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ARRL Extra Class License Manual 12th Edition For Ham Radio-Arrl Inc (2020)
ARRL Extra Class License Manual 12th Edition For Ham Radio-Arrl Inc (2020)
Printed in USA
ISBN: 978-1-62595-131-1
Twelfth Edition
First Printing
1 Introduction
1.1 The Extra Class License and
Amateur Radio
1.2 Extra Class Overview
1.3 The Volunteer Testing Process
1.4 How to Use This Book
2 Operating Practices
2.1 General Operating
2.2 Amateur Satellites
4 Electrical Principles
4.1 Radio Mathematics
4.2 Electrical and Magnetic Fields
4.3 Principles of Circuits
11 Safety
11.1 Hazardous Materials
11.2 RF Exposure
11.3 Grounding and Bonding
12 Glossary
Radio?
Perhaps you’ve just picked up this
book in the library or from a bookstore
shelf and are wondering what this
amateur radio business is all about.
Maybe you have a friend or relative who
is a “ham” and you’re interested in
becoming one, as well. In that case, a
short explanation is in order.
Amateur radio or “ham radio” is one
of the longest-lived wireless activities.
Amateur experimenters were operating
right along with Marconi in the early
part of the 20th century. They have
helped advance the state-of-the-art in
radio, television and dozens of other
communications services since then,
right up to the present day. There are
more than 700,000 amateur radio
operators or “hams” in the United States
alone and several million more around
the world!
Amateur radio in the United States is
a formal communications service,
administered by the Federal
Communications Commission or FCC.
Created officially in its present form in
1934, the amateur Service is intended to
foster electronics and radio
experimentation, provide emergency
backup communications, encourage
private citizens to train and practice
operating, and even spread the goodwill
of person-to-person contact over the
airwaves.
Who Is a Ham and What Do Hams
Do?
Anyone can be a ham — there are no
age limits or physical requirements that
prevent anyone from passing their
license exam and getting on the air. Kids
as young as 6 years old have passed the
basic exam, and there are hams out there
over the age of 100. You probably fall
somewhere in the middle of that range.
Once you get on the air and start
meeting other hams, you’ll find a wide
range of capabilities and interests. Of
course, there are many technically
skilled hams who work as engineers,
scientists or technicians. But just as
many don’t have a deep technical
background. You’re just as likely to
encounter writers, public safety
personnel, students, farmers, truck
drivers — anyone with an interest in
personal communications over the radio.
The activities of amateur radio are
incredibly varied. Amateurs who hold
the Technician class license — the usual
first license for hams in the US —
communicate primarily with local and
regional amateurs using relay stations
called repeaters. Known as “Techs,”
they sharpen their skills of operating
while portable and mobile, often joining
emergency communications teams. They
may instead focus on the burgeoning
wireless data networks assembled and
used by hams around the world. Techs
can make use of the growing number of
amateur radio satellites, built and
launched by hams along with the
commercial “birds.” Technicians
transmit their own television signals,
push the limits of signal propagation
through the atmosphere and experiment
with microwaves. Hams hold most of the
world records for long-distance
communication on microwave
frequencies, in fact!
Hams who advance or upgrade to
General and then to Extra class are
granted additional privileges with each
step to use the frequencies usually
associated with shortwave operation.
This is the traditional amateur radio you
probably encountered in movies or
books. On these frequencies, signals can
travel worldwide and so amateurs can
make direct contact with foreign hams.
No internet, phone systems, or data
networks are required. It’s just you, your
radio, and the ionosphere — the upper
layers of the Earth’s atmosphere!
Many hams use voice, Morse code,
computer data modes and even image
transmissions to communicate. All of
these signals are mixed together where
hams operate, making the experience of
tuning a radio receiver through the
crowded bands an interesting
experience.
One thing common to all hams is that
all of their operation is noncommercial,
especially the volunteers who provide
emergency communications. Hams
pursue their hobby purely for personal
enjoyment and to advance their skills,
taking satisfaction from providing
services to their fellow citizens. This is
especially valuable after natural
disasters such as hurricanes and
earthquakes when commercial systems
are knocked out for a while. Amateur
operators rush in to provide backup
communication for hours, days, weeks or
even months until the regular systems are
restored. All this from a little study and
a simple exam!
Want to Find Out More?
If you’d like to find out more about
amateur radio in general, there is lots of
information available on the internet. A
good place to start is on the American
Radio Relay League’s (ARRL) ham
radio introduction page at
www.arrl.org/what-is-ham-radio.
Books like Ham Radio for Dummies
will help you fill in the blanks as you
learn more.
Along with books and internet pages,
there is no better way to learn about ham
radio than to meet your local amateur
operators. It is quite likely that no matter
where you live in the United States,
there is a ham radio club in your area —
perhaps several! The ARRL provides a
club lookup web page at
www.arrl.org/find-a-club where you
can find a club just by entering your Zip
code or state. Carrying on the tradition
of mutual assistance, many clubs make
helping newcomers to ham radio a part
of their charter.
If this sounds like hams are confident
that you’ll find their activities
interesting, you’re right! Amateur radio
is much more than just talking on a radio,
as you’ll find out. It’s an opportunity to
dive into the fascinating world of radio
communications, electronics, and
computers as deeply as you wish to go.
Welcome!
When to Expect
New Books
A Question Pool Committee (QPC)
consisting of representatives from the
various Volunteer Examiner
Coordinators (VECs) prepares the
license question pools. The QPC
establishes a schedule for revising and
implementing new question pools. The
current question pool revision schedule
is as follows:
As new question pools are released,
ARRL will produce new study materials
before the effective date of the new
pools. Until then, the current question
pools will remain in use, and current
ARRL study materials, including this
book, will help you prepare for your
exam.
As the new question pool schedules
are confirmed, the information will be
published in QST and on the ARRL
website at www.arrl.org.
Online Review and
Practice Exams
Use this book with the ARRL Exam
Review for Ham Radio to review
material you are learning chapter-by-
chapter. Take randomly generated
practice exams using questions from the
actual examination question pool. You
won’t have any surprises on exam day!
Go to www.arrl.org/examreview.
About the ARRL
The seed for amateur radio was
planted in the 1890s, when Guglielmo
Marconi began his experiments in
wireless telegraphy. Soon he was joined
by dozens, then hundreds, of others who
were enthusiastic about sending and
receiving messages through the air —
some with a commercial interest, but
others solely out of a love for this new
communications medium. The United
States government began licensing
amateur radio operators in 1912.
By 1914, there were thousands of
amateur radio operators — hams — in
the United States. Hiram Percy Maxim, a
leading Hartford, Connecticut inventor
and industrialist, saw the need for an
organization to unify this fledgling group
of radio experimenters. In May 1914, he
founded the American Radio Relay
League (ARRL) to meet that need.
ARRL is the national association for
amateur radio in the US. Today, with
approximately 150,000 members, ARRL
numbers within its ranks the vast
majority of active radio amateurs in the
nation and has a proud history of
achievement as the standard-bearer in
amateur affairs. ARRL’s underpinnings
as amateur radio’s witness, partner, and
forum are defined by five pillars: Public
Service, Advocacy, Education,
Technology, and Membership. ARRL is
also International Secretariat for the
International Amateur Radio Union,
which is made up of similar societies in
150 countries around the world.
ARRL’s Mission Statement: To
advance the art, science, and enjoyment
of amateur radio.
ARRL’s Vision Statement: As the
national association for amateur radio in
the United States, ARRL:
• Supports the awareness and growth
of amateur radio worldwide;
• Advocates for meaningful access to
radio spectrum;
• Strives for every member to get
involved, get active, and get on the air;
• Encourages radio experimentation
and, through its members, advances
radio technology and education;
and
• Organizes and trains volunteers to
serve their communities by providing
public service and emergency
communications.
At ARRL Headquarters in Newington
Connecticut, the staff helps serve the
needs of members. ARRL publishes the
monthly journal QST, and the bimonthly
magazine On the Air, including
interactive digital versions of both, as
well as newsletters and many
publications covering all aspects of
amateur radio. Its Headquarters station,
W1AW, transmits bulletins of interest to
radio amateurs and Morse code practice
sessions. ARRL also coordinates an
extensive field organization, which
includes volunteers who provide
technical information and other support
services as well as communications for
public service activities. In addition,
ARRL represents US radio amateurs to
the Federal Communications
Commission and other government
agencies in the US and abroad.
Membership in ARRL means more
than receiving QST each month. In
addition to the services already
described, ARRL offers membership
services on a personal level, such as the
Technical Information Service, where
members can get answers — by phone,
email, or the ARRL website — to all
their technical and operating questions.
A bona fide interest in amateur radio
is the only essential qualification of
membership; an amateur radio license is
not a prerequisite, although full voting
membership is granted only to licensed
radio amateurs in the US. Full ARRL
membership gives you a voice in how
the affairs of the organization are
governed. ARRL policy is set by a
Board of Directors (one from each of 15
Divisions). Each year, one-third of the
ARRL Board of Directors stands for
election by the full members they
represent. The day-to-day operation of
ARRL HQ is managed by a Chief
Executive Officer and his/her staff.
Join ARRL Today! No matter what
aspect of amateur radio attracts you,
ARRL membership is relevant and
important. There would be no amateur
radio as we know it today were it not for
ARRL. We would be happy to welcome
you as a member! Join online at
www.arrl.org/join. For more
information about ARRL and answers to
any questions you may have about
amateur radio, write or call:
ARRL — The national
association for Amateur
Radio®
225 Main Street
Newington, CT 06111-
1494
Tel: 860-594-0200
FAX: 860-594-0259
email: hq@arrl.org
www.arrl.org
Prospective new radio
amateurs call (toll-free):
800-32-NEW HAM (800-
326-3942)
You can also contact ARRL
via email at
newham@arrl.org
or check out the ARRL
website at www.arrl.org
In this chapter, you’ll learn about:
• Added frequencies and activities
enjoyed by Extra licensees
• Reasons to upgrade from General
or Advanced
• Requirements and study materials
for the Extra exam
• How to prepare for your exam
• How to find an exam session
• Where to find helpful resources
ADVANCED STUDENTS
If you have some background in radio,
perhaps as a communications tech or
radio operator, you may be able to short-
circuit some of the sections. To find out,
locate the shaded boxes in the text listing
the exam questions for each topic. Turn
to the Question Pool and if you can
answer the questions correctly, move to
the next topic in the text. It’s common for
technically-minded students to need help
with the rules and regulations, while
students with an operating background
tend to need more help with the technical
material. Regardless of your previous
knowledge and experience, be sure that
you can answer the questions because
they will certainly be on the test!
SELF-STUDY OR CLASSROOM
STUDENTS
The ARRL Extra Class License
Manual can be used either by an
individual student studying on his or her
own, or as part of a licensing class
taught by an instructor. If you’re part of a
class, the instructor will guide you
through the book, section by section. The
solo student can move at any pace and in
any convenient order. You’ll find that
having a friend to study with makes
learning the material more fun as you
help each other over the rough spots.
Don’t hesitate to ask for help! Your
instructor can provide information on
anything you find difficult. Classroom
students may find asking their fellow
students to be helpful. If you’re studying
on your own, there are resources for
you, too! If you can’t find the answer in
the book or at the website, e-mail your
question to the ARRL’s New Ham Desk,
newham@arrl.org. You may not be a
new ham, but your question will be
routed to the appropriate person. The
ARRL’s experts will answer directly or
connect you with another ham who can
answer your questions.
FOR INSTRUCTORS
If you’re an instructor, note that this
edition of the study guide has the same
organization as the previous edition.
Topics are presented in a sequence
intended to be easier for the student to
learn. For example, the section on Radio
Signals and Equipment comes after the
Components and Circuits section.
Because the Extra class exam topics are
more sophisticated than for General
class, it’s more important to develop the
context and background for each topic.
Want More Information?
Looking for more information about Extra
class instruction in your area? Are you ready
to take the Extra class exam? Do you need a
list of ham radio clubs, instructors or
examiners in your local area? The following
web pages are very helpful in finding the local
resources you need to successfully pass your
Extra class exam:
• www.arrl.org — the ARRL’s home page,
it features news and links to other ARRL
resources
• www.arrl.org/extra-class-license-
manual — the website that supports this
book
• www.arrl.org/find-a-club — a search
page to find ARRL-Affiliated clubs
• www.arrl.org/exam — the ARRL VEC
exam session search page
• www.arrl.org/technical-information-
service — the ARRL’s Technical Information
Service is an excellent resource
SUBELEMENT E1 —
COMMISSION’S RULES
[6 Exam Questions — 6 Groups] 75
Questions
E1A — Operating Standards:
frequency privileges; automatic
message forwarding; stations
aboard ships or aircraft; power
restriction on 630 and 2200 meter
bands
E1B — Station restrictions and special
operations: restrictions on station
location; general operating
restrictions; spurious emissions;
antenna structure restrictions;
RACES operations
E1C — Definitions and restrictions
pertaining to local, automatic and
remote control operation; IARP
and CEPT licenses; emission and
bandwidth standards
E1D — Amateur space and Earth
stations; telemetry and
telecommand rules; identification
of balloon transmissions; one-way
communications
E1E — Volunteer examiner program:
definitions; qualifications;
preparation and administration of
exams; accreditation; question
pools; documentation requirements
E1F — Miscellaneous rules: external
RF power amplifiers; prohibited
communications; spread spectrum;
auxiliary stations; Canadian
amateurs operating in the U.S.;
special temporary authority;
control operator of an auxiliary
station
SUBELEMENT E2 — OPERATING
PROCEDURES
[5 Exam Questions — 5 Groups] 61
Questions
E2A — Amateur radio in space:
amateur satellites; orbital
mechanics; frequencies and modes;
satellite hardware; satellite
operations
E2B — Television practices: fast scan
television standards and
techniques; slow scan television
standards and techniques
E2C — Operating methods: contest and
DX operating; remote operation
techniques; Cabrillo format;
QSLing; RF network connected
systems
E2D — Operating methods: VHF and
UHF digital modes and
procedures; APRS; EME
procedures; meteor scatter
procedures
E2E — Operating methods: operating
HF digital modes
SUBELEMENT E3 — RADIO
WAVE PROPAGATION
[3 Exam Questions — 3 Groups] 40
Questions
E3A — Electromagnetic waves; Earth-
Moon-Earth communications;
meteor scatter; microwave
tropospheric and scatter
propagation; aurora propagation;
ionospheric propagation changes
over the day; circular polarization
E3B — Transequatorial propagation;
long-path; ssordinary and
extraordinary waves; chordal hop;
sporadic E mechanisms
E3C — Radio horizon; ground wave;
propagation prediction techniques
and modeling; effects of space
weather parameters on
propagation
SUBELEMENT E4 — AMATEUR
PRACTICES
[5 Exam Questions — 5 Groups] 60
Questions
E4A — Test equipment: analog and
digital instruments; spectrum
analyzers; antenna analyzers;
oscilloscopes; RF measurements;
computer-aided measurements
E4B — Measurement technique and
limitations: instrument accuracy
and performance limitations;
probes; techniques to minimize
errors; measurement of Q;
instrument calibration; S
parameters; vector network
analyzers
E4C — Receiver performance
characteristics: phase noise, noise
floor, image rejection, MDS,
signal-to-noise ratio, noise figure,
reciprocal mixing; selectivity;
effects of SDR receiver non-
linearity; use of attenuators at low
frequencies
E4D — Receiver performance
characteristics: blocking dynamic
range; intermodulation and cross-
modulation interference; third-
order intercept; desensitization;
preselector
E4E — Noise suppression and
interference: system noise;
electrical appliance noise; line
noise; locating noise sources; DSP
noise reduction; noise blankers;
grounding for signals; common
mode currents
SUBELEMENT E5 —
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
[4 Exam Questions — 4 Groups] 55
Questions
E5A — Resonance and Q:
characteristics of resonant circuits:
series and parallel resonance;
definitions and effects of Q; half-
power bandwidth; phase
relationships in reactive circuits
E5B — Time constants and phase
relationships: RL and RC time
constants; phase angle in reactive
circuits and components;
admittance and susceptance
E5C — Coordinate systems and
phasors in electronics: rectangular
coordinates; polar coordinates;
phasors
E5D — AC and RF energy in real
circuits: skin effect;
electromagnetic fields; reactive
power; power factor; electrical
length of conductors at UHF and
microwave frequencies; microstrip
SUBELEMENT E6 — CIRCUIT
COMPONENTS
[6 Exam Questions — 6 Groups] 70
Questions
E6A — Semiconductor materials and
devices: semiconductor materials;
germanium, silicon, P-type, N-
type; transistor types: NPN, PNP,
junction, field-effect transistors:
enhancement mode; depletion
mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel;
P-channel
E6B — Diodes
E6C — Digital ICs: Families of digital
ICs; gates; Programmable Logic
Devices (PLDs)
E6D — Toroidal and Solenoidal
Inductors: permeability, core
material, selecting, winding;
transformers; piezoelectric
devices
E6E — Analog ICs: MMICs, IC
packaging characteristics
E6F — Electro-optical technology:
photoconductivity; photovoltaic
devices; optical sensors and
encoders; optical isolation
SUBELEMENT E7 — PRACTICAL
CIRCUITS
[8 Exam Questions — 8 Groups] 108
Questions
E7A — Digital circuits: digital circuit
principles and logic circuits;
classes of logic elements; positive
and negative logic; frequency
dividers; truth tables
E7B — Amplifiers: Class of operation;
vacuum tube and solid-state
circuits; distortion and
intermodulation; spurious and
parasitic suppression; microwave
amplifiers; switching-type
amplifiers
E7C — Filters and matching networks:
types of networks; types of filters;
filter applications; filter
characteristics; impedance
matching; DSP filtering
E7D — Power supplies and voltage
regulators; Solar array charge
controllers
E7E — Modulation and demodulation:
reactance, phase and balanced
modulators; detectors; mixer
stages
E7F — DSP filtering and other
operations; software defined radio
fundamentals; DSP modulation and
demodulation
E7G — Active filters and op-amp
circuits: active audio filters;
characteristics; basic circuit
design; operational amplifiers
E7H — Oscillators and signal sources:
types of oscillators; synthesizers
and phase-locked loops; direct
digital synthesizers; stabilizing
thermal drift; microphonics; high-
accuracy oscillators
SUBELEMENT E8 — SIGNALS
AND EMISSIONS
[4 Exam Questions — 4 Groups] 45
Questions
E8A — AC waveforms: sine, square,
and irregular waveforms; AC
measurements; average power and
PEP of RF signals; Fourier
analysis; analog to digital
conversion: digital to analog
conversion; advantages of digital
communications
E8B — Modulation and demodulation:
modulation methods; modulation
index and deviation ratio;
frequency and time division
multiplexing; Orthogonal
Frequency Division Multiplexing
E8C — Digital signals: digital
communication modes; information
rate vs. bandwidth; error
correction
E8D — Keying defects and
overmodulation of digital signals;
digital codes; spread spectrum
SUBELEMENT E9 — ANTENNAS
AND TRANSMISSION LINES
[8 Exam Questions — 8 Groups] 96
Questions
E9A — Basic Antenna parameters:
radiation resistance, gain,
beamwidth, efficiency; effective
radiated power
E9B — Antenna patterns and designs:
E and H plane patterns; gain as a
function of pattern; antenna
modeling
E9C — Practical wire antennas; folded
dipoles; phased arrays; effects of
ground near antennas
E9D — Yagi antennas; parabolic
reflectors; circular polarization;
loading coils; top loading; feed
point impedance of electrically
short antennas; antenna Q; RF
grounding
E9E — Matching: matching antennas to
feed lines; phasing lines; power
dividers
E9F — Transmission lines:
characteristics of open and shorted
feed lines; coax versus open-wire;
velocity factor; electrical length;
coaxial cable dielectrics
E9G — The Smith chart
E9H — Receiving Antennas: radio
direction finding antennas;
Beverage antennas; specialized
receiving antennas; long-wire
receiving antennas
SUBELEMENT E0 — SAFETY
[1 exam question — 1 group] 11
Questions
E0A — Safety: RF radiation hazards;
hazardous materials; grounding
In this chapter, you’ll learn about:
• Frequencies available to Extra
class licensees
• DX and contest operating
• Using a remote station
• Satellite orbits and signals
• Satellite transponders, frequencies
and modes
DXING
E2C05 — What is the function of a
DX QSL Manager?
E2C08 — Which of the following
contacts may be confirmed
through the U.S. QSL
bureau system?
E2C10 — Why might a DX station
state that they are listening
on another frequency?
E2C11 — How should you generally
identify your station when
attempting to contact a DX
station during a contest or in
a pileup?
Pileup Productivity
You’ve tuned across a bunch of stations
giving their call signs repeatedly. If there
is a pause after a station gives his call
and a signal report, then many stations
call, you’ve almost certainly found a DX
pileup! Listen for someone giving the
DX station’s call during a contact, such
as “T77C from W1JR, you’re five-nine”
on phone or “T77C DE W1JR 5NN” on
CW. While the temptation is great to
jump in there and call, don’t! You have
to be able to hear the DX station before
you start calling. Otherwise, you are just
causing QRM.
If all of the stations are on one
frequency or close to one frequency, the
DX station is probably working simplex.
If the stations are spread out over a few
kilohertz, the DX station is probably
working split. Look for the DX station
down a few kilohertz or more if the DX
station is operating on a frequency
unavailable to you, perhaps outside the
US band entirely. This practice
separates the signals of the calling
stations from the DX station, reducing
interference and improving efficiency.
[E2C10]
Listen to the stations that get through —
how are they operating? Are they from
your area? Is the DX station staying on
one frequency or tuning around for
callers? Follow that pattern. In general,
give your full call sign once or twice
(using standard phonetics on phone),
then pause to listen for the DX station.
[E2C11] Remember that a little bit of
listening will pay big dividends — if
you are transmitting you can’t be
listening!
DXing Propagation
The DXer soon learns the truth of the
old adage, “You can’t work ’em if you
can’t hear ’em!” That makes
understanding propagation crucial to
DXing success. During the years that this
edition of the Extra Class License
Manual is in print (2020 to 2024), the
sun will begin its next sunspot cycle.
This will be a period of rapid changes in
HF conditions, shifting the DXer’s
attention to the higher-frequency bands.
Regardless, it’s important to understand
the basic variations of long-distance
propagation that occur hour-to-hour,
day-to-day, and season-to-season.
You can maximize your operating
enjoyment by paying attention to band
conditions. This will help you decide
when to change bands or look for signals
from different regions. It is especially
important to notice openings and change
bands during a period of low sunspot
activity because the higher-frequency
bands may close entirely after dark, with
no DX stations to be heard.
For information about solar conditions,
visit websites such as
www.spaceweather.com,
www.swpc.noaa.gov/communities/radio-
communications, and www.hfradio.org.
You will quickly learn what to watch for
as ionospheric and solar conditions
change. By listening to worldwide on-
the-air beacons, such as those that are
part of the International Beacon Project
sponsored by Northern California DX
Foundation and International Amateur
Radio Union (www.ncdxf.org), you can
correlate your expectations with actual
behavior. The Reverse Beacon Network
(www.reversebeacon.net) and websites
such as DX Maps (www.dxmaps.com)
can show you what’s happening in real
time!
Subscribe to ARRL propagation
bulletins via your member information
web page and read the columns on
propagation in magazines and on
websites. Supplement your tuning with
DX spotting information from around the
world to give you an idea about
propagation in other areas.
Use propagation prediction software,
but remember it is statistical in nature
and actual conditions may vary
dramatically from the predictions. The
software is only as good as its models of
the Earth’s geomagnetic field, so it may
not predict unusual openings.
CONTESTING
E2C02 — Which of the following best
describes the term “self-
spotting” in connection with
HF contest operating?
E2C03 — From which of the following
bands is amateur radio
contesting generally
excluded?
E2C06 — During a VHF/UHF contest,
in which band segment would
you expect to find the
highest level of SSB or CW
activity?
E2C07 — What is the Cabrillo
format?
REMOTE STATIONS
E2C01 — What indicator is required
to be used by U.S.-licensed
operators when operating a
station via remote control
and the remote transmitter
is located in the U.S.?
UNDERSTANDING SATELLITE
ORBITS
E2A01 — What is the direction of an
ascending pass for an
amateur satellite?
E2A06 — What are Keplerian
elements?
E2A10 — What type of satellite
appears to stay in one
position in the sky?
E2A11 — What type of antenna can
be used to minimize the
effects of spin modulation
and Faraday rotation?
Orbital Definitions
Inclination is the angle of a satellite
orbit with respect to Earth. Inclination is
measured between the plane of the orbit
and the plane of the equator (Figure
2.5). If a satellite is always over the
equator as it travels through its orbit, the
orbit has an inclination of 0 degrees. If
the orbit path takes the satellite over the
poles, the inclination is 90 degrees. (If it
goes over one pole, it will go over the
other.) The inclination angle is always
measured from the equator
counterclockwise to the satellite path.
Figure 2.6 gives some examples of
orbits with different inclinations.
A node is the point where a satellite’s
orbit crosses the equator. The
ascending node is the point where the
orbit crosses the equator when the
satellite is traveling from south to north.
Inclination is specified at the ascending
node. Equator crossing (EQX) is
usually specified in time (UTC) of
crossing and in degrees west longitude.
The descending node is the point where
the orbit crosses the equator traveling
from north to south. When the satellite is
within range of your location, it is
common to describe the pass as either an
ascending pass (traveling south to north
over your area) or a descending pass
(traveling north to south). [E2A01]
The point of greatest height in a
satellite orbit is called the apogee as
shown in Figure 2.7. Perigee is the
point of least height. Half the distance
between the apogee and perigee is equal
to the semimajor axis of the satellite
orbit.
Faraday Rotation and Spin Modulation
The polarization of a radio signal
passing through the ionosphere does not
remain constant. A “horizontally
polarized” signal leaving a satellite will
not be horizontally polarized when it
reaches Earth. The signal will seem to
be changing polarization at a receiving
station. This effect is called Faraday
rotation and it is caused by the effect of
the ionosphere on the signal passing
through it. The best way to deal with
Faraday rotation is to use circularly
polarized antennas for transmitting and
receiving.
Satellites are often stabilized by being
spun like a gyroscope around an axis.
This stabilizes the satellite and keeps it
oriented in the same direction as it
travels around the Earth. When the
spacecraft’s spin axis is not pointed
directly at your ground station, you are
likely to experience amplitude changes
and possibly polarization changes
resulting from the spacecraft rotation.
This effect is called spin modulation.
Using linear antennas (horizontal or
vertical polarization) will deepen the
spin-modulation fades to a point where
they may become annoying. Circularly
polarized antennas will minimize the
effect, just as they do for Faraday
rotation. [E2A11]
SATELLITE OPERATION
E2A02 — Which of the following
occurs when a satellite is
using an inverting linear
transponder?
E2A03 — How is the signal inverted
by an inverting linear
transponder?
E2A04 — What is meant by the term
“mode” as applied to an
amateur radio satellite?
E2A05 — What do the letters in a
satellite’s mode designator
specify?
E2A07 — Which of the following
types of signals can be
relayed through a linear
transponder?
E2A08 — Why should effective
radiated power to a satellite
that uses a linear
transponder be limited?
E2A09 — What do the terms “L
band” and “S band” specify
regarding satellite
communications?
E2A12 — What is the purpose of
digital store-and-forward
functions on an amateur
radio satellite?
E2A13 — Which of the following
techniques is normally used
by low Earth orbiting digital
satellites to relay messages
around the world?
Repeaters
A satellite-borne repeater operates in
the same way as a terrestrial repeater. It
receives FM voice signals on a single
frequency or channel and retransmits
what it receives on another channel.
Satellite repeaters typically operate with
their input and output frequencies on
different bands (called a cross-band
repeater) to allow them to dispense with
the heavy and bulky cavity duplexers
required for same-band operation.
Otherwise, accessing a satellite repeater
is just the same as a terrestrial repeater.
With some satellites, you can even use
low power, handheld transceivers with
small beam antennas to make contacts.
