STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)

PHYSICS
SECTION – A 9. A particle has initial velocity (2 î + 3 ĵ) m/s
and acceleration(0.3 î + 0.2 )ĵ m/s 2. The
1. What is the maximum number of
magnitude of velocity after 10 sec will be
components into which a vector can be ______.
split? A) 5 units B) 9√2 units
A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) 5√2 units
C) 4 D) Infinite ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
10. If vectors P, Q and R have magnitudes 5, 12
2. The position vector of a moving particle
and 13 units and ⃗P⃗ + ⃗Q⃗ = ⃗R⃗, the angle
depends on time according to r⃗ = αt 2 î +
⃗⃗ and R
between Q ⃗⃗ is:
(βt − 3)ĵ m, then magnitude of velocity at
5 5
time t will be A) cos −1 (12) B) cos−1 (13)
A) αt 2 + βt − 3 B) 2αt + β 12 2
C) cos −1 ( ) D) cos −1 ( )
C) √4α t + β
2 2 2 D) 2αt + β − 3 13 13
3. The projectiles A and B are projected with 11. Assertion: Adding a scalar to a vector of the
same speed at angles 60° and 30° with same dimensions is a meaningful algebraic
horizontal on level ground (R = ranges, T = operation.
time of flight, H = Maximum height) Reason: Displacement can be added to
A) R A = 2AB B) TB = √3 TB distance.
C) HA = 3HB D) All of these A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
4. Which of the following pair of forces will
B) (A) is false but (R) is false
never give a resultant force of 2 N?
C) (A) is false but (R) is true
A) 2N and 2N B) 1N and 1N
D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
C) 1N and 3N D) 1N and 4N
̂ correct explanation of (A)
5. Assertion: Vector (î + ĵ + k) is perpendicular
12. The vector B ⃗⃗ = 5î + 2ĵ − Sk̂ is perpendicular
to (î − 2ĵ + k̂)
Reason: Two non-zero vectors are to the vector ⃗A⃗ = 3î + ĵ + 2k̂ if S =
perpendicular if their dot product is zero. A) 1 B) 4.7
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not C) 6.3 D) 8.5
the correct explanation of (A) 13. A particle starts its motion from the origin
B) (A) is false but (R) is false with velocity 3ĵ m/s and movers in xy plane
C) (A) is false but (R) is true
with uniform acceleration 2î + ĵ m/s2 . When
D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) the value of x-coordinate is 25m, then the
6. Which of the following is true for a projectile value of y-coordinate will be
motion? A) 25 m B) 54 m
A) Horizontal velocity of projectile is C) 27.5 m D) 55 m
constant. 14. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and then
B) Vertical velocity of projectile is constant 300 m west and then 1200 m upwards. Its
C) Acceleration is not constant. net displacement is _______.
D) Momentum is constant. A) 1200 m B) 1300 m
7. A bomb is released by a horizontal flying
C) 1400 m D) 1500 m
aeroplane, the trajectory of the bomb is____.
A) a parabola B) a circle 15. A truck is moving at constant velocity of 20
C) a straight line D) a hyperbole m/s. In what direction should a stone be
8. The equation of trajectory for α particle projected up with a velocity of 40 m/s, from
moving along xy plane following the floor of truck, so as to appear at right
r⃗ = 3t 2 î + 2t ĵ is given as ________. angle to the truck, for a person standing on
3
A) x 2 = 4 y
4
B) x 2 = 3 y earth?
A) 30° B) 45°
3 4
C) y 2 = 4 x D) y 2 = 3 x C) 90° D) 120°

1
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
16. The equation of trajectory for a projectile is 22. A man standing on a road holds his
given as y = √3 x − 5x 2 . The ratio of umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep the
maximum height to attained horizontal rain away. He then throws the umbrella &
range is ________. starts running at 5 km/hr. He finds that
A) √3 B) √3/4 rain drops are hitting his head vertically, the
speed of raindrops with respect to the road
C) 4/√3 D) 2/√3 will be
17. Two balls are projected at an angle θ and A) 10√2 km/hr B) 5 km/hr
(90 – θ) to the horizontal with the same C) 5√3 km/hr D) 10 km/hr
speed. The ratio of their Ranges is 23. To a person going eastwards in a Car with a
A) 1 : 1 B) tan θ ∶ 1 velocity of 37 km/hr, a train appears to
C) 1 : tan θ D) tan θ ∶ 1
2
move towards north with a velocity of 37√3
18. The particle is thrown at an angle of km/hr. The actual Velocity of the train will
projection θ with speed u. The change in be.
velocity of the particle during its ground to A) 37 km/hr B) 74 km/hr
ground flight is C) 17 km/hr D) 19 km/hr
A) 2u sin θ B) -2u sin θ 24. A boat sails at velocity 7î − 4ĵ m/s with
C) 2u cos θ D) -2u cos θ respect to ground The river flows at 2î + ĵ
19. A political party. Has to start its procession m/s. Find velocity of river with respect to
in an area where wind is blowing at a speed
boat.
of 30 √2 km/h and party flags on the cars are
fluttering along N – E direction. If the A) 5 √2 m/s B) 5 m/s
procession starts with a speed of 40 km/h C) 10 m/s D) 20 m/s
towards north, find the direction of flags on
25. A bird flying towards south with a velocity
the cars.
1 20 km/hr and a train is moving with a
A) θ = tan−1 ( ) ∶ S of E velocity 20 km/hr towards east. What is the
3
1 velocity of the bird w.r.t an observer in the
B) θ = tan−1 (3) ∶ N of E
train?
2
C) θ = tan−1 ( ) ∶ S of E A) 10√2 N − E B) 10√2 N − W
3
2 C) 20√2 S − E D) 20 √2 S – W
D) θ = tan−1 (3) ∶ N of E
26. Two particles are separated by a horizontal
20. A man can swim at the rate of 5km/h in still distance of 40 m. They are projected as
water. A I km wide river flows at the rate of shown. The time after which the horizontal
3km/h. The man wishes to Swim across distance between them become zero is:
Along what direction must the man swim (given, Su = 5 m/s)
w.r.t the river flow?
u
A) 127° B) 37°
C) 60° D) 150° u
21. Rain is falling vertically with a velocity of 25
√3 60°
m/s. A man is walking with a speed of 10 30°
m/s in the north to south direction. What is
the velocity of rain w.r.t man? 40m
A) 5 √29 m/s B) 5 m/s A) 10s B) 12s
C) 5 √17 m/s D) 10 √29 m/s C) 4s D) 8s

