A) Enhances motor skills
- B) Facilitates shared understanding and communication
- C) Increases social isolation
- D) Reduces cognitive load
- Answer: B) Facilitates shared understanding and communication

Topic 19: Emotional and Social Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood I


1. Attachment is a:
- A) Biological process only
- B) Learned behavior only
- C) Strong emotional bond between child and caregiver
- D) Temporary relationship
- Answer: C) Strong emotional bond between child and caregiver

2. Stranger anxiety typically begins around:


- A) 3 months
- B) 6 months
- C) 9 months
- D) 12 months
- Answer: C) 9 months

3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of secure attachment?


- A) Comfort in exploring the environment
- B) Distress when the caregiver leaves
- C) Indifference to the caregiver's presence
- D) Seeking comfort from the caregiver when distressed
- Answer: C) Indifference to the caregiver's presence

Topic 20: Emotional and Social Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood II


1. Temperament refers to:
- A) Learned social skills
- B) Innate traits influencing how children interact with the world
- C) Specific attachment patterns
- D) Emotional disorders
- Answer: B) Innate traits influencing how children interact with the world

2. The "easy" temperament style is characterized by:


- A) High activity levels and intense emotions
- B) Low adaptability and frequent negativity
- C) Regular routines and generally positive mood
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C) Regular routines and generally positive mood

3. The "goodness of fit" model emphasizes the importance of:


- A) Matching parenting styles to the child's temperament
- B) Sibling relationships
- C) Peer interactions
- D) Educational attainment
- Answer: A) Matching parenting styles to the child's temperament

Lecture 20: Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development


1. At what age does the Trust vs. Mistrust stage occur according to Erikson?
- a) 1-2 years
- b) Birth to 1 year
- c) 2-3 years
- d) 3-4 years
- Answer: b

2. What is a key outcome if the Trust vs. Mistrust stage is handled well?
- a) Shame
- b) Autonomy
- c) Mastery
- d) Guilt
- Answer: c

3. Which stage focuses on children developing a greater sense of personal


control?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Initiative vs. Guilt
- c) Industry vs. Inferiority
- d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- Answer: d

4. At what age does the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage occur?
- a) 1-3 years
- b) Birth to 1 year
- c) 3-6 years
- d) 6-12 years
- Answer: a

5. Which of the following is a key activity during the Autonomy vs. Shame and
Doubt stage?
- a) Feeding
- b) Toilet training
- c) Exploring and play
- d) Schoolwork
- Answer: b

6. Which stage involves children beginning to assert their power and control
over the world?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Initiative vs. Guilt
- c) Industry vs. Inferiority
- d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- Answer: b

7. What is the age range for the Initiative vs. Guilt stage?
- a) Birth to 1 year
- b) 1-3 years
- c) 3-6 years
- d) 6-12 years
- Answer: c

8. Which stage is concerned with children developing a sense of pride in their


accomplishments?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Initiative vs. Guilt
- c) Industry vs. Inferiority
- d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- Answer: c

9. At what age does the Industry vs. Inferiority stage occur?


- a) Birth to 1 year
- b) 1-3 years
- c) 3-6 years
- d) 6-12 years
- Answer: d
10. Which stage involves resolving identity and direction and becoming a
grown-up?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Initiative vs. Guilt
- c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
- d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- Answer: c

11. What is the age range for the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage?
- a) Birth to 1 year
- b) 1-3 years
- c) 12-18 years
- d) 18-25 years
- Answer: c

12. Which stage is characterized by developing close, committed relationships


with other people?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Intimacy vs. Isolation
- c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
- d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- Answer: b

13. At what age does the Intimacy vs. Isolation stage occur?
- a) 12-18 years
- b) 18-25 years
- c) 25-40 years
- d) 40-65 years
- Answer: b

14. Which stage involves contributing to the world by being active in the home
and community?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Generativity vs. Stagnation
- c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
- d) Intimacy vs. Isolation
- Answer: b

