REHISTRADONG MEDTECH ONLINE REVIEW TUTORIAL

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Thiosulfate-Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by agar (TCBS) - selective for VIBRIO due to
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the presence of thiosulfate and bile salts.
the answer sheet provided. - maintain moist environment, with
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. nutrients to maintain growth.
- maintains organisms’ viability during
1. Which of the following generally refers to instances transport.
where there is a disproportionately larger number of JEMBEC/TRANSGROW - _________
infected individuals in a fairly short amount of time? STUARTS’S - Viral Transport Media
a. Endemic CARY BLAIR - __________________
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
5. Stain for capsule, except:
d. Outbreak
a. Neisser
b. Muir
A larger than normal number of diseased or c. Anthony’s
infected individuals that occurs over a short d. Hiss
period.
Muir, Anthony’s, Tyler, Hiss, Welch’s, Grins
An epidemic that spans the world.
Dorner’s, Schaeffer-fulton, Wirtz &
A larger than normal number of diseased or Conklin, Heat and Acetic acid method
infected individuals in a particular location.
Fisher and Conn, Gray’s, Loeffler’s,
A disease constantly present at some rate of Leifson, Caesares Gil, Van ermenger
occurrence in a particular location
Feulgen, Acridine Orange
Wayson
2. Which of the following toxins requires cell death for
Levaditi, Fontana, Warthin starry
release?
Gimenez, Macchiavelo, Giemsa
a. Endotoxin
b. Neurotoxin Neisser, Alberts, Ljubinsky, Lamb
c. Enterotoxin
d. Cytotoxin 6. Correct arrangement in PCR Amplification
a. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
EXOTOXIN ENDOTOXIN b. Annealing, Denaturation, Exit
c. Denaturation, Annealing, Exit
d. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
94 °C
50-58 °C
Composition: _________ Composition: _______________ 72 °C

Effect: Effect: 7. Type of growth in slant, except:

Toxicity: High Toxicity: Low a. Flocculent
Stability to heating: - Stability to heating: _________ b. Beaded
_________ c. Rhizoid
Stimulates antitoxin Stimulates antitoxin d. Filiform
production: production:

3. Class of BSC where the air is 100% exhausted to the

building
a. Class I
b. Class IIA
c. Class IIB
d. Class III
Allow room (unsterilized) air to pass into the
cabinet and around the area and material
within, sterilizing only the air to be exhausted
Self-contained and 70% of the air is recirculated
Similar to II A1, but has 100 lfm intake air
velocity and plenums are under negative
pressure to room 8. All of the following are antibiotics that inhibit
It is selected if radioisotopes, toxic chemicals, or protein synthesis, except:
carcinogens will be used. a. Monobactams
1. _________– 30% recirculated; 70% exhausted b. Tetracycline
2. _________ - Air is discharged outside the c. Aminoglycosides
building d. Chloramphenicol
Air coming into and going out of the cabinet is
filter sterilized and the infectious material 9. Which of the following is resistant to
within is handled with RUBBER GLOVES that aminoglycosides?
are attached and sealed to the cabinet a. Aerobes
b. Facultative anaerobes
4. What is the color of non-lactose fermenter in EMB c. Anaerobes
and MAC? d. Either Aerobes or Facultative Anaerobes
a. Pink
b. Blue 10. Composition of McFarland Standard
c. Violet a. Sulfuric Acid and Barium Chloride
d. Colorless b. Hydrochloric Acid and Barium Chloride
c. Hydrochloric Acid and Barium Sulfate
- can differentiate one group of organisms to d. Sulfuric Acid and Barium Sulfate
another
Example: Antisusceptibility Testing
-MAC - LF (_______) from NLF (_________) 1. Dilution method
-BAP, EMB, HEA a. Broth SI: __________________
Dilution
Example: b. Agar SI: __________________
Mannitol Salt Agar - Staphylococcus Dilution
aureus due to the presence of _________ 2. Disk Diffusion Method (Kirby Bauer method)
__________________- selective for gram (-) *0.5 McFarland SI: __________________
organisms due to the presence of CV and bile Standard
salts