(See the AMSAT website for
operational status and new satellites.)
Transponders
By convention, transponder is the
name given to any linear translator that
is installed in a satellite. In contrast to a
repeater, a transponder’s receive
passband includes enough spectrum for
many channels. An amateur satellite
transponder does not use channels in the
way that voice repeaters do. Received
signals from an entire segment of a band
are amplified, shifted to a new frequency
range by a mixer and retransmitted by
the transponder. See Figure 2.8.
PACSATs
Packet radio store-and-forward
systems in space, called PACSATs,
provide an interesting mix of satellites
and packet-radio technology. (See the
Modulation, Protocols and Modes
chapter for more about packet radio.)
These small satellites function as packet
bulletin board store-and-forward
systems. A terrestrial station can send a
message through a PACSAT by
uploading it to the satellite for another
station to download when the satellite is
in view. [E2A12, E2A13] The most
widely used store-and-forward satellite
is the packet system on-board the
International Space Station. Other short-
lived “CubeSats” often provide
temporary digital capabilities on an
experimental basis. (See the “Satellite
Status” page at www.amsat.org for
more information on these satellites.)
3.1 Operating
Standards
E1A01 — Which of the following
carrier frequencies is illegal
for LSB AFSK emissions on
the 17 meter band RTTY and
data segment of 18.068 to
18.110 MHz?
E1A02 — When using a transceiver
that displays the carrier
frequency of phone signals,
which of the following
displayed frequencies
represents the lowest
frequency at which a
properly adjusted LSB
emission will be totally
within the band?
E1A03 — What is the maximum legal
carrier frequency on the 20
meter band for transmitting
USB AFSK digital signals
having a 1 kHz bandwidth?
E1A04 — With your transceiver
displaying the carrier
frequency of phone signals,
you hear a DX station calling
CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it
legal to return the call using
lower sideband on the same
frequency?
E1A05 — What is the maximum
power output permitted on
the 60 meter band?
E1A06 — Where must the carrier
frequency of a CW signal be
set to comply with FCC rules
for 60 meter operation?
E1A07 — What is the maximum
power permitted on the 2200
meter band?
E1A14 — Except in some parts of
Alaska, what is the
maximum power permitted
on the 630 meter band?
E1C01 — What is the maximum
bandwidth for a data
emission on 60 meters?
E1C07 — At what level below a
signal’s mean power level is
its bandwidth determined
according to FCC rules?
E1C12 — On what portion of the 630
meter band are phone
emissions permitted?
E1C13 — What notifications must be
given before transmitting on
the 630 meter or 2200 meter
bands?
E1C14 — How long must an operator
wait after filing a
notification with the Utilities
Technology Council (UTC)
before operating on the 2200
meter or 630 meter band?
Special Restrictions
While most amateur bands are divided
into Phone and CW/Data segments and
have no other special restrictions on
operating privileges, two bands are
exceptions.
Amateurs may only transmit CW and
data signals on the 30 meter band and
are limited to 200 W output power —
phone and image signals are not
allowed.
Operation on the 60 meter band is
restricted to certain channels and
emission types [E1A05, E1A06,
E1C01]:
• Amateurs may only use five 2.8 kHz-
wide channels centered on 5332, 5348,
5358.5, 5373, and 5405 kHz.
• USB (upper sideband) voice is the
only phone emission allowed. The
carrier must be located 1.5 kHz below
the center of the channel. This centers a
properly-adjusted USB signal on the
specified channel frequency.
• RTTY and data emissions are
permitted as USB signals centered on the
specified channel frequency (not just
anywhere within the channel) as
described above. The bandwidth of the
transmitted signal may not exceed 2.8
kHz.
• CW is permitted with the carrier
frequency set to the specified channel
center frequency.
• Output power is limited to 100 W
ERP (effective radiated power) relative
to a dipole.
• Automatic control of RTTY and data
emissions is not permitted.
These restrictions are necessary to
coexist with other government fixed
service stations. The 2015 World
Radiocommunication Conference
(WRC-15) in Geneva approved an
allocation of 5351.5 – 5366.5 kHz to the
Amateur Service on a secondary basis
with a power limit of 15 W EIRP
(equivalent isotropic radiated power —
see the Antennas and Feed Lines
chapter). As of early 2020, however, the
FCC has not yet adopted the
recommendations and made formal rules
to allow amateurs access to this new
band. Watch for announcements on the
ARRL website when the new rules take
effect.
On 630 meters, which is just below the
AM broadcast band, amateurs are
allowed a maximum power of 5 W
EIRP. The power limit is even lower, 1
W EIRP, on the only amateur radio LF
(low frequency) band, 2200 meters.
Both of these bands require special
attention to antenna system design and
operating techniques for making contacts
with low power. However, permitted
emissions, including phone, may be
transmitted anywhere in the band —
good luck! [E1A07, E1A14, E1C12]
In order to operate on the 630 and 2200
meter bands, you must be sure you will
not cause interference to power line
control (PLC) systems that also operate
in this frequency range. This requires
informing the Utilities Technology
Council (UTC) of your call sign and
station coordinates. If after 30 days of
notifying the UTC you have not received
a notice that you are within 1 km of a
PLC system, you may go ahead and
operate. [E1C13, E1C14]
RACES Operation
Any FCC-licensed amateur station may
be operated under RACES (Radio
Amateur Civil Emergency Service)
rules, but to participate they must be
certified by the responsible civil defense
organization for the area served.
[E1B09] RACES station operators do
not receive any additional operator
privileges because of their RACES
registration. For example, a Technician
class operator may only use Technician
frequencies when serving as the control
operator. Extra class operators must also
follow the operator privileges granted
by their license. In general, all amateur
frequencies are available to stations
participating in RACES operation.
[E1B10] RACES stations may
communicate with any RACES station as
well as certain other stations as
authorized by the responsible civil
defense official. The complete RACES
rules are covered in §97.407.
3.2 Station
Restrictions
E1B01 — Which of the following
constitutes a spurious
emission?
E1B03 — Within what distance must
an amateur station protect
an FCC monitoring facility
from harmful interference?
E1B04 — What must be done before
placing an amateur station
within an officially
designated wilderness area
or wildlife preserve, or an
area listed in the National
Register of Historic Places?
E1B06 — Which of the following
additional rules apply if you
are installing an amateur
station antenna at a site at
or near a public use airport?
E1B07 — To what type of regulations
does PRB-1 apply?
E1B08 — What limitations may the
FCC place on an amateur
station if its signal causes
interference to domestic
broadcast reception,
assuming that the receivers
involved are of good
engineering design?
E1B11 — What does PRB-1 require of
regulations affecting
amateur radio?
E1C10 — What is the permitted mean
power of any spurious
emission relative to the
mean power of the
fundamental emission from a
station transmitter or
external RF amplifier
installed after January 1,
2003 and transmitting on a
frequency below 30 MHz?
OPERATING RESTRICTIONS
Under certain conditions spelled out in
§97.121, the FCC may modify the terms
of your amateur station license. These
have to do with interference between a
properly operating amateur station and
users of other licensed services. Here’s
what §97.121(a) says about interference
to broadcast signals:
“If the operation of an amateur station
causes general interference to the
reception of transmissions from stations
operating in the domestic broadcast
service when receivers of good
engineering design, including adequate
selectivity characteristics, are used to
receive such transmissions, and this fact
is made known to the amateur station
licensee, the amateur station shall not be
operated during the hours from 8 p.m. to
10:30 p.m., local time, and on Sunday
for the additional period from 10:30
a.m. until 1 p.m., local time, upon the
frequency or frequencies used when the
interference is created.”
Where the interference from the
amateur station is causing a sufficient
amount of interference, the FCC can
impose limited quiet periods on the
amateur station on the frequencies that
cause interference. [E1B08] This is not
a blanket injunction against interference
to broadcast radio and TV signals. Note
that the receiver must be “of good
engineering design, including adequate
selectivity characteristics.” The majority
of broadcast receivers, manufactured
under stringent price constraints, omit
key interference-rejection features,
particularly filtering. The result is that
quiet periods are rarely imposed by the
FCC.
It is also required that the amateur
station be operating properly without
violating any rules, especially those
regarding spurious emissions. §97.3(a)
(42) defines a spurious emission as “an
emission, on frequencies outside the
necessary bandwidth of a transmission,
the level of which may be reduced
without affecting the information being
transmitted.” [E1B01] For stations
installed in 2003 or later, spurious
emissions must be at least 43 dB below
the mean power of the fundamental
signal. [E1C10] (See the previous
section for a discussion of how the FCC
defines signal bandwidth.)
It’s important to realize that nearly all
transmissions have some associated
spurious emissions. The amateur may be
unable to reduce the spurious emissions
to zero; a station operating completely
legally may still transmit very low level
spurious signals that are within the
regulatory limits.
Restrictions on Location
If the land on which your station is
located has environmental importance,
or is significant in American history,
architecture, or culture you may be
required to take action as described in
§97.13(a). For example, if your station
will be located within the boundaries of
an officially designated wilderness area,
wildlife preserve, or an area listed in
the National Register of Historic Places,
you may be required to submit an
Environmental Assessment to the FCC.
[E1B04]
If your station will be located within 1
mile of an FCC monitoring facility, you
must protect that facility from harmful
interference. [E1B03] If you do cause
interference to such a facility, the FCC
Engineer in Charge may impose
operating restrictions on your station.
Table 3.4 contains a list of these FCC
facilities that must be protected from
interference.
§97.13 — Restrictions on Station
Location
(a) Before placing an amateur station on
land of environmental importance or that is
significant in American history, architecture
or culture, the licensee may be required to
take certain actions prescribed by §§1.1305 –
1.1319 of this chapter.
(b) A station within 1600 m (1 mile) of an
FCC monitoring facility must protect that
facility from harmful interference. Failure to
do so could result in imposition of operating
restrictions upon the amateur station by a
District Director pursuant to §97.121 of this
Part. Geographical coordinates of the
facilities that require protection are listed in
§0.121(c) of this chapter.
LOCAL CONTROL
The FCC defines local control
[§97.3(a)(30)] as “the use of a control
operator who directly manipulates the
operating adjustments in the station to
achieve compliance with the FCC
Rules.” Local control is the classic form
of radio operation. If you are in your
station, turning the VFO knob and
pressing the PTT switch, that’s local
control. It doesn’t matter whether the
operator adjusts the equipment directly
by hand or uses a computer to make
changes or even uses a voice-activated
speech system.
REMOTE CONTROL
Operating a station by remote control
means that the control point is no longer
at the radio — it’s where the control
operator is. The control point is
wherever a control operator performs
the station's control functions.
If you’re not in direct contact with the
radio, but are managing to operate it by
means of some intermediary system,
that’s remote control. The intermediary
system that allows you to operate the
radio without being in direct contact
with it — that’s the control link.
Because it’s possible that the control
link could fail, you are expected to have
some control backup systems that will
keep the transmitter from being left on
the air. If the control link malfunctions,
§97.213 requires that backup control
equipment should limit continuous
transmissions to no more than three
minutes. [E1C08]
It’s important to be aware of the rules
for remote control because more and
more radio equipment is designed to
support remote control. Many amateurs
have constructed remote control stations
that allow them to operate from antenna-
restricted housing, for example. Another
common example of remotely-controlled
stations are the digital Winlink Express
stations (www.winlink.org) that wait for
a station to call them before responding.
The Winlink station is considered to be
remotely controlled by the calling
operator.
AUTOMATIC CONTROL
Does a human control operator have to
be present at the control point to
supervise every amateur transmission?
No — repeaters are a very good
example of stations operating under
automatic control with no control
operator present. Automatic control is
defined in §97.3(a)(6) as “the use of
devices and procedures for control of a
station when it is transmitting so that
compliance with the FCC Rules is
achieved without the control operator
being present at a control point.”
[E1C03] The FCC limits the frequencies
on which automatically-controlled
stations may operate to make sure the
amateur bands are used primarily by
human operators. Table 3.5 shows the
frequencies on which ground-based
stations may operate under automatic
control either as repeaters or as digital
stations.
Using Automatic Forwarding
Systems
More and more hams are building,
operating and using automated digital
message forwarding systems. These systems
require both a new on-the-air etiquette and a
careful attention to the rules to ensure that
the communication procedures and message
content comply with FCC rules. As an Extra
class licensee, you may become responsible
as a control operator for an automated station
or to lead a team using these systems. It’s
important that you understand and follow the
rules that keep these systems compatible with
amateur radio.
These systems use protocols to automate
the process of calling, connecting,
exchanging data, and disconnecting. The first
such amateur system was packet radio, using
the AX.25 protocol over VHF and UHF links.
These protocols do a good job of getting the
data from one station to another.
Unfortunately, the protocols aren’t built to
recognize signals from other modes that may
be operating on or near the same frequency.
This is a crucial difference between digital
and analog communications modes in which
the information is copied “by ear.” It is easy
for a human to recognize signals from other
modes, even signals that may not be on the
same frequency, just nearby. Digital systems
have not yet developed that capability. To an
HF digital protocol, CW or SSB voice signals
are just an interfering tone or noise. A station
using digital protocols is likely to react to
them as interference or ignore them as it
tries to connect with another digital station.
This often disrupts the analog
communications and is the reason why human
supervision of digital stations is so important,
particularly on HF where many modes share
the same limited band space.
One of the most common sources of
behavior-based conflict between modes is the
use of semi-automated digital systems on HF.
Amateurs have constructed “mailbox”
stations that wait silently on a published
frequency until called by another digital
station using the same protocol. The mailbox
station “will not transmit unless transmitted
to” and so does not cause interference to
signals from other modes. Unless, that is,
another digital station calls in, causing the
mailbox station to start the connection and
transfer process. That makes it important for
the operator of the calling station to listen
carefully for other signals on the frequency.
If the operator does not listen, this allows
the protocol controller to make the decisions
about when to transmit. This can and does
enable harmful interference to occur!
Another cause of interference is the “hidden
transmitter” problem caused by propagation
in which the calling station can’t hear the
other stations on frequency but the mailbox
station is heard by everyone. In this situation,
even a human operator will not hear the other
stations. Nevertheless, the best solution for
everyone is for operators of stations
attempting to connect to other digital stations
to listen by ear first whenever operating on
frequencies where other signals are likely to
be present. It is not enough to watch for a
BUSY light on a modem or controller — that
light may only signify the presence of
another recognizable digital signal.
Digital messages can also run afoul of
content regulations when they are generated
by non-amateurs. For example, it’s fine to
exchange e-mail messages about personal
topics but not about work or financial
matters. Remember that a non-ham sender is
probably unaware of the restrictions on
content with which amateurs must comply.
Third-party regulations and agreements also
apply — know the rules! Higher-speed digital
systems may even support direct Internet
access. Advertisements are commonplace on
many web pages but are not allowed in
amateur communications. For this reason
alone, web browsing via Amateur Radio is not
a good idea. It’s important to follow the rules
for our service even when they limit what we
can do compared to online activities from
home over non-amateur networks. It’s
important that Amateur Radio remain amateur
in fact as well as spirit!
TELEMETRY
Amateur radio can be used to conduct
experiments and make measurements.
For example, a satellite might record the
temperature, amount of solar radiation or
other measurements and then transmit
that information back to Earth. It is also
important for the satellite operators to
know the status of important parameters
such as the state of battery charge,
transmitter temperature, or other
spacecraft conditions. High-altitude
balloon-borne experiments and data
logging stations on buoys or in remote
sites also need to transmit similar
information back to a host station.
When transmitted, this information is
called telemetry, the general term for
any one-way transmission of
measurements to a receiver located at a
distance from the measuring instrument.
[E1D01] Telemetry transmissions can
include any kind of data but must include
the call sign of the transmitting station.
[E1D04]
3.4 Amateur-Satellite
Service
E1D02 — Which of the following may
transmit special codes
intended to obscure the
meaning of messages?
E1D03 — What is a space
telecommand station?
E1D07 — Which HF amateur bands
have frequencies authorized
for space stations?
E1D08 — Which VHF amateur bands
have frequencies authorized
for space stations?
E1D09 — Which UHF amateur bands
have frequencies authorized
for space stations?
E1D10 — Which amateur stations are
eligible to be telecommand
stations of space stations
(subject to the privileges of
the class of operator license
held by the control operator
of the station)?
E1D11 — Which amateur stations are
eligible to operate as Earth
stations?
SPACE TELECOMMAND
STATIONS
Since most space stations are not
operated by amateurs under local
control, amateurs must have some way to
control the various functions of the
satellite. A station that transmits
communications to a satellite to initiate,
modify, or terminate the various
functions of a space station is a space
telecommand operation. [E1D03]
Stations that transmit these command
communications are telecommand
stations. Any amateur station that is
designated by the space station licensee
may serve as a telecommand station.
§97.211 describes what telecommand
stations are and what they may do.
Obviously, sending telecommand
communications to a satellite should not
be something any amateur can do.
Unauthorized telecommand signals
would likely disrupt or even damage the
satellite. For this reason, the FCC
allows telecommand stations to use
special codes that are intended to
obscure the meaning of telecommand
messages. [E1D02] This is one of the
few times an amateur may intentionally
obscure the meaning of a message.
Otherwise, anyone who copied the
transmission could learn the control
codes for the satellite.
ACCREDITATION
When a VEC accredits a Volunteer
Examiner, it is certifying that the amateur
is qualified to perform all the duties of a
VE as required by §97.509 and §97.525.
The accreditation process is simply the
steps that each VEC takes to ensure their
VEs meet all the FCC requirements to
serve in the Volunteer Examiner
program. [E1E04] Each VEC has its
own accreditation process. A VEC has
the responsibility to refuse to accredit a
person as a VE if the VEC determines
that the person’s integrity or honesty
could compromise amateur license
exams.
The ARRL VEC coordinates exams in
all regions of the US, and would be
pleased to have you apply for
accreditation. You do not have to be an
ARRL member to serve as an ARRL VE.
In fact, one of the requirements of VECs
is that they not demand membership in
any organization as a prerequisite to
serving as a VE!
If you are at least 18 years of age and
hold at least a General class license, you
meet the basic FCC requirements to be a
VE. In addition, you must never have had
your amateur license suspended or
revoked. Figure 3.3 shows the
application form to become an ARRL
VE.
EXAM PREPARATION
Coordinating amateur exams involves a
bit more responsibility than simply
recruiting amateurs to administer the
exams. (§97.519 states the requirements
for coordinating an exam session.) A
VEC coordinates the preparation and
administration of exams. Some VECs
actually prepare the exams and provide
their examiners with the necessary test
forms, while others require their VEs to
prepare their own exams or purchase
exams from a qualified supplier. After
the test is completed, the VEC must
collect the application documents
(NCVEC Form 605) and test results.
After reviewing the materials to ensure
accuracy, the VEC must forward the
documentation to the FCC for applicants
that qualify for a new license or a
license upgrade.
All of the VECs must cooperate in the
development and maintenance of the
questions used on the exams. (§97.523)
The set of all the questions available to
be asked on an exam is called the
question pool. [E1E02] A Question
Pool Committee (QPC) works regularly
to update the questions for each exam
element. Exams are made up of
questions selected from the question
pool.
Volunteer Examiners may prepare
written exams for all classes of amateur
radio operator license. Section 97.507
of the FCC rules gives detailed
instructions about who may prepare the
various examination elements. You must
hold a General, Advanced, or Amateur
Extra license to prepare an Element 2
written exam for the Technician class
license. Only Advanced and Amateur
Extra licensees may prepare the Element
3 exam (General) and you must hold an
Amateur Extra license to prepare an
Element 4 exam (Amateur Extra).
If the VEC or a qualified supplier
prepares the exams, they must still use
amateurs with the proper license class to
prepare the exams. In every case, the
exams are prepared by selecting
questions from the appropriate question
pool.
EXAM SESSION
ADMINISTRATION
Extra class exams must be
administered by VEs holding Extra class
licenses. To administer a General exam,
you must hold an Advanced or Amateur
Extra license. To administer a
Technician license exam, you must hold
a General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra
license. VEs are prohibited from
administering exams to close relatives
as defined by the FCC. [E1E08] The
requirements for VEs administering an
exam are stated in §97.509.
Before actually beginning to administer
an examination, the VEs should
determine what exam credit, if any, the
candidates should be given as described
in §97.505. For example, any candidates
who already hold an amateur operator
license must receive credit for having
passed all of the exam elements
necessary for that class of license. In
addition, any candidate who presents a
valid Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE)
must be given credit for each exam
element that the CSCE indicates the
examinee has passed. The combination
of element credits and exam elements
passed at the current exam session will
determine if a candidate qualifies for a
higher class of license.
As a voluntary service, VEs and VECs
may not charge a fee to administer exams
or receive any type of payment for the
services they provide. Neither the VEC
nor the VEs should have to bear the
costs of administering exams out of their
own pockets, however. FCC rule
§97.527 provides a means for those
being examined to reimburse the VEs
and VEC for certain costs involved with
the program. These costs include actual
out-of-pocket expenses involved with
preparing, processing, and administering
license exams. [E1E01]
During the Exam
All three VEs are responsible for
supervising the exam session and must
be present during the entire exam
session, observing the candidates to
ensure that the session is conducted
properly. [E1E06]
During the exam session, the
candidates must follow all instructions
given by the Volunteer Examiners. If any
candidate fails to comply with a VE’s
instructions during an exam, the VE team
should immediately terminate that
candidate’s exam. [E1E07]
When the candidates have completed
their exams, the VEs must collect the test
papers and grade them immediately. A
score of 74% is the minimum to pass the
exam. [E1E05] They then notify the
candidates whether they passed or failed
the exam. If any candidates did not pass
all the exam elements needed to
complete their license upgrade, then the
examiners must return their applications
to those candidates and inform them of
the grades. [E1E12]
After grading the exams of those
candidates who do pass the exam, the
entire VE team must certify their
qualifications for new licenses and that
they have complied with the VE
requirements on their application forms
and issue each a CSCE (Figure 3.4) for
their upgrade. [E1E11]
Maintaining control of the exam
session and conducting it properly is key
to the success of the amateur VE
program. If the FCC determines that a
VE has fraudulently administered or
certified an exam, that VE can lose their
amateur station license and have their
operator privileges suspended. [E1E09]
Such problems are extremely rare
because of the high integrity of the
amateur volunteer licensing program.
3.6 Miscellaneous
Rules
The following sections cover topics of
narrow interest. As an Extra class
licensee, you’ll be expected to know
about lesser-visited areas of the FCC
rules and have a more complete
knowledge of important rules.
AUXILIARY STATIONS
E1F10 — Who may be the control
operator of an auxiliary
station?
70 CM BAND RESTRICTIONS
E1B12 — What must the control
operator of a repeater
operating in the 70 cm band
do if a radiolocation system
experiences interference
from that repeater?
E1F04 — Which of the following
geographic descriptions
approximately describes
“Line A”?
E1F05 — Amateur stations may not
transmit in which of the
following frequency
segments if they are located
in the contiguous 48 states
and north of Line A?
NON-US OPERATING
AGREEMENTS
E1C04 — What is meant by IARP?
E1C06 — Which of the following is
required in order to operate
in accordance with CEPT
rules in foreign countries
where permitted?
E1C11 — Which of the following
operating arrangements
allows an FCC-licensed U.S.
citizen to operate in many
European countries, and
alien amateurs from many
European countries to
operate in the U.S.?
E1F02 — What privileges are
authorized in the U.S. to
persons holding an amateur
service license granted by
the government of Canada?
SPECIAL TEMPORARY
AUTHORITY
E1F06 — Under what circumstances
might the FCC issue a
Special Temporary Authority
(STA) to an amateur
station?
COMPLEX COORDINATES
So far in your radio career, you’ve
dealt exclusively with real numbers
such as π (pi), 5 Ω, 2.5 mH, or 53.2
MHz. In solving equations that describe
phase and angles, however, you will
encounter numbers that contain the
is represented as j in
electronics. For example, 2j, 0.1j, 7j/4,
and 457.6j are all imaginary numbers.
(Mathematicians use i for the same
purpose, but i is used to represent
current in electronics.) j also has another
interesting property that you’ll use: 1/j =
–j. Imaginary numbers are used when
describing phase, rotation, or
waveforms that change with time.
Real and imaginary numbers can be
combined by using addition or
subtraction. Combining real and
imaginary numbers creates a hybrid
called a complex number, such as 1 + j
or 6 – j7. (The convention in complex
numbers is for j to be first in the
imaginary part of the number.) These
numbers come in very handy in radio,
describing impedances, relationships
between voltage and current, and many
other phenomena.
4.3 Principles of
Circuits
This section of the book covers the
fundamentals of how electrical circuits
work. We’ll get into the relationship
between voltage and current when
inductance and capacitance are involved
— that’s when things get interesting!
Understanding these basic ideas leads
you directly to resonance, tuned circuits,
Q, and all sorts of great radio know-
how.
Remember that this book doesn’t
attempt to be an electronic textbook —
there are plenty of good references
available for that job. If you find
yourself missing some crucial
background, step back and read through
one of the references on the ECLM
website.
(Equation
τ = RC 4.1)
where:
τ is the Greek letter tau, used to
represent the time constant.
R is the total circuit resistance in ohms.
C is the capacitance in farads.
Note that if R is in megohms and C is
in microfarads, then τ is in seconds!
Remember “megohms times microfarads
equals seconds” and it will save you a
lot of calculating time.
The capacitor charges and discharges
according to an equation known as an
exponential curve. Figure 4.10
illustrates the charge and discharge
curves, where the time axis is shown in
terms of τ and the vertical axis is
expressed as a percentage of the applied
voltage. These graphs are true for any
RC circuit.
(Equation
V(t) = E (1 – e–t/τ)
4.2)
where:
V(t) is the voltage across the capacitor
at time t.
E is the applied voltage (the battery
voltage in Figure 4.6)
t is the time in seconds since the
capacitor began charging or discharging.
e is the base for natural logarithms,
2.718.
τ is the time constant for the circuit, in
seconds.
If the capacitor is discharging from E
volts, we have to write a slightly
different equation:
(Equation
V(t) = E (e–t/τ)
4.3)
These equations can be solved fairly
easily with an inexpensive calculator
that is able to work with natural
logarithms (it will have a key labeled
LN or LN X). In that case you could
calculate the value for e–t/τ as the inverse
natural log of –t / τ, written as ln–1 (–t /
τ). (For more information on natural
logarithms and exponential functions,
refer to the math supplement on the
ECLM website.)
Actually, you do not have to know how
to solve these equations if you are
familiar with the results at a few
important points. We’ll show you how to
use the solutions to the equations at these
points as short cuts to most problems
associated with time constants.
As shown on the graphs of Figure 4.10,
it is common practice to think of charge
or discharge time in terms of multiples
of the circuit’s time constant. If we
select times of zero (starting time), one
time constant (1τ), two time constants
(2τ), and so on, then the exponential term
in Equations 4.2 and 4.3 simplifies to e0,
e–1, e–2, e–3 and so forth. Then we can
solve the equations for those values of
time. Let’s pick a value for battery
voltage of E = 100 V so that the answers
will be in the form of a percentage of
any applied voltage.
After a time equal to five time
constants has passed, the capacitor is
charged to 99.3% of the applied voltage.
This is fully charged for all practical
purposes.
The equation used to calculate the
capacitor voltage while it is discharging
is slightly different from the one for
charging. For values of time equal to
multiples of the circuit time constant, the
solutions to Equation 4.3 have a close
relationship to those for Equation 4.2.
Here we see that after a time equal to
five time constants has passed, the
capacitor has discharged to less than 1%
of its initial value. This is fully
discharged for all practical purposes.
From the calculations for a charging
capacitor we can define the time
constant of an RC circuit as the time it
takes to charge the capacitor to 63.2% of
the supply voltage. [E5B01] From the
calculations of a discharging capacitor
we can also define the time constant as
the time it takes to discharge the
capacitor to 36.8% of its initial voltage.
Another way to think of these results is
that the discharge values are the
complements of the charging values.