2
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
27. Assertion (A): The relative velocity between 33. A 175 m long train is traveling along a
any two bodies moving in opposite straight track with a velocity 72 km−1 h. A
direction is equal to sum of velocities of two bird is flying parallel to the train in the
bodies. opposite direction with a velocity 18 km−1 h.
Reason (R): Sometimes relative velocity The time taken by the bird to cross the train
between two bodies is equal to difference in is
velocities of the two. A) 35 s B) 27 s
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not C) 11.6 s D) 7 s
the correct explanation of (A)
B) (A) is false but (R) is false 34. A ball A is thrown vertically upwards with
C) (A) is false but (R) is true speed u. At the same instant another ball B
D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the is released from rest at height h. At time t,
correct explanation of (A) the speed of A relative to B is
28. A passenger in an open car travelling at 30 A) u B) u − 2gt
m/s throws a ball out over the bonnet. C) √u2 − 2gh D) u − gt
Relative to the car the initial velocity of the
35. A passenger train of length 60 m travels at
ball is 20 m/s at 60° to the horizontal. The
a speed of 80 km/hr. Another metro train of
angle of projection of the ball with respect to
length 120 m travels at a speed of 30 km/hr.
the horizontal road will be
The ratio of time taken by the passenger
2 √3
A) tan−1 (3) B) tan−1 ( 4 ) train to completely cross the metro train
4
C) tan−1 ( 3)
3
D) tan−1 (4) when: (i) they are moving in the same
√ direction, and (ii) in the opposite direction is
29. At a metro station, a girl walks up a 25 3
A) B)
stationary escalator in 20 s. If she remains 11 2
5 11
stationary on the escalator, then the C) 2
D) 5
escalator, take her up in 30s. The time
taken by her to walk up on the moving SECTION – B
escalator will be
36. A unit vector in the direction of resultant
A) 25s B) 60s
⃗⃗ = −2î + 3ĵ + k̂ and B
vector of A ⃗⃗ = î + 2ĵ − 4k̂ is
C) 12s D) 10s
̂
−2î+3ĵ+k ̂
î+2ĵ−4k
30. At time t, positions of three particles A, B A) B)
√35 √35
and C are as follows: xA = 2t + 7, xB = 3t 2 + ̂
−î+5ĵ−3k ̂
−3î+ĵ+5k
C) D)
2t + 6, xC = 5t 3 + 4t Which of them has non- √35 √35
uniform acceleration? ⃗⃗ = c⃗ and a + b = c , then the
37. If a⃗⃗ + b angle
A) a B) b included between a⃗⃗ and ⃗⃗ b is
C) c D) None of these A) 90° B) 180°
31. A particle moving along a straight line has a C) 120° D) zero
velocity v m s −1 , when it cleared a distance y 38. The position of an object moving along x-
metre. These two are connected by the axis is given by x = a + bt 2 , where
relation v = √49 + y. When its velocity is a = 8.5 m and b = 2.5 m s −2 velocity of the
1 m s −1 , its acceleration (in m s −2 ) is object at t = 2s is
A) 1 B) 2 A) 5 m s −1 B) 10 m s−1
1
C) 7 D) C) 15 m s−1 D) 20 m s −1
2
32. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. 39. The (x, y, z) coordinates of two points A and
Its acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + B are given respectively as (0, 4, -2) and (-2,
5) in m s −2 . If it starts from origin, the 8, -4). The displacement vector from A to B
distance covered in 2 s is is
A) 20 m B) 18 m A) −2î + 4ĵ − 2k̂ B) 2î − 4ĵ + 2k̂
C) 16 m D) 25 m C) 2î + 4ĵ − 2k̂ D) −2î − 4ĵ − 2k̂

3
STUDY BHARAT
40. Two train 121 m and 99 m in length are
running in opposite directions with velocity
40 km h−1 and 32 km h−1 . In what time they
will completely cross each other?
A) 9 s B) 11 s
C) 13 s D) 15 s
41. Assertion: In one dimensional motion of an
object, path length comes out to be equal to
distance.
Reason: Distance depends on direction of
motion of the body.
A) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D) If both assertion and reason are false
42. Assertion: The average speed of an object is
greater than or equal to the magnitude of
the average velocity over a given time
interval.
Reason: The two are equal only if the path
length is equal to the magnitude of
displacement.
A) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
44. Assertion: The difference of two vectors
⃗A⃗ and ⃗B⃗ can be treated as the sum of two
vectors.
Reason: Subtraction of vectors can be
defined in terms of addition of vectors.
A) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D) If both assertion and reason are false
45. Assertion: If î and ĵ are unit vectors along x-
axis and y-axis respectively, the magnitude
of vector î + ĵ will be √2.
Reason: Unit vectors are used to indicate
direction only.
A) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D) If both assertion and reason are false
46. A vehicle travels half the distance of L with
speed v1 and the other half with speed v2 ,
then its average speed is
A)
v1 +v2
B)
2v1 +v2
2 v1 +v2
2v1 v2 L(v1 +v2 )
C) v1 +v2
D) v1 v2
gx2
47. The equation of a projectile is y = √3x − .
2