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 REHISTRADONG MEDTECH ONLINE REVIEW TUTORIAL

11. Which of the following bacteria refers to CONS?

a. S. aureus and S. epidermidis Partially AF + +/- +/- +
b. S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus Appearance Extensive Minimal/ Min./- Min./-
c. S. epidermidis and S. intermedius on TAP /+ -
d. S. aureus and S. intermedius WATER
AGAR;
Coagulase (+) Staphylococci Coagulase (-) Staphylococci Branching
aerial
__________________ Hyphae
__________________ Lysozyme + +/- - +
Staphylococcus hominis
Staphylococcus haemolyticus
Staphylococcus simulans 19. Partially acid-fast organisms, except:
Staphylococcus sciuri a. Tsukamurella
Staphylococcus schleiferi b. Gordonia
Staphylococcus cohnii c. Rhodococcus
Staphylococcus capitis
d. Streptomyces
Staphylococcus warneri
Staphylococcus xylosus
Partially AF - - - -
Appearance on Extensive/ Variable/ Branching Extensive/
12. The beta-hemolysis produced by GAS seen on the + Sparse +
TAP WATER
surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the AGAR;
result of _______________ Branching
a. Streptolysin S aerial Hyphae
b. Streptolysin O Lysozyme - - - -
c. M protein
d. Streptokinase
20. Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-
negative rods that:
Streptolyisn O Streptolysin S a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and
_________Hemolysis _________Hemolysis are oxidase negative
Oxygen_________ Oxygen-_________ b. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase,
Can cause hemolysis when Can cause hemolysis when and form gas
incubated incubated c. Ferment lactose and reduce nitrite to
__________________ __________________ nitrogen gas
-__________________ -Non-immunogenic d. Ferment lactose and produce indophenol oxidase
-Can stimulate production of -Cannot stimulate
antibodies production of antibodies General Characteristics of Family Enterobacteriaceae
Lysis of WBC, platelets, Lysis of WBC -Catalase (+) except _______________________
tissue cells -Oxidase (-) except ________________________
-Nitrate reducers except ___________________
13. Which one of the following microorganisms is closely -Glucose fermenters
associated with dental caries? -Facultative Anaerobes
a. C. albicans
b. S. mutans 21. What is the pH indicator incorporated in SSA?
c. S. pyogenes a. Neutral Red
d. S. epidermidis b. Phenol Red
c. Bromthymol blue
14. Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus d. Bromcresol purple
from which other genus?
a. Streptococcus Neutral Phenol Bromthymol blue Bromcresol
b. Stomatococcus Red Red purple
c. Micrococcus S B C LIA
d. Planococcus M M H
Ash X O
Micrococcus Staphylococcus CIN C T
Bacitracin U S
Furazolidone T
Lysostaphin

15. Which of the following species of Bacillus is 22. Which of the following refers to a biochemical test
nonmotile? used to separate Staphylococci, Micrococci from
a. B. cereus
Streptococci?
b. B. subtilis
a. Coagulase
c. B. anthracis
b. Catalase
d. B. thuringiensis
c. Modified Oxidase
d. Bacitracin
16. Causative agent of erysipeloid
_______________- A biochemical test used to separate
a. S. pyogenes
Staphylococci (+), Micrococci (+) from Streptococci (-)
b. E. rhusiopathiae
➢ (+) Result : ____________________
c. C. minutissimum
➢ Uses ___________________________
d. Lactobacillus
➢ Do not use colonies from BAP (False Positive
Reaction); can use any media except _________
17. CCFA is used for the recovery of __________
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Clostridium perfringens 3% H2O2 for ___________________________
d. Clostridium difficile 30% H2O2 for ___________________________
15% H2O2 for _______________________
18. Minimal branching aerial hyphae, except:
a. Nocardia 23. Which of the following must be incubated in a
b. Rhodococcus microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of
c. Gordonia the organism?
d. Tsukamurella a. E. coli
b. P. aeruginosa
c. C. jejuni
d. P. mirabilis