Subtract either set of percentages from
100 and you will get the other set. You
may also notice another relationship
between the discharging values. If you
take 36.8% (0.368) as the value for one
time constant, then the discharged value
is 0.368 × 0.368 = 0.3682 = 0.135 after
two time constants, 0.3683 = 0.05 after
three time constants, 0.3684 = 0.018 after
four time constants and 0.3685 = 0.007
after five time constants. You can change
these values to percentages, or just
remember that you have to multiply the
decimal fraction times the applied
voltage. If you subtract these decimal
values from 1, you will get the values
for the charging equation. In either case,
by remembering the percentage 63.2%
you can generate all of the other
percentages without logarithms or
exponentials!
In many cases, you will want to know
how long it will take a capacitor to
charge or discharge to some particular
voltage. Probably the easiest way to
handle such problems is to first calculate
what percentage of the maximum voltage
you are charging or discharging to. Then
compare that value to the percentages
listed for either charging or discharging
the capacitor. Often you will be able to
approximate the time as some whole
number of time constants.
Suppose you have a 0.01-µF capacitor
and a 2-MΩ resistor wired in parallel
with a battery. The capacitor is charged
to 20 V, and then the battery is removed.
How long will it take for the capacitor
to discharge through the resistor to reach
a voltage of 7.36 V? First, calculate the
percentage decrease in voltage:
RC Circuit Examples
Let’s look at an example of calculating
the time constant for a circuit like the
one in Figure 4.8, using values of 220
µF and 470 kΩ for C and R. To calculate
the time constant, τ, multiply the R and C
values, in ohms and farads.
τ = RC = (470 × 103 Ω) × (220 × 10–6 F)
= 103.4 seconds
You can calculate the time constant for
any RC circuit in this manner.
If you have two 100-µF capacitors and
two 470-kΩ resistors, all in series, first
combine the resistor values into a single
resistance and the capacitor values into
a single capacitance.
RT (series) = R1 + R2 = 470 kΩ + 470
kΩ = 940 kΩ = 940 × 103 Ω
Then the time constant is:
τ = RC = (940 × 103 Ω) × (50 × 10–6 F)
= 47 seconds
Suppose you have two 220-µF
capacitors and two 1-MΩ resistors all in
parallel. Again, first combine the values
into a single resistance and a single
capacitance.
CT (parallel) = C1 + C2 = 220 µF + 220
µF = 440 µF = 440 × 10–6 F
Then the time constant is:
τ = RC = (5 × 105 Ω) × (440 × 10–6 F) =
220 seconds [E5B04]
Suppose you have a 450-µF capacitor
and a 1-MΩ resistor wired in parallel
with a power supply. The capacitor is
charged to 800 V, and then the power
supply is removed. How long will it
take for the capacitor to discharge to 294
V? First, calculate the percentage
decrease in voltage:
This is the value for the discharge
voltage after one time constant. Now
calculate the time constant for the circuit
using Equation 4.1.
τ = RC = (1 × 106 Ω) × (450 × 10–6 F) =
450 seconds
Or you could have recalled “megohms
times microfarads equals seconds” and
made the calculation that way.
(Equation
4.5)
where:
I(t) is the current in amperes at time t.
E is the applied voltage.
R is the circuit resistance in ohms.
t is the time in seconds after the switch
is closed.
τ is the time constant for the circuit in
seconds.
If we choose values of time equal to
multiples of the circuit time constant, as
we did for the RC circuit, then we will
find that the current will build up to its
maximum value in the same fashion as
the voltage does when a capacitor is
being charged. This time let’s pick a
value of 100 A for the maximum current,
so that our results will again come out as
a percentage of the maximum current for
any RL circuit.
PHASE ANGLE
E5B09 — What is the relationship
between the AC current
through a capacitor and the
voltage across a capacitor?
E5B10 — What is the relationship
between the AC current
through an inductor and the
voltage across an inductor?
AC Voltage-Current Relationship in
Capacitors
Figure 4.13 shows the voltage across a
capacitor as it charges and the charging
current that flows into a capacitor with a
dc voltage applied. As soon as a voltage
is applied across an ideal capacitor,
there is a sudden inrush of current as the
capacitor begins to charge. That current
tapers off as the capacitor is charged to
the full value of applied voltage. By the
time the applied voltage is reaching a
maximum, the capacitor is also reaching
full charge, and so the current into the
capacitor goes to zero. A maximum
amount of energy has been stored in the
electric field of the capacitor at this
point.
The situation is different when an ac
voltage is applied because the applied
voltage is not constant. Figure 4.14
graphs the relative current and voltage
amplitudes when an ac sine wave signal
is applied. The scale does not represent
specific current or voltage values.
Here’s what the graph of the two
waveforms is telling us during intervals
of one-quarter cycle of the voltage
waveform:
0° to 90° — Voltage is zero, so no
energy is stored in the capacitor. The
applied voltage begins increasing and a
large inrush of charging current occurs,
just as is the case for an applied dc
voltage. Current slows as more energy is
stored in the capacitor.
90° to 180° — Applied voltage has
reached a peak, so no additional charge
flows into the capacitor and current flow
stops — stored energy is at a maximum.
As voltage begins to drop, that is the
same as discharging the capacitor, so
current reverses and energy is returned
to the circuit.
180° to 270° — As the voltage reaches
zero it is dropping at its fastest rate, so
the discharge current in the reverse
direction is at a maximum. Now the
applied voltage is increasing again but
with the opposite polarity. Energy is
being stored in the capacitor again but
with the voltage reversed. Charging
current is now in the opposite direction,
too, but decreases as more energy is
stored in the capacitor.
270° to 360° — Once again, applied
voltage has reached a peak but with
reverse polarity. Charging current ceases
as the voltage peaks and begins to drop,
repeating the situation between 180° and
270° but with the opposite polarity.
When 360° arrives, voltage and current
have the same relationship as at 0° and
the cycle begins again.
Note that energy is stored in and
discharged from the capacitor twice
during each cycle — once with positive
voltage across the capacitor and once
with negative voltage. The current
waveform describes electrons flowing
in and out of the capacitor in response to
the applied voltage. Energy storage is at
a peak when voltage is maximum as
shown in Figure 4.15. This occurs at
90° and 270° when current is zero. Note
also that current reaches a peak 90°
ahead of the voltage waveform. We say
that the current through a capacitor leads
the applied voltage by 90°. [E5B09]
You could also say that the voltage
applied to a capacitor lags the current
through it by 90°. To help you remember
this relationship, think of the word ICE.
This will remind you that the current (I)
comes before (leads) the voltage (E) in a
capacitor (C). By convention, voltage is
the reference waveform for phase angle
so in a capacitor the phase angle is –90°
(negative).
AC Voltage-Current Relationship in
Inductors
The relationship between ac voltage
and current in an inductor complements
that in a capacitor. Figure 4.16 shows
that instead of stored energy being in
phase with applied voltage, it is in phase
with the inductor current. This causes the
phase relationship between voltage and
current to be reversed from that of the
capacitor.
In the section on magnetic energy, you
learned about back EMF. Back EMF is
greatest when the magnetic field is
changing the fastest. Furthermore, it is
generated with a polarity that opposes
the change in current or magnetic-field
strength. So, when the current is crossing
zero on the way to a positive peak, back
EMF is at its greatest negative value.
When the current is at the positive peak
back EMF is zero and so on.
As before, let’s examine the situation
during each quarter cycle of the applied
voltage waveform as shown in Figure
4.17. Along with applied voltage and
inductor current, the back EMF
waveform has been added. This will
help explain the relationship between
applied voltage and inductor current.
0° to 90° — Beginning at maximum
applied voltage, the opposing induced
voltage that resists changes in current
flow is also at a maximum so current
must increase slowly. As applied
voltage falls, the change in current is
also reduced and so induced voltage
also decreases. As applied voltage
reaches zero no additional current flows
and induced voltage is zero. Stored
energy is a maximum at this point.
90° to 180° — Applied voltage begins
to increase in the reverse direction
causing a reduction in current and stored
energy. Induced voltage increases
opposing the change in current. When
applied voltage reaches a maximum with
reverse polarity, current is now
completely stopped and stored energy is
zero.
180° to 270° — Reversed from the
situation between 0° and 90°, current is
now increasing in the opposite direction.
Applied voltage is falling and so the rate
of change of current is also falling,
causing induced voltage to fall as well.
As applied voltage reaches zero again,
current and stored energy has reached a
maximum.
270° to 360° — As between 90° and
180°, applied voltage is increasing in
the opposite polarity to current, causing
current to drop. The change in current
also causes induced voltage to rise in
opposition to the change in current. As
applied voltage reaches a maximum,
current and stored energy once again
reach zero.
The phase relationship between
applied ac voltage and current through
an inductor is the opposite from their
relationship in a capacitor. Current
through an inductor lags the applied
voltage by 90°. You could also say that
the voltage applied to an inductor leads
the current through it by 90°. [E5B10] A
useful mnemonic for remembering these
relationships is, “ELI the ICE man.” The
L and C represent the inductor and
capacitor, and the E and I stand for
voltage and current. Right away you can
see that E (voltage) comes before
(leads) I (current) in an inductor and that
I comes before (leads) E in a capacitor.
Using the same convention as for a
capacitor, the phase angle in an inductor
is 90° (positive).
COMPLEX IMPEDANCE
E5C01 — Which of the following
represents capacitive
reactance in rectangular
notation?
E5C02 — How are impedances
described in polar
coordinates?
E5C03 — Which of the following
represents an inductive
reactance in polar
coordinates?
E5C04 — What coordinate system is
often used to display the
resistive, inductive, and/or
capacitive reactance
components of impedance?
E5C05 — What is the name of the
diagram used to show the
phase relationship between
impedances at a given
frequency?
E5C06 — What does the impedance
50–j25 represent?
E5C07 — Where is the impedance of
a pure resistance plotted on
rectangular coordinates?
E5C08 — What coordinate system is
often used to display the
phase angle of a circuit
containing resistance,
inductive and/or capacitive
reactance?
E5C09 — When using rectangular
coordinates to graph the
impedance of a circuit, what
do the axes represent?
Example 4.1
Write the impedance 100 – j100 Ω in
polar form:
Step 1 —
Example 4.2
The first step in these examples needs
more space from the question — see
example 4.1 for how they should look.
The steps and the calculations should all
be equally spaced. Convert the
admittance 7.0945° mS (millisiemens) to
impedance in polar form.
Step 1 — Use rule 2 to find:
|Z| = 1 / 0.00709 = 141 Ω
θ = – (45°) = – 45°
Step 2 — Z = 141–45° Ω
Example 4.3
Convert the impedance 5–30° Ω to
admittance in rectangular form. [E5B03]
Step 1 — Use rule 2 to find:
|Y| = 1 / 5 = 0.2 S
θ = – (–30°) = 30°
Step 2 — G = |Y| cos 30° = 0.17 S
Step 3 — B = |Y| sin 30° = 0.1 S
Step 4 — Y = 0.17 + j 0.1 S
Several of the following examples are
found in Subelements E5B and E5C of
the Extra class question pool. To apply
the examples to the questions on the
exam, remember that voltage is the
reference for phase angle polarity so that
if the phase angle is negative, voltage
lags current.
Example 4.4
Using the circuit and diagram of Figure
4.20, pick the point on the graph in
Figure 4.21 that represents the
impedance of a circuit consisting of a
300-Ω resistor in series with an 18-µH
inductor at 3.505 MHz? [E5C11]
Step 1 — Calculate the inductor’s
reactance:
XL = 2pfL = 400 Ω
Step 2 — Use rule 1 to add the
resistance and reactance together:
Z = 300 + j400 Ω
Step 3 — Locate the point on the graph,
300 units along the X (horizontal) axis
and +400 units on the Y (vertical) axis.
This is Point 3.
Example 4.5
Using the circuit and diagram of Figure
4.22, what is the impedance of the
circuit consisting of a 100-Ω resistor in
parallel with a capacitor that has –j100
Ω of reactance? Give the answer in
rectangular form, polar form, and state
the phase angle of the circuit. This type
of calculation is not on the exam but now
is a good opportunity to practice
converting and working with impedance
and admittance.
Step 1 — Use rules 2 and 5 to convert
the impedances to admittances because
so they can be added directly together:
G = 1/R = 1/100 = 0.01 S
BC = 1/XC = 1/–j100 = j0.01 S
Step 2 — Use rule 3 to add the
admittances together:
Y = 0.014145° S (shown in Figure
4.22B)
Step 3 — Use rule 2 to convert the
admittance back to impedance:
Z = 1/Y = (1/0.0141) (0°–45°) = 71–45°
Ω
Step 4 — The phase angle is equal to the
angle of the impedance: θ = –45°
Example 4.6
Using the graph in Figure 4.21, which
point represents the impedance of a
circuit consisting of a 400-Ω resistor in
series with a 38-pF capacitor at 14
MHz? [E5C10]
Step 1 — Calculate the capacitor’s
reactance:
(capacitive reactance is assigned a
negative value)
Step 2 — Use rule 1 to add the
resistance and reactance together:
Z = 400 – j300 Ω
Step 3 — Locate the point on the graph,
400 units along the X (horizontal) axis
and –300 units on the Y (vertical) axis.
This is Point 4.
Example 4.7
Using the graph in Figure 4.21, which
point represents the impedance of a
circuit consisting of a 300-Ω resistor in
series with a 19-pF capacitor at 21.200
MHz? [E5C12]
Step 1 — Calculate the capacitor’s
reactance:
Example 4.8
What is the phase angle between
voltage and current in a series RLC
circuit if XC is 500 Ω, R is 1 kΩ, and XL
is 250 Ω? [E5B07]
Step 1 — Use rules 1 and 4 to add the
resistance and reactances together:
Z = 1000 + j250 – j500 = 1000 – j250 Ω
Step 2 — Convert Z to polar form:
θ = tan–1 (–250/1000) = –14°
Z = 1031–14° Ω
Step 3 — The phase angle is equal to the
angle of the impedance: θ = –14°. Since
phase angle is from voltage to current,
the negative angle indicates that voltage
lags the current.
Example 4.9
What is the phase angle between
voltage and current in a series RLC
circuit if XC is 100 Ω, R is 100 Ω, and
XL is 75 Ω? [E5B08]
Step 1 — Use rules 1 and 4 to add the
resistance and reactances together:
Z = 100 + j75 – j100 = 100 – j25 Ω
Step 2 — Convert Z to polar form:
Example 4.10
What is the phase angle between
voltage and current in a series RLC
circuit if XC is 25 Ω, R is 100 Ω, and XL
is 50 Ω? [E5B11]
Step 1 — Use rules 1 and 4 to add the
resistance and reactances together:
Z = 100 + j50 – j25 = 100 + j25 Ω
Step 2 — Convert Z to polar form:
θ = tan–1 (25/100) = 14°
Z = 10314° Ω
Step 3 — The phase angle is equal to the
angle of the impedance: θ = 14°. Since
phase angle is from voltage to current,
the positive angle indicates that voltage
leads the current.
REACTIVE POWER AND POWER
FACTOR
E5D05 — What is the power factor of
an RL circuit having a 30-
degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
E5D07 — How many watts are
consumed in a circuit having
a power factor of 0.71 if the
apparent power is 500VA?
E5D08 — How many watts are
consumed in a circuit having
a power factor of 0.6 if the
input is 200VAC at 5
amperes?
E5D09 — What happens to reactive
power in an AC circuit that
has both ideal inductors and
ideal capacitors?
E5D10 — How can the true power be
determined in an AC circuit
where the voltage and
current are out of phase?
E5D11 — What is the power factor of
an RL circuit having a 60-
degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
E5D12 — How many watts are
consumed in a circuit having
a power factor of 0.2 if the
input is 100 VAC at 4
amperes?
E5D13 — How many watts are
consumed in a circuit
consisting of a 100-ohm
resistor in series with a 100-
ohm inductive reactance
drawing 1 ampere?
E5D14 — What is reactive power?
E5D15 — What is the power factor of
an RL circuit having a 45-
degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
P=IE (Equation
4.7)
There are certainly voltage and current
present for the inductor and capacitor.
Why is no power consumed? There is
one catch in Equation 4.7 — it is only
true when the current and voltage are in
phase such as in a resistor where the
phase angle is zero. The larger the phase
angle, the smaller the amount of work
done by the power source supplying the
voltage and current. When the phase
angle reaches ±90°, no work is being
done at all and so the rate (or power) is
equal to zero!
In a circuit’s inductive or capacitive
reactance, energy may be stored in and
returned from the magnetic field in the
inductor or the electric field in the
capacitor but it will not be consumed as
power. Only the resistive part of the
circuit consumes and dissipates power
as heat. [E5D09]
An ammeter and a voltmeter connected
in an ac circuit to measure voltage
across and current through an inductor or
capacitor will both show non-zero
values but multiplying them together
does not give the true indication of the
power being dissipated in the
component. The meters do not account
for the phase difference between voltage
and current.
If you multiply the RMS values of
voltage and current from these meters,
you will get a quantity that is referred to
as apparent power — a clue that
multiplying RMS values of voltage and
current doesn’t always give the true
picture! Apparent power is expressed in
units of volt-amperes (VA) rather than
watts. The apparent power in an
inductor or capacitor is called reactive
power or nonproductive, wattless
power. [E5D14] Reactive power is
expressed in volt-amperes-reactive
(VAR). The apparent power in a resistor
is called real power because voltage
and current are in phase so that the
power is dissipated as heat or causes
work to be done.
(Equation
P = I2 R
4.8)
(Equation
P = E2 / R 4.9)
(Equation
4.10)
(Equation
PREAL = PAPPARENT × PF
4.11)
In our example,
PREAL = 500 VA × 0.6 = 300 W [E5D10]
Phase angle can also be used to
calculate power factor and real power.
You learned how to calculate the phase
angle of either a series or a parallel
circuit in the previous section. The
power factor can be calculated from the
phase angle by taking the cosine of the
phase angle:
(Equation
Power factor = cos θ
4.12)
Example 4.11
What is the power factor for an R-L
circuit having a phase angle of 30°?
45°? 60°? Use Equation 4.12 to answer
this question: [E5D05, E5D11, E5D15]
PF for phase angle of 30° = cos 30° =
0.866
PF for phase angle of 45° = cos 45° =
0.707
PF for phase angle of 60° = cos 60° =
0.500
Example 4.12
Suppose you have a circuit that draws
4 amperes of current when 100 V ac is
applied. The power factor for this
circuit is 0.2. What is the real power
(how many watts are consumed) for this
circuit? [E5D12]
Start by calculating apparent power
using Equation 4.7.
PAPPARENT = 100 V × 4 A = 400 VA
Real power is then found using
Equation 4.11:
PREAL = 400 VA × 0.2 = 80 W
Example 4.13
How much power is consumed in a
circuit consisting of a 100-Ω resistor in
series with a 100-Ω inductive reactance
and drawing 1 ampere of current?
[E5D13]
Because only the resistance consumes
power:
PREAL = I2 R = (1 A)2 × 100 Ω = 100 W
Example 4.14
How many watts are consumed in a
circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if
the input is 200 V ac at 5 amperes?
[E5D08]
First, find apparent power using
Equation 4.7:
PAPPARENT = I E = 5 A × 200 V = 1000
VA
Then multiply by the power factor as in
Equation 4.11:
PREAL = PAPPARENT × PF = 1000 × 0.6 =
600 W
Example 4.16
How many watts are consumed in a
circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if
the apparent power is 500 VA? [E5D07]
Use Equation 4.11 to find PREAL:
PREAL = PAPPARENT × PF = 500 × 0.71 =
355 W
RESONANT CIRCUITS
E5A01 — What can cause the voltage
across reactances in a series
RLC circuit to be higher
than the voltage applied to
the entire circuit?
E5A02 — What is resonance in an LC
or RLC circuit?
E5A03 — What is the magnitude of
the impedance of a series
RLC circuit at resonance?
E5A04 — What is the magnitude of
the impedance of a parallel
RLC circuit at resonance?
E5A06 — What is the magnitude of
the circulating current within
the components of a parallel
LC circuit at resonance?
E5A07 — What is the magnitude of
the current at the input of a
parallel RLC circuit at
resonance?
E5A08 — What is the phase
relationship between the
current through and the
voltage across a series
resonant circuit at
resonance?
E5A14 — What is the resonant
frequency of an RLC circuit
if R is 22 ohms, L is 50
microhenries and C is 40
picofarads?
E5A16 — What is the resonant
frequency of an RLC circuit
if R is 33 ohms, L is 50
microhenries and C is 10
picofarads?
With all of the problems so far, we
have used inductor and capacitor values
that give different inductive and
capacitive reactances. Have you
wondered about what happens when
both reactances are equal?
In a series circuit with an inductor and
a capacitor, voltage leads the current by
90° in the inductor; in the capacitor,
voltage lags the current by 90°. Since
this is a series circuit the current through
all of the components is the same. That
means the voltages across the inductor
and capacitor are 180° out of phase.
Those voltages then cancel, leaving only
the voltage across the resistance of the
circuit which is in phase with the
current.
In a parallel circuit containing
inductance and capacitance, voltage is
the same across both but it is the currents
that are 180° out of phase. The current in
the inductor lags the applied voltage by
90° and the current in the capacitor leads
by 90°. The cancellation of the current
leaves a parallel resistance as the only
component in which current can flow
and the remaining current is in phase
with the voltage.
Whether the components are connected
in series or parallel, we say the circuit
is resonant or is at resonance when the
inductive reactance value is the same as
the capacitive reactance value. [E5A02]
Remember that inductive reactance
increases as frequency increases and that
capacitive reactance decreases as
frequency increases. The frequency at
which the two are equal is the circuit’s
resonant frequency.
so
and
(Equation
4.13)
(E
Q OF COMPONENTS AND
CIRCUITS
E4B08 — Which of the following can
be used to measure the Q of
a series-tuned circuit?
E5A05 — What is the result of
increasing the Q of an
impedance-matching circuit?
E5A09 — How is the Q of an RLC
parallel resonant circuit
calculated?
E5A10 — How is the Q of an RLC
series resonant circuit
calculated?
E5A11 — What is the half-power
bandwidth of a resonant
circuit that has a resonant
frequency of 7.1 MHz and a
Q of 150?
E5A12 — What is the half-power
bandwidth of a resonant
circuit that has a resonant
frequency of 3.7 MHz and a
Q of 118?
E5A13 — What is an effect of
increasing Q in a series
resonant circuit?
E5A15 — Which of the following
increases Q for inductors
and capacitors?
(Equation
4.17)
where:
Df = the half-power bandwidth.
fr = the resonant frequency of the
circuit.
Q = the circuit Q
The higher the circuit Q, the smaller the
bandwidth of a resonant circuit will be,
whether it is a series or parallel circuit.
[E4B08] Figure 4.29 shows the relative
bandwidth of a circuit with two different
Q values.
Let’s calculate the half-power
bandwidth of a parallel circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q
of 150. The half-power bandwidth is
found by Equation 4.17: [E5A11]
To find the upper and lower half-power
frequencies, subtract half the total
bandwidth from the center frequency to
get the lower half-power frequency and
add half the bandwidth to get the upper
half-power frequency. The response of
this circuit will be at least half of the
peak signal power for signals in the
range 7.07635 to 7.12365 MHz.
Repeat the calculations for the
following combination of resonant
frequency and Q:
fr = 3.7 MHz and Q = 118: Df = 31.4 kHz
[E5A12]
Impedance matching circuits that use
inductances and capacitances also use
circulating energy to transform one ratio
of voltage to current (which is the
definition of impedance) at the output to
another at the input. Q of the components
and of the circuit also affect how the
circuit performs. As Q of such an
impedance matching circuit increases,
the internal voltages and currents
increase and the bandwidth over which
the impedance is matched decreases, just
like that of a resonant circuit. [E5A05]
COMPONENTS AT RF AND
MICROWAVE FREQUENCIES
E5D01 — What is the result of skin
effect?
E5D02 — Why is it important to keep
lead lengths short for
components used in circuits
for VHF and above?
E5D04 — Why are short connections
used at microwave
frequencies?
E6D13 — What is the primary cause
of inductor self-resonance?
E6E02 — Which of the following
device packages is a
through-hole type?
E6E09 — Which of the following
component package types
would be most suitable for
use at frequencies above the
HF range?
E6E10 — What advantage does
surface-mount technology
offer at RF compared to
using through-hole
components?
E6E11 — What is a characteristic of
DIP packaging used for
integrated circuits?
E6E12 — Why are DIP through-hole
package ICs not typically
used at UHF and higher
frequencies?
MAGNETIC CORES
E6D01 — Why should core saturation
of an impedance matching
transformer be avoided?
E6D04 — Which materials are
commonly used as a core in
an inductor?
E6D05 — What is one reason for
using ferrite cores rather
than powdered iron in an
inductor?
E6D06 — What core material
property determines the
inductance of an inductor?
E6D07 — What is current in the
primary winding of a
transformer called if no load
is attached to the
secondary?
E6D08 — What is one reason for
using powdered-iron cores
rather than ferrite cores in
an inductor?
E6D09 — What devices are commonly
used as VHF and UHF
parasitic suppressors at the
input and output terminals of
a transistor HF amplifier?
E6D10 — What is a primary
advantage of using a toroidal
core instead of a solenoidal
core in an inductor?
E6D11 — Which type of core material
decreases inductance when
inserted into a coil?
E6D12 — What is inductor
saturation?
where:
L = inductance in µH.
AL = inductance index, in µH per 100
turns-squared.
N = number of turns.
Often you want to know how many
turns to wind on the core to produce an
inductor with a specific value. In that
case, solve Equation 4.18 for N.
(Equation
4.19)
5.1 Semiconductor
Devices
E6A02 — Which of the following
semiconductor materials
contains excess free
electrons?
E6A04 — What is the name given to
an impurity atom that adds
holes to a semiconductor
crystal structure?
MATERIALS
Silicon (Si) and germanium (Ge) are
the materials normally used to make
semiconductor materials. (The element
silicon [SIL-i-kahn] is not the same as
the household lubricants and rubber-like
sealers called silicone [sil-i-CONE]).
Silicon has 14 protons and 14 electrons,
while germanium has 32 of each. Silicon
and germanium atoms both have four
shareable or valence electrons in their
outer layer of electrons. This
arrangement allows these four electrons
to be shared with other nearby atoms.
Atoms that arrange themselves into a
regular pattern by sharing electrons form
crystals. Figure 5.1 shows silicon and
germanium crystals. (Different kinds of
atoms might arrange themselves into
other patterns.) The crystals made by
silicon or germanium atoms do not make
good electrical conductors or insulators.
That’s why they are called
semiconductors. Under the right
conditions they can act as either
conductors or insulators. Semiconductor
materials also exhibit properties of both
metallic and nonmetallic substances.
Semiconductors are solid crystals. They
are strong and not easily damaged by
vibration or rough handling. We refer to
electronic parts made with
semiconductor materials as solid-state
devices.
To control the electrical characteristics
of semiconductor material,
manufacturers add other atoms to these
crystals through a carefully controlled
process called doping. The atoms added
in this way produce a material that is no
longer pure silicon or pure germanium.
We call the added atoms impurities. The
impurities are generally chosen for their
ability to alter the way in which
electrons are shared within the crystal.
As an example, the manufacturer might
add some atoms of arsenic (As) or
antimony (Sb) to the silicon or
germanium while making the crystals.
Arsenic and antimony atoms each have
five electrons to share — an extra
shareable electron compared to the
crystal of pure silicon. Figure 5.2 shows
how an atom with five electrons in its
outer layer fits into the crystal structure.
In such a case, there is an extra or free
electron in the crystal and we call the
semiconductor material made in this way
N-type material. (This name comes from
the extra free electrons in the crystal
structure.) [E6A02]
The impurity atoms are electrically
neutral, just as the silicon or germanium
atoms are. The extra electrons are
considered “free” because they are not
so strongly shared with adjacent atoms
and are freer to move within the crystal
structure. Impurity atoms that create
(donate) free electrons to the crystal
structure are called donor impurities.