C) If assertion is true but reason is false The angle of projection is given by

Π Π
D) If both assertion and reason are false A) 6
B) 3
43. Assertion: Vector addition is commutative. C)
Π
D) zero
2
Reason: Two vectors may be added 48. The horizontal range is four times the
graphically using head-to-tail method or maximum height attained by a projectile.
The angle of projection is
parallelogram method.
A) 90° B) 60°
A) If both assertion and reason are true C) 45° D) 30°
and reason is the correct explanation of 49. The projectiles A, B and C are projected at
assertion an angle of 30°, 45°, 60° respectively. If
B) If both assertion and reason are true R A , R B and R C are ranges of A, B and C
but reason is not the correct respectively then (velocity of projection is
explanation of assertion. same for A, B and C)
C) If assertion is true but reason is false A) R A = R B = R C B) R A = R C > R B
D) If both assertion and reason are false C) R A < R B < R C D) R A = R C < R B

4
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
50. A ball is dropped from the top of 80 m high
tower. If after 2 sec of fall, the gravity (g =
10 m/s2 ) disappears, then time taken to
reach ground since the gravity disappeared
is
A) 2 sec B) 3 sec
C) 4 sec D) 5 sec

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 60. During the complete combustion of
51. The molecule that deviates from octet rule is methane CH4, what change in hybridisation
A) NaCl B) BeCl2 does the carbon atom undergo?
A) sp3 to sp B) sp3 to sp2
C) MgO D) NH3
C) sp2 to sp D) sp2 to sp3
52. Expanded octet can be observed in the
valency shell of the central atom in 61. The geometry of electron pairs around I in
A) NH3 B) CH4 IF5 is:
C) PCl5 D) BeCl2 A) Octahedral
53. Which of the following has highest ionic B) Trigonal Bipyramidal
character? C) Square Pyramidal
A) MgCl2 B) CaCl2 D) Pentagonal Planar
C) BaCl2 D) BeCl2 62. As the s – character in a hybrid orbital
54. Potassium forms a highly ionic compound increase, the bond angle
when it combines with A) Increases B) Decreases
A) Chlorine B) Fluorine C) Does not change D) Becomes zero
C) Bromine D) Iodine 63. Which one of the following is a correct set?
55. Which of the following chloride has A) H2O, sp3, angular
considerable covalent character? B) H2O, sp2, linear
A) LiCl B) NaCl C) NH4+ , dsp2 square planar
C) KCl D) CsCl D) CH4, dsp2, tetrahedral
56. The smallest bond angle around the central 64. Hybrid orbital having maximum p –
atom will be present in: character is
A) H2O B) BeF2 A) sp3d B) sp3
C) CH4 D) NH3
57. Of the three molecules XeF4, SF4, SiF4, one C) sp D) sp3d2
which have tetrahedral structure is? 65. The molecular electronic configuration of 𝐻2−
A) All the three B) Only SiF4 ion is
C) Both SF4 & XeF4 A) (𝜎1𝑠)2 B) (σ1s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 1𝑠)2

D) Only SF4 & XeF4 C) (σ1s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 1𝑠)1 D) (𝜎1𝑠)3

58. The central atom in IF7 has seven pairs of 66. Oxygen molecule is
valency electros. The shape of the molecule A) Diamagnetic with no unpaired electrons
as per VSEPR theory is: B) Diamagnetic with two unpaired electrons
A) Trigonal bipyramid C) Paramagnetic with two unpaired
B) Hexagonal pyramid electrons
C) Pentagonal bipyramid D) Paramagnetic with no unpaired electrons
D) Square bipyramid 67. The species having bond order different from
59. The hybrid state of C in CS2 should be: that in CO is
A) sp2 B) sp A) NO– B) NO+
C) sp3 D) Not specific C) CN– D) N2

5
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
68. Which one of the following species contains 78. Both BF3 and NF3 are covalent compounds.
three bond pairs and one lone pairs around BF3 is non-polar but NF3 is polar. The
the central atom? reason is that
A) H2O B) BF3 A) Boron is a solid and nitrogen is a gas in
C) NH2− D) PCl3 free state
B) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal in
69. In which of the following pairs, the two
shape
species have identical bond order?
C) Boron is a metalloid while nitrogen is a
A) N2− O2−
2 B) N2− , O−
2 non-metal
C) N2− , O+
2 D) O+ 2−
2 , N2 D) Atomic size of boron is smaller than that
70. Which of the following is diamagnetic? of nitrogen
A) H2+ B) O2 79. Which is not true according to VBT?
A) A covalent bond is formed by the
C) Li2 D) He+
2 overlapping of orbitals with unpaired
71. Which among the following elements has the electrons of opposite spins.
tendency to form covalent compounds? B) A covalent bond is formed by the
A) Ba B) Be overlapping of orbitals with unpaired
C) Mg D) Ca electrons of same spins.
C) The greater the extent of overlapping the
72. The strongest bond is
stronger is the bond.
A) Na — Cl B) Cs — Cl
D) Overlapping takes place only in the
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None direction of maximum electron density of
73. Which of the following contains a coordinate the orbital.
covalent bond? 80. Which p-orbital overlapping would give the
A) N2O5 B) BaCl2 strongest
A)
C) HCl D) H2O
74. Out of the following. Which compound will
have electrovalent bonding
A) Ammonia B) Water
C) Calcium chloride
B)
D) Chloromethane
75. The formal charge of the O-atoms in the ion
[: N̈ = Ö:] is
A) – 2 B) + 1
C) – 1 D) 0 C)
76. Which of the following statement(s) is not
true?
D)
A) CuCl is more covalent than NaCl
B) HF is more polar than HBr
C) HF is less polar than HBr
D) Chemical bond formation takes place
when forces of attraction overcome the
forces of repulsion
77. The molecule which has zero dipole moment
is 81. The ratio of 𝜎 and 𝜋 bonds in benzene is
A) CH2Cl2 B) BF3 A) 2 B) 6
C) NF3 D) ClO2 C) 4 D) 8