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24. In the following pairs of organisms, which two are 29. Causative agent of Cat-scratch disease
hardest to distinguish from each other by Gram a. B. bacilliformis
stain? b. B. quintana
a. Micrococcus, Streptoccous c. B. hensenlae
b. Neisseria, Microccus d. B. elizabethae
c. Bacillus, Sarcina
d. Clostridium, Veilonella Species DISEASE
Bartonella ________________
Micrococcus, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus bacilliformis Orroya or Verruga peruana
Rochalimaea/Barto ________________, endocarditis
Peptococcus, Peptostreptoccocus, Sarcina, nella quintana
Ruminococcus, Coprococcus
Bartonella ________________________________
Branhamella, Neisseria
hensenlae Endocarditis
Veilonella, Acidaminococcus, Megasphera Peliosis Hepatitis
Bartonella ________________________________
Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Erysipelothrix, clarridgeiae NO endocarditis
Listeria, Mycobacterium, Nocardia Bartonella Endocarditis
Actinomyces, Clostridium, elizabethae
Propionobacterium, Bifidobacterium,
Eubacterium, Lactobacillus, Mobiluncus
30. Which of the following dyes are used to differentiate
Acinetobacter, Aeromonas, Alcaligenes,
Bordetella, Brucella Enterics, Francisella, Brucella species?
Legionella, Pasteurella, Pseudomonas, a. Wright and Giemsa
Vibrio b. Methylene blue and Basic Fuchsin
Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, Prevotella, c. Thionine and Basic Fuchsin
Porphyromonas d. Basic Fuchsin and Giemsa

25. Stage of bacterial growth where the organisms Brucella spp Host H2S Prod. Basic Thionine
become susceptible to antibiotics Fuchsin
a. Lag B. abortus +
b. Log B. melitensis +
c. Stationary B. suis -
d. Death B. canis +/-
Increase in size but not in number but
bacterial enzyme is very active 31. VP (+) and MR (-) Enterobacteriaceae
Growth rate is 0% a. Klebsiella
Stage where the organisms are most b. E. coli
metabolically active c. Salmonella
Growth rate starts to increase d. Shigella
____________________________________
____________________________________ 32. Also known as the Hansen’s bacillus
The number of dying organisms is equal to a. M. tuberculosis
the number of viable organisms. b. M. kansasii
NO net growth c. M. leprae
The number of dying organisms is greater d. M. terrae
than the number of viable organisms.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium gordonae
26. Organism with yellow colonies on TCBS -________________ -________________
a. V. cholerae
b. V. parahaemolyticus Mycobacterium leprae Mycobacterium terrae
c. V. mimicus -________________ -________________
d. V. vulnificus
Mycobacterium kansasii M. intracellulare
Species TCBS -________________ -________________
Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio parahaemolyticus Mycobacterium phlei
Vibrio vulnificus -________________
Vibrio mimicus
Vibrio alginolyticus 33. Part of MTB Complex, except:
Vibrio fluvialis a. M. bovis
Vibrio furnissii b. M. africanum
c. M. kansasii
27. The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly d. M. microti
progressing wound infections seen in patients with
underlying liver disease is Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex – causes TB
a. V. alginolyticus 1. M. ________________– pulmonary TB
b. V. cholerae 2. M. ______– intestinal tuberculosis, BCG vaccine source
c. V. vulnificus 3. M. ________________– pulmonary TB in Africa
d. V. parahaemolyticus 4. M. ________________– smooth strain of M. tuberculosis
5. M. _______– isolated from TB patients in both
28. Which of the following Haemophilus does not immunocompetent and immunocompromised
require X and V Factor?
a. H. influenzae
b. H. ducreyi 34. Vector of B. burgdorferi
c. H. parahaemophilus a. Ticks
d. H. aphrophilus b. Mites
c. Louse
V-FACTOR X-FACTOR d. Chigger
H.influenzae
H.aegypticus Lyme Disease Stages
H.haemolyticus STAGE 1; ________________________________)
H.parainfluenzae STAGE 2: Most important features: Neurologic disorders
H.parahaemolyticus (Meningitis) and Carditis
H.paraphrophilus STAGE 3:________________________________________
H.aphrophilus
H.ducreyi