Now let’s suppose the manufacturer
adds some gallium or indium atoms
instead of arsenic or antimony. Gallium
(Ga) and indium (In) atoms only have
three electrons that they can share with
other nearby atoms. When there are
gallium or indium atoms in the crystal
there is an extra space where an electron
could fit into the structure.
Figure 5.3 shows an example of a
crystal structure with spaces where an
electron could be present. We call this
space for an electron a hole. The
semiconductor material produced in this
way is P-type material. Impurity atoms
that produce extra holes for electrons in
the crystal structure are called acceptor
impurities. [E6A04]
JUNCTION DIODES
E6A03 — Why does a PN-junction
diode not conduct current
when reverse biased?
E6B07 — What is the failure
mechanism when a junction
diode fails due to excessive
current?
VARACTOR DIODES
E6B04 — What type of semiconductor
device is designed for use as
a voltage-controlled
capacitor?
A PIN (positive/intrinsic/negative)
diode is formed by diffusing P-type and
N-type layers onto opposite sides of an
almost pure silicon layer, called the I
region because conduction is carried out
by the electrons intrinsic to a normal
silicon crystal. Figure 5.12 shows the
three layers of the PIN diode. This layer
is not “doped” with P-type or N-type
charge carriers, as are the other layers.
Any charge carriers found in this layer
are a result of the natural properties of
the pure semiconductor material. In the
case of silicon, there are relatively few
free charge carriers. PIN-diode
characteristics are determined primarily
by the thickness and area of the I region.
The outside layers are designated P+
and N+ to indicate heavier than normal
doping of these layers. PIN diodes are
represented by the same schematic
symbol as a PN-junction diode.
PIN diodes respond to RF in three
different ways depending on how they
are biased:
• With reverse bias, the charge carriers
move very slowly. Their slow response
time causes the PIN diode to look like a
resistor to RF currents, effectively
blocking them so the PIN diode is cut-off
and acts like an open circuit to RF.
• With zero bias, there are essentially
no free charge carriers available to
conduct so the PIN junction acts like a
very small capacitor, often small enough
that the diode can be considered an open
circuit.
• With forward bias, the PIN diode acts
like a resistance that decreases with
increasing bias current. Thus, the amount
of resistance that a PIN diode exhibits to
RF can be controlled by changing the
amount of forward bias applied.
These characteristics allow the PIN
diode to act as a switch or attenuator.
[E6B05, E6B11] PIN diodes are faster,
smaller, more rugged, and more reliable
than relays or other electromechanical
switching devices.
Figure 5.13 shows a circuit in which
PIN diodes are used to build an RF
switch. This diagram shows a
transmit/receive switch for use between
a 2 meter transceiver and a UHF or
microwave transverter. With no bias, or
with reverse bias applied to the diode,
the PIN diode exhibits a high resistance
to RF, so no signal will flow from the
generator to the load. When forward
bias is applied, the diode resistance will
decrease, allowing the RF signal to
pass. The amount of insertion loss
(resistance to RF current) is determined
primarily by the amount of forward bias
applied; the greater the forward bias
current, the lower the RF resistance.
LIGHT-EMITTING DIODES
E6B03 — What type of bias is
required for an LED to emit
light?
E6B10 — In Figure E6-2, what is the
schematic symbol for a light-
emitting diode?
BIPOLAR TRANSISTORS
E6A06 — What is the beta of a
bipolar junction transistor?
E6A07 — Which of the following
indicates that a silicon NPN
junction transistor is biased
on?
E6A08 — What term indicates the
frequency at which the
grounded-base current gain
of a transistor has decreased
to 0.7 of the gain obtainable
at 1 kHz?
where:
Ic = collector current
Ib = base current
For example, if a 1-mA base current
results in a collector current of 100 mA
the beta is 100. Typical betas for
junction transistors range from as low as
10 to as high as several hundred.
Manufacturers’ data sheets specify a
range of values for β. Individual
transistors of a given type can have
widely varying betas.
Another important transistor
characteristic is alpha, expressed by the
Greek letter α. Alpha is the ratio of
collector current to emitter current,
given by the equation:
where:
Ic = collector current
Ie = emitter current
The smaller the base current, the closer
the collector current comes to being
equal to that of the emitter and the closer
alpha comes to being 1. For a junction
transistor, alpha is usually between 0.92
and 0.98.
The transistor is saturated when
further increases in base-emitter current
do not increase the collector current, and
the transistor is said to be fully on when
the transistor is saturated. At the other
end of the scale, when the transistor is
reverse-biased, there is no current from
the emitter to the collector and the
transistor is at cutoff. When used to
amplify a signal, a transistor operates
between these two extremes. By
operating at either cutoff or saturation,
the transistor can be used as a switch.
Transistors have important frequency
characteristics. The alpha cutoff
frequency is the frequency at which the
current gain of a transistor decreases to
0.707 times its gain at 1 kHz. Alpha
cutoff frequency is considered to be the
practical upper frequency limit of a
transistor configured as a common-base
amplifier. [E6A08]
Beta cutoff frequency is similar to
alpha cutoff frequency, but it applies to
transistors connected as common-emitter
amplifiers. Beta cutoff frequency is the
frequency at which the current gain of a
transistor in the common-emitter
configuration decreases to 0.707 times
its gain at 1 kHz. (These amplifier
configurations are explained in the
Radio Circuits and Systems chapter’s
section on amplifier circuits.)
MOSFETs
The construction of a metal-oxide
semiconductor field-effect transistor
(MOSFET), sometimes called an
insulated gate field-effect transistor
(IGFET), and its schematic symbol are
illustrated in Figure 5.21. In the
MOSFET, the gate is insulated from the
source/drain channel by a thin dielectric
layer. Since there is very little current
through this dielectric the input
impedance is even higher than in the
JFET — typically 10 megohms or
greater. The schematic symbols for N-
channel and P-channel dual-gate
MOSFETs are shown in Figure 5.22.
[E6A10] Some types of MOSFETs have
two gates to which different voltages can
be applied for special applications, such
as mixers.
Nearly all the MOSFETs manufactured
today have built-in gate-protective Zener
diodes. Without this provision the gate
insulation can be punctured easily by
small static discharges. [E6A12] The
protective diodes are connected between
the gate (or gates) and the source lead of
the FET. The diodes are generally not
shown on the schematic symbol.
RF INTEGRATED DEVICES
E5D03 — What is microstrip?
E6A01 — In what application is
gallium arsenide used as a
semiconductor material?
E6E01 — Why is gallium arsenide
(GaAs) useful for
semiconductor devices
operating at UHF and higher
frequencies?
E6E03 — Which of the following
materials is likely to provide
the highest frequency of
operation when used in
MMICs?
E6E04 — Which is the most common
input and output impedance
of circuits that use MMICs?
E6E05 — Which of the following noise
figure values is typical of a
low-noise UHF preamplifier?
E6E06 — What characteristics of the
MMIC make it a popular
choice for VHF through
microwave circuits?
E6E07 — What type of transmission
line is used for connections
to MMICs?
E6E08 — How is power supplied to
the most common type of
MMIC?
5.2 Optoelectronics
E6F01 — What absorbs the energy
from light falling on a
photovoltaic cell?
E6F02 — What happens to the
conductivity of a
photoconductive material
when light shines on it?
E6F03 — What is the most common
configuration of an
optoisolator or optocoupler?
E6F04 — What is the photovoltaic
effect?
E6F05 — Which describes an optical
shaft encoder?
E6F06 — Which of these materials is
most commonly used to
create photoconductive
devices?
E6F07 — What is a solid-state relay?
E6F08 — Why are optoisolators often
used in conjunction with
solid-state circuits when
switching 120 VAC?
E6F09 — What is the efficiency of a
photovoltaic cell?
E6F10 — What is the most common
type of photovoltaic cell
used for electrical power
generation?
E6F11 — What is the approximate
open-circuit voltage
produced by a fully
illuminated silicon
photovoltaic cell?
PHOTOCONDUCTIVITY
To understand photoconductivity, we
must start with the photoelectric effect.
In simple terms, this refers to electrons
being knocked loose from the atoms of a
material when light shines on it. While a
complete explanation of light’s
interaction with semiconductor material
is beyond the scope of this book, we
will simply describe some of the basic
principles behind photoelectricity.
Let’s revisit the basic structure of an
atom as shown in Figure 5.25. The
nucleus contains protons (positively
charged particles) and neutrons (with no
electrical charge). The number of
protons in the nucleus determines the
atom’s element. Carbon has six protons,
oxygen has eight and copper has 29, for
example. The nucleus of the atom is
surrounded by the same number of
negatively charged electrons as there are
protons in the nucleus so that an atom
has zero net electrical charge.
The electrons surrounding the nucleus
are found in specific energy levels, as
shown in Figure 5.25. The increasing
energy levels are shown as larger and
larger spheres surrounding the nucleus.
(While this picture is not really accurate,
it will help you get the idea of the atomic
structure.) For an electron to move to a
different energy level, it must either gain
or lose a certain amount of energy. One
way that an electron can gain the
required energy is by absorbing
electromagnetic energy in the form of a
photon of light. The electron absorbs the
energy from the photon and jumps to a
new energy level. An electron that has
absorbed energy and jumped to a higher
energy level is called excited.
If the light photon has enough energy,
the electron can be freed completely
from the atom. In a metallic conductor
this free electron can now flow as an
electric current. The current can then
flow through a circuit connected to the
material illuminated by the photons. This
is the basis of the photoelectric effect.
where:
ρ is the lower case Greek letter rho,
representing the resistivity of the
material.
l is the length of the object.
A is the cross-sectional area of the
object.
R is the resistance.
Conductivity is the reciprocal of
resistivity, and conductance is the
reciprocal of resistance:
OPTOELECTRONIC
COMPONENTS
Most semiconductor devices are sealed
in plastic or metal cases so that no light
will reach the semiconductor junction.
Light will not affect the conductivity and
hence the operating characteristics of
such a transistor or diode. But if the case
is made with a window to allow light to
pass through and reach the junction, then
the device characteristics will depend
on how much light is shining on it. Such
specially made devices have a number
of important applications in amateur
radio.
A phototransistor is a special device
designed to allow light to reach the
transistor junction. Light, then, acts as
the control element for the transistor. In
fact, in some phototransistors there is no
base lead at all. In others, a base lead is
provided, so you can control the output
signal in the absence of light. You can
also use the base lead to bias the
transistor to respond to different light
intensities. In general, the gain of the
transistor is directly proportional to the
amount of light shining on the transistor.
A phototransistor can be used as a
photodetector — a device that detects
the presence of light.
One-Input Elements
There are two logic elements that have
only one input and one output: the
noninverting buffer and the inverter or
NOT circuit (Figure 5.30). [E6C11]
The noninverting buffer simply passes
the same state (0 or 1) from its input to
its output. In an inverter or NOT circuit,
a 1 at the input produces a 0 at the
output, and vice versa. NOT indicates
inversion, negation or complementation.
Notice that the only difference between
symbols for the noninverting buffer and
the inverter is the small circle or triangle
on the output lead. This is used to
indicate inversion on any digital-logic
circuit symbol. The Boolean algebra
notation for NOT is a bar over the
variable or expression.
The AND Operation
A gate is defined as a combinational
logic element with two or more inputs
and one output state that depends on the
state of the inputs. Gates perform simple
logical operations and can be combined
to form complex switching functions. So
as we talk about the logical operations
used in Boolean algebra, you should
keep in mind that each function is
implemented by using a gate with the
same name. For example, an AND gate
implements the AND operation.
The AND operation results in a 1 only
when all inputs or operands are 1. That
is, if the inputs are called A and B, the
output is 1 only if A and B are both 1. In
Boolean notation, the logical operator
AND is usually represented by a dot
between the variables (•). The AND
function may also be signified by no
space between the variables. Both forms
are shown in Figure 5.31, along with the
schematic symbol for an AND gate.
The OR Operation
The OR operation results in a 1 at the
output if any or all inputs are 1. In
Boolean notation, the + symbol is used
to indicate the OR function. The OR gate
shown in Figure 5.32 is sometimes
called an INCLUSIVE OR. Study the
truth table for the OR function in Figure
5.32. You should notice that the OR gate
will have a 0 output only when all inputs
are 0. [E7A08]
The NAND Operation
The NAND operation means NOT
AND. A NAND gate (Figure 5.33) is an
AND gate with an inverted output. A
NAND gate produces a 0 at its output
only when all inputs are 1. In Boolean
notation, NAND is usually represented
by a dot between the variables and a bar
over the combination, as shown in
Figure 5.33. [E6C08, E7A07]
SEQUENTIAL AND
SYNCHRONOUS LOGIC
E7A01 — Which circuit is bistable?
E7A02 — What is the function of a
decade counter?
E7A03 — Which of the following can
divide the frequency of a
pulse train by 2?
E7A04 — How many flip-flops are
required to divide a signal
frequency by 4?
E7A05 — Which of the following is a
circuit that continuously
alternates between two
states without an external
clock?
E7A06 — What is a characteristic of a
monostable multivibrator?
Flip-Flops
A flip-flop (also known as a bistable
multivibrator) is a binary sequential-
logic element with two stable states: the
set state (1 state) and the reset state (0
state). The term bistable means that the
circuit has two stable states and it can
stay in either of them indefinitely.
[E7A01] Thus, a flip-flop can store one
bit of information. A flip-flop used to
store information is sometimes called a
latch. The schematic symbol for a flip-
flop is a rectangle containing the letters
FF, as shown in Figure 5.38. (These
letters may be omitted if the function is
obvious.)
Flip-flop inputs and outputs are
normally identified by one or two
letters. For example, the flip-flop in
Figure 5.38 is an R-S type. The state
table of Figure 5.38 shows that if S and
R are both zero, the states of the Q and Q
outputs are unchanged. The state table
also shows that you can’t be sure what
the outputs (Q and Q) will be if both
inputs are high at the same time. There
are normally two output signals that are
complements of each other, designated Q
and Q (read as Q NOT). If Q = 1 then Q
= 0 and vice versa. See Table 5.1 for a
summary of the flip-flop output signal
behavior.
Synchronous and Asynchronous Flip-
Flops
The terms synchronous and
asynchronous are used to characterize a
flip-flop or individual inputs to an IC. In
synchronous flip-flops (also called
clocked, clock-driven or gated flip-
flops), the output follows the input only
at prescribed times determined by the
clock input. Asynchronous flip-flops are
sometimes called unclocked or data-
driven flip-flops because the output can
change whenever the inputs change.
Asynchronous inputs are those that can
affect the output state independently of
the clock. Synchronous inputs affect the
output state under control of the clock
input.
One-Shot or Monostable
Multivibrator
A monostable multivibrator (or one-
shot) has one stable state and an
unstable (or quasi-stable) state. The
circuit can stay in the unstable state for a
time determined by RC circuit
components connected to the one-shot.
When triggered, it switches to the
unstable state and then returns after a set
time to its original, stable state until
triggered again. [E7A06] When the time
constant has expired the one-shot reverts
to its stable state until retriggered. Thus,
the one-shot outputs a single pulse when
triggered.
In Figure 5.40, the popular 555 timer
IC is shown connected as a one-shot
multivibrator. The action is started by a
negative-going trigger pulse applied
between the trigger input and ground.
The trigger pulse causes the output (Q)
to go positive until capacitor C charges
to two-thirds of VCC through resistor R.
At the end of the timing period, the
capacitor is quickly discharged to
ground. The output remains at logic 1 for
a time determined by:
T = 1.1 RC (Equation 5.6)
where:
R is resistance in ohms.
C is capacitance in farads.
T is time in seconds.
Astable Multivibrator
An astable or free-running
multivibrator is a circuit that
continuously switches between two
unstable states. [E7A05]
An astable multivibrator circuit using
the 555 timer IC is shown in Figure
5.41. Capacitor C1 repeatedly charges to
two-thirds VCC through R1 and R2, and
discharges to one-third VCC through R2.
The ratio (R1:R2) sets the duty cycle. The
frequency is determined by:
(Equation
5.7)
where:
R is resistance in ohms.
C is capacitance in farads.
LOGIC FAMILIES
E6C04 — Which of the following is an
advantage of BiCMOS
logic?
E6C05 — What is an advantage of
CMOS logic devices over
TTL devices?
E6C06 — Why do CMOS digital
integrated circuits have high
immunity to noise on the
input signal or power supply?
E6C07 — What best describes a pull-
up or pull-down resistor?
E6C09 — What is a Programmable
Logic Device (PLD)?
TTL Characteristics
Transistor-transistor logic (TTL) is
one of the oldest bipolar logic families,
so called because the gates are made
entirely of bipolar transistors. Most TTL
ICs are identified by 7400/5400 series
numbers. For example, the 7490 is a
decade counter IC. More modern
families have much higher performance
but the organization of logic functions
and part numbering are very similar to
TTL.
All of the logic elements described
earlier in this section have TTL IC
implementations. Some examples are the
7400 quad NAND gate, the 7432 quad
OR gate and the 7408 quad AND gate.
(The quad in these names refers to the
fact that there are four individual gate
circuits on the single IC chip.) Other
examples of 7400 series ICs are the
7404 hex inverter, and the 7476 dual
flip-flop. (Hex refers to the six inverters
on a single IC.) The 7404 contains six
separate inverters, each with one input
and one output, in a single 14-pin
package. A diagram of the 7404 is
shown in Figure 5.42. The 7476
includes two J-K flip-flops on one IC.
TTL ICs require a +5-V power supply.
The supply voltage can vary between 4.7
and 5.3 V, but 5 V is optimum. There are
also limits on the input-signal voltages.
To ensure proper logic operation, a
HIGH, or 1 input must be between 2 V
and 5 V and a LOW, or 0 input must be
no greater than 0.8 V. To prevent
permanent damage to a TTL IC, HIGH
inputs must be no greater than 5.5 V, and
LOW inputs no more negative than –0.6
V. TTL HI outputs will fall somewhere
between 2.4 V and 5.0 V, depending on
the individual chip and load current.
TTL LOW outputs will range from 0 V
to 0.4 V. The ranges of input and output
levels are shown in Figure 5.43. Note
that the guaranteed output levels fall
conveniently within the input limits. This
ensures reliable operation when TTL
ICs are interconnected.
TTL inputs that are left open, or
allowed to “float,” will cause the
internal circuitry to assume a HIGH or 1
state, but operation may be unreliable. If
an input should be HIGH, it is better to
tie the input to the positive supply
through a pull-up resistor (usually a 1 to
10-kΩ resistor). If an input must be kept
LOW, it may be connected directly to the
power supply return or common or a
pull-down resistor may be used. In
either case, the resistors ensure that the
input is kept at a known logic level.
Pull-up resistors are also used for open-
collector outputs that depend on the
external resistor to power the output
transistor. [E6C07]
There are several variants of the TTL
family that provide different
characteristics and are identified by
letters following the “74” in the part
number. For example, a logic device
number beginning with “74LS” is from
the Low-power Schottky TTL family and
a part number beginning with “74HC” is
from the High-speed CMOS version of
TTL logic. Within a family, it is almost
always the case that parts with the same
logic function will have the same pin
connections. For example, all the
inverters in the 7404, 74LS04, 74H04,
74S04, 74HC04, and so on families will
have the same pin connections or
pinouts as in Figure 5.42.
CMOS Characteristics
Complementary metal-oxide
semiconductor (CMOS) devices are
composed of N-channel and P-channel
FETs combined on the same substrate.
Because both N and P-channel FETs can
be combined on the same substrate, the
circuitry can be placed in a smaller-
sized area. This also helps reduce the
cost of these ICs. CMOS logic has
become the most widely used form of
digital logic in the world because of its
high switching speed, small size of the
individual gates and other elements, and
far lower power consumption than TTL.
When a CMOS gate is not switching, it
draws very little power, for example.
[E6C05]
One of the most popular CMOS
families is the parts carrying 4000-
series part numbers. For example, a
4001 IC is a quad, two-input NOR gate.
The 4001 contains four separate NOR
gates, each with two inputs and one
output. Some other examples are the
4011 quad NAND gate, the 4081 quad
AND gate, and the 4069 hex inverter.
Mentioned previously, the 74HC00-
series of part numbers are pin-
compatible with the 7400 TTL family,
offering equivalent switching speed at
much lower power. If you come across a
device whose part number begins 74C
or 74HC, you should be aware that a C
in the part number probably indicates
that it is a CMOS device.
The 4000-series of CMOS ICs (model
numbers between 4000 and 4999) will
operate over a much larger power-
supply range than TTL ICs. The power-
supply voltage can vary from 3 V to as
much as 18 V. CMOS output voltages
depend on the power-supply voltage. A
HIGH output is generally within 0.1 V of
the positive supply connection, and a
LOW output is within 0.1 V of the
negative supply connection (ground in
most applications). For example, if you
are operating CMOS gates from a 9 V
battery, a logic 1 output will be
somewhere between 8.9 and 9 V, and a
logic 0 output will be between 0 and 0.1
V.
The switching threshold for CMOS
inputs is approximately half the supply
voltage. Figure 5.44 shows these input
and output voltage characteristics. The
wide range of input voltages gives the
CMOS family great immunity to noise,
since noise spikes will generally not
cause a transition in the input state. Even
the TTL-compatible CMOS families
have a slightly higher noise immunity
because of their wider HIGH and LOW
signal ranges. [E6C06]
All CMOS ICs require special
handling because of the thin layer of
insulation between the gate and substrate
of the MOS transistors. Even small static
charges can cause this insulation to be
punctured, destroying the gate. CMOS
ICs should be stored with their pins
pressed into special conductive foam.
They should be installed in a socket, or
else a soldering iron with a grounded tip
should be used to solder them on a
circuit board. Wear a grounded wrist
strap when handling CMOS ICs to
ensure that your body is at ground
potential. Any static electricity
discharge to or through the IC before it
installed in a circuit may destroy it.
BiCMOS Logic
Because both bipolar and CMOS
technology each have certain
performance advantages, combining
them in a single IC creates devices that
can operate with the speed and low
output impedance of bipolar transistors
and the high input impedance and
reduced power consumption typical of
CMOS. This is referred to as BiCMOS
technology. [E6C04] This allows ICs to
combine analog functions, such as
amplifiers and oscillators, with digital
functions such as control and switching
circuits.
Programmable Logic
Instead of creating complex logic
functions from individual ICs, it is far
more practical to use programmable
logic devices or PLDs. PLDs are single
ICs that consist of thousands of logic
gates, sequential logic, switches,
registers, and other complex functions up
to and including microprocessors.
[E6C09] Some PLDs are composed
primarily of logic gates and are known
as programmable gate arrays or PGAs.
The desired circuit is designed by
special software and a programmer
device transfers the circuit design into
the PLD where it is stored. The PLD is
then dedicated to perform the functions
programmed into it. Whether a PLD or
PGA is used, it is possible to create
extremely complex functions in the
single IC that operates at very high
speed. In fact, many software-defined
radios (SDR) use PLDs to implement all
filtering, modulation, and demodulation
functions.
In this chapter, you’ll learn about:
• Amplifier characteristics and
design
• Oscillators and frequency synthesis
• Mixers and modulators
• Detectors and demodulators
• Digital signal processing (DSP) and
software defined radio (SDR)
• Filter types and characteristics
• Impedance matching
• Power supplies
6.1 Amplifiers
When amateurs talk about amplifiers,
the subject is often the piece of
equipment that amplifies the output of a
transceiver to several hundred watts or
more. Far more numerous, however, are
the much smaller amplifier circuits that
increase the power of small signals in
our radios and test instruments. Yet all of
them have much in common.
In a piece of equipment where several
amplifier circuits work together, each
separate amplifier circuit is called a
stage, just as a rocket has stages. A stage
whose output signal is the input to
another amplifier, particularly in a
transmitter, is called a driver. The last
amplifier in a piece of transmitting
equipment is called the final amplifier,
or simply the final. The circuit to which
an amplifier delivers its output power is
called a load. A load may be anything
from another circuit to a dummy load to
an antenna. Attaching a load to the output
of an amplifier is called loading.
Amplifier Gain
The gain of an amplifier is the ratio of
the output signal to the input signal. An
amplifier’s voltage gain is the ratio of
its output and input voltages. Current
gain is the ratio of output and input
current, and power gain is the ratio of
output and input power levels.
We often state the gain of a stage as a
“voltage gain of 16” or a “power gain of
25,” both simple ratios. But for very
large ratios, such as an IF amplifier gain
of 90 dB (1,000,000,000), it is easier to
express and work with decibels.
Decibels have been part of your license
studies since the Technician exam and
won’t be covered again in this manual,
but a primer on the dB is available on
the ECLM website.
Basic Circuits
Amplifier circuits used with bipolar
junction transistors (BJT) fall into one of
three types, known as the common-
emitter, common-base and common-
collector circuits. “Common” means that
the referenced transistor electrode —
base, emitter, collector — serves as a
reference terminal for both the input and
output connections. The common
terminal is usually circuit ground, as
shown in the following circuits.
A bipolar transistor amplifier is
essentially a current amplifier. Current
in the base-emitter circuit controls larger
currents in the collector-emitter circuit.
To use the transistor as a voltage
amplifier, the amplifier’s output current
flows through a resistive load and the
resulting voltage, or change in voltage,
is the amplifier’s voltage signal output.
Bipolar transistor base-emitter
junctions must be forward biased and the
base-collector junctions reverse biased
(see the Components and Building
Blocks chapter) in order to act as current
amplifiers. (Forward bias will be
assumed when the word bias is used
unless stated otherwise.) In circuits
using an NPN transistor, the collector
and base must be positive with respect
to the emitter. Conversely, when using a
PNP transistor, the base and collector
must be negative with respect to the
emitter. The required bias is provided
by a power source that supplies the
collector-to-emitter voltage and emitter-
to-base voltage. These bias voltages
cause two currents to flow: collector-
emitter current and base-emitter current.
The direction of current flow depends on
the type of transistor used.
Either type of transistor, PNP or NPN,
can be used with a negative- or positive-
ground power supply. Correct bias must
still be maintained, however. The
combination of bias and collector-
emitter current is called the circuit’s
operating point. The operating point
with no input signal present is called the
circuit’s quiescent or Q-point. Field-
effect transistor (FET) circuits have
many similarities to BJT circuits but are
not covered by the exam. See the ARRL
Handbook for more information on FET
circuit operation and design.
where:
Ie is the emitter current in milliamperes
RL is the output load.
The minus sign indicates that the input
and output signals are out of phase — an
increasing input voltage results in a
decreasing output voltage. The quantity
26/Ie is also called the dynamic emitter
resistance and is abbreviated re
Equation 6.1 tells us that as R3 gets
larger, AV gets smaller. Wouldn’t it be
nice if we could get rid of R3 and have
higher gain, but retain its stabilizing
effect on bias? That is the function of C3
— at dc, R3 provides bias stabilization,
while for ac signals, the low reactance
of C3 bypasses R3 and changes the
equation for voltage gain to:
and
(Equation 6.3)
OP AMP AMPLIFIERS
E7G01 — What is the typical output
impedance of an op-amp?
E7G03 — What is the typical input
impedance of an op-amp?
E7G04 — What is meant by the term
“op-amp input offset
voltage”?
E7G06 — What is the gain-bandwidth
of an operational amplifier?
E7G07 — What magnitude of voltage
gain can be expected from
the circuit in Figure E7-3
when R1 is 10 ohms and RF
is 470 ohms?
E7G08 — How does the gain of an
ideal operational amplifier
vary with frequency?
E7G09 — What will be the output
voltage of the circuit shown
in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000
ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and
0.23 volts DC is applied to
the input?
E7G10 — What absolute voltage gain
can be expected from the
circuit in Figure E7-3 when
R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68
kilohms?
E7G11 — What absolute voltage gain
can be expected from the
circuit in Figure E7-3 when
R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47
kilohms?
E7G12 — What is an operational
amplifier?
Op Amp Characteristics
A theoretically perfect (ideal) op amp
would have the following
characteristics: infinite input impedance,
zero output impedance, infinite voltage
gain that does not vary with frequency,
and zero output when the input is zero.