6
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
82. Which cannot be explained by VBT? 90. The correct increasing bond angle among
A) Overlapping BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follow the order
B) Bond formation A) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3
B) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
C) Paramagnetic nature of oxygen
C) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3
D) Shapes of molecules D) All have equal bond angle
83. On hybridisation of one s and three p- 91. As the p–character increases, the bond
orbitals, we get angle in hybrid orbitals formed by s and
A) four orbitals with tetrahedral orientation atomic orbitals
B) three orbitals with trigonal orientation A) Decreases B) Increases
C) two orbitals with linear orientation C) Doubles
D) two orbitals with perpendicular D) Remains unchanged
orientation 92. Percentage of p-character in each orbital of
84. On hybridization of one s and one p-orbital central atom used for bonding in NH3 is:
we get: A) 25% B) 70%
A) two mutually perpendicular orbitals C) More than 75% D) 33.3%
B) two orbitals at 180° 93. Which of the following have linear shape?
C) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally A) SnCl2 B) NO+ 2
D) three orbitals in a plane C) FNO D) SO2
85. The structure of XeOF4 is 94. In which of the following compounds carbon
A) Tetrahedral atom undergoes hybridisation of more than
B) square pyramidal one type
C) square planar (i) CH3CH2CH2CH3
D) octahedral (ii) CH3–CH = CH–CH3
(iii) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3
SECTION – B (iv) H–C ≡ C–H
A) (iii) and (iv) B) (i) and (iv)
86. The hybridization of sulphur dioxide is:
C) (ii) and (iii) D) Only (ii)
A) sp B) sp3
95. In which of the following pairs of
C) sp2 D) dsp2 molecules/ions both the species are not
87. Which one among the following does not likely to exist?
have the hydrogen bond? A) H2+ , He2−
2 B) H2− , He2−
2
A) Phenol B) Liquid NH3 C) H22+ , He2 D) H2− , He2+
2
C) Water D) HCl 96. Which of the following molecules will show
dipole moment?
88. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in
A) Methane
NO+ is 3, Which statement is true
B) Carbon tetrachloride
A) Bond length is unpredictable
C) Chloroform
B) Bond length in NO is greater than in
D) Carbon dioxide
NO+
97. The order of increasing polarity in HCl, CO2,
C) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in
H2O and HF molecules is
NO
A) CO2, HCl, H2O, HF
D) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in
B) HF, H2O, HCl, CO2
NO
C) CO2, HCl, HF, H2O
89. Indicate the type of bond angles present in
D) CO2, HF, H2O, HC
IF5
98. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C-C
A) 90° B) 90°, 120°
single bond of H – C ≡ C – CH = CH2 is
C) 90°, 180° A) sp3 – sp3 B) sp2 – sp
D) 90°, 120°, 180° C) sp – sp2 D) sp3 – sp

7
STUDY BHARAT
99. The bond between two identical non-metal
atoms has a pair of electrons:
A) unequally shared between the two
B) transferred fully form one atom to
another
C) with identical spins
D) equally shared between them
TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
100. The bond in the formation of fluorine
molecule will be
A) Due to s – s overlapping
B) Due to s – p overlapping
C) Due to p – p overlapping
D) Due to hybridization

BOTANY
SECTION – A 106. The shape of bacterial cell is determined by
101. Prokaryotic cells have which architectural A) Capsule B) Slime layer
regions? C) Cell wall D) Glycocalyx
A) Cell wall B) Appendages 107. In mitochondria, it contains F-particle:
C) Nucleus D) All of these A) Matrix B) Cristae
102. Which structure possesses flagellin protein? C) Outer layer D) All
A) Muscles fibres B) Flagellum 108. Microfilaments are made up of:
C) Pilli D) All of these A) Protein B) Fat
103. The cell wall of algae is made up which C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acid
substance? 109. Match the columns and identify the correct
A) Protein B) Mannans option:
C) Lipid D) All of these Column-I Column-II
104. Match the given columns and select the a Thylakoids (i) Disc shaped sacs
correct option: in Golgi bodies
Column-I Column-II b Cristae (ii) Condensed
(A) Fluid Mosaic (i) Pinosome structure of DNA
model c Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous
sacs in stroma
(B) Passive (ii) Na+/K+
d Chromatin (iv) Infoldings of
transport pumps
mitochondrial
(C) Bulk transport (iii) Carrier membrane
proteins A) a=(iii), b=(iv), c=(ii), d=(i)
(D) Active transport (iv) For plasma B) a=(iv), b=(iii), c=(i), d=(ii)
membrane C) a=(iii), b=(iv), c=(i), d=(ii)
A) A=(iv), B=(ii), C=(iii), D=(i) D) a=(iii), b=(i), c=(iv), d=(ii)
B) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(i), D=(ii) 110. The correct order of bacterial cell envelope
C) A=(ii), B=(iii), C=(i), D=(iv) from outside to inside:
D) A=(ii), B=(i), C=(iii), D=(iv) A) Cell wall → glycocalyx → Plasma
105. Read the following statement carefully: membrane
(a) Lipid molecule in the membrane are B) Plasm membrane → glycocalyx → cell wall
exactly same on both sides with respect C) Glycocalyx → cell wall → cell membrane
to chemical composition D) Glycocalyx → Plasma membrane → cell
(b) Membrane proteins are 30% in human wall
RBC membrane 111. Find out the incorrect statements
(c) Proteins cannot readily undergo flip-flop A) Centrioles form basal bodies of cilia or
movement flagella
(d) Transmembrane proteins can be removed B) Centriole gives rise to spindle fibres at the
by using detergents time of cell division in animal cell
Which one of These statements are correct? C) Diplosome contains two cylindrical
A) a and b B) b and c structure called centrioles
C) c and d D) All of these D) Peripheral fibril of centriole is a doublet