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 REHISTRADONG MEDTECH ONLINE REVIEW TUTORIAL

35. Father of Modern Epidemiology

a. John Snow
b. Robert Koch -Uses FLOWING STEAM - “Thickening through
c. Joseph Lister -Equipment used is Arnold evaporation”
d. Ignaz Semmelweis Sterilizer -Used for sterilization of
-100 degC for 30 minutes for 3 culture media that are
36. Laboratory results are example of _____________ consecutive days EGG-BASED AND OF
a. Sign HIGH PROTEIN
*Intermittent Methods (Moist content since extremely
b. Symptoms
Heat) high temperature can
c. Both -Used to sterilized media containing denature protein
d. None of these milk or serum. 75-80 degC for 2 hrs for
Day 1: destroys ___________ 3 consecutive days
Day 2: destroys ___________
It is defined as some It is defined as some evidence Day 3: destroys ___________
type of OBJECTIVE of a disease that is
EVIDENCE of the EXPERIENCED or 41. Trimethoprim – sulfamethoxazole (SXT) disks are
disease. PERCEIVED BY THE used along with bacitracin disks to differentiate
Examples PATIENT – something that is which streptococci?
1. ____________ SUBJECTIVE. a. α-Hemolytic streptococci
2. ____________ Examples b. β-Hemolytic streptococci
3. ____________ 1. ____________ c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. ____________ 2. ____________ d. Enterococcus faecalis
3. ____________
4. ____________ GAS GBS Group C, F,G
BACITRACIN
37. Colony elevation SXT
a. Umbonate
b. Curled 42. Color of positive result for Hippurate hydrolysis test
c. Rhizoids a. Yellow
d. Filamentous b. Purple
c. Green
Colony Colony shape Colony Margin d. Red
elevation
Flat Punctiform Entire (smooth) Tests for CAMP TEST – Positive
Raised (pinpoint) Irregular Presumptive CAMP Factor – enhances BETA-
Convex Circular (round) Filamentous Identification HEMOLYTIC Activity; extracellular,
Umbonate Filamentous thermostable antigen
Umbilicate Rhizoid Media: ___________
Growth into Curled (+) Result: Arrow Head Zone of beta-
media hemolysis (______________________)
(-) Result: ______________________
38. Which of the following organism has a characteristic
of “Green metallic sheen on BAP”? HIPPURATE HYDROLYSIS TEST
a. P. aeruginosa POSITIVE
b. E. coli -detects hydrolysis of SODIUM HIPPURATE
c. Enterobacter to BENZOIC ACID and GLYCINE (to be
d. Y. enterolitica detected).
-the positive result is due to enzyme:
Green metallic sheen on BAP HIPPURICASE/HIPPURATE HYDROLASE
Green metallic sheen on EMB (+) Result: ___________
Fish-eye colonies on EMB Reagent: ___________
Bull’s eye on CIN
Dew drop/ Satellite colonies
Mercury droplets 43. Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from
Molar tooth glucose but not from maltose, lactose, or sucrose?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
39. Biological indicator of Autoclave b. Neisseria lactamica
a. B. stearothermophilus c. Neisseria meningitidis
b. B. subtilis var. niger d. Neisseria sicca
c. B. pumilis
d. B. subtilis var. globijii 44. Martin Lewis medium contains the following, except:
a. Vancomycin
40. Used for sterilization of culture media that are egg- b. Colistin
based and of high protein content c. Anisomycin
a. Autoclave d. Nystatin
b. Inspissation
c. Tyndallization Thayer Modified Thayer Martin Lewis
d. Incineration Martin Agar Martin Agar (MTM) Media (MLM)
(TMA)
AUTOCLAVE Contains Contains VCN-T Contains VCAn-T
PRINCIPLE: VCN
Vancomycin Vancomycin
-Acts by coagulating or denaturing enzymes and proteins.
121 degC, 15 psi, 15-30 minutes ___________
_________________________________ Colistin Colistin
-132 degC, 15 psi, 30-60 minutes for ___________
-Indicator: _________________________________ Nystatin
(every week) incubated at 56 degC
-Not killed by autoclave are PRIONS Trimetophrim
Lactate