[E7G01, E7G03, E7G08] Because of
this, the characteristics of op amp
circuits are controlled by components
external to the op amp itself. These
criteria can be approached in a practical
op amp as described in the following
paragraphs.
The voltage gain of a practical op amp
without feedback (open-loop gain) is
often as high as 120 dB (1,000,000). Op
amps are rarely used as amplifiers in the
open-loop configuration, however.
Usually, some of the output is fed back to
the inverting input, where it acts to
reduce and stabilize the circuit gain. The
more negative feedback that is applied,
the more stable the amplifier circuit will
be.
The open loop gain of a practical op
amp decreases linearly with increasing
frequency. The gain-bandwidth of an op
amp is the frequency range over which
the open-loop voltage gain is equal to or
greater than 1 (0 dB). [E7G06]
The gain of the circuit with negative
feedback is called the closed-loop gain.
The higher the open-loop gain, the more
negative feedback that can be used and
still have a useful amount of closed-loop
gain. By connecting the op amp in a
closed-loop circuit as shown in Figure
6.6, circuit gain remains constant over a
wide frequency range.
(Equation
6.4)
Example 6.1
What is the voltage gain of the circuit
in Figure 6.7 if R1 = 1800 Ω and RF =
68 kΩ? [E7G10]
Example 6.2
What is the voltage gain of the circuit
in Figure 6.7 if R1 = 10 Ω and RF = 470
Ω? [E7G07]
Example 6.3
What is the voltage gain of the circuit
in Figure 6.7 if R1 = 3300 Ω and RF =
47 kΩ? [E7G11]
Example 6.4
What will be the output voltage of the
circuit in Figure 6.7 if R1 = 1000 Ω and
RF = 10 kΩ and the input voltage = 0.23
V? [E7G09]
The circuit is inverting, so VOUT = –AV
VIN = –10 (0.23) = –2.3 V
COMPARATORS
E6C01 — What is the function of
hysteresis in a comparator?
E6C02 — What happens when the
level of a comparator’s input
signal crosses the threshold?
CLASSES OF OPERATION
E7B01 — For what portion of the
signal cycle does each active
element in a push-pull Class
AB amplifier conduct?
E7B02 — What is a Class D
amplifier?
E7B03 — Which of the following
components form the output
of a class D amplifier
circuit?
E7B04 — Where on the load line of a
Class A common emitter
amplifier would bias
normally be set?
E7B06 — Which of the following
amplifier types reduces
even-order harmonics?
E7B07 — Which of the following is a
likely result when a Class C
amplifier is used to amplify a
single-sideband phone
signal?
E7B14 — Why are switching
amplifiers more efficient
than linear amplifiers?
Class C
For Class C amplification the bias is
adjusted so that the operating point is in
the cutoff region. The amplifier only
conducts current during part of a half-
cycle of the input signal, creating pulses
at the signal frequency, as shown in
Figure 6.10D. The result is that the
operating efficiency can be quite high —
up to 80% with proper design. Linearity
is very poor so Class C amplifiers can
only be used for CW and FM signals
which do not require linear
amplification. Using a Class C amplifier
for SSB or digital signals would result
in too much distortion and the output
signal would occupy excessive
bandwidth [E7B07] A tuned filter is
required at the output of a Class C
amplifier to reduce harmonics and other
distortion products.
DISTORTION AND
INTERMODULATION
E7B16 — What is the effect of
intermodulation products in
a linear power amplifier?
E7B17 — Why are odd-order rather
than even-order
intermodulation distortion
products of concern in linear
power amplifiers?
Neutralization
As we saw from the basic oscillator
circuit, oscillation can occur when some
of the output signal is fed back in phase
with the input signal as positive
feedback. As the output voltage
increases so will the feedback signal.
The re-amplified signal can then build
up to the point where it is self-sustaining
and the amplifier is now an oscillator.
To prevent the unwanted oscillations, it
is necessary to cancel the positive
feedback. This is done by providing an
alternate path back to the input for a
portion of the output signal. The out-of-
phase signal then cancels the in-phase
signal and prevents oscillation. [E7B08]
One neutralization technique for
vacuum-tube RF power amplifiers is
shown in Figure 6.13. In this circuit the
neutralization capacitor, C1, is adjusted
to have the same value of reactance as
the plate-to-grid interelectrode
capacitance that is providing the
feedback path causing the oscillation. By
connecting C1 to the tuned input circuit,
the phase shift results in the feedback
signal having the opposite phase of the
unwanted plate-to-grid feedback signal,
canceling it.
Parasitic Oscillations
Oscillations can also occur in an
amplifier on frequencies that have no
relation to those intended to be
amplified. Oscillations of this sort are
called parasitics because they absorb
power from the circuits in which they
occur. Parasitics occur because of
resonances that exist in the input or
output circuits, enabling positive
feedback to occur.
Parasitics are most likely to occur
above the operating frequency as a result
of stray capacitance and lead inductance
along with interelectrode capacitance. In
some cases it is possible to eliminate
parasitics by changing lead lengths or
the position of leads so as to change
their capacitance and inductance and
thus the resonant frequency.
An effective method of suppressing
parasitics in HF vacuum tube amplifiers
is to insert a parallel combination of a
small inductor and resistor in series with
the grid or plate lead. Such a parasitic
suppressor is labeled Z1 in Figure 6.13.
The coil’s reactance is high enough at
VHF/UHF that those signals must pass
through the resistor while HF signals
pass easily through the coil. The resistor
value is chosen to load the VHF/UHF
feedback path heavily enough to prevent
oscillation. Values for the coil and
resistor are usually found experimentally
as different layouts require different
suppressor values.
RF OSCILLATORS
E7H01 — What are three oscillator
circuits used in amateur
radio equipment?
E7H03 — How is positive feedback
supplied in a Hartley
oscillator?
E7H04 — How is positive feedback
supplied in a Colpitts
oscillator?
E7H05 — How is positive feedback
supplied in a Pierce
oscillator?
E7H06 — Which of the following
oscillator circuits are
commonly used in VFOs?
E7H13 — Which of the following is a
technique for providing
highly accurate and stable
oscillators needed for
microwave transmission and
reception?
Variable-Frequency Oscillators
While the quartz crystal oscillator has
excellent frequency stability, amateurs
need to be able to tune their radios over
a frequency range. This requires a
variable-frequency oscillator (VFO).
VFOs are created by using a variable
component in the oscillator’s resonant
circuit. The tradeoff is that the resulting
frequency is not as stable as that of a
crystal-controlled oscillator. Both
Hartley and Colpitts oscillators can be
used as VFOs. [E7H06] The usual
technique for adjustable LC oscillators
is to use a Colpitts oscillator in which
an adjustable tuning capacitor is placed
in parallel with the inductor. Numerous
variations on this scheme can be found
in the technical references on this book’s
website.
FREQUENCY SYNTHESIS
Modern radios do not use continuously
tunable oscillator circuits to control
signal frequency. Instead, a technique
called frequency synthesis is used to
create signals with precisely controlled
frequencies that vary in small steps of
100 Hz or less. The primary method of
frequency synthesis used in commercial
HF radios is direct digital synthesizers
(DDS). Phase-locked loop (PLL)
synthesizers were once universal in
commercial radio equipment but have
been largely replaced by DDS which
requires less analog circuitry and are
easier to integrate into digital ICs.
MIXERS
E7E08 — What are the principal
frequencies that appear at
the output of a mixer
circuit?
E7E09 — What occurs when an
excessive amount of signal
energy reaches a mixer
circuit?
MODULATORS
E7E07 — What is meant by the term
“baseband” in radio
communications?
DETECTORS AND
DEMODULATORS
E7E03 — What is a frequency
discriminator stage in a FM
receiver?
E7E10 — How does a diode envelope
detector function?
E7E11 — Which type of detector
circuit is used for
demodulating SSB signals?
Detectors
The simplest type of detector, used in
the very first radio receivers, is the
diode detector. It works by rectifying,
then filtering, the received RF signal.
[E7E10] A complete, simple receiver is
shown in Figure 6.26. This circuit only
works for strong AM signals so it is not
used very much today except for
experimentation. It does serve as a good
starting point to understand detector
operation, however. In early crystal
radio sets, a steel “cat’s whisker”
pressing on a lead crystal created a
diode (an early type of Schottky barrier
diode) to rectify the signal. Sensitive
headphones then recovered the audio
signal.
Product Detectors
A product detector is a type of mixer
that follows the IF stages in a
superheterodyne receiver. It combines
the IF output signal with the output from
a beat-frequency oscillator (BFO). The
BFO frequency is chosen so that one of
the sum-and-difference output products
is at audio frequencies. Product
detectors are used for SSB, CW, and
RTTY reception. [E7E11] The BFO is
named for the audio frequency difference
or “beat” between its output and the IF
output.
For example, if the receiver’s IF is 455
kHz and the operator prefers listening to
a CW signal with a 700 Hz tone, the
BFO could be set to 455.7 kHz, creating
sum-and-difference products at 700 Hz
and 910.7 kHz. An audio filter then
removes the higher frequency
component. The BFO frequency could
also be set to 454.3 kHz, achieving the
same result. The same process can also
be used on SSB and RTTY signals.
Detecting FM Signals
The most common FM detector is the
frequency-discriminator circuit of
Figure 6.27. It uses a transformer tuned
to the receiver’s IF to detect FM signals.
[E7E03] The primary signal is
introduced to the secondary winding’s
center tap through a capacitor. For an
unmodulated input signal, the resulting
voltages on either side of the
secondary’s center tap will cancel. But
when the signal frequency changes, there
is a phase shift in the two output
voltages that varies at the audio
frequency of the modulating signal. The
two voltages are rectified by a pair of
diodes, and the resulting difference in
output voltage becomes the audio signal.
DATA CONVERTERS
E7F06 — What is the minimum
number of bits required for
an analog-to-digital
converter to sample a signal
with a range of 1 volt at a
resolution of 1 millivolt?
E7F11 — What sets the minimum
detectable signal level for a
direct-sampling SDR
receiver in the absence of
atmospheric or thermal
noise?
E8A04 — What is “dither” with
respect to analog-to-digital
converters?
E8A09 — How many different input
levels can an analog-to-
digital converter with 8-bit
resolution?
E8A10 — What is the purpose of a
low-pass filter used in
conjunction with a digital-to-
analog converter?
E8A11 — Which of the following is a
measure of the quality of an
analog-to-digital converter?
FOURIER TRANSFORMS
E7F07 — What function is performed
by a Fast Fourier
Transform?
The Fourier transform is the software
equivalent of a hardware spectrum
analyzer which is described in the
chapter on Radio Signals and
Measurements. It takes in a signal in the
time domain of amplitude versus time
and outputs the signal translated to the
frequency domain of amplitude versus
frequency. This shows the spectral
content of the input signal. The Fourier
transform is performed on a digitized
signal by a DSP algorithm, producing
output data that represents the spectrum
of the input signal. (An inverse Fourier
transform reverses the process, turning
a frequency domain signal back into a
time domain signal.)
Calculating the Fourier transform
requires a large number of calculations.
The Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) is a
special algorithm that reduces the
number of calculations required for a
1024-sample data set by a factor of more
than 100 compared to the original
methods. The FFT is key to translating
signals from the time domain to the
frequency domain. [E7F07]
DECIMATION AND
INTERPOLATION
E7F08 — What is the function of
decimation?
E7F09 — Why is an anti-aliasing
digital filter required in a
digital decimator?
SDR HARDWARE
E7F01 — What is meant by direct
digital conversion as applied
to software defined radios?
E7F10 — What aspect of receiver
analog-to-digital conversion
determines the maximum
receive bandwidth of a
Direct Digital Conversion
SDR?
E8A02 — Which of the following is a
type of analog-to-digital
conversion?
E8A08 — Why would a direct or flash
conversion analog-to-digital
converter be useful for a
software defined radio?
DSP Modulation
A sinusoidal wave of any arbitrary
amplitude and phase may be represented
by the weighted sum of a sine and cosine
wave:
x(t) = I cos(wt) + Q sin(wt)
For mathematical convenience, the I
and Q values are combined in a single
complex number, x = I + jQ. I and Q are
the baseband message information
streams that are applied to the two RF
carrier signals of the same frequency
(wt) but 90° out of phase. This creates
the modulated signal:
In this equation, the cos(wt) – jsin(wt)
portion represents two RF carriers and
the I + jQ part represents the baseband
message. I and Q can be digital data bits
(1 or 0) that turn the carriers on and off
or they can be analog signals. The
process of recovering I and Q from the
modulated signal is the same for both.
Filter Classification
Filters are classified into the general
groups shown in Figure 6.34. A low-
pass filter is one in which all
frequencies below the cutoff frequency,
fco, (at which the output signal power is
one-half that of the input) are passed
with little or no attenuation. Above the
cutoff frequency, the attenuation
generally increases with frequency. A
high-pass filter is just the opposite;
signals are passed above the cutoff
frequency, and attenuated below. The
range of frequencies that is passed is the
passband and the range that is
attenuated, the stopband.
A band-pass filter has both an upper
and a lower cutoff frequency. Signals
between the cutoff frequencies are
passed, while those outside the passband
are attenuated. The opposite of a band-
pass filter is a band-stop filter. It
attenuates signals at frequencies between
the cutoff frequencies. If the stopband is
very narrow, that is a notch filter.
FILTER DESIGN
E7C05 — Which filter type is
described as having ripple in
the passband and a sharp
cutoff?
E7C06 — What are the distinguishing
features of an elliptical
filter?
E7C11 — Which of the following
describes a receiving filter’s
ability to reject signals
occupying an adjacent
channel?
CRYSTAL FILTERS
E7C08 — Which of the following
factors has the greatest
effect on the bandwidth and
response shape of a crystal
ladder filter?
E7C09 — What is a crystal lattice
filter?
ACTIVE FILTERS
E7G02 — What is ringing in a filter?
E7G05 — How can unwanted ringing
and audio instability be
prevented in an op-amp RC
audio filter circuit?
IMPEDANCE MATCHING
E7B09 — Which of the following
describes how the loading
and tuning capacitors are to
be adjusted when tuning a
vacuum tube RF power
amplifier that employs a Pi-
network output circuit?
E7C01 — How are the capacitors and
inductors of a low-pass filter
Pi-network arranged
between the network’s input
and output?
E7C02 — Which of the following is a
property of a T-network
with series capacitors and a
parallel shunt inductor?
E7C03 — What advantage does a
series-L Pi-L-network have
over a series-L Pi-network
for impedance matching
between the final amplifier
of a vacuum-tube
transmitter and an antenna?
E7C04 — How does an impedance-
matching circuit transform a
complex impedance to a
resistive impedance?
E7C07 — Which describes a Pi-L-
network used for matching a
vacuum tube final amplifier
to a 50-ohm unbalanced
output?
E7C12 — What is one advantage of a
Pi-matching network over an
L-matching network
consisting of a single
inductor and a single
capacitor?
L-Networks
The simplest LC impedance matching
network is the L-network. Figure 6.40
shows its four variations that have both
an inductor and capacitor. (There are
four additional variations that either
have two inductors or two capacitors,
but they are less common.) The choice of
circuit to be used is determined by the
ratio of the two impedances to be
matched and the practicality of the
component values that are required.
The L-network in Figure 6.41 will
transform to 50 Ω any higher impedance
presented at the input to the feed line.
(At least it will if you have an unlimited
choice of values for L and C.) Most
antennas and feed lines will present an
impedance that can be matched with an
L-network.
BATTERY CHARGING
REGULATORS
E7D09 — What is the main reason to
use a charge controller with
a solar power system?
SWITCHING REGULATORS
E7D02 — What is a characteristic of a
switching electronic voltage
regulator?
E7D10 — What is the primary reason
that a high-frequency
switching type high-voltage
power supply can be both
less expensive and lighter in
weight than a conventional
power supply?
Capacitors
Capacitors are often connected in
series strings to form an equivalent
capacitor with the capability to
withstand the applied voltage. When this
is done, equal-value resistors need to be
connected across each capacitor in the
string in order to distribute the voltage
equally across each capacitor. The
equalizing resistors should have a value
low enough to equalize differences in
capacitor leakage resistance between the
capacitors but high enough not to
dissipate excessive power. The
equalizing resistors also serve bleeder
resistors to discharge the filter
capacitors when power is removed and
place a constant, light load on the supply
to prevent excessive voltage with no
load connected. [E7D14]
Capacitor bodies and cases in high-
voltage strings need to be insulated from
the chassis and from each other by
mounting them on insulating panels to
prevent arcing to the chassis or other
capacitors in the string.
In order to reduce stress on the power
supply high-voltage transformer and
rectifier circuits when the supply is
turned on, a “step-start” function is often
used to charge the filter capacitors
gradually. This consists of a resistor in
the primary circuit of the power
transformer that limits the input current
to the supply. After a short period of a
second or two, the resistor is switched
out with a relay and the supply charges
to its full output. [E7D15]
Avoid older oil-filled capacitors. They
may contain polychlorinated biphenyls
(PCBs), a known cancer-causing agent.
Newer capacitors have eliminated PCBs
and have a notice on the case to that
effect. Should you encounter old oil-
filled capacitors, contact your local
power utility as they often have the
means to safely dispose of them.
In this chapter, you’ll learn about:
• Test equipment used in ham radio
• Oscilloscopes and spectrum
analyzers
• Receiver sensitivity and noise
• Dynamic range and intercept point
• Phase noise
• Transmitter intermodulation
• Atmospheric, power line, and
vehicle noise
• Noise reduction techniques
Multimeters
The multimeter is a basic piece of test
equipment that makes variety of
measurements. The digital multimeter
(DMM) is microprocessor-controlled
and most are autoranging so they
automatically choose the right range to
display voltage, resistance, and current
values. While most multimeters are
digital, moving-needle analog meters are
still common. Regardless of whether the
meter is digital or analog, their basic
specifications are similar.
The accuracy of most meters is
specified as a percentage of full scale. If
the specification states that the meter
accuracy is within 2% of full scale, the
possible error anywhere on a scale of 0
to 10 V is 2% of 10 V, or 0.2 V. The
resolution of almost any multimeter sold
today is sufficient for general
measurements in radio equipment. Most
offer “31⁄2 digit” displays, meaning that
the left-most of four digits is 1 or blank.
Such a meter has a resolution of 0.05%
at full scale, plenty good for amateur
use! See the sidebar “Accuracy,
Precision, and Resolution” for more
information on these important topics.
RMS Measurements
Some meters are specified as
measuring “true RMS” values of voltage
or current. What does “RMS” mean?
When an ac voltage is applied to a
resistor, the resistor will dissipate heat,
just as if the voltage were dc. The dc
voltage that would cause an identical
amount of heating as the ac voltage is
called the root-mean-square (RMS) or
effective value of the ac voltage. (RMS
refers to the mathematical method to
calculate RMS values.)
The RMS value of any waveform,
voltage, or current can be determined by
making a large number of point-by-point
measurements and then calculating the
RMS value. (It can also be determined
by measuring the waveform’s heating
effect on a resistor.) For this reason,
“true RMS” calculating meters are the
most accurate for determining the RMS
value of any waveform, no matter how
complex. [E8A05]
Meters that don’t perform the full
calculations usually assume the
waveform is a sine wave and convert the
measurement to an equivalent RMS
value. These meters are not accurate for
non-sinusoidal waveforms, pulses, or
waveforms with a dc offset.
Fortunately, for common symmetric ac
waveforms the conversions between
peak, peak-to-peak, average, and RMS
are simple. Table 7.1 shows how to
convert between peak, peak-to-peak,
average and RMS waveforms of sine
and square waves. You will make
frequent use of the sine wave
conversions.
RF Wattmeters
E8A06 — What is the approximate
ratio of PEP-to-average
power in a typical single-
sideband phone signal?
E8A07 — What determines the PEP-
to-average power ratio of a
single-sideband phone
signal?
THE OSCILLOSCOPE
Direct observation of high-speed
signals and waveforms is not possible
using any kind of meter or numeric
instrument. There is just too much
information to be conveyed at too high a
rate. Enter the oscilloscope, or “scope”
— the amateur’s electronic eyes. A
scope is used to display a signal’s
amplitude versus time so that the shape
and other characteristics of the
waveform can be seen and measured,
even if the signal is changing very
quickly.
While digital scopes display the
digitized input signal on a computer-type
screen, the terminology was developed
for analog scopes. For example, the
horizontal axis time calibration is often
referred to as “sweep speed” because an
electron beam was “swept” across the
face of a cathode-ray tube (CRT). In a
digital scope, nothing is “swept” but the
term and others like it remain in use.
Because many CRT-based scopes remain
in service (and are quite capable, even
preferred in some applications) this
section will retain the original analog
terminology, noting differences with the
newer digital instruments as needed.
Oscilloscope Basics
A sawtooth-type ramp waveform with
a slow rise time and a sudden fall time
causes a spot created by the electron
beam to move from left to right, creating
a narrow line of light (called the trace)
on the face of the CRT as shown in
Figure 7.4. On a digital scope, the trace
appears as a line of pixels on a digital
display.
The rate at which the beam moves
across the CRT is called the sweep
speed and it is selected by the operator.
For digital scopes, a sweep speed or
time base value determines the time per
horizontal division. The oscillator or
clock systems that control the timing of
the display are called the scope’s time
base.
The input signal to be analyzed is
applied to the scope’s vertical channel
input. Positive voltage moves the trace
upward. If a sine wave signal is applied
to the vertical input and the appropriate
sweep speed is selected, the trace will
form a sine wave as it moves up and
down simultaneously with its movement
across the tube.
An important limitation to the accuracy,
frequency response and stability of an
oscilloscope is the bandwidth
(frequency response) of the scope’s
vertical channel amplifiers. Scopes are
often specified in terms of this
bandwidth.
Scopes are also specified by how many
vertical channels they have (special
circuits can make it appear as if there
are separate traces for each channel), so
you might see a particular model listed
as a “20 MHz dual-channel scope.”
Another important performance
limitation is the accuracy and linearity of
the scope’s time base. Unless the time
base is stable, frequency and timing
measurements made with the scope will
not be accurate.
The grid of marks on the face of the
tube is called a graticule and each line
is called a division. The graticule’s
vertical axis is calibrated in
volts/division or V/div and various
scales are selectable by the operator.
The horizontal axis is calibrated in
time/division or seconds/division
(s/div). Vertical scales are often
available from mV/div to tens of V/div.
Most scopes offer horizontal axis
calibrations of a few s/div to ns/div.
This allows the display of signals with
frequencies of less than 1 Hz to hundreds
of MHz and with amplitudes ranging
from mV to tens of V.
By using a positioning control, the
amplitude and period of a signal can be
compared to the fine divisions on the
graticule’s central axes. The easiest
amplitude measurement to make with an
analog scope is an ac signal’s peak-to-
peak voltage by using the graticule lines
as shown in Figure 7.5. A digital scope
can usually make these measurements
automatically and display the results on-
screen.
There are many uses for an
oscilloscope in an amateur station. This
instrument is often used to display a
transmitter's output waveform. Such a
test can help you determine if the
amplifier stages in your transmitter are
operating properly. An oscilloscope can
also be used to display signal
waveforms during troubleshooting
procedures. For example, consider the
waveform display of Figure 7.5. The
sine wave can be seen to have some
significant distortion due to the presence
of harmonics adding to the fundamental
waveform.
Oscilloscope Probes
E4A04 — How is the compensation of
an oscilloscope probe
typically adjusted?
E4A09 — Which of the following is
good practice when using an
oscilloscope probe?
Digital Oscilloscopes
E4A01 — Which of the following
limits the highest frequency
signal that can be accurately
displayed on a digital
oscilloscope?
E4A06 — What is the effect of
aliasing on a digital
oscilloscope caused by
setting the time base too
slow?
A digital scope samples the input
signal, converting it to digital data with
an analog-to-digital converter (ADC).
All display and calculation functions are
then performed using that data. Because
digital scopes sample the input signal,
they have all of the same concerns
regarding bandwidth and frequency
response as the DSP systems discussed
in the Radio Circuits and Systems
chapter. Review the DSP material, if
necessary.
Similar to an analog scope, a digital
scope has a specified bandwidth for
displaying signals accurately. The upper
limit on bandwidth is determined by the
sampling rate of the analog-to-digital
converter. [E4A01]
Aliasing, in particular, can be a
significant challenge for digital scopes.
If the time base and sample rate are too
low for a specific signal or a signal has
too high a frequency for the scope’s
ADC, a false, jittery low-frequency alias
of the input signal will appear on the
scope’s display and be treated just as a
real signal. [E4A06] To prevent
aliasing, signals with frequencies that
are too high must be prevented from
reaching the ADC input. Scopes use
low-pass, anti-alias filters to eliminate
these signals. This limits the practical,
alias-free bandwidth of a digital scope
to a somewhat lower value than one-half
the sample rate.
The digital scope can perform many
functions automatically that an analog
scope user must perform manually. For
example, after a trace has been captured,
the time base can be expanded to “zoom
in” on a signal feature or contracted to
see more of a signal. Other functions
performed digitally include automatic
amplitude and frequency measurements,
labeling traces, storage and recall of
traces, and greatly enhanced triggering
operation.
Example 7.1
What is the MDS for a receiver with a
–174 dBm/Hz noise floor if a 400 Hz
filter bandwidth is used with the AGC
turned off? What would be the level of
an unmodulated carrier input to this
receiver that would yield an audio
output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise
bandwidth? [E4C06]
Step 1 — Calculate the bandwidth
ratio in dB = 10 log (400 Hz / 1 Hz) =
26 dB
Step 2 — To get MDS, add that figure
to –174 dBm = –174 + 26 = –148 dBm
Noise Figure
E4C04 — What is the noise figure of a
receiver?
SELECTIVITY
E4C02 — Which of the following
receiver circuits can be
effective in eliminating
interference from strong
out-of-band signals
E4D09 — What is the purpose of the
preselector in a
communications receiver?
INTERMODULATION (IMD)
E4D05 — What transmitter
frequencies would cause an
intermodulation-product
signal in a receiver tuned to
146.70 MHz when a nearby
station transmits on 146.52
MHz?
E4D11 — Why are odd-order
intermodulation products,
created within a receiver, of
particular interest compared
to other products?
where:
f1 and f2 are the input signal frequencies
n and m are positive integers; 1, 2, 3,
etc
Even-order IMD products result if the
sum of n and m is even, and odd-order
IMD products result if the sum is odd.
Second-order IMD products are created
for n + m = 2 (both n and m equal to 1).
Third-order IMD products are created if
n + m = 3.
The frequencies of even-order IMD
products caused by signals that are close
together are far from the frequency of
either input signal and so are generally
not a problem if caused by signals
within an amateur band. Second-order
IMD products are the strongest of the
even-order family and can be created in
an amateur band by strong out-of-band
signals such as from shortwave
broadcast stations. Preselectors and
front-end band-pass filters can reduce or
eliminate second-order IMD products
caused by those signals.
There are four third-order IMD product
frequencies. Two are additive (fIMD1 and
fIMD3) and two are subtractive (fIMD2 and
fIMD4):
where:
fIMD is the frequency of the IMD
product
f1 and f2 are the input signals
If the frequencies of the signals causing
the IMD products are close together,
such as in the same amateur band as the
desired signal, the subtractive IMD
products (fIMD2 and fIMD4) could possibly
be very close to the desired signal
frequency. This is true of all odd-order
IMD products although the third-order
products are the strongest. [E4D11]
Therefore, the third-order IMD
performance of a receiver is an
important receiver specification.
Here’s an example of third-order IMD
performance being important. Let’s say
your receiver is tuned to 146.70 MHz.
Whenever a nearby station is
transmitting on 146.52 MHz, you receive
intermittent bursts of garbled speech.
This is likely to be a third-order
intermodulation product generated in
your receiver which is very sensitive but
becomes nonlinear for very strong input
signals.