15. At what age does the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage occur?
- a) 12-18 years
- b) 18-25 years
- c) 25-40 years
- d) 40-65 years
- Answer: d

16. Which stage involves looking back on life events and determining
satisfaction with life lived?
- a) Trust vs. Mistrust
- b) Integrity vs. Despair
- c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
- d) Generativity vs. Stagnation
- Answer: b

17. At what age does the Integrity vs. Despair stage occur?
- a) 40-65 years
- b) 65+ years
- c) 25-40 years
- d) 18-25 years
- Answer: b

18. Who was the theorist behind the stages of psychosocial development?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Vygotsky
- Answer: c

19. Which concept is central to Erikson's theory, where each stage involves a
crisis that needs resolution?
- a) Cognitive development
- b) Psychosexual stages
- c) Psychosocial stages
- d) Moral development
- Answer: c

20. What motivates behaviors and actions according to Erikson's theory?


- a) Biological drives
- b) Sense of competence
- c) Unconscious desires
- d) Cultural norms
- Answer: b

---
Lecture 21: Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Systems Theory
21. What is the smallest and most immediate environment in which children
live called?
- a) Mesosystem
- b) Exosystem
- c) Microsystem
- d) Macrosystem
- Answer: c

22. What does the mesosystem encompass?


- a) Interaction of different microsystems
- b) Societal and cultural norms
- c) Immediate environments like home and school
- d) Environmental policies
- Answer: a

23. Which system includes societal and cultural norms according to


Bronfenbrenner?
- a) Microsystem
- b) Exosystem
- c) Macrosystem
- d) Mesosystem
- Answer: c

24. Which system in Bronfenbrenner's theory includes the broader social


context that indirectly affects the child?
- a) Microsystem
- b) Exosystem
- c) Macrosystem
- d) Mesosystem
- Answer: b

25. Which theorist proposed the Ecological Systems Theory?


- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Bronfenbrenner
- Answer: d

---

Lecture 22: Social Learning Theory by Albert Bandura


26. Who proposed the Social Learning Theory?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Bandura
- Answer: d

27. What is a key concept in Social Learning Theory?


- a) Reinforcement
- b) Modeling
- c) Punishment
- d) Conditioning
- Answer: b
28. According to Bandura, what influences behavior in addition to
reinforcement?
- a) Genetics
- b) Environment
- c) Observation and imitation
- d) Internal drives
- Answer: c

29. What did Bandura's famous experiment with children and Bobo dolls
demonstrate?
- a) Classical conditioning
- b) Operant conditioning
- c) Observational learning
- d) Cognitive development
- Answer: c

30. In Social Learning Theory, what is the term for believing in one's ability to
succeed in specific situations?
- a) Self-esteem
- b) Self-concept
- c) Self-efficacy
- d) Self-worth
- Answer: c

---

Lecture 23: Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory


31. Who proposed the theory of moral development that includes stages like
preconventional, conventional, and postconventional?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Kohlberg
- Answer: d

32. What is the focus during the preconventional level of moral development?
- a) Social norms
- b) Self-interest and avoiding punishment
- c) Universal ethical principles
-

d) Social approval
- Answer: b

33. What characterizes the conventional level of moral development?


- a) Self-interest
- b) Universal principles
- c) Social rules and laws
- d) Avoiding punishment
- Answer: c

34. At which level of moral development do individuals recognize universal


ethical principles?
- a) Preconventional
- b) Conventional
- c) Postconventional
- d) Autonomous
- Answer: c

35. What is a criticism of Kohlberg's theory?


- a) It overemphasizes cultural differences.
- b) It doesn't account for the role of social relationships.
- c) It focuses too much on the role of punishment.
- d) It overemphasizes the role of cognitive development.
- Answer: d

---

Lecture 24: Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development


36. Who developed the theory of cognitive development that includes stages
such as sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal
operational?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Vygotsky
- Answer: a