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New York City Media GC Lect Medium

Contains VCAm-T VCAm-TL
3. ___________
Vancomycin Vancomycin -living together of two unlike organisms whose
Colistin Colistin dependence on each other when broken apart life will
Amphotericin B still be possible.

Trimethoprim Lactate Trimethoprim Lactate 4. ___________

Advantage: Genital ___________- inhibits gram (+) as -a type of relationship where one lives at the expense of
Mycoplasma will also well as anaerobes the other, harming it on the process.
grow on this media

52. Host that harbors sexual stage of parasites, where

parasites complete their development.
45. Campylobacter spp. are associated most frequently a. Definitive Host
with cases of b. Intermediate Host
a. Osteomyelitis c. Paratenic Host
b. Gastroenteritis d. Transfer Host
c. Endocarditis
d. Appendicitis
1. ____________________
C. jejuni H. pylori
harbors SEXUAL STAGE of parasites, where parasites complete
Oxidase their development. (mature stage)
 Humans- for ____________________
Catalase
2. ____________________
Microaerophilic
 harbors ASEXUAL/ LARVAL STAGE (immature stage)
Urease  Pigs- ____________________
 Snails- ____________________
Growth at 42 degC
Colony 3. ____________________
 parasite does not develop further into final stage, widens
parasitic distribution from definitive and intermediate
46. Routine laboratory testing for T. pallidum involves Wild boar- ____________________
a. Culturing
b. Serological analysis 53. The O&P examination comprises three separate
c. Acid-fast staining protocols, except:
d. Gram staining a. Direct wet mount
b. Parasite Culture Method
47. Which of the following specimens is routinely c. Concentration techniques
decontaminated when trying to recover d. Permanent stained smear
Mycobacterium spp?
a. Sputum The O&P examination comprises three separate protocols
b. Blood 1. Direct wet mount
c. Bronchial washing 2. Concentration techniques
d. NP swab 3. Permanent stained smear

48. Lumpy jaw is caused by: 54. FECT arrange from top to bottom
a. C. tetani a. Ether > Debris > Formalin > Sediment
b. A. israelii b. Debris > Formalin > Ether> Sediment
c. B. anthracis c. Formalin > Debris > Ether > Sediment
d. C. botulinum d. Ether > Formalin > Debris > Sediment

49. Spirillum minus also causes rat-bite fever in

humans and is referred to as:
a. Haverhill fever
b. Legionnaire’s disease
c. Hantavirus
d. Sodoku

50. In thioglycolate broth medium, where do you find

facultative anaerobe?
a. Middle of the tube
b. At the bottom of the tube
c. At the top of the tube
d. Evenly spread in the tube
55. What is the specific gravity of 33% Zinc Sulfate to be
51. Which of the following refers to living together of
used if the specimen is formalinized?
two unlike organisms whose dependence on a. 1.020
each other when broken apart life will still be b. 1.018
possible? c. 1.18
a. Symbiosis d. 1.20
b. Commensalism
c. Mutualism
d. Parasitism

TYPES OF ASSOCIATION OF LIVING THINGS

1. ___________
-living together of two unlike organisms whose
dependence on each other when broken apart life will be
impossible.

2. ___________
-two species live together, but one specie benefits from
relationship without harming or benefiting one another.