8
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
112. It directs the formation of the bipolar spindle 117. Match the columns.
during cell division Column-I Column-II
A) Golgi body B) Centriole
C) Ribosome D) Cilia a Dictyosomes i Storage

113. The unit of phloem, in which the nucleus is b Glycocalyx ii Symplast

absent?
c Vacuoles iii Transport
A) Sieve cell B) Sieve tube
C) Companion cell d Plasmodesmata iv Secretion

D) Phloem parenchyma v Histocompatibility

114. Which of the following are correct with

respect to mitochondrial function? A) a=(iv), b=(v), c=(i), d=(ii)
(a) Oxidation of carbohydrates B) a=(iii), b=(iv), c=(ii), d=(i)
(b) Oxidation of proteins C) a=(iv), b=(v), c=(iii), d=(ii)
(c) β-Oxidation of fats D) a=(iv), b=(iii), c=(i), d=(ii)
118. Find the correctly matched pair:
A) Only (a) & (b) B) Only (a) & (c)
A) Elaioplast – Starch storing plastid
C) Only (b) & (c) D) (a), (b) & (c)
B) F0 – ATP
115. Read the following statements. C) Glyoxysomes – Beta-oxidation of fatty
(1) Chloroplast is a semi-autonomous
acid
organelle and divides by fission
(2) In eukaryotic cell, mesosome like D) Basal body – 9 + 2 arrangement of
structures are present microtubules
(3) The lipid molecules in membrane are
119. Find how many organelles function in a
amphipathic
coordinated manner from the list below?
(4) Chaperons assist the newly formed
Vacuole, Ribosome, Golgi bodies,
proteins in their folding and transport
How many statements are correct? centrosome, ER, Sphaerosome, Lysosome,

A) 1 B) 2 Mitochondria, Plastids.

C) 4 D) 3 A) 4 B) 3

116. Match the following. C) 2 D) 1

Column-I Column-II 120. It actively synthesises rRNA
a. Euchromatin (i) Possesses active A) Nucleoplasm B) Nucleolus
gene C) Nucleus D) All of these
b. Heterochromatin (ii) Inhibits crossing 121. The cell wall of fungi is made up of which
over
substance?
s Nucleolus (iii) Stained with
A) Starch B) Chitin
basic dyes
C) Cellulose D) Pectin
d. Chromatin (iv) NOR
122. The chromosome in which the centromere is
A) a=(i), b=(ii), c=(iii), d=(iv) located at the end is
B) a=(i), b=(ii), c=(iv), d=(iii) A) Acrocentric B) Telocentric
C) a=(i), b=(iii), c=(ii), d=(iv) C) Metacentric
D) a=(iv), b=(iii), c=(ii), d=(i) D) Submetacentric

9
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
123. Match the columns and select the correct 128. Match the given columns and select the
option: correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
A Protects the cell from i. Pili A Mesomes i. Many ribosomes
loss of water and
nutrients attached to a
single mRNA

B Involved in mating ii. Slime layer B Chromatophores ii. Gram negative

Process bacteria
C Pili iii. Gram positive
C Small bristle like iii. Capsule bacteria
fibres for attachment
to a substratum D Polysome iv. Anabaena

A) A=(ii), B=(iv), C=(i), D=(ii)

D Thick and tough iv. Fimbriae B) A=(iii), B=(iv), C=(ii), D=(i)
C) A=(iv), B=(ii), C=(i), D=(iii)
D) A=(ii), B=(i), C=(iii), D=(iv)
A) A=(iii), B=(ii), C=(i), D=(iv)
B) A=(ii), B=(i), C=(iv), D=(iii) 129. Which of the following represents the correct
sequence of relative sizes (in descending
C) A=(iii), B=(i), C=(ii), D=(iv)
order) of the entities name?
D) A=(i), B=(ii), C=(iii), D=(iv)
A) Cell, nucleus, nucleosome, nucleotide,
124. Match the columns and choose the correct
chromosome
option.
B) Nucleus, nucleotide, cell, chromosome,
Column-I Column-II
nucleosome
A Pinosome i. Protozoans
C) Chromosome, cell, nucleus, nucleotide,
B Ephagy ii. Digestion by
nucleosome
lysosome
D) Cell, nucleus, chromosome, nucleosome,
C Phagocytic iii. Cell drinking
nucleotide
vesicle
130. Below are given a few cell organelles
D Phagocytosis iv. Cell vomiting (i) Nucleus (ii) Lysosomes
A) A=(i), B=(ii), C=(iii), D=(iv) (iii) Peroxisomes (iv) ER
B) A=(ii), B=(iii), C=(iv), D=(i) (v) Mitochondria (vi) Centrioles
C) A=(iii), B=(iv), C=(ii), D=(i) (vii) Plastids
D) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(ii), D=(i) Select the correct choice of organelles not
125. Select the unicellular organism which bounded by two lipoprotein membranes.
possesses cilia: A) ii, iii, iv, vi B) i, v, vi
A) Amoeba B) Yeast C) iv, i, v, vii D) ii, iii, vi
C) Paramoecium D) Opalina 131. Match the following.
126. Which is the biggest animal cell? Column-I Column-II
A) Ostrich’s egg B) Hen’s egg (a) Prokaryotic cell (i) Muramic acid
C) PPLO D) Mycoplasma
127. Find the incorrect statement with respect to
(b) Eukaryotic cell (ii) Two envelope
mitochondria:
A) Inner membrane contains electron
(c) Plasmodesmata (iii) Glycocalyx
carries and enzymes for the formation of
ATP (d) Cell coat (iv) Symplast
B) The circular ds DNA is G ≡ C rich A) a=(i), b=(ii), c=(iii), d=(iv)
C) The matrix contains enzymes for TCA
B) a=(i), b=(ii), c=(iv), d=(iii)
cycle
D) For protein formation it never depends on C) a=(ii), b=(iii), c=(iv), d=(i)
nuclear genome D) a=(ii), b=(iv), c=(iii), d=(i)