37. What is the focus during the sensorimotor stage?


- a) Logical thinking
- b) Abstract reasoning
- c) Object permanence and sensory exploration
- d) Social interactions
- Answer: c

38. At what age does the preoperational stage occur?


- a) Birth to 2 years
- b) 2-7 years
- c) 7-11 years
- d) 11+ years
- Answer: b

39. Which stage involves logical thinking about concrete events?


- a) Sensorimotor
- b) Preoperational
- c) Concrete operational
- d) Formal operational
- Answer: c

40. What is a key characteristic of the formal operational stage?


- a) Egocentrism
- b) Logical reasoning about concrete objects
- c) Abstract and hypothetical thinking
- d) Conservation
- Answer: c

---

Lecture 25: Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory


41. Who proposed the sociocultural theory of cognitive development?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Erikson
- d) Vygotsky
- Answer: d

42. What is a key concept in Vygotsky’s theory that refers to the difference
between what a child can do alone and what they can do with help?
- a) Scaffolding
- b) Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
- c) Guided participation
- d) Social interaction
- Answer: b

43. According to Vygotsky, what plays a fundamental role in cognitive


development?
- a) Genetics
- b) Individual discovery
- c) Social interaction
- d) Reinforcement
- Answer: c

44. What is the process called where more knowledgeable others provide
support to help a child achieve a task?
- a) Modeling
- b) Conditioning
- c) Scaffolding
- d) Reinforcing
- Answer: c

45. Which of the following is NOT a key idea in Vygotsky’s theory?


- a) Private speech
- b) Cultural tools
- c) Formal operations
- d) Social interaction
- Answer: c

---

Lecture 26: Bowlby’s Attachment Theory


46. Who is the theorist behind Attachment Theory?
- a) Piaget
- b) Freud
- c) Bowlby
- d) Vygotsky
- Answer: c

47. What is a primary focus in Bowlby's Attachment Theory?


- a) Cognitive development
- b) Moral reasoning
- c) Emotional bonds between caregiver and child
- d) Social norms
- Answer: c

48. According to Bowlby, what is the term for the deep and enduring emotional
bond that connects one person to another?
- a) Affection
- b) Love
- c) Attachment
- d) Relationship
- Answer: c

49. What is a characteristic of the “secure attachment” style?


- a) Clinginess and anxiety
- b) Avoidance of caregiver
- c) Confusion and inconsistency
- d) Confidence in exploring environment
- Answer: d

50. Which type of attachment is marked by anxiety and ambivalence towards


the caregiver?
- a) Secure
- b) Insecure-avoidant
- c) Insecure-ambivalent
- d) Disorganized
- Answer: c

Topic 30: Social Development Theory of Psycho-Social Development

1. What does Vygotsky's Social Development Theory emphasize as preceding


development?
- A) Biological maturation
- B) Social interaction
- C) Genetic inheritance
- D) Independent learning
- Answer: B) Social interaction

2. What is the 'Zone of Proximal Development' (ZPD) according to Vygotsky?


- A) The distance between what a learner can do independently and what they
can do with guidance
- B) The stage of development where children learn best on their own
- C) The area of the brain responsible for cognitive development
- D) The period of time where children develop motor skills
- Answer: A) The distance between what a learner can do independently and
what they can do with guidance

3. Who or what can be considered 'The More Knowledgeable Other' (MKO) in


Vygotsky's theory?
- A) Only teachers and parents
- B) Any individual or tool that helps a learner understand a task better
- C) Only peers and classmates
- D) Only experts in the field of study
- Answer: B) Any individual or tool that helps a learner understand a task
better

Topic 31: Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory I

1. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development do children accept rules to


avoid punishment and obtain rewards?
- A) Pre-conventional level
- B) Conventional level
- C) Post-conventional level
- D) Universal ethical principles
- Answer: A) Pre-conventional level