What are the likely frequencies for a
second strong signal that could combine
with the one on 146.52 MHz to produce
the IMD product you hear on 146.70
MHz? [E4D05] You know that the
subtractive products are the likely
source of the interfering signal because
one of the signals causing the
interference is close to the desired
frequency. If the frequency of the IMD
product is 146.70 MHz and you know
one of the strong signal frequencies, f1 =
146.52 MHz, you can solve for f2 using
Equation 7.5:
fIMD2 = 2f1 – f2
f2 = 2f1 – fIMD2 = 2 × 146.52 MHz –
146.70 MHz = 146.34 MHz
This is a common repeater input
frequency! Solving Equation 7.7 for f2
using fIMD4 and strong signal frequency
for f1, you’ll find the other possible
frequency to be (146.70 + 146.52) / 2 =
146.61 MHz. It would not be practical to
filter out these strong input signals
because they are in-band signals, close
to your operating frequency. It would be
better to use a receiver with a high
enough dynamic range to accommodate
these signals linearly and not produce
the IMD products. (If the input signals
are simply too strong, an attenuator at the
receiver input may reduce the signal
levels to a level at which they do not
create IMD products.)
Another example from the HF bands
will help illustrate the problem. If the
interfering IMD product occurs at
14.020 MHz whenever a strong station
is transmitting at 14.035 MHz, you can
expect to find the other strong signal at:
f2 = 2 × 14.035 – 14.020 = 14.050 MHz
or
f2 = (14.035 + 14.020) / 2 = 14.0275
MHz
With many strong signals closely
spaced on a typical amateur band, IMD
products can be a real problem!
Reducing intermodulation is another
reason to use roofing filters. A 6-kHz-
wide roofing filter would significantly
reduce the level of any signal at all three
of these frequencies at which the IMD
product could be generated. Other
remedies include adding attenuation as
mentioned previously or reducing RF
gain. By eliminating (or at least
reducing) strong in-band signals near the
desired signal, the receiver’s dynamic
range is improved and IMD is reduced.
Intercept Points
E4D02 — Which of the following
describes problems caused
by poor dynamic range in a
receiver?
E4D10 — What does a third-order
intercept level of 40 dBm
mean with respect to
receiver performance?
where:
IMD DR3 is the third-order
intermodulation distortion dynamic
range in dB.
IP3 is the third-order input intercept
point in dBm.
MDS is the noise floor or MDS of the
receiver in dBm.
Figure 7.16 illustrates the relationship
between the input signal levels, noise
floor, blocking dynamic range, and IMD
dynamic range. Top-quality receivers
have blocking dynamic ranges of more
than 100 dB, so the receiver we have
used in this example could be any
typical modern receiver. If a receiver
has poor dynamic range, cross-
modulation or IMD products will be
generated and desensitization (blocking)
from strong adjacent signals will occur.
[E4D02]
PHASE NOISE
E4C01 — What is an effect of
excessive phase noise in a
receiver’s local oscillator?
E4C15 — What is reciprocal mixing?
CAPTURE EFFECT
E4C03 — What is the term for the
suppression in an FM
receiver of one signal by
another stronger signal on
the same frequency?
TRANSMITTER
INTERMODULATION
E4D03 — How can intermodulation
interference between two
repeaters occur?
E4D04 — Which of the following may
reduce or eliminate
intermodulation interference
in a repeater caused by
another transmitter
operating in close proximity?
E4D06 — What is the term for
spurious signals generated
by the combination of two or
more signals in a non-linear
device or circuit?
E4D08 — What causes
intermodulation in an
electronic circuit?
E4E11 — What could cause local AM
broadcast band signals to
combine to generate
spurious signals in the MF or
HF bands?
COMPUTER INTERFERENCE
E4E06 — What is one type of
electrical interference that
might be caused by a nearby
personal computer?
NOISE REDUCTION
E4E01 — What problem can occur
when using an automatic
notch filter (ANF) to remove
interfering carriers while
receiving CW signals?
E4E02 — Which of the following
types of noise can often be
reduced with a digital signal
processing noise filter?
E4E03 — Which of the following
signals might a receiver
noise blanker be able to
remove from desired
signals?
E4E09 — What undesirable effect can
occur when using an IF noise
blanker?
Noise Blankers
Special IF circuits detect the presence
of a noise impulse and open or mute the
receive signal path just long enough to
prevent the impulse from getting through
to the audio output stages where it is
heard as a “pop” or “tick.” This
technique, called gating, is particularly
effective on power line and mobile
ignition noise.
A diode or transistor is used as a
switch to control the signal path. An
important requirement is that the IF
signal must be delayed slightly, ahead of
the switch, so that the switch is activated
precisely when the noise arrives at the
switch. The circuitry that detects the
impulse and operates the switch has a
certain time delay, so the signal in the
mainline IF path must be delayed also.
To detect the sharp noise pulses, the
noise blanker must detect signals that
appear across a wide bandwidth.
[E4E03] This usually means that the
noise blanker cannot be protected by the
narrow receive filters. As a
consequence, the noise blanker can be
fooled by strong signals into shutting
down the receiver as if they were noise
pulses. This can cause severe distortion
of desired signals, even if no noise is
present. It might sound as if the strong
signal is very “wide” with lots of
spurious signals. Before getting upset at
the station with the strong signal, make
sure your noise blanker is turned off.
[E4E09] A preamp can make your
receiver easier to overload and cause
similar problems.
8.1 Modulation
Systems
The process of adding information to
and recovering information from signals
is what radio is all about! You’ve
already studied AM techniques for the
General class exam, and modulators and
demodulators for AM signals were
covered in the Radio Circuits and
Systems chapter. In this section, we’ll
cover important signal definitions for
FM, the most popular analog mode.
We’ll also take a look at multiplexing (a
method of combining more than one flow
of information in a single signal).
Deviation Ratio
In an FM system, the ratio of the
maximum frequency deviation to the
highest audio modulating frequency is
called the deviation ratio. [E8B09] It is
a constant value for a given modulator
and transmitter, and is calculated as:
(E
where:
DMAX = peak deviation in hertz
M = maximum modulating frequency in
hertz.
Peak deviation is defined as half the
difference between the maximum and
minimum signal frequencies. That is, a
sine-wave modulating signal will cause
the signal frequency to move
symmetrically higher and lower about
the carrier frequency. If maximum
deviation is specified as ±5 kHz, a total
difference of 10 kHz between maximum
and minimum frequency, the peak
deviation is one-half that value, or 5
kHz.
Peak deviation is usually controlled by
setting an audio gain control in the FM
modulator’s circuit. Because it is fixed
for that transmitter, there is no
microphone gain control on an FM
transmitter’s front panel.
Example 8.1
In the case of narrow-band FM (the
type used in amateur analog FM voice
communications), peak deviation at
100% modulation is typically 5 kHz.
What is the deviation ratio if the
maximum modulating frequency is 3
kHz? [E8B05]
Example 8.2
If the maximum deviation of an FM
transmitter is 7.5 kHz and the maximum
modulating frequency is 3.5 kHz, what is
the deviation ratio? [E8B06]
Modulation Index
The ratio of the maximum signal
frequency deviation to the instantaneous
modulating frequency is called the
modulation index. [E8B01] Modulation
index is a measure of the relationship
between deviation and the modulating
signal’s frequency. That is:
where:
DMAX = peak deviation in hertz.
m = modulating frequency in hertz at
the same time.
Example 8.3
If the peak deviation of an FM
transmitter is 3000 Hz, what is the
modulation index when the carrier is
modulated by a 1000-Hz sine wave?
[E8B03]
Multiplexing
E8B10 — What is frequency division
multiplexing?
E8B11 — What is digital time division
multiplexing?
Codes
A code is the method by which
information is converted to and from
digital data. The individual symbols that
make up a specific code are its
elements. The elements may be numbers,
bits, tones or even images (think of the
code “one if by land and two if by sea”
used by Paul Revere).
A digital code doesn’t specify how the
data is transmitted, the rules for its
transmission or the method of
modulation. The code doesn’t control
those things — it’s only a set of rules for
changing information from one form to
another. Certain types of codes are more
suitable for different applications, a
matter of preference by the
communications system designer.
Amateur radio uses three common types
of codes: varicodes (Morse and
PSK31’s Varicode), Baudot, and ASCII.
Baudot
The Baudot code is used by RTTY
systems and has two elements — mark
and space — each the same length. The
code is made up of different
combinations of five mark and space
elements as illustrated in Figure 8.1.
(The mark tone can also be transmitted
continuously when the system is idle, but
no information is being sent during that
period.) Each combination of elements
always has the same length and each
element represents one data bit.
Figure 8.1 also shows additional
elements called start and stop bits at the
beginning and end of the group of five
that represents the character. These are
called framing bits and allow the
receiving system to synchronize itself
with the transmitted codes. A complete
received character, including the framing
bits, is called a frame.
ASCII
E8D06 — What is the advantage of
including parity bits in ASCII
characters?
E8D10 — What are some of the
differences between the
Baudot digital code and
ASCII?
E8D11 — What is one advantage of
using the ASCII code for
data communications?
Gray Code
E8C09 — Which digital code allows
only one bit to change
between sequential code
values?
CW
E8C05 — What is the approximate
bandwidth of a 13-WPM
International Morse Code
transmission?
E8C12 — What factors affect the
bandwidth of a transmitted
CW signal?
E8D04 — What is the primary effect
of extremely short rise or
fall time on a CW signal?
E8D05 — What is the most common
method of reducing key
clicks?
BW = B × K (Equation 8.3)
where:
BW is the necessary bandwidth of the
signal
B is the speed of the transmission in
baud
K is a factor relating to the shape of the
keying envelope.
The ITU bandwidth tables use a value
of 0.8 for the conversion between baud
and WPM. The second variable, K,
reflects the abruptness of the keying
waveform with typical values of 3 to 5
for amateur signals. As CW rise and fall
times get shorter (more abrupt, harder
keying), K gets larger. This is because
signals with short rise and fall times
contain more harmonics than longer,
softer envelopes. (Remember that a
square wave contains an infinite number
of odd harmonics.) The more harmonics
required to construct the keying
envelope, the greater the bandwidth of
the resulting CW signal must be. The
ITU standard suggests a typical value for
K of 5 on an HF channel where the
signal is subjected to fading. Thus, for
CW signals:
FSK/AFSK
E2E01 — Which of the following
types of modulation is
common for data emissions
below 30 MHz?
E2E04 — What is indicated when one
of the ellipses in an FSK
crossed-ellipse display
suddenly disappears?
E2E11 — What is the difference
between direct FSK and
audio FSK?
E8C06 — What is the bandwidth of a
170-hertz shift, 300-baud
ASCII transmission?
E8C07 — What is the bandwidth of a
4800-Hz frequency shift,
9600-baud ASCII FM
transmission?
where:
BW is the necessary bandwidth in
hertz.
K is a constant that depends on the
allowable signal distortion and
transmission path. For most practical
amateur FSK communications, K = 1.2.
Shift is the frequency shift in hertz.
B is the symbol rate in baud.
Example 8.5
What is the bandwidth of a 170-Hz
shift, 300-baud ASCII signal transmitted
as a J2D emission? [E8C06]
BW = (1.2 × 170 Hz) + 300 = 504 Hz
This is a necessary bandwidth of about
0.5 kHz.
Example 8.6
What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz
shift, 9600-baud ASCII signal
transmitted as an F1D emission?
[E8C07]
BW = (1.2 × 4800 Hz) + 9600 = 15360
Hz = 15.36 kHz
RTTY and other FSK/AFSK modes
require careful tuning of the SSB
transceiver so that the tones of the
signals are as close to exactly right as
possible. Errors in tuning will result in
poor copy and garbled characters,
particularly when using RTTY. To assist
in tuning, several “cross-style”
indicators have been developed. One of
the most popular is the crossed-ellipse
indicator seen in Figure 8.2. The signal
should be tuned in so that the ellipses
(representing the two FSK tones) are of
equal size and at right angles. This
display shows selective fading very
clearly, in which one or both of the tones
is severely attenuated for a short period
as the ellipse shrinks dramatically.
[E2E04]
PSK
E2E10 — Which of these digital
modes has the narrowest
bandwidth?
E8C03 — Why should phase-shifting
of a PSK signal be done at
the zero crossing of the RF
signal?
E8C04 — What technique minimizes
the bandwidth of a PSK31
signal?
HF Packet
E2E06 — What is the most common
data rate used for HF
packet?
E2E13 — Which of these digital modes
has the fastest data throughput
under clear communication
conditions?
Packet radio on HF uses the same
AX.25 protocol as on VHF, but is
limited to 300 baud by regulation to
control the signal’s bandwidth. Most HF
packet transmissions use FSK at 300
baud compared to the 1200-baud AFSK
more common on VHF FM packet
systems. [E2E06] The length of the
AX.25 packets (typically 40 bytes) and
the distortion and fading of HF
propagation combine to make HF packet
a niche mode, although under clear
communication conditions it is still
faster than 45-baud RTTY, PSK31, or
AMTOR. [E2E13]
PACTOR
E2E05 — Which of these digital
modes does not support
keyboard-to-keyboard
operation?
E2E08 — Which of the following HF
digital modes can be used to
transfer binary files?
WSJT-X Modes
E2D09 — What type of modulation is
used for JT65 contacts?
E2E03 — How is the timing of FT4
contacts organized?
OFDM Modulation
E8B07 — Orthogonal Frequency
Division Multiplexing is a
technique used for which
type of amateur
communication?
E8B08 — What describes Orthogonal
Frequency Division
Multiplexing?
SPREAD SPECTRUM
TECHNIQUES
E8D01 — Why are received spread
spectrum signals resistant to
interference?
E8D02 — What spread spectrum
communications technique
uses a high-speed binary bit
stream to shift the phase of
an RF carrier?
E8D03 — How does the spread
spectrum technique of
frequency hopping work?
Frequency Hopping
Frequency hopping (FH) is a form of
spreading in which the center frequency
of a conventional carrier is altered many
times per second in accordance with a
pseudorandom list of channels.
[E8D03] (Pseudorandom means that the
list is not truly random, but is a very
long list of numbers that appears random
before it repeats.) The same channel list
must also be used by the receiving
station. The amount of time the signal is
present on any single channel is called
the dwell time. To avoid interference
both to and from conventional frequency
users, the dwell time must be very short,
typically less than 10 milliseconds.
Direct Sequence
In direct sequence (DS) spread
spectrum, a very fast binary bit stream is
used to shift the phase of the modulated
carrier. [E8D02] DS spread spectrum is
typically used to transmit digital
information.
Like the pseudo-random frequency list
of FH systems, the sequence of the bits
created by a digital circuit is designed to
appear random. This binary sequence
can be duplicated and synchronized at
the transmitter and receiver. Such
sequences are called pseudo-noise or
PN.
Each bit of the PN code is called a
chip and the rate at which the chips shift
carrier phase is called the chip rate. If
the RF carrier’s phase is shifted 0 or
180 degrees, it is called binary phase-
shift keying (BPSK). Other types of
phase-shift keying are also used. For
example, quadrature phase-shift keying
(QPSK) shifts between four different
phases (0, 90, 180 and 270 degrees).
FAST-SCAN TELEVISION
E2B08 — What technique allows
commercial analog TV
receivers to be used for fast-
scan TV operations on the
70 cm band?
SLOW-SCAN TELEVISION
E1A12 — What special operating
frequency restrictions are
imposed on slow scan TV
transmissions?
Digital SSTV
E1B02 — Which of the following is an
acceptable bandwidth for
Digital Radio Mondiale
(DRM) based voice or SSTV
digital transmissions made
on the HF amateur bands?
E2B09 — What hardware, other than
a receiver with SSB
capability and a suitable
computer, is needed to
decode SSTV using Digital
Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
ANTENNA GAIN
In many applications, the antenna’s
most important property is its ability to
concentrate its radiated power in useful
directions. This property, however, only
has meaning with respect to other
antennas, so a reference must be
established.
Directional Antennas
Directional antennas are designed
specifically to concentrate their radiated
power in one (or more) directions. The
direction in which most of the power is
focused is the major lobe or main lobe
of radiation and is designated to be the
forward direction. Most directional
antennas also have minor lobes in the
back and side directions. The directions
of minimum radiation between the lobes
are the pattern’s nulls.
Figure 9.3 is an example of a radiation
pattern for a typical VHF beam antenna,
illustrating major and minor lobes. By
reducing radiation in the side and back
directions and concentrating it instead in
the forward direction, a beam antenna
can transmit or receive a stronger signal
in that direction.
An antenna’s gain is the ratio
(expressed in decibels) between the
signal radiated from an antenna in the
direction of its main lobe and the signal
radiated from a reference antenna in the
same direction and with the same power.
A typical beam might have 6 dB of gain
compared to a dipole which means that
it makes your signal sound four times (6
dB) louder than if you were using a
dipole with the same transmitter. The
gain of directional antennas is the result
of concentrating the radio wave in one
direction at the expense of radiation in
other directions. There is no difference
in the total amount of power radiated.
[E9B07]
There are two reference antennas used
to compare the radiation patterns of
other antennas: the half-wavelength
dipole and the isotropic antenna. Gain
referenced to the isotropic antenna is
given in dBi, and gain referenced to the
dipole in its direction of maximum
radiation is given as dBd. Fortunately,
it’s simple to convert between gain with
respect to an isotropic antenna and gain
with respect to a dipole because the
dipole has 2.15 dB of gain over an
isotropic radiator.
Gain in dBi and dBd are related as
follows:
Gain in dBd = Gain in dBi – (Equation
2.15 dB 9.1)
and
where:
dBd is antenna gain compared to a
dipole in its direction of maximum
radiation.
dBi is antenna gain compared to an
isotropic radiator.
Example 9.1
If an antenna has 6 dB more gain than
an isotropic radiator, how much gain
does it have compared to a dipole?
[E9A12]
Gain in dBd = Gain in dBi – 2.15 dB = 6
dBi – 2.15 dB = 3.85 dBd
Example 9.2
If an antenna has 12 dB more gain than
a dipole, how much gain does it have
compared to an isotropic antenna?
Gain in dBi = Gain in dBd + 2.15 dB =
12 dBi + 2.15 dB = 14.15 dBi
dBd and dBi gains are free-space
gains, meaning that there are no
reflecting surfaces near the antenna, such
as the ground. Nearby reflecting surfaces
can dramatically increase or decrease an
antenna’s gain. When you compare
specifications for several antennas, be
sure that they all use the same reference
antenna for comparison or convert the
gains from one reference to another.
Specifications should give free-space
gain or state the antenna’s height.
ANTENNA EFFICIENCY
E9A09 — What is antenna efficiency?
Antenna efficiency — the ratio of
power radiated as radio waves to the
total power input to the antenna — is
given by Equation 9.3. [E9A09]
(Equa
where:
RR = radiation resistance.
RT = total resistance.
Example 9.3
If a half-wave dipole antenna has a
radiation resistance, RR, of 70 Ω and a
total resistance, RT, of 75 Ω, what is its
efficiency?
Efficiency = (70 / 75) × 100% = 93.3%
The actual value of the radiation
resistance has little effect on the
radiation efficiency of a practical
antenna. This is because the ohmic
resistance is only on the order of 1 Ω
with the conductors used for thick
antennas. The ohmic resistance does not
become important until the radiation
resistance drops to very low values —
say less than 10 Ω — as may be the case
when several antenna elements are very
close together or for antennas such as
mobile whips and the small loops that
are very short in terms of wavelength.
ANTENNA PATTERN TYPES
E9B04 — What is the front-to-back
ratio of the radiation pattern
shown in Figure E9-2?
E9B05 — What type of antenna
pattern is shown in Figure
E9-2?
E9B06 — What is the elevation angle
of peak response in the
antenna radiation pattern
shown in Figure E9-2?
E and H Planes
Two types of radiation patterns are
often used to picture the overall, three-
dimensional radiation pattern — the E-
plane and the H-plane radiation
patterns. The E-plane pattern is taken in
the plane of the radiated electric field
and the H-plane pattern in the plane of
the magnetic field. In general, the E-
plane pattern is in the plane of the
antenna’s elements and the H-plane
pattern is perpendicular to them.
BANDWIDTH
E9A08 — What is antenna
bandwidth?
E9D08 — What happens as the Q of
an antenna increases?
Terrain
The terrain on which an antenna is
mounted affects both the azimuthal and
elevation pattern of an antenna. Over flat
ground and without nearby obstructions
the radiation patterns for the antenna
will resemble those in the antenna
design books. Once buildings and
uneven terrain enter the picture however,
the results can be much more
complicated!
Nearby buildings can serve as
“passive” reflectors (or absorbers) of
radio waves, most strongly at VHF and
higher frequencies. This can be used to
advantage, for example, by aiming an
antenna to reflect a signal off a building
toward a distant station. (Take care, of
course, to avoid exposing the inhabitants
to excessive levels of RF.) At HF, small
buildings are less of a problem but large
buildings can have the same effect as on
the higher bands.
Hills and slopes have an effect on both
the azimuthal and elevation patterns. A
hilltop is highly sought after for radio
work because the reflections from the
ground’s surface are either reduced or
are more likely to reinforce the signal at
low takeoff angles. This is particularly
true for horizontally-polarized antennas;
the major lobe’s takeoff angle will
typically be lower in the direction of a
downward slope. [E9C14]
GROUND CONNECTIONS
E9D11 — Which of the following
conductors would be best for
minimizing losses in a
station’s RF ground system?
E9D12 — Which of the following
would provide the best RF
ground for your station?
DIPOLE VARIATIONS
E9C05 — Which of the following is a
type of OCFD antenna?
E9C07 — What is the approximate
feed point impedance at the
center of a two-wire folded
dipole antenna?
E9C08 — What is a folded dipole
antenna?
E9C09 — Which of the following
describes a G5RV antenna?
E9C10 — Which of the following
describes a Zepp antenna?
E9C12 — Which of the following
describes an Extended
Double Zepp antenna?
Folded Dipole
A folded dipole antenna in Figure 9.7
is a 1⁄2-wavelength dipole with an
additional closely-spaced parallel wire
connecting the two ends at B and C to
form a narrow loop. [E9C08] The
antenna is fed in the middle of one side
of the loop. The antenna is 1⁄2 λ long from
end to end, thus the name “folded
dipole.” The folded dipole has the same
directional characteristics as a regular
dipole, but its feed point impedance is
four times that of a regular dipole and its
SWR bandwidth is wider than for the
single-conductor antenna. The higher
impedance is useful when it is desirable
to feed the antenna with ladder line or
twin lead transmission line.
The two wires act as two dipoles
connected in parallel. Because of the
close spacing the current in each is
equal. If the total power at the feed
point, P, is the same as for a single
dipole, but with only half the current, the
folded dipole’s feed point impedance, P
/ I2, must be four times that of the single-
conductor dipole: 4 × 73 = 292 Ω, a
fairly close match to 300-Ω twin lead or
open-wire transmission line. [E9C07]
Zepp and Extended Double Zepp
Antennas
The original Zepp antenna in Figure
9.8A is named for the Zeppelin airship
where it was originally used, hanging
below the airship. The Zepp is simply a
half-wave dipole with an open-wire
feed line connected at one end. [E9C10]
A common term for this antenna today is
the end-fed half-wave or EFHW. The
end of a half-wave wire is a point of
high-impedance so the length of feed line
was chosen to present a lower
impedance at the transmitter, generally a
quarter-wavelength was used.
The high feed point impedance could
be reduced by lengthening the dipole
until it was approximately 5⁄8
wavelengths long creating the extended
Zepp. Two extended Zepps can also be
connected together as in Figure 9.8B.
This creates the extended double Zepp
(EDZ) antenna which is 2 × 5⁄8 = 1.25
wavelengths long. Fed in the center, a
short section of open-wire feed line is
used to create a point at which the
impedance is approximately 50 Ω. At
that point a choke balun is used to allow
a coaxial cable to be attached. The EDZ
is really a collinear array of two half-
wave dipoles with their currents in-
phase so the pattern is bidirectional,
broadside to the antenna. [E9C12]
G5RV Antenna
A variation on the extended Zepp, the
design invented by G5RV is shown in
Figure 9.9. The length of open-wire line
is selected to produce a low impedance
on at least one band so that a 1:1 choke
balun can be used for attaching 50-Ω
coax. [E9C09] The antenna may be used
from 3.5 through 30 MHz, although the
use of an antenna tuner should be
expected on any band except 14 MHz.
On its fundamental frequency, the G5RV
has a four-lobed pattern that is
somewhat more omnidirectional than
either dipole or doublet. There are a
number of variations on this basic
antenna configuration that are referred to
as “G5RV” antennas. The common
features are center-feed with a short
length of open-wire line terminated in a
choke balun for attachment to coaxial
cable.
Rhombic Antennas
Vee beams can be combined as well,
creating the rhombic antenna, shown in
Figure 9.15. The diamond-shaped
rhombic antenna can be considered as
two Vee beams placed end-to-end; it has
four equal-length legs and the opposite
angles are equal so the antenna is
symmetrical. Each leg is at least one
wavelength long. Rhombic antennas are
installed horizontally with supports at
the four corners.
Effects of Polarization
Best results in space radio
communication are obtained not by using
horizontal or vertical polarization, but
by using a combination of the two called
circular polarization. When two equal
waves, one horizontally polarized and
one vertically polarized, are combined
with a phase difference of 90°, the result
is a circularly polarized wave.
A circularly polarized antenna can be
constructed from two dipoles or Yagis
mounted at 90° with respect to each
other and fed 90° out of phase. [E9D02]
Figure 9.19 shows an example of a
circularly polarized antenna made from
two Yagi antennas. The two driven
elements must be at the same position
along the boom for this antenna. The
driven elements are in the same plane,
which is perpendicular to the boom and
to the direction of maximum signal.
RECEIVING LOOP ANTENNAS
FOR DIRECTION FINDING
E9H03 — What is Receiving
Directivity Factor (RDF)?
E9H04 — What is an advantage of
placing a grounded
electrostatic shield around a
small loop direction-finding
antenna?
E9H05 — What is the main drawback
of a small wire-loop antenna
for direction finding?
E9H06 — What is the triangulation
method of direction finding?
E9H07 — Why is RF attenuation used
when direction-finding?
E9H08 — What is the function of a
sense antenna?
E9H09 — What is a Pennant antenna?
E9H10 — How can the output voltage
of a multiple-turn receiving
loop antenna be increased?
E9H11 — What feature of a cardioid
pattern antenna makes it
useful for direction finding?
Example 9.4
What is the effective radiated power of
a repeater station with 150 W transmitter
power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2
dB duplexer loss and 7 dBd antenna
gain? [E9A02]
System gain = –2 dB – 2.2 dB + 7 dBd =
2.8 dB
Example 9.5
What is the effective radiated power of
a repeater station with 200 W transmitter
power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2
dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss
and 10 dBd antenna gain? [E9A06]
System gain = –4 – 3.2 – 0.8 + 10 = 2
dB
Example 9.6
What is the effective isotropic radiated
power of a repeater station with 200 W
transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line
loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB
circulator loss and 7 dBi antenna gain?
[E9A07]
System gain = –2 – 2.8 – 1.2 + 7 = 1 dB
IMPEDANCE MATCHING
E9E01 — What system matches a
higher-impedance
transmission line to a lower-
impedance antenna by
connecting the line to the
driven element in two places
spaced a fraction of a
wavelength each side of
element center?
E9E02 — What is the name of an
antenna matching system
that matches an unbalanced
feed line to an antenna by
feeding the driven element
both at the center of the
element and at a fraction of
a wavelength to one side of
center?
E9E03 — What is the name of the
matching system that uses a
section of transmission line
connected in parallel with
the feed line at or near the
feed point?
E9E04 — What is the purpose of the
series capacitor in a gamma-
type antenna matching
network?
E9E05 — How must an antenna’s
driven element be tuned to
use a hairpin matching
system?
E9E09 — Which of the following is
used to shunt-feed a
grounded tower at its base?
E9G05 — Which of the following is a
common use for a Smith
chart?