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 REHISTRADONG MEDTECH ONLINE REVIEW TUTORIAL

56. Mode of transmission: Ingestion of improperly Trophozoite Form

cooked fish P. falciparum
a. T. solium
b. E. histolytica
c. A. duodenale
d. C. sinesis

Improperly cooked fish Skin penetration

P. vivax

57. Soil-transmitted helminths, except:

a. A. duodenale
b. Ascaris
P. ovale
c. Strongyloides
d. Leishmania

58. Which of the following enteric parasite resembles

macrophages in stool sample?
a. E. histolytica cyst
b. E. histolytica trophozoite
c. Yeast P. malariae
d. Pollen grains

TYPE OF ARTIFACTS RESEMBLANCE

Entamoeba histolytica cysts
Entamoeba histolytica
trophozoite
Amoebic Trophozoites
Protozoan cyst (especially
Entamoeba nana cyst) 63. Which of the following is the largest Trichomonas
Hookworm eggs and covers almost 50% of its body with undulating
Taenia spp and Ascaris membrane?
a. T. vaginalis
Protozoan Cyst, Helminth
b. T. hominis
eggs
c. T. tenax
Plant hairs/ fibers or
d. T. bucalis
Ingested plant nematode
larvae
Starch Granules, fat
T. vaginalis
globules, air bubbles,
mucus

59. Amoeba that inhabits the GI tract of man are non-

motile, non-feeding, and infective during which
stage?
a. Cyst
b. Trophozoite
c. Pseudopod
d. Cryptozoite

60. Alcaligenes faecalis is distinguished from Bordetella

T. hominis
bronchiseptica with which test?
a. Urease (rapid)
b. Oxidase
c. Growth on MacConkey agar
d. Motility

61. Characteristics of the rhabditiform larvae of

Hookworms include a:
a. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
b. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail
c. Long buccal capsule and small genital primordium
d. Small genital primordium and notch in tail T. tenax

64. Which of the following is the vector of Onchocerca?

a. Culex spp
62. Which species of malaria parasite usually has band b. Chrysops spp.
shaped trophozoite? c. Mansonia spp.
a. Plasmodium ovale d. Simulium spp.
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium vivax

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FILARIAL VECTOR MICROFILARIA ⚫ EGG

WORM May be mistaken as _________________________________
W.bancrofti _______, nuclei __________________________________________
absent to the tail Size range: 55-75 µm long, 40-55 µm wide
B.malayi _______, tail with 2 Shape: Somewhat oblong
separate nuclei Embryo Undeveloped, termed coracidium (requires AQUATIC
Loa loa _______, nuclei
development of embryo)
continuous upto the
Shell Smooth; yellow-brown in color
tip of the tail
Other features: Operculum on one end; terminal knob on
O.volvulus Unsheathed, nuclei
absent in the tail opposite end
M.perstans Cullicoides, bitting Unsheathed, nuclei
midges up to the tip of the
tail
M. ozzardi Cullicoides, Unsheathed, nuclei
simullum, black fly absent in the tip of
the tail.