2. In the Conventional level of Kohlberg’s moral development, what is the


primary motivation for behavior?
- A) Fear of punishment
- B) Desire for rewards
- C) Maintaining social order and gaining approval
- D) Personal moral principles
- Answer: C) Maintaining social order and gaining approval

3. What characterizes the Post-conventional level of Kohlberg's moral


development?
- A) Blind obedience to authority
- B) Adherence to social rules for approval
- C) Guided by internal moral principles that may conflict with laws
- D) Compliance with rules due to fear of punishment
- Answer: C) Guided by internal moral principles that may conflict with laws

Topic 32: Stages of Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory

1. What is the focus of the Pre-conventional stage in Kohlberg's theory?


- A) Social order maintenance
- B) Personal moral principles
- C) Obedience and punishment orientation
- D) Conformity to social norms
- Answer: C) Obedience and punishment orientation
2. At which stage do children make decisions based on the expectations of
society?
- A) Pre-conventional
- B) Conventional
- C) Post-conventional
- D) Moral relativism
- Answer: B) Conventional

3. In the Post-conventional level, what guides a person's moral reasoning?


- A) Legal principles and authority
- B) Individual rights and justice
- C) Social expectations
- D) Fear of punishment
- Answer: B) Individual rights and justice

Topic 33: Self-Concept in Adolescence

1. How do adolescents typically view themselves during this stage?


- A) As consistent and unchanging
- B) With abstract and idealistic self-perceptions
- C) As solely defined by their peer group
- D) With a clear and stable self-concept
- Answer: B) With abstract and idealistic self-perceptions

2. What characterizes the self-concept of adolescents according to the lecture?


- A) Stability across different contexts
- B) Preoccupation with self
- C) Consistency over time
- D) Lack of awareness of strengths and weaknesses
- Answer: B) Preoccupation with self

3. During adolescence, what do 'possible selves' refer to?


- A) The current self and past self
- B) The self in relation to family and friends
- C) What a person may become, would like to become, and is afraid of
becoming
- D) The self as defined by societal norms
- Answer: C) What a person may become, would like to become, and is afraid
of becoming

Topic 34: Cultural Influences on Self-Concept

1. Why is it important to consider the cultural backgrounds of children in


educational settings?
- A) To ensure uniformity in teaching methods
- B) To provide culturally relevant learning experiences
- C) To impose the dominant culture’s values
- D) To minimize differences among children
- Answer: B) To provide culturally relevant learning experiences

2. What should educators do to understand the cultural backgrounds of their


students better?
- A) Rely solely on their own cultural experiences
- B) Learn about the cultures from which the children come
- C) Standardize the curriculum for all students
- D) Focus only on academic performance
- Answer: B) Learn about the cultures from which the children come

3. How can educators build on their knowledge of each family's culture?


- A) By implementing a uniform teaching strategy
- B) By infusing the curriculum with diverse cultural materials
- C) By ignoring cultural differences to maintain equality
- D) By focusing solely on the dominant culture’s practices
- Answer: B) By infusing the curriculum with diverse cultural materials

Topic 35: Self-Esteem

1. What is one of the factors that contribute to self-esteem according to the


handout?
- A) Intelligence
- B) Social status
- C) Belonging
- D) Physical appearance
- Answer: C) Belonging

2. How is 'power' defined as a factor of self-esteem?


- A) Feeling in control and capable of achieving goals
- B) Dominating others in social situations
- C) Being physically stronger than peers
- D) Accumulating wealth and resources
- Answer: A) Feeling in control and capable of achieving goals

3. Which of the following is included in the self-esteem checklist?


- A) Academic success
- B) Freedom of expression
- C) Athletic ability
- D) Financial stability
- Answer: B) Freedom of expression