10
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
132. In some bacteria, the outermost layer is a 139. Golgi apparatus is an important site for
loose sheath layer called as formation of
A) Slime layer B) Capsule A) Proteins and lipids
C) Cell membrane D) Glycocalyx B) Glycoproteins and glycolipids
133. The area of the cell without any cytoplasm is C) Carbohydrates and proteins
called as D) Glucose and lipids
A) Vacuoles B) Chloroplast 140. The number of mitochondria per cell depends
C) Cytoplasmic Gap D) Mitochondria upon the
134. Each granum possesses how many A) Physiological activity of the cell
thylakoids B) Types of cell
A) 02-100 B) 90-93 C) Shape of Cell
C) 19-80 D) 19-38 D) Size
135. The protoplast surrounding the centriole is 141. Match the columns.
called as Column I Column II
A) Centrosphere B) Centrofibre a Metacentric i Middle centromere
C) Centroradus D) Centrobodies
b Sub- ii Centromere
SECTION – B metacentric slightly away from
136. Select the incorrect statement middle
A) Cilia and flagella are hair like outgrowths
c Acrocentric iii Centromere close
of the cell membrane
B) Cilia cause the movement of either the to its end
cell or the surrounding medium d Telocentric iv Terminal
C) Bacterial flagella are structurally similar centromere
to eukaryotic flagella
D) Flagella is responsible for cell movement A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
137. Match the columns. B) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
a Plasmodesmata i Cell adhering C) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
junctions D) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
b Tubulin ii In folding of 142. Select a correct set
plasmalemma A) Cell organelles; Golgi complex, Function;
c Desmosomes iii Symplast
Acid hydrolases
B) Cell organelles; RER, Function;
d Mesosomes iv Protein units of
microtubules Secretion
C) Cell organelles; Lysosomes, Function;
v Glycolysis
Vitellogenesis
A) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) D) Cell organelles; Mitochondria, Function;
Zymosis
B) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) 143. Pick up the incorrect Pair
C) a(iii), b(v), c(iv), d(ii) (A) Number of flagella per cell – 2-4
D) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (B) Movement of flagella – independent to
each
138. Cytoplasmic streaming, lack any cell
(C) Movement of cilia – Sweeping or pendular
organelles, Microfilaments, Non-cellulosic
wall, Cytoskeleton, Single envelop system, stroke
Gas vacuole. (D) Basal body – 9+2 fibrillar arrangement
How many of the above features are (E) Centriole NOR
associated with prokaryotic cell? (F) SER – Acrosome
A) One B) Four A) A, B, C, D, E, & F B) Only A
C) Three D) Two C) Only D D) D, E & F

11
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
144. Choose the correct statement 148. Choose the correct combination
A) Ratio of rRNA : proteins in 70S ribosomes A) Structure; Ribosome, Origin; Nucleus,
is 60;40
B) Ratio of rRNA : proteins in 80S ribosomes Function; Lipid and protein
is 40:60 B) Structure; Lysosome, Origin;
C) Both 70’S’ and 80’S’ ribosomes are
composed of three subunits Endoplasmic, Function; Lipid and protein
D) Both (A) & (B) C) Structure; Nucleolus, Origin; Ribosome,
145. Match the columns and select the correct
option. Function; Packaging
A Newly formed i Autolysis D) Structure; Ribosome, Origin; Nucleolus,
lysosome Function; Protein synthesis
B Heterophgosomes ii Ephagy 149. Identify A, B and C on the basis of the
C Residual Bodies iii Enzymes for following features given below.
digestion a. A – Outermost cell wall
D Autophagic iv Phase, inactive b. B – Organelle with cart wheel like
Vacuoles enzyme organization
A) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(ii), D=(i) c. C – Organelle with cart wheel like
B) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(i) D=(ii) organization
C) A=(iii), B=(iv), C=(i), D=(ii)
A) A – Secondary wall, B – Mitochondria, C –
D) A=(ii), B=(i), C=(iii), D=(iv)
146. Match the column and find the correct option Centriole
Column-1 Column-II B) A – Primary wall, B – Ribosome, C –
A Nuclear pore i Packaging of Centriole
materials
C) A – Primary wall, B – Mitochondria, C –
B Nucleolus ii Transport of
materials against Centromere
concentration
D) A – Middle lamella, B – Chloroplast, C –
gradient
Cytoskeleton
C Golgi iii RNA synthesis 150. Read the given statements and choose the
complexes
correct option.
D Tonoplast iv Transport of
proteins A – Chloroplasts may convert into
A) A=(iii), B=(iv), C=(ii), D=(i) chromoplasts.
B) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(ii), D=(i) B – Chloroplasts possess both chlorophyll
C) A=(iv), B=(iii), C=(i), D=(ii)
and carotenoids.
D) A=(iv), B=(i), C=(ii), D=(iii)
147. Find the correct match A) Only statement A is correct
A) Golgi body - Polymorphism B) Only statement B is correct
B) Chloroplast - Ripened fruit of banana
C) Both statements A and B are correct
C) Microfilaments - Pseudopodia
D) Centromeres - Absent in metacentric D) Both statements A and B are in
chromosome

12
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A 155. Fill up the blanks (I-IV) and select the
151. All the following statements about ZIFT are correct option.
correct, but one is wrong. Which one is I. ________ is a surgical method of birth
wrong? control.
A) It is zygote intra fallopian transfer II. Fertilization takes place outside the
B) Zygote is transferred into the fallopian body in ________.
III. ________ is performed when a female
tube after IVF
cannot produce an ovum, but can
C) Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres can provide suitable environment for
also be transferred into the fallopian fertilization.
IV. ________ involves transfer of embryo in
tubes
oviduct.
D) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres I II III IV
are also transferred into the fallopian A) MTP GIFT Tubectomy Vasectomy
tubes B) Vasectomy IVF ZIFT GIFT
152. The technique called gamete intrafallopian C) MTP ZIFT MTP IUT
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females D) Tubectomy IVF GIFT ZIFT

A) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to

156. According to 2001 census, the population
allow passage for the sperms growth rate was
B) Who cannot provide suitable A) 2.6% B) 1.7%

environment for fertilisation C) 2.1% D) 2.7%

C) Who cannot produce an ovum 157. Crude death rate is?