65. What is the recommended drug for treatment of

Fasciola infection?
a. Chloroquine
b. Bithionol
c. Albendazole
d. Ivermectin 70. Which of the following Taenia spp. has 5-12 finger-
like, uterine branches?
Plasmodium a. T. solium
B. coli b. T. saginata
C. cayetanensis c. T. asiatica
d. T. multiceps
C. belli
T. solium & E.
71. Microsporum infection involves:
granulosus
a. Hair, skin, and nails
Intestinal Trematodes
b. Hair and skin
Clonorchis, Opistorchis
c. Skin and nails
Fasciola infection d. None of the above
Paragonimus
Schistosome infection General Characterisitcs Three Genera
-Agent of ______________ 1. ______________- Skin,
66. Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal -Keratinophilic (degrades Hair, Nails
spine? keratin) 2. ______________- Skin,
a. S. haematobium Infects only the ___________ Hair
b. S.japonicum __________________________ 3. ______________- Skin,
c. S. mansoni -Do not invade underlying Nails
d. S. mekongi tissue
MOT: ______________
67. It resembles egg of S. haematobium, but acid-fast
positive
a. S. intercalatum 72. Used to differentiate M. audouinii from M. canis and
b. S.japonicum M. gypseum
c. S. mansoni a. Rice medium
d. S. mekongi b. Czapek
c. Cornmeal agar
BLOOD FLUKES DESCRIPTION OF EGG
d. Potato dextrose agar
Pointed terminal spine,
Species Growth in Rice Macroconidia
Large lateral spine,
Grains
Small lateral spine, Microsporon
(barely visible nubby spine) canis
Resembles egg of S. Microsporon
haematobium, but acid-fast gypseum
positive Microsporon
Resembles egg of S. mansoni, audouinii
but much smaller.
73. Which of the following is the most common cause of
68. Pseudophyllidean requires how many intermediate chromoblastomycosis?
host in their life cycle? a. Exophiala jeanselmei
a. 1 b. Phialiphora verrucosum
b. 2 c. Pseudoallescheria boydii
c. 3 d. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d. None
Pseudophyllidean (False Tapeworm) CHROMOBLASTOMYCOSIS
- ______________ a. ____________________________
-1st: ______________; 2nd : ______________ MOST COMMON CAUSE of Chromoblastomycoses
-Ex. D. latum and Spirometra b. ____________________________
Conidiophores that give rise to flask-shaped or
Cyclopyllidean (True Tapeworm) VASE-SHAPED phialides with collarettes
-____________________________ c. ____________________________
-Hymenolepis nana does not require Erect long-branching conidiophores that give rise to
intermediate host LONG chains of conidia (on the upper half),
SHIELD CELL (conidionous cell)
69. Egg of D. latum may be mistaken as __________ d. ____________________________
a. P. westermanni egg Conidiophores bearing elliptical conidia produced
b. Fasciola egg sympodially on its upper portion near the tip
c. Hymenolepis egg
d. E. granulosus egg

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74. All of the following fungi can cause -Large, round oval, yeast cell (15-30um)
Phaehypomycosis, except: with multiple buds attached to mother cell
a. Alternaria by narrow constrictions resembling
b. Bipolaris “Mariner’s Wheel” & “Mickey mouse
cup”
c. Wangiella
d. Fonsecaea

CHROMOBLASTO PHAEHYPHOMYCOSIS 81. Fungal colony

MYCOSES a. Verrucose
b. Umbonate
c. Rugose
d. Velvety

Fungal topography
furrowed or convoluted
slightly raised in the center),
75. All of the following can cause White Granules furrows radiate out from the
Mycetoma, except: center).
a. Madurella Texture of fungal colony
b. Scedosporidium loose, high aerial
c. Pseudoallescheria mycelium
d. Acremonium low aerial mycelium
resembling a
White Granules Mycetoma Black Granules Mycetoma velvet cloth
smooth surface with no
aerial
mycelium
dense, powdery, resembling
sugar
granules
76. Which dematiaceous mold forms flask-shaped high aerial mycelium that
phialides, each with a flask-shaped collarette? appears
a. Phialophora spp. slightly matted down).
b. Exophiala spp.
c. Wangiella spp. 82. What is the 2nd step in the identification of unknown
d. All of these options yeast isolate?
a. Germ tube
77. Trichophyton rubrum and T. mentagrophytes may be b. Morphology on cornmeal agar
differentiated by the c. CHO Utilization
a. Consistently different appearance of their colonies d. India Ink
b. Endothrix hair infection produced by T. rubrum
c. Fluorescence of hairs infected with T. rubrum Identification of unknown yeast isolate
d. In vitro hair penetration by T. mentagrophytes
First step
Second step
Species Urease Test Hair-baiting
Most common conventional
Trichophyton
definitive identification
mentagrophytes
Trichophyton rubrum 83. Infectious form of fungi
a. Yeast
78. Hyaline septate hyphae, branched or unbranched b. Mold
conidiophores, and multicelled banana-shaped c. Sexual
conidia are characteristic of which of the following? d. Asexual
a. Fusarium
b. Curvularia YEAST MOLD
c. Acremonium ✓ ______________ ✓ ______________,
d. Trichophyton ✓ Colonies are moist filamentous
creamy, opaque and ✓ Colonies are fluffy,
79. All of the following fungi can produce arthroconidia, pasty cottony, wooly or
except: ✓ Grows at 35-37 degC powdery
a. Coccidiodes ✓ Usually the ✓ Grows at ROOM
b. Trichosporon ___________________ TEMPERATURE
c. Geotrichum _________ ✓ ______________
d. Candida
84. A black pigment produced by colonies growing on
80. Which of the following refers to a large yeast with bird seed agar is due to
single bud on broad base? a. Urease
a. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis b. Phenol oxidase
b. Sporothrix schenckii c. Sucrose assimilation
c. Coccidioides immitis d. Arthroconidia production
d. B. dermatitidis
85. Used as a stain-preservative for fungi
Fungal Agent 35 degC (Yeast) a. PAS Stain.
-Thick-walled, large yeast with single bud b. Gomori Methenamine Silver
on BROAD BASE (8-12um) c. Lactophenol cotton blue
d. Giemsa stain
-Large, round thick walled SPHERULES
(30-60 um) with endospores; Cob-web -LACTIC ACID: PHENOL:
like colonies -COTTON BLUE:
-Small budding, oval yeast cells (2-5 um);
Lactophenol Cotton Blue - stain-preservative; ID of
INTRACELLULAR MACROPHAGES
seen with Giemsa or Wright’s MOLDS
*H. duboisii - Double cell/Figure *; causes
african histoplasmosis