(Equation 9.6)
where:
f = operating frequency (in MHz).
VF = velocity factor.
Suppose you want a section of RG-8
coaxial cable that is 1⁄4 wavelength long
at 14.1 MHz. What is its physical
length? The answer depends on the
dielectric used in the coaxial cable. RG-
8 is manufactured with polyethylene or
foamed polyethylene dielectric; velocity
factors for the two versions are 0.66 and
0.80, respectively. We’ll use the
polyethylene line with a velocity factor
of 0.66 for our example. The physical
length in meters of 1 wavelength of feed
line is given by Equation 9.7:
Example 9.8
What is the physical length of a
parallel conductor feed line that is
electrically 1⁄2 wavelength long at 14.1
MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of
0.95.)
To find the length of the 1⁄2-wavelength
line, divide by 2, so the length is 10
meters. [E9F06]
where:
Z0 is the line’s characteristic
impedance
ZL is the impedance of the load.
Evaluate this equation when ZL = Z0 or
0 Ω (shorted) or ∞ Ω (open). The only
situation where ρ = 0, meaning no power
is reflected and is all delivered to the
load, occurs for ZL = Z0.
SWR is related to the magnitude of the
reflection coefficient by:
(Equation 9.10)
(Equation 9.11)
(Equation 9.13)
where:
PR = power in the reflected wave
PF = power in the forward wave.
Whatever the reflected and forward
power may be, the difference between
them is the net amount of power being
transferred to the load; PLOAD = PF – PR.
Both forward and reflected power can
be measured with a directional power
meter or directional wattmeter in the
transmission line. Remember that the net
forward power (PF – PR) is the power
delivered to the load.
Example 9.9
How much power is being absorbed by
the load when a directional wattmeter
connected between a transmitter and a
terminating load reads 100 W forward
power and 25 W reflected power?
[E4B06]
PLOAD = PF – PR = 100 – 25 = 75 W
SMITH CHART
E9G01 — Which of the following can
be calculated using a Smith
chart?
E9G02 — What type of coordinate
system is used in a Smith
chart?
E9G03 — Which of the following is
often determined using a
Smith chart?
E9G04 — What are the two families
of circles and arcs that make
up a Smith chart?
E9G06 — On the Smith chart shown
in Figure E9-3, what is the
name for the large outer
circle on which the
reactance arcs terminate?
E9G07 — On the Smith chart shown
in Figure E9-3, what is the
only straight line shown?
E9G08 — What is the process of
normalization with regard to
a Smith chart?
E9G09 — What third family of circles
is often added to a Smith
chart during the process of
solving problems?
E9G10 — What do the arcs on a
Smith chart represent?
E9G11 — How are the wavelength
scales on a Smith chart
calibrated?
Normalization
Take a close look at the Smith chart in
Figure 9.32. If you look for the
impedance point of 50 + j0 Ω, you will
find it squashed way over in the nest of
circles at the right-hand side of the chart
— not very easy to use. Smith avoided
the problem of big numbers by
normalizing all of the coordinates to the
characteristic impedance of the line, Z0.
That impedance point is the prime
center of the Smith chart.
Normalization reassigns the values of
all points according to their ratio to Z0 at
the prime center, in this case dividing
them by 50 Ω. [E9G08] So instead of 50
Ω being over in the hard-to-read section
at the right, it’s right in the middle of the
chart at 1.0. Much better! From here on,
all of the values you plot on the Smith
chart will be the value you read on the
meter divided by 50 Ω.
Constant-SWR Circles
If you take all of the normalized
impedance points on the Smith chart that
create a certain value of SWR in a 50-Ω
transmission line, you will find that the
points make a circle centered on the
point Z = 1.0 + j0 that is at the center of
the chart. This is called a constant-SWR
circle. [E9G09] Lower SWR makes
smaller and smaller circles until at SWR
= 1.0, the circle is merely the point at the
prime center of the chart, meaning that
the terminating impedance is equal to Z0
= 50 Ω.
As SWR increases, the circles increase
in size until at SWR = ∞, the circle is the
outside edge of the chart. The SWR
caused by any impedance can be found
by measuring the distance from the
center of the chart to the impedance
point, then translating that distance onto
the linear SWR scale at the bottom of the
chart. These scales are called radially-
scaled because they represent
measurements made radially from the
center of the chart.
Wavelength Scales
Look carefully at the left side of the
Smith chart along the rim and you will
see two arrows pointing in opposite
directions, labeled “Wavelengths
Toward Generator” and “Wavelengths
Toward Load.” The chart’s outer scale,
the reactance axis, is marked to show
movement in wavelengths along the
transmission line.
There are two scales, one starting at 0
and increasing clockwise and the other
starting at 0.5 and decreasing clockwise.
Both are calibrated in fractions of
electrical wavelength inside the
transmission line. [E9G11] These are
used to work out problems that involve
the changing impedance along a
transmission line as described in the
next section.
(Equation 9.14)
10.1 Electromagnetic
Waves
E3A14 — What is meant by circularly
polarized electromagnetic
waves?
WAVEFRONTS
To an observer staying in one place,
such as a fixed station’s receiving
antenna, the electric and magnetic fields
of the wave appear to oscillate as the
wave passes. That is, the fields create
forces on electrons in the antenna that
increase and decrease in a sine wave
pattern. Some of the energy in the
propagating wave is transferred to the
electrons as the forces from the changing
fields cause them to move. This creates
a sine wave current in the antenna with a
frequency determined by the rate at
which the field strength changes in the
passing wave.
If the observer is moving along with
the wave at the same speed, however,
the strength of the fields will not change.
To that observer, the electric and
magnetic field strengths are fixed, as in a
photograph. This is a wavefront of the
electromagnetic wave — a flat surface
or plane moving through space on which
the electric and magnetic fields have a
constant value as illustrated in Figure
10.1.
Just as an ac voltage is made up of an
infinite sequence of instantaneous
voltages, each slightly larger or smaller
than the next, an infinite number of
wavefronts make up an electromagnetic
wave, one behind another like a deck of
cards. The direction of the wave is the
direction in which the wavefronts move.
The fields on each successive wavefront
have a slightly different strength, so as
they pass a fixed location, the detected
field strength changes, too. The result is
that the fixed observer “sees” fields with
strengths varying as a sine wave.
Figure 10.1B is a drawing of what
would happen if we could suddenly
freeze all of the wavefronts in Figure
10.1A and measure the electric and
magnetic field strengths of each all along
the direction the wave is traveling. In
this example, the electric field is
oriented vertically and the magnetic
field horizontally. (Each of the vertical
lines in the electric field can be thought
of as representing an individual
wavefront.) All of the wavefronts are
moving in the direction indicated — the
whole set of them moves together at the
same speed. As the wavefronts move
past the receive antenna, the varying
field strengths are perceived as a
continuously changing wave moving
through space.
POLARIZATION
The orientation of the pair of fields in
an electromagnetic wave can have any
orientation with respect to the surface of
the Earth, but the electric and magnetic
fields will always be at right angles to
each other. The orientation of the wave’s
electric field determines the polarization
of the wave. If the electric field’s lines
of force are parallel to the surface of the
Earth (meaning those of the magnetic
field are perpendicular to the Earth), the
wave is horizontally polarized.
Conversely, if the electric field’s lines
of force are perpendicular to the surface
of the Earth, the wave is vertically
polarized. Knowing the polarization of
the wave allows the receiving antenna to
be oriented so that the passing wave's E-
field results in the most current in the
antenna, maximizing received signal
strength.
For the most part, the wave’s
polarization is determined by the type of
transmitting antenna and its orientation.
For example, a Yagi antenna with its
elements parallel to the Earth’s surface
transmits a horizontally polarized wave.
On the other hand, an amateur mobile
whip antenna, mounted vertically on an
automobile, radiates a vertically
polarized wave. If a vertically polarized
antenna is used to receive a horizontally
polarized radio wave (or vice versa),
received signal strength can be reduced
by more than 20 dB as compared to
using an antenna with the same
polarization as the wave. This is called
cross-polarization. The polarization of
radio waves can be altered by being
refracted (bent) or reflected so antenna
orientation may not have to always
match for signals to be received.
It is also possible to generate
electromagnetic waves in which the
orientation of successive wavefronts —
both the electric and magnetic fields —
rotates around the direction of travel.
This is called circular polarization.
[E3A14] Imagine the wave of Figure
10.1B being twisted so at one point the
direction of the electric field is
horizontal and a bit further along the
wave it is vertical. As the twisted,
circularly polarized wave passes the
receiving antenna, the polarization of its
fields will appear to rotate. The rate at
which the polarization changes and the
direction or sense of the rotation —
right-handed (clockwise or CW as the
wave travels) or left-handed (counter-
clockwise or CCW) — is determined by
the construction of the transmitting
antenna. Note that the electric and
magnetic fields rotate together and the
right-angle between them remains fixed.
Polarization that does not rotate is called
linear polarization or plane
polarization. Horizontal and vertical
polarization are examples of linear
polarization.
To best receive a circularly polarized
wave, the sense of the receiving antenna
should match that of the transmitting
antenna. It is particularly helpful to use
circular polarization in satellite
communication, where polarization
tends to shift with the orientation of the
satellite and the path of its signal through
the atmosphere. Circular polarization is
usable with linearly polarized antennas
at one end of the signal’s path. There
will be some small loss in this case,
however.
GEOMAGNETIC FIELD
E3C02 — What is indicated by a rising
A or K index?
E3C04 — What does the value of Bz
(B sub Z) represent?
E3C05 — What orientation of Bz (B
sub z) increases the
likelihood that incoming
particles from the sun will
cause disturbed conditions?
E3C08 — What does the space
weather term “G5” mean?
10.3 HF Propagation
In nearly all cases, HF signals make the
journey between stations by either
traveling along the surface of the Earth
(ground-wave) or by being returned to
Earth after encountering the upper layers
of the ionosphere (sky-wave or skip).
The differences in frequency between
the lowest current amateur band (1.8
MHz) and the highest HF band (28 MHz)
cause the behavior of these modes of
propagation to be quite different across
the HF spectrum.
GROUND-WAVE PROPAGATION
E3C12 — How does the maximum
range of ground-wave
propagation change when
the signal frequency is
increased?
E3C13 — What type of polarization is
best for ground-wave
propagation?
SKY-WAVE PROPAGATION
E3A06 — What might help to restore
contact when DX signals
become too weak to copy
across an entire HF band a
few hours after sunset?
E3B10 — Why is chordal hop
propagation desirable?
E3B12 — What is the primary
characteristic of chordal hop
propagation?
Signals that travel into the ionosphere
can be refracted (bent) by ionized gas in
the ionosphere’s E and F regions,
returning to Earth some distance away.
This refraction occurs because the
region of ionized gases causes the radio
wave to slow down, and this bends the
wave. Refraction is primarily a
propagation mode below VHF. Signals
that follow a path away from the surface
of the Earth are called sky waves. The
path of a wave that returns to Earth after
being bent by the ionosphere is called a
hop.
The maximum one-hop skip distance
for high-frequency radio signals via the
F layer is usually considered to be about
2500 miles. (Skip via the E layer can
extend to around 1500 miles.) Most HF
communication beyond that distance
takes place by means of several
ionospheric hops in which the surface of
the Earth reflects the signals back into
the ionosphere for another hop. It is also
possible that signals may reflect
between the E and F regions, or even be
reflected several times within the F
region. When the wave makes two
successive reflections from the
ionosphere without an intervening
reflection from the ground, that is called
a chordal hop. Avoiding a lossy ground
reflections means the signal will be
stronger at the receiving end of the path.
[E3B10, E3B12]
Every day there are big changes as
night turns to day and vice versa. Bands
open and close quickly, sometimes in
minutes. By knowing the “band basics”
you can plan your operating periods and
react to the conditions you find on the
air. For example, if you’re making HF
contacts with stations in Europe after
sunset, soon the signals all across the
band will start to get weaker. When the
band is about to close, signals will begin
to exhibit the rapid fading that gives
them a distinctive fluttery sound. What
can you do to keep making those
contacts? By learning how HF
propagation works, you know that the
MUF between your station and Europe is
dropping. In response, change to a
lower-frequency band. [E3A06] This is
called “following the bands” and it
works in reverse as the MUF moves
higher through the morning.
Absorption
E3C03 — Which of the following
signal paths is most likely to
experience high levels of
absorption when the A index
or K index is elevated?
E3C15 — What might be indicated by
a sudden rise in radio
background noise across a
large portion of the HF
spectrum?
The lowest of the ionosphere’s layers
is the D layer, occupying from around 35
to 60 miles above the Earth’s surface.
The D layer exists in a relatively dense
region, compared to the rest of the
ionosphere. This means the ionized
atoms and molecules are closer together
and recombine quickly. As a result, the
D layer is present only when illuminated
by the Sun. Created at sunrise and
reaching its strongest around local noon,
the D layer disappears quickly after
sunset.
When a passing wave causes D layer
electrons to move, they collide with
other electrons and ions so frequently
that a great deal of the wave’s energy is
dissipated as heat. This is called
ionospheric absorption. The longer the
wavelength of the radio wave, the
farther the electron travels under
influence of the wave and the greater the
portion of the wave’s energy lost as heat.
This means absorption eliminates long-
distance sky-wave propagation on the
1.8 and 3.5 MHz bands during the day,
especially during periods of high solar
activity. NVIS (near vertical incidence
sky-wave) and ground-wave propagation
can be used during daylight hours on
these bands, however.
Geomagnetic disturbances and solar
flares also increase absorption.
Disruptions in the ionosphere from a
changing magnetic field cause more of a
radio wave’s energy to be dissipated as
heat. As the A and K indices rise, so
does absorption, particularly along polar
paths that travel through the auroral
zones where most charged particles from
the Sun enter the Earth’s atmosphere.
[E3C03] The large pulse of X-ray and
UV energy generated by a solar flare
raises ionization in the entire upper
atmosphere, increasing dissipation of
lower-frequency radio waves on the
Earth’s daylight side facing the Sun. If
you are on the air when a solar flare
occurs, noise levels on the HF bands
slowly increase as signals fade.
[E3C15] The effects last for several
hours until ionization levels return to
normal.
RADIO HORIZON
E3C06 — By how much does the
VHF/UHF radio horizon
distance exceed the
geometric horizon?
E3C14 — Why does the radio-path
horizon distance exceed the
geometric horizon?
SPORADIC E PROPAGATION
E3B09 — At what time of year is
sporadic E propagation most
likely to occur?
E3B11 — At what time of day can
sporadic E propagation
occur?
TRANSEQUATORIAL
PROPAGATION
E3B01 — What is transequatorial
propagation?
E3B02 — What is the approximate
maximum range for signals
using transequatorial
propagation?
E3B03 — What is the best time of day
for transequatorial
propagation?
AURORAL PROPAGATION
E3A12 — What is the cause of auroral
activity?
E3A13 — Which of these emission
modes is best for auroral
propagation?
Auroral propagation occurs when
VHF radio waves are reflected from the
ionization created by an auroral curtain.
It is a VHF and UHF propagation mode
that allows contacts up to about 1400
miles. Auroral propagation occurs for
stations near the northern and southern
polar regions but the discussion here is
limited to auroral propagation in the
Northern Hemisphere.
Aurora results from a large-scale
interaction between the ionosphere and
magnetic field of the Earth and
electrically charged particles of the
solar wind, ejected from the surface of
the Sun. Visible aurora, often called the
northern lights or aurora borealis, is
caused by the collision of these solar-
wind particles with oxygen and nitrogen
molecules in the E layer. [E3A12] These
collisions partially ionize the molecules,
creating a conductive region capable of
reflecting radio waves.
When the electrons that were knocked
loose from the oxygen and nitrogen
recombine with the molecules, light is
produced. The extent of the ionization
determines how bright the aurora will
appear. At times, the ionization is so
strong that it is able to reflect radio
signals with frequencies as low as 20
MHz. This ionization occurs at an
altitude of about 70 miles in the E layer
of the ionosphere. Not all auroral
activity is intense enough to reflect radio
signals, so a distinction is made between
a visible aurora and a radio aurora.
Figure 10.12 shows the relatively
likelihood of auroral propagation at
different latitudes in North America.
METEOR SCATTER
COMMUNICATIONS
E2D01 — Which of the following
digital modes is designed for
meteor scatter
communications?
E2D02 — Which of the following is a
good technique for making
meteor scatter contacts?
E3A08 — When a meteor strikes the
Earth’s atmosphere, a
cylindrical region of free
electrons is formed at what
layer of the ionosphere?
E3A09 — Which of the following
frequency ranges is most
suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
EARTH-MOON-EARTH
COMMUNICATIONS
E2D03 — Which of the following
digital modes is especially
useful for EME
communications?
E2D05 — What is one advantage of
the JT65 mode?
E2D06 — Which of the following
describes a method of
establishing EME contacts?
E3A01 — What is the approximate
maximum separation
measured along the surface
of the Earth between two
stations communicating by
EME?
E3A02 — What characterizes
libration fading of an EME
signal?
E3A03 — When scheduling EME
contacts, which of these
conditions will generally
result in the least path loss?
11.1 Hazardous
Materials
E0A07 — How may dangerous levels
of carbon monoxide from an
emergency generator be
detected?
E0A09 — Which insulating material
commonly used as a thermal
conductor for some types of
electronic devices is
extremely toxic if broken or
crushed and the particles are
accidentally inhaled?
E0A10 — What toxic material may be
present in some electronic
components such as high
voltage capacitors and
transformers?
PCBs
Not printed-circuit boards, of course,
but polychlorinated biphenyls, are the
PCBs referred to by this section. You
may have heard about PCBs
contaminating industrial sites or
locations where waste oils were
dumped. PCBs are an additive to
insulating oils once commonly used in
electrical equipment. PCBs helped the
oil retain its insulating properties
without breaking down and so became
widely used until the hazard they
presented became known. PCBs are
known carcinogens — exposure to them,
even in small amounts, elevates the risk
of certain types of cancer.
In the ham station, PCBs may be found
in older oil-filled high-voltage
capacitors and sometimes utility-style
high-voltage transformers referred to as
“pole pigs.” [E0A10] These were used
in dc power supplies for tube-type RF
amplifiers. Since any component
containing PCBs would have to be fairly
old, it is a good idea to replace it with a
new one. If you are unsure whether a
component does or doesn’t contain
PCBs, you can contact the manufacturer
with the model number (if the
manufacturer is known and still in
business).
If you find such a component or remove
one from equipment, wear protective
gloves and wipe down the outside of the
case with a paper towel. Place the paper
towel and the component in a plastic bag
or wrap it in plastic and take it to your
local electric utility. They have
procedures for safely and properly
disposing of PCBs and may be able to
handle it for you at no charge. Some
local governments also have regular
toxic-disposal opportunities and you can
get rid of the component there, as well.
CARBON MONOXIDE
The use of fossil fuel-powered
generators and heaters during emergency
and portable operation is becoming
increasingly common. This presents
several hazards of which the amateur
should be aware, including electrical,
fire, and fuel storage hazards. A
particularly worrisome hazard is caused
by the carbon monoxide (CO) emitted by
these devices.
Carbon monoxide is an odorless and
colorless gas, so there is no warning
detectable by humans that concentrations
of CO have risen to dangerous levels.
For that reason, it is important for
generators and heaters (including wood-
burning stoves) to only be used in well-
ventilated areas away from people. The
only reliable method of sensing the
presence of excessive levels of CO is by
using a carbon monoxide detector — a
smoke alarm will not respond to CO
alone. [E0A07] A CO detector should
be placed in any area occupied by
people in which CO from generator
exhaust or heater vent can build up.
11.2 RF Exposure
E0A02 — When evaluating RF
exposure levels from your
station at a neighbor’s home,
what must you do?
E0A03 — Over what range of
frequencies are the FCC
human body RF exposure
limits most restrictive?
E0A06 — Why are there separate
electric (E) and magnetic
(H) field MPE limits?
E0A08 — What does SAR measure?
E0A11 — Which of the following
injuries can result from using
high-power UHF or
microwave transmitters?
POWER DENSITY
Heating from exposure to RF signals is
caused by the body absorbing RF energy.
The intensity of the RF energy is called
power density and it is measured in
mW/cm2 (milliwatts per square
centimeter) which is power per unit of
area. For example, if the power density
in an RF field is 10 mW/cm2 and your
hand’s surface area is 75 cm2, then your
hand is exposed to a total of 10 × 75 =
750 mW of RF power in that RF field.
Power density is highest near antennas
and in the directions in which antennas
have the most gain. Increasing
transmitter power increases power
density around the antenna. Increasing
distance from an antenna lowers power
density.
While RF exposure is measured in
mW/cm2 for most amateur requirements,
the body’s response to both E and H
fields suggest that the RF exposure can
also be measured in V/m (for the E
field) and A/m (for the H field).
Depending on the source of the RF and
the environment, either of these
measurements may be more appropriate
than power density. For example, around
reflecting surfaces or conducting
materials, the intensity of the E and H
fields can peak in different locations.
Under and near antennas, ground
reflections and scattering can make the
field impedance (the ratio of E field to H
field strength) vary with location, as
well. [E0A06]
Duty Cycle
Duty cycle is the ratio of transmitter on
time to total time during the exposure.
Duty cycle has a maximum of 100%.
(Duty factor is the same as duty cycle
expressed as a fraction instead of
percent. For example, a duty cycle of
25% is equivalent to a duty factor of
0.25.) The lower the transmission duty
cycle (the less the transmitter is on), the
lower the average exposure. A lower
transmission duty cycle permits greater
short-term exposure levels for a given
average exposure. This is the
operational duty cycle. For most
amateur operation listening and
transmitting time are about the same, so
operational duty cycle is rarely higher
than 50%.
Along with operational duty cycle, the
different modes themselves have
different emission duty cycles as shown
in Table 11.2. For example, a normal
SSB signal without speech processing to
raise average power is considered to
have an emission duty cycle of 20%. In
contrast, FM is a constant-power mode
so its emission duty cycle is 100%.
Transmitter PEP multiplied by the
emission duty cycle multiplied by the
operating duty cycle gives the average
power output.
For example, if a station is using SSB
without speech processing, transmitting
and listening for equal amounts of time
and with a PEP of 150 W, then the
average power output is 150 W × 20% ×
50%, or 15 W.
For the AM entries, note that the table
assumes the same PEP for all signals. If
PEP is the same, an AM signal with 50%
modulation has a higher duty factor
(more carrier, less sidebands) than for a
signal with 100% modulation. Because
the average power of the signal depends
on modulation, the duty cycle can range
from 25% to 100%.
ANTENNA SYSTEM
You must also take into account the
amount of gain provided by your antenna
and any significant losses from the feed
line. High gain antennas increase a
signal’s average power considerably.
For example, let’s modify the previous
example by using an antenna with 6 dB
of gain. If the transmitter PEP is
increased from 150 W to 600 W by the 6
dB antenna gain, the average power is
600 W × 20% × 50%, or 60 W.
Including antenna gain in the field
strength calculation is required only
when the evaluation is being performed
in the antenna’s far field. The far field
begins approximately 10 wavelengths or
so from the antenna and is generally
considered to be the region in which the
antenna’s radiation pattern has assumed
its final shape and does not change with
increasing distance from the antenna. If
the evaluation is to be performed in the
near field (anything closer than the far
field distance), then a different measure
of antenna gain must be used.
ESTIMATING EXPOSURE AND
STATION EVALUATION
E0A04 — When evaluating a site with
multiple transmitters
operating at the same time,
the operators and licensees
of which transmitters are
responsible for mitigating
over-exposure situations?
E0A05 — What is one of the potential
hazards of operating in the
amateur radio microwave
bands?
LIGHTNING DISSIPATION
GROUND
E0A01 — What is the primary
function of an external earth
connection or ground rod?
COMMON REFERENCE
POTENTIAL
The typical ham station includes a lot
of circuits that are sensitive to
interfering signals at millivolt levels,
such as audio signals to and from sound
cards. To keep from contaminating these
small signals with RF, we shouldn’t be
using the equipment enclosures or
shielding conductors as part of the RF
circuit.
Instead, we design our stations to
create a common reference potential,
called the “reference plane” or “RF
bonding” and we work to keep
equipment connected to the reference
plane at a common potential. This
minimizes RF current that would flow
between pieces of equipment. The
general idea of an RF bonding bus is
shown in Figure 11.3.
A
A index — A geomagnetic-field measurement
used to indicate HF propagation conditions.
Rising values generally indicate disturbed
conditions while falling values indicate
improving conditions. See also K index.
Admittance (Y) — The reciprocal of
impedance.
Alpha (α) — The ratio of transistor collector
current to emitter current. It is between 0.92
and 0.98 for a bipolar junction transistor.
Amplitude modulation (AM) — A method of
superimposing an information signal on an
RF carrier wave in which the amplitude of the
RF envelope (carrier and sidebands) is varied
in relation to the information signal strength.
Analog-to-digital converter (ADC) — A
circuit that converts analog signals to digital
values.
Anode — The terminal connected to the
positive supply for current to flow through a
device.
ASCII — American National Standard Code
for Information Interchange
ATV (amateur television) — A fast-scan TV
system that can use commercial transmission
standards on the 70-cm band and higher
frequencies.
Audio FSK (AFSK) — Generating a frequency
shift keying (FSK) signal by inputting tones
to the transmitter through the audio or
microphone input.
Automatic Link Enable (ALE) — A digital
mode that uses automatic control to find
frequencies at which two stations can
communicate.
Automatic Packet Reporting System
(APRS) — A system of sending location and
other data over packet radio to a common
website for tracking and recording purposes.
AX.25 — The amateur implementation of the
X.25 communications protocol, used for
packet radio.
B
B Z — The B index is a measurement of the
Earth’s geomagnetic field’s strength and
orientation with three-dimensional values:
BX, BY, and BZ. BZ indicates the strength of
the north-south field.
Bandwidth (BW) — (1) The frequency range
over which a signal or the output of a circuit
is within 3 dB of its peak strength within that
range. (2) The frequency range over which a
circuit or antenna meets a specified
performance requirement.
Baseband — (1) The information that
modulates a carrier or that is recovered from
a modulated signal. (2) A video signal with its
lowest frequency component at or near dc.
Baud — A unit of signaling speed equal to the
number of discrete conditions or events per
second. (For example, if an FSK signal
changes frequency every 3.33 milliseconds,
the signaling or baud rate is 300 bauds or the
reciprocal of 0.00333 seconds.) Baud is
equivalent to symbol rate.
Beta (β) — Current gain of a bipolar transistor,
the ratio of collector to base current.
BiCMOS — A digital logic family that
combines bipolar and CMOS technology in a
single integrated circuit.
Bipolar junction transistor (BJT) — A
transistor made of three layers of alternating
type material (N or P) creating two PN
semiconductor junctions between them.
C
Cabrillo format — A standardized digital file
format for submitting information in a
contest log.
Cardioid (radiation pattern) — A heart-
shaped antenna pattern characterized by a
single main lobe and a deep, narrow null in
the opposite direction.
Cathode — The terminal connected to the
negative supply for current to flow through a
device.
CEPT (European Conference of Postal and
Telecommunications Administrations)
agreement — A multilateral operating
arrangement that allows US amateurs to
operate in many European countries, and
amateurs from many European countries to
operate in the US.
Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination (CSCE) — A document issued
by a Volunteer Examiner Team to certify that
a candidate has passed specific exam
elements at their test session. If the candidate
qualified for a license upgrade at the exam
session, the CSCE provides the authority to
operate using the newly earned license
privileges, with special identification
procedures.
Chroma (chrominance) — Information in a
composite video signal that carries the color
information. A chroma burst is a short period
of signal used to synchronize color
processing circuitry.
Circulator — A passive device with three or
more ports that allows radio waves to travel
between ports in only one direction.
CMOS — Complementary metal oxide
semiconductor (digital logic family)
Code division multiple access (CDMA) — A
method of using spread spectrum techniques
to share a common frequency range by
assigning each signal a different spreading
code.