Topic 36: Social Contributors to Self-Esteem

1. How does childhood influence self-esteem development?


- A) It has minimal impact on long-term self-esteem
- B) Early interactions significantly shape future self-esteem
- C) Self-esteem is primarily influenced by genetics
- D) Media has the sole influence during childhood
- Answer: B) Early interactions significantly shape future self-esteem

2. What role does media play in self-esteem according to the lecture?


- A) Media has no significant impact
- B) Media can contribute to widespread self-esteem issues
- C) Media always promotes positive self-images
- D) Media only affects adults
- Answer: B) Media can contribute to widespread self-esteem issues

3. In what way do friends and family influence self-esteem?


- A) They have no impact
- B) They can help build or undermine self-confidence
- C) They are less influential than media
- D) They determine academic success
- Answer: B) They can help build or undermine self-confidence
Topic 37: Development of Gender-Role Stereotypes

1. At what age do children typically start to develop gender-role stereotypes?


- A) During infancy
- B) In early childhood
- C) In adolescence
- D) In adulthood
- Answer: B) In early childhood

2. How do gender-role stereotypes typically influence children's behavior?


- A) They have no influence on behavior
- B) They restrict behavior to align with societal expectations
- C) They encourage children to explore all roles equally
- D) They only affect academic choices
- Answer: B) They restrict behavior to align with societal expectations

3. What is one of the sources of gender-role stereotypes for children?


- A) Genetic predisposition
- B) Observing peers and adults
- C) Lack of social interaction
- D) Neutral media representation
- Answer: B) Observing peers and adults

Topic 38: Development of Gender-Typed Behavior Part II

1. What is gender-typed behavior?


- A) Behavior that is neutral and not influenced by gender
- B) Behavior that aligns with societal expectations for one's gender
- C) Behavior that goes against societal norms
- D) Behavior that is strictly biological
- Answer: B) Behavior that aligns with societal expectations for one's gender

2. At what stage do children begin to show strong preferences for gender-typed


activities?
- A) Infancy

- B) Early childhood
- C) Adolescence
- D) Adulthood
- Answer: B) Early childhood

3. How can parents influence their children's gender-typed behavior?


- A) By reinforcing traditional gender roles
- B) By allowing children to explore all types of activities
- C) By strictly controlling their social interactions
- D) By limiting exposure to different roles
- Answer: B) By allowing children to explore all types of activities

Topic 39: Development of Gender-Typed Behavior Part III

1. Which of the following is a common explanation for gender differences in


behavior?
- A) Biological factors alone
- B) Socialization and cultural expectations
- C) Lack of education
- D) Genetic mutations
- Answer: B) Socialization and cultural expectations

2. What is one method suggested to reduce gender-typed behavior in children?


- A) Reinforcing traditional gender roles
- B) Providing diverse role models
- C) Limiting children's exposure to new experiences
- D) Encouraging same-gender peer interactions
- Answer: B) Providing diverse role models

3. How can educators help in minimizing gender-typed behavior in schools?


- A) By separating activities strictly by gender
- B) By offering mixed-gender group activities and promoting inclusiveness
- C) By reinforcing traditional gender expectations
- D) By ignoring gender issues completely
- Answer: B) By offering mixed-gender group activities and promoting
inclusiveness

Topic 40: Gender-Role Development

1. What is 'gender identity'?


- A) The personal sense of one's own gender
- B) The biological differences between males and females
- C) The societal roles assigned to each gender
- D) The legal recognition of gender
- Answer: A) The personal sense of one's own gender
2. At what age do children typically have a stable sense of their gender identity?
- A) Infancy
- B) By age 3 to 4
- C) During adolescence
- D) In adulthood
- Answer: B) By age 3 to 4

3. What does gender constancy mean?


- A) The understanding that one's gender can change over time
- B) The realization that gender remains the same despite changes in
appearance or behavior
- C) The belief that gender is determined by social roles
- D) The idea that gender is fluid and changes frequently
- Answer: B) The realization that gender remains the same despite changes in
appearance or behavior

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