KRISTAN J. DELA CRUZ, RMT

 REHISTRADONG MEDTECH ONLINE REVIEW TUTORIAL

86. Viral transport medium containing penicillin, 98. Most common symptoms of COVID-19, except:
gentamicin and amphotericin is used to collect and a. Fever
transport specimen for virus culture because this b. Dry cough
medium: c. Tiredness
a. Enables rapid viral growth during transport d. Headache
time
b. Inhibits bacterial and fungal growth Most common symptoms: ____________________________
c. Destroys nonpathogenic viruses Least common symptoms: Aches and pain, sore throat,
d. Inhibits complement-fixing antibodies diarrhea, conjunctivitis, ______________, loss of taste or smell,
a rash on skin, or discoloration of finger or toes.
87. EBV is associated with which of the following? Source: WHO
a. Chickenpox
b. Hodgkin lymphoma 99. Many of the symptoms of COVID-19 are common to
c. Burkitt lymphoma other respiratory or viral illnesses, ______ appears
d. Smallpox to be more specific to COVID-19
a. Sore throat
88. Colds and other acute respiratory diseases are most b. Fever
often associated with: c. Loss of ability to smell
a. EBV d. Shortness of breath
b. Adenovirus
c. Coxsackie virus 100. Few persons with SARS were identified as
d. Reovirus a. Super human
b. Super spreaders
89. The genus of virus associated with anogenital warts, c. Case
cervical dysplasia and neoplasia is: d. Contact
a. HSV .
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. RSV

90. An RNA virus that has a nuclear phase to its

replication process is
a. Coronavirus
b. Rhabdovirus
c. Togavirus
d. Retrovirus

91. Which of the following refers to “Break bone fever”?

a. Coxsackie A virus
b. Dengue virus
c. Hanta virus
d. Rubella virus

92. Specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus

a. Feces sample
b. Urine sample
c. Bronchoalveolar wash
d. Throat swab

93. A new reverse transcriptase has been discovered. In

addition to its effect on HIV disease, it should be
checked for its potential in treating
a. Infectious hepatitis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Measles
d. Serum hepatitis

94. Arboviruses, except:

a. Togavirus
b. Flavivirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Bunyavirus

95. Which virus has been implicated in adult

gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of
contaminated food and water?
a. Norwalk-like virus
b. Rotavirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Hepatitis A virus

96. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with infection by

a. Adenovirus
b. CMV
c. HHV-8
d. Hepatitis E virus

97. Enveloped, long, filamentous and irregular capsid

forms with single-stranded RNA
a. Coronavirus
b. Filovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Polyomavirus

KRISTAN J. DELA CRUZ, RMT