D) Who cannot retain the foetus inside
uterus
153. Assertion: Inability to conceive or produce
children even after 2 years of unprotected
sexual cohabitation is called infertility.
Reason: Infertility is synonym for sterility.
A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false.
D) Both Assertion & Reason are false
statements.
154. Which of the following cannot be detected in
a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
A) Sex of the foetus B) Jaundice
C) Down syndrome
A) Number of deaths per thousand persons
in the middle of given year
B) Number of live births per thousand
persons in the middle of given year
C) Death rate per thousand individual
D) Birth rate per thousand individual
158. ‘Norplant’ is the new form of birth control
and it
A) Allows ovulation but doesn’t allow
fertilization
B) Makes the cervical mucus thin making
sperm entry into the uterus difficult
C) Has progestin as the active ingredient
D) Is effective for a maximum of one year
159. Which of the following drug is progesterone
antagonist and acts as an abortion drug?
A) Mifepristone B) Saheli

D) Klinefelter syndrome C) Depo-provera D) Mala-N

13
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
160. Which of the following approaches does not 163. Assertion: Vaginal orifice is partially
give the defined action of contraceptive? covered by a membrane called the hymen.
A) Vasectomy Prevents Reason: It is made up of thick layer of
spermatogenesis smooth muscle.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
B) Barrier Prevent the reason is the correct explanation of
methods fertilization the assertion.
C) Intra uterine Increase B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
devices phagocytosis of
of the assertion.
sperms, suppress, C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
sperm motility and is false.
D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
fertilizing capacity
statements.
of sperms 164. The given figure shows the diagrammatic
D) Hormonal Prevent/retard sectional view of female reproductive system
with few structures marked as A, B, C, D, E
contraceptives entry of sperms,
and F.
prevent ovulation
and fertilization

161. Match the following sexually transmitted

diseases (Column–I) with their causative
agent (Column–II) and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
1 Gonorrhea a Chlamydia
trachomatis
Which of the following options shows the
2 Syphilis b Neisseria
correct labeling of A-F?
3 Genital warts c Treponema A) A-Myometrium, B-Isthmus, C-
4 Chlamydia d Human Endometrium, D-Perimetrium, E-
Ampulla, F-Infundibulum.
Papilloma Virus
B) A-Infundibulum, B-Perimetrium, C-
1 2 3 4 Endometrium, D-Myometrium, E-
A) b c d a Ampulla, F-Isthmus.
B) c d a b C) A-Endometrium, B-Myometrium, C-
C) d b c a Perimetrium, D-Isthmus, E-Ampulla, F-
D) d c b a Infundibulum.
162. Choose the incorrect statement D) A-Perimetrium, B-Endometrium, C-
A) The oviduct, uterus & vagina constitute Isthmus, D-Infundibulum, E-Ampulla,
the female accessory ducts F-Myometrium.
B) The male accessory glands include 165. Bartholin’s glands are situated?
paired seminal vesicle, a bulbourethral A) On the side of head of some amphibians
and paired prostate gland B) At the reduced tail end of birds
C) Each fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm
C) On either side of vagina in humans'
long
D) Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum females
after ovulation D) On either side of vas deferens in humans

14
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
166. Which of the following depicts the correct 169. Which of the following group of cells
pathway of transport of sperms? involved in spermatogenesis represent
A) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent haploid cells?
ductules → Epididymis A) Spermatogonium
B) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas B) Primary spermatocyte
deferens → Epididymis
C) Both A and B
C) Rete testis → Efferent ductules →
D) Secondary spermatocyte
Epididymis → Vas deferens
D) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent 170. 2n = 16 in a primary spermatocyte which is
ductules → Vas deferens in metaphase of first meiotic division. What
167. Study the flow chart. Name the hormones shall be the total number of chromatids in
labelled as A, B, C, D at each stage. each of the secondary spermatocyte?
A) 32 B) 8
C) 16 D) 24
171. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release
______ from the ovary by the process called
ovulation.
A) Primary oocyte
B) Secondary oocyte after completing
meiosis-II
C) Secondary oocyte after completing
meiosis-I and with the release of 1st polar
body
Choose the correct option. D) Mature ovum
A B C D 172. What induces the completion of the meiotic
division of the secondary oocyte?
A) Gn-RH ICSH Androgen FSH
A) Contact of the sperm with the zona
B) Gn-RH IH FSH Androgens pellucida layer of the ovum
C) Gonado IH FSH Testosterone B) The entry of the sperm into the
tropins
D) Gn-RH FSH Lh Androgens cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane
C) Entry of the sperm in the ampullary-
168. Assertion: Leydig’s cells synthesise and
isthmic junction
secrete testicular hormones called
androgens. D) Copulation
Reason: Leydig’s cells are located between 173. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
the Sertoli cells. reproduction, acts on
A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and A) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
the reason is the correct explanation of secretion of LH and oxytocin
the assertion.
B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the B) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
reason is not the correct explanation of secretion of LH and FSH
the assertion. C) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
secretion of oxytocin and FSH
is false.
D) Both Assertion and Reason are false D) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
statements. secretion of LH and relaxin