Common — In a transistor circuit (common-
emitter/collector/base/source/gate/drain), the
transistor electrode that is shared or used as a
reference for both input and output circuits.
Complementary metal-oxide
semiconductor (CMOS) — A type of
construction used to make digital integrated
circuits with both N-channel and P-channel
MOS devices on the same chip.
Conductance (G) — The reciprocal of
resistance. The real part of complex
admittance.
Cross-modulation — See intermodulation
distortion.
Cross-polarized — Antennas or signals that
are aligned with their polarization at right
angles.
Cutoff frequency (fC) — The frequency at
which (1) the output power of a passive
circuit is reduced to half of its input or (2)
the power gain of an active circuit is one-half
its peak gain.
D
Decibel (dB) — A logarithm of the ratio of
two power levels: dB = 10 log (P2/P1).
Power gains and losses are expressed in
decibels.
Depletion mode — Type of FET in which
drain-source current is reduced by reverse
bias on the gate.
Dielectric — An insulating material in which
energy can be stored by an electric field.
Dielectric constant (k) — Also known as an
insulating material’s relative permittivity
compared to that of free space. See also
permittivity.
Digital-to-analog converter (DAC) — A
circuit that converts digital values to analog
signals.
Digital Amateur Television (DATV) —
Amateur television that uses commercial
digital television modulation techniques and
equipment.
Digital multimeter (DMM) — An instrument
with a digital display that measures voltage,
current, and resistance.
Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) — A digital
modulation method used to transfer audio and
data on HF bands.
DIP — dual in-line package. A type of
integrated circuit package with two parallel
rows of pins.
Direct digital conversion (DDC) — In a
software defined radio (SDR) the conversion
of RF directly to and from digital data
without an intermediate frequency conversion
step.
Direct digital synthesizer (DDS) — The
technique of generating a signal from a
sequence of digital values stored in a table.
Direct FSK — Generating a frequency shift
keying (FSK) signal by shifting the
transmitter frequency directly under the
control of a digital signal.
Direct sequence (DS) — A spread-spectrum
communications system in which a very fast
binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of
an RF carrier.
DSB-SC — Double-sideband, suppressed
carrier
DX — Distance. On HF, often used to describe
stations in countries outside your own.
E
E plane — The plane of the electric field of an
antenna’s radiation.
Effective radiated power (ERP) — A
measure of the power radiated from an
antenna system. ERP takes into account
transmitter output power, feed line losses and
other system losses, and antenna gain as
compared to a dipole. Effective isotropic
radiated power (EIRP) is the same as ERP
except the reference antenna is an isotropic
radiator.
Electromagnetic (EM) waves — Energy
moving through space or materials in the
form of changing electric and magnetic
fields.
EME — Earth-Moon-Earth (see also
moonbounce)
Enhancement mode — An FET in which
drain-source current is increased by forward
bias on the gate.
Error correction — see Forward error
correction
Extraordinary or X wave — The cross-
polarized component of a radio wave that
splits in two upon encountering the
ionosphere. See also ordinary wave.
F
Fast-scan TV (FSTV) — See ATV.
Field-effect transistor (FET) — A
semiconductor device that uses voltage to
control output current.
Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter — A
digital filter with a response to an impulse
signal that lasts for a finite amount of time.
See also Infinite Impulse Response (IIR)
filter.
Forward error correction (FEC) — The
method of adding special codes to a data
stream so that a receiving system can detect
and correct certain types of transmission
errors.
Frequency division multiplexing (FDM) —
Combining more than one stream of
information in a single transmitted signal by
using different modulating frequencies.
Frequency hopping (FH) — A spread-
spectrum communications system in which
the center frequency of a conventional carrier
is altered many times a second in accordance
with a pseudorandom list of channels.
Frequency modulation (FM) — A method of
superimposing an information signal on an
RF carrier wave in which the instantaneous
frequency of an RF carrier wave is varied in
relation to the information signal strength.
Frequency shift keying (FSK) — A method
of digital modulation in which individual bit
values are represented by specific
frequencies. If two frequencies are used, one
is called mark and one space.
Frequency standard — A circuit or device
used to produce a highly accurate reference
frequency. The frequency standard may be a
crystal oscillator in a marker generator or a
radio broadcast, such as from WWV, with a
carefully controlled transmit frequency.
Front-to-side (F/S)/back (F/B)/rear (F/R)
ratio — The ratio of field strength at the
peak of the major lobe to that in the specified
direction. Rear implies an average value over
a specified angle centered on the back
direction.
FT4, FT8 — Digital messaging protocols for
use at low signal-to-noise ratios. Part of the
WSJT-X software suite.
G
G index — An index indicating the impact of a
geomagnetic storm on propagation, ranging
from minor (G1) to extreme (G5).
G5RV antenna — A multi-band antenna
similar to a dipole that is fed in the middle
with a specific length of open-wire
transmission line to create a low impedance
suitable for connecting to a coaxial feed line.
Grid square locator — A 2° longitude by 1°
latitude rectangle identified by a four-
character label such as “EM48.” Grid square
locators are exchanged in some contests, and
are used as the basis for some VHF/UHF
awards.
H
H plane — The plane of the magnetic field of
an antenna’s radiation.
Height above average terrain (HAAT) —
The height of an antenna above an average
elevation of the surrounding terrain
determined by measurements along several
radial lines from the antenna.
I
IARP (International Amateur Radio
Permit) — A multilateral operating
arrangement that allows US amateurs to
operate in many Central and South American
countries, and amateurs from many Central
and South American countries to operate in
the US.
IF — Intermediate frequency.
Impedance (Z) — The general term for
opposition to current flow, either ac or dc.
Impedance is made up of resistance and
reactance.
Infinite impulse response (IIR) filter — A
digital filter with a response to an impulse
signal that persists forever. See also Finite
impulse response filter.
Intercept point (IP) — The level of a receiver
input signal at which distortion products
would be as strong as the desired output.
Intermodulation distortion (IMD) — A type
of interference that results from the
unwanted mixing of two strong signals,
producing a signal on an unintended
frequency. Often abbreviated as “intermod”.
Isolator — A passive attenuator in which the
loss in one direction is much greater than the
loss in the other.
Isotropic — The same in all directions.
J
Joule (J) — The unit of energy in the metric
system of measure.
Junction field-effect transistor (JFET) — A
field-effect transistor in which the gate
electrode and channel are in direct contact
and made of opposite types of semiconductor
materials (N or P).
JT65 — A multi-tone FSK mode used with
extremely low signal-to-noise ratios.
K
K index — A geomagnetic-field measurement
used to indicate HF propagation conditions.
Rising values generally indicate disturbed
conditions while falling values indicate
improving conditions. See also A index.
Keplerian elements — Parameters that
describe a satellite’s orbit such that it can be
located in the sky at any time.
L
Line A — A line parallel to and approximately
50 miles from the Canadian border, north of
which US amateurs may not transmit on 420
– 430 MHz because of interference with
Canadian stations.
LO — Local oscillator
Low Earth Orbit (LEO) — Orbits from 200
– 500 miles above the Earth. The
International Space Station is in LEO.
M
Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE) —
The highest allowed level of exposure to RF.
Metal-oxide semiconductor FET
(MOSFET) — A field-effect transistor with
the gate insulated from the channel material.
Also called an IGFET or insulated gate FET.
Minimum discernible signal (MDS) — The
input signal level equal to the receiver’s
internal noise.
Monolithic microwave integrated circuit
(MMIC) — An integrated circuit designed
for operation at microwave frequencies.
MMICs usually provide simple functions
such as amplification.
Moonbounce — A common name for Earth-
Moon-Earth (EME) communication in which
signals are reflected from the Moon before
being received.
MSK144 — A digital mode designed for use
with meteor scatter propagation. Part of the
WSJT-X software suite.
N
Noise blanker (NB) — A circuit that removes
noise from the receiver output by muting the
receiver during a noise pulse.
Noise figure — The ratio in dB of the noise
output power to the noise input power with
the input termination at a standard
temperature of 290 K. It is a measure of the
noise generated in the receiver circuitry.
Noise factor is the same quantity expressed
as a linear ratio.
Noise reduction (NR) — A type of adaptive
filtering that removes unwanted noise in a
signal’s passband.
NTSC — National Television Standard
Committee. The US analog television
standard.
N-type material — Semiconductor material
that has been treated with impurities to give it
an excess of electrons.
O
OFCD (Off-center fed dipole) — A dipole
fed away from its center point to present a
similar feed point impedance on different
bands.
Ordinary or O wave — The component of a
radio wave that retains its original
polarization when it splits in two upon
encountering the ionosphere. See also
extraordinary wave.
Orthogonal Frequency Division
Multiplexing (OFDM) — The technique of
transmitting digital data by modulating
multiple carriers separated to minimize
interference between them.
P
PCB (hazardous materials) —
Polychlorinated biphenyls, carcinogenic
hydrocarbons once added to insulating oils
Peak envelope power (PEP) — The
maximum average power level in a signal
during one cycle during a modulation peak.
(Used for modulated RF signals.)
Peak envelope voltage (PEV) — The
maximum voltage in a cycle at the peak of a
modulated signal envelope.
Peak inverse voltage (PIV) — The maximum
instantaneous anode-to-cathode reverse
voltage that may be applied to a diode without
damage.
Peak-to-peak (P-P) voltage — The
difference between the negative and positive
peak voltages of a waveform.
Pedersen ray — A high-angle radio wave that
penetrates deeper into the F region of the
ionosphere so the wave is bent less than a
lower-angle wave and thus travels for some
distance through the F region, returning to
Earth at a distance farther than normally
expected for single-hop propagation.
Period (T) — The time it takes to complete
one cycle of an ac waveform.
Permeability (µ) — The ability of a material
to store energy in a magnetic field.
Permittivity (ε) — The ability of a material to
store energy in an electric field.
Phase-locked loop (PLL) — A servo loop
consisting of a phase detector, low-pass
filter, dc amplifier and voltage-controlled
oscillator.
Phase modulation (PM) — A method of
superimposing an information signal on an
RF carrier wave in which the phase of an RF
carrier wave is varied in relation to the
information signal strength.
Phase shift keying (PSK) — A method of
modulation in which the phase of a carrier
signal is varied to represent different digital
values.
PIN diode — A diode consisting of a relatively
thick layer of nearly pure semiconductor
material (intrinsic semiconductor) with a
layer of P-type material on one side and a
layer of N-type material on the other.
PN junction — The contact area between two
layers of opposite-type semiconductor
material.
PRB-1 — The FCC regulation requiring local
governments to make reasonable
accommodations for amateur radio in land-
use regulations.
Programmable logic device (PLD) — A
digital integrated circuit consisting of
individual logic circuit elements and
subsystems that can be connected together
(programmed) to implement a complex
function. If the logic elements are logic gates
the device is called a Programmable Gate
Array (PGA).
Pseudonoise (PN) — A binary sequence
designed to appear to be random (contain an
approximately equal number of ones and
zeros). Pseudonoise is generated by a digital
circuit and mixed with digital information to
produce a direct-sequence spread-spectrum
signal.
P-type material — A semiconductor material
that has been treated with impurities to give it
an electron shortage. This creates excess
positive charge carriers, or “holes.”
Q
Q — (circuit or component) A quality factor
describing how much energy is lost in a
component or circuit due to resistance
compared to energy stored in reactance.
(frequency response) The ratio of center
frequency of a filter to its bandwidth.
Q point — See operating point; also called
quiescent point.
Q section — A quarter-wave section of
transmission line used for impedance
matching.
R
RACES — Radio Amateur Civil Emergency
Service.
Radians — A unit of angular measurement.
There are 2π radians in a circle and 1 radian
= 57.3°
Reactance (X) — The opposition to ac current
due to capacitance or inductance. The
imaginary component of complex impedance.
Receiving directivity factor (RDF) — The
ratio of an antenna’s forward gain to its
average of gain over all directions, a figure of
merit for an antenna’s receiving directivity.
Reflection coefficient (ρ or Γ) — The ratio of
the reflected voltage at a given point on a
transmission line to the incident voltage at
the same point. The reflection coefficient is
also equal to the ratio of reflected and
incident currents.
Root-mean-square (RMS) voltage — A
measure of the effective value of an ac
voltage. The value of a dc voltage that would
produce the same amount of heat in a
resistance as the ac voltage.
S
S or scattering parameters — Ratios of
incident and reflected voltage waves at and
between the signal ports of a circuit. S
parameters are used to describe impedance,
gain, SWR, and other parameters of circuits
at RF.
Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) — The numeric
ratio of signal power to noise power in a
given bandwidth. Signal-to-noise-plus-
distortion (SINAD) adds distortion product
power to the noise power.
Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier signal
(SSB) — A radio signal in which only one of
the two sidebands generated by amplitude
modulation is transmitted. The other sideband
and the RF carrier wave are removed before
the signal is transmitted.
Slow-scan television (SSTV) — A television
system used by amateurs to transmit pictures
within a voice signal’s bandwidth allowed on
the HF bands by the FCC. Each frame takes
several seconds to transmit.
Software defined radio (SDR) — A receiver
and/or transmitter based on DSP techniques
and with a modulation/demodulation
configuration determined entirely by
software.
Specific absorption rate (SAR) — The rate at
which the body absorbs electromagnetic
energy.
Sporadic E — A type of propagation for upper
HF, VHF, and lower UHF signals that occurs
when signals are reflected by highly-ionized
regions of the E layer.
Spread-spectrum (SS) communication — A
communications method in which the RF
bandwidth of the transmitted signal is much
larger than that needed for traditional
modulation schemes, and in which the RF
bandwidth is independent of the modulation
content. Increasing the bandwidth of the
signal by means of a randomizing sequence
(spreading code) is called spreading.
Surface-mount device (SMD) — An
electronic component without wire leads,
designed to be soldered directly to copper-
foil pads on a circuit board.
Surface-mount technology (SMT) — The
general term for methods and devices for
mounting components directly on printed-
circuit boards.
Susceptance (B) — The reciprocal of
reactance. The imaginary part of complex
admittance.
T
Time division multiplexing (TDM) —
Combining more than one stream of
information in a single transmitted signal by
using different time periods or “slots” for
each stream.
Transconductance (gm) — The ratio of output
current to input voltage, primarily used with
FETs and vacuum tubes.
Transequatorial propagation (TE) — A form
of F-layer ionospheric propagation, in which
signals of higher frequency than the expected
MUF propagate across the Earth’s magnetic
equator.
V
Vector network analyzer (VNA) — A test
instrument that measures complex
impedance, phase, and amplitude in circuits at
RF.
Velocity factor (VF, velocity of propagation)
— An expression of how fast a radio wave
will travel through a material or transmission
line. It is usually stated as a fraction of the
speed the wave would have in free space
(where the wave would have its maximum
velocity). Velocity factor is also sometimes
specified as a percentage of the speed of a
radio wave in free space.
Vertical interval signaling (VIS) — The
method of identifying the type of SSTV signal
by sending coded information during the
vertical synchronization period.
Vestigial sideband (VSB) — A signal-
transmission method in which one sideband,
the carrier and part of the second sideband
are transmitted.
VOACAP — A propagation prediction
program.
Volunteer Examiner (VE) — A licensed
amateur who is accredited by a Volunteer
Examiner Coordinator (VEC) to administer
amateur license exams.
Volunteer Examiner Coordinator (VEC) —
An organization that has entered into an
agreement with the FCC to coordinate
amateur license examinations.
Voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) — An
oscillator whose frequency is varied by
means of an applied control voltage.
W
WSJT-X — A suite of digital modes developed
by K1JT including FT8, FT4, JT65, MSK144,
and WSPR which are used at very low signal-
to-noise ratios and for scatter or EME
propagation.
WSPR — A digital mode that uses extremely
low power and advanced coding techniques
for evaluating propagation. Part of the WSJT-
X software suite.
Extra Class
(Element 4)
Syllabus
Effective July 1, 2020 to June 30, 2024
SUBELEMENT E1 — COMMISSION’S
RULES
[6 Exam Questions — 6 Groups] 75
Questions
E1A — Operating Standards: frequency
privileges; automatic message forwarding;
stations aboard ships or aircraft; power
restriction on 630 and 2200 meter bands
E1B — Station restrictions and special
operations: restrictions on station
location; general operating restrictions;
spurious emissions; antenna structure
restrictions; RACES operations
E1C — Definitions and restrictions pertaining
to local, automatic and remote control
operation; IARP and CEPT licenses;
emission and bandwidth standards
E1D — Amateur space and Earth stations;
telemetry and telecommand rules;
identification of balloon transmissions;
one-way communications
E1E — Volunteer examiner program:
definitions; qualifications; preparation and
administration of exams; accreditation;
question pools; documentation
requirements
E1F — Miscellaneous rules: external RF
power amplifiers; prohibited
communications; spread spectrum;
auxiliary stations; Canadian amateurs
operating in the U.S.; special temporary
authority; control operator of an auxiliary
station
SUBELEMENT E2 — OPERATING
PROCEDURES
[5 Exam Questions — 5 Groups] 61
Questions
E2A — Amateur radio in space: amateur
satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies
and modes; satellite hardware; satellite
operations
E2B — Television practices: fast scan
television standards and techniques; slow
scan television standards and techniques
E2C — Operating methods: contest and DX
operating; remote operation techniques;
Cabrillo format; QSLing; RF network
connected systems
E2D — Operating methods: VHF and UHF
digital modes and procedures; APRS;
EME procedures; meteor scatter
procedures
E2E — Operating methods: operating HF
digital modes
SUBELEMENT E4 — AMATEUR
PRACTICES
[5 Exam Questions — 5 Groups] 60
Questions
E4A — Test equipment: analog and digital
instruments; spectrum analyzers; antenna
analyzers; oscilloscopes; RF
measurements; computer-aided
measurements
E4B — Measurement technique and
limitations: instrument accuracy and
performance limitations; probes;
techniques to minimize errors;
measurement of Q; instrument calibration;
S parameters; vector network analyzers
E4C — Receiver performance characteristics:
phase noise, noise floor, image rejection,
MDS, signal-to-noise ratio, noise figure,
reciprocal mixing; selectivity; effects of
SDR receiver non-linearity; use of
attenuators at low frequencies
E4D — Receiver performance characteristics:
blocking dynamic range; intermodulation
and cross-modulation interference; third-
order intercept; desensitization;
preselector
E4E — Noise suppression and interference:
system noise; electrical appliance noise;
line noise; locating noise sources; DSP
noise reduction; noise blankers; grounding
for signals; common mode currents
SUBELEMENT E5 — ELECTRICAL
PRINCIPLES
[4 Exam Questions — 4 Groups] 55
Questions
E5A — Resonance and Q: characteristics of
resonant circuits: series and parallel
resonance; definitions and effects of Q;
half-power bandwidth; phase relationships
in reactive circuits
E5B — Time constants and phase
relationships: RL and RC time constants;
phase angle in reactive circuits and
components; admittance and susceptance
E5C — Coordinate systems and phasors in
electronics: rectangular coordinates; polar
coordinates; phasors
E5D — AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin
effect; electromagnetic fields; reactive
power; power factor; electrical length of
conductors at UHF and microwave
frequencies; microstrip
SUBELEMENT E6 — CIRCUIT
COMPONENTS
[6 Exam Questions — 6 Groups] 70
Questions
E6A — Semiconductor materials and devices:
semiconductor materials; germanium,
silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types:
NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect
transistors: enhancement mode; depletion
mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-
channel
E6B — Diodes
E6C — Digital ICs: Families of digital ICs;
gates; Programmable Logic Devices
(PLDs)
E6D — Toroidal and Solenoidal Inductors:
permeability, core material, selecting,
winding; transformers; piezoelectric
devices
E6E — Analog ICs: MMICs, IC packaging
characteristics
E6F — Electro-optical technology:
photoconductivity; photovoltaic devices;
optical sensors and encoders; optical
isolation
SUBELEMENT E7 — PRACTICAL
CIRCUITS
[8 Exam Questions — 8 Groups] 108
Questions
E7A — Digital circuits: digital circuit
principles and logic circuits; classes of
logic elements; positive and negative
logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
E7B — Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum
tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and
intermodulation; spurious and parasitic
suppression; microwave amplifiers;
switching-type amplifiers
E7C — Filters and matching networks: types
of networks; types of filters; filter
applications; filter characteristics;
impedance matching; DSP filtering
E7D — Power supplies and voltage regulators;
Solar array charge controllers
E7E — Modulation and demodulation:
reactance, phase and balanced modulators;
detectors; mixer stages
E7F — DSP filtering and other operations;
software defined radio fundamentals; DSP
modulation and demodulation
E7G — Active filters and op-amp circuits:
active audio filters; characteristics; basic
circuit design; operational amplifiers
E7H — Oscillators and signal sources: types
of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-
locked loops; direct digital synthesizers;
stabilizing thermal drift; microphonics;
high-accuracy oscillators
SUBELEMENT E0 — SAFETY
[1 exam question — 1 group] 11 Questions
E0A — Safety: RF radiation hazards; hazardous
materials; grounding
Element 4 — Extra Class
Question Pool
Effective for VEC examinations on July 1,
2020 through June 30, 2024
SUBELEMENT E1 —
COMMISSION RULES
[6 Exam Questions — 6
Groups]
E1A — Operating Standards:
frequency privileges; automatic
message forwarding; stations aboard
ships or aircraft; power restriction on
630 and 2200 meter bands
E1A01 E1A01
Which of the following carrier (A)
frequencies is illegal for LSB [97.305,
AFSK emissions on the 17 meter 97.307(b)]
band RTTY and data segment of Page 3-4
18.068 to 18.110 MHz?
A. 18.068 MHz
B. 18.100 MHz
C. 18.107 MHz
D. 18.110 MHz
E1A02 E1A02
When using a transceiver that (D)
displays the carrier frequency of [97.301,
phone signals, which of the 97.305]
following displayed frequencies Page 3-4
represents the lowest frequency
at which a properly adjusted LSB
emission will be totally within the
band?
A. The exact lower band edge
B. 300 Hz above the lower band
edge
C. 1 kHz above the lower band
edge
D. 3 kHz above the lower band
edge
E1A03 E1A03
What is the maximum legal (C)
carrier frequency on the 20 meter [97.305,
band for transmitting USB AFSK 97.307(b)]
digital signals having a 1 kHz Page 3-4
bandwidth?
A. 14.070 MHz
B. 14.100 MHz
C. 14.149 MHz
D. 14.349 MHz
E1A04 E1A04
With your transceiver displaying (C)
the carrier frequency of phone [97.301,
signals, you hear a DX station 97.305]
calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is Page 3-4
it legal to return the call using
lower sideband on the same
frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station
initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed
frequency is within the 75
meter phone band segment
C. No, the sideband will extend
beyond the edge of the phone
band segment
D. No, U.S. stations are not
permitted to use phone
emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1A05 E1A05
What is the maximum power (C)
output permitted on the 60 meter [97.313]
band? Page 3-4
A. 50 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to an
isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to a
dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to the
gain of a half-wave dipole
D. 100 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to an
isotropic radiator
E1A06 E1A06
Where must the carrier frequency (B)
of a CW signal be set to comply [97.303(h)
with FCC rules for 60 meter (1)]
operation? Page 3-4
A. At the lowest frequency of
the channel
B. At the center frequency of the
channel
C. At the highest frequency of
the channel
D. On any frequency where the
signal’s sidebands are within
the channel
E1A07 E1A07
What is the maximum power (C)
permitted on the 2200 meter [97.313(k)]
band? Page 3-5
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 1 watt EIRP (Equivalent
isotropic radiated power)
D. 5 watts EIRP (Equivalent
isotropic radiated power)
E1A08 E1A08
If a station in a message (B)
forwarding system inadvertently [97.219]
forwards a message that is in Page 3-5
violation of FCC rules, who is
primarily accountable for the
rules violation?
A. The control operator of the
packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the
originating station
C. The control operators of all
the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all
the stations in the system not
authenticating the source from
which they accept
communications
E1A09 E1A09
What action or actions should you (A)
take if your digital message [97.219]
forwarding station inadvertently Page 3-6
forwards a communication that
violates FCC rules?
A. Discontinue forwarding the
communication as soon as you
become aware of it
B. Notify the originating station
that the communication does
not comply with FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Field
Engineer’s office
D. All these choices are correct
E1A10 E1A10
If an amateur station is installed (A)
aboard a ship or aircraft, what [97.11]
condition must be met before the Page 3-6
station is operated?
A. Its operation must be
approved by the master of the
ship or the pilot in command of
the aircraft
B. The amateur station operator
must agree not to transmit
when the main radio of the ship
or aircraft is in use
C. The amateur station must have
a power supply that is
completely independent of the
main ship or aircraft power
supply
D. The amateur operator must
have an FCC Marine or Aircraft
endorsement on his or her
amateur license
E1A11 E1A11
Which of the following describes (B)
authorization or licensing [97.5]
required when operating an Page 3-6
amateur station aboard a U.S.-
registered vessel in international
waters?
A. Any amateur license with an
FCC Marine or Aircraft
endorsement
B. Any FCC-issued amateur
license
C. Only General Class or higher
amateur licenses
D. An unrestricted
Radiotelephone Operator
Permit
E1A12 E1A12
What special operating frequency (C)
restrictions are imposed on slow Page 8-21
scan TV transmissions? E1A13
A. None; they are allowed on all
amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245
MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345
MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C. They are restricted to phone
band segments
D. They are not permitted above
54 MHz
E1A13 (B)
Who must be in physical control [97.5]
of the station apparatus of an Page 3-6
amateur station aboard any vessel E1A14
or craft that is documented or
registered in the United States?
A. Only a person with an FCC
Marine Radio license grant
B. Any person holding an FCC
issued amateur license or who
is authorized for alien
reciprocal operation
C. Only a person named in an
amateur station license grant
D. Any person named in an
amateur station license grant or
a person holding an
unrestricted Radiotelephone
Operator Permit
E1A14 (D)
Except in some parts of Alaska, [97.313(l)]
what is the maximum power Page 3-6
permitted on the 630 meter E1B01
band?
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 1 watt EIRP
D. 5 watts EIRP
E1B03 (A)
Within what distance must an [97.13]
amateur station protect an FCC Page 3-8
monitoring facility from harmful E1B04
interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
E1B04 (C)
What must be done before placing [97.13,
an amateur station within an 1.1305-
officially designated wilderness 1.1319]
area or wildlife preserve, or an Page 3-8
area listed in the National
Register of Historic Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted
to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed
with the Environmental
Protection Agency
C. An Environmental Assessment
must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be
submitted to the Department of
the Interior
E1B05 E1B05
What is the National Radio Quiet (C)
Zone? [97.3]
A. An area in Puerto Rico Page 3-20
surrounding the Arecibo Radio
Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico
surrounding the White Sands
Test Area
C. An area surrounding the
National Radio Astronomy
Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding
Cape Canaveral
E1B06 E1B06
Which of the following additional (A)
rules apply if you are installing an [97.15]
amateur station antenna at a site at Page 3-9
or near a public use airport?
A. You may have to notify the
Federal Aviation
Administration and register it
with the FCC as required by
Part 17 of the FCC rules
B. You must submit engineering
drawings to the FAA
C. You must file an
Environmental Impact
Statement with the EPA before
construction begins
D. You must obtain a
construction permit from the
airport zoning authority
E1B07 E1B07
To what type of regulations does (C)
PRB-1 apply? [97.15]
A. Homeowners associations Page 3-8
B. FAA tower height limits
C. State and local zoning
D. Use of wireless devices in
vehicles
E1B08 E1B08
What limitations may the FCC (D)
place on an amateur station if its [97.121]
signal causes interference to Page 3-7
domestic broadcast reception,
assuming that the receivers
involved are of good engineering
design?
A. The amateur station must
cease operation
B. The amateur station must
cease operation on all
frequencies below 30 MHz
C. The amateur station must
cease operation on all
frequencies above 30 MHz
D. The amateur station must
avoid transmitting during
certain hours on frequencies
that cause the interference
E1B09 E1B09
Which amateur stations