15
STUDY BHARAT
174. The given figure represents a stage of
embryonic development. Identify the stage
with its feature.
A) Blastocysts, ready to fertilize with sperm.
B) Secondary oocyte, implants on
endometrial layer of uterus.
C) Morula, formed by mitotic division of
zygote.
D) Ovary, produce female gamete and
secretes hormones like estrogen etc.
175. What kind of uterine changes occurs during
luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
A) Myometrium hypertrophy
B) More secretory nature of endometrium
C) Blood loss
D) Ruptured Graafian follicle
176. Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte
results in the formation of
A) first polar body and a diploid ovum.
B) first polar body and a haploid ovum.
C) second polar body and a diploid ovum.
D) second polar body and a haploid ovum
177. Which of the following contains a fluid filled
cavity called antrum?
A) Primary spermatocyte.
B) Primary follicle of ovary.
C) Tertiary follicle of ovary.
D) Secondary spermatocyte.
178. Assertion: All copulations do not lead to
fertilisation and pregnancy.
Reason: Fertilisation can occur if the ovum
and sperms are transported simultaneously
to the ampullary-isthmic junction.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
179. Which of the following is not a correct
statement about umbilical cord?
A) It connects the placenta to the embryo
B) It helps in the transport of substances to
and from the embryo
C) It produces several hormones like hPL,
estrogen and progesterone
D) It has 100% foetal blood
180. Assertion: Synthesis of milk is stimulated
by rise in the level of oxytocin.
Reason: Oxytocin is released from the
adenohypophysis under influence of
hypothalamus.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
181. Which one of the following is the correct
matching of the events occurring during
menstrual cycle?
A) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration
of myometrium and maturation of
Graafian follicle
B) Development of corpus luteum:
Secretory phase and increased secretion
of progesterone
C) Menstruation: Breakdown of
myometrium and ovum not fertilised
D) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level
and sharp fall in the secretion of
progesterone
182. What happens during fertilisation in
humans after many sperms reach close to
the ovum?
A) Cells of corona radiata trap all the
sperms except one
B) Only two sperms nearest the ovum
penetrate zona pellucida
C) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
pellucida
D) All sperms except the one nearest to the
ovum lose their tails
16
STUDY BHARAT
183. If all 8 blastomeres of mammalian embryo
may be separated, then what will happen?
A) Die immediately
B) Incomplete embryo developed
C) 8 identical embryo developed
D) Only one complete embryo
developed and remaining blastomeres will
destroyed
184. The mammary glands of the mother undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and start
producing milk after delivery. This process
is called?
A) Lactation B) Implantation
C) Fertilisation D) Parturition
185. Assertion: ‘Saheli’ – new oral contraceptive
for the females was developed at CDRI,
Lucknow.
Reason: It has no steroid in it.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
SECTION – B
186. Assertion: Gossypol inhibits
spermatogenesis.
Reason: Centchroman inhibits ovulation
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
187. Assertion: Both vasectomy and tubectomy
are very effective, as the failure rate of such
surgical approaches is almost zero percent.
Reason: Reversibility is poor.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
188. Assertion: Once conception has occurred
abortion can be induced by mifepristone
drug.
Reason: Mifepristone is progesterone
antagonistic.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
189. Assertion: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are
very effective contraceptive method.
Reason: IUDs don't allow sperms to enter
the uterus.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
17
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)
190. What is the figure given below showing in 195. Birth control pills check ovulation in female
particular? by inhibiting the secretion of:
A) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
196. The accompanying diagram shows the
A) Vasectomy uterine tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S).
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Uterine cancer
D) Tubectomy
191. Which of the following statements about
hepatitis-B is incorrect?
A) It is one of the examples of STD
B) It is spread primarily by sexual contact, In which of two, women fertilization is
even by contaminated syringes and impossible at present??
blood transfusion A) P and Q B) Q and R
C) It is 42 nm enveloped virus containing C) R and S D) S and P
ss-RNA as the genetic material 197. There is no menstruation and ovulation
D) Recomb Ivax HB, vaccine is available to during intense lactation following
prevent hepatitis-B infection parturition. This can be used as a method of
192. Which of the following is incorrectly contraception which is effective only
matched? maximum period of
A) Non-medicated IUDs – Lippes loop A) 6 weeks B) 8 weeks
B) Copper releasing IUD – LNG – 20 C) 12 weeks D) 6 months
C) Hormone releasing IUD – Progestasert 198. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of
D) Saheli – Once a week contraceptive pill A) Vasa deferens
B) Mammary glands
193. Which of the following is an incorrect
C) Uterus
statement for periodic abstinence? D) Prostate gland
A) The couple should abstain from coitus 199. Artificial insemination means
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle A) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor
when ovulation could be expected directly into ovary
B) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile B) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to
period, when the chances of fertilisation a test tube containing ova
C) Transfer of sperm of husband to a test
are high
tube containing ova
C) This prevents the chances of union of D) Artificial introduction of sperms of a
male and female gametes healthy donor into the vagina
D) In this method, the ovum and sperms are 200. Which of the following statements are
prevented from physically meeting with INCORRECT regarding STDs?
the help of barriers I. HIV and Hepatitis-B can be transmitted
194. How many of the following features are by sharing of needles and surgical
related to Lippe's loop? instruments.
(1) IUD II. The contraceptives like condom cannot
(2) Non-medicated prevent STDs.
(3) Induces phagocytosis of sperms III. Young people aged from 15-24 years are
(4) Cu ion releasing vulnerable to STDs.
(5) Physically prevent meeting of ovum and IV. All the STDs cannot be prevented or
sperms cured.
A) Two B) Three A) I and III B) Only I
C) Four D) Five C) II and IV D) Only III

18
STUDY BHARAT TEST-04 (18-09-2022)

STUDY BHARAT
Test-04 (18-09-2022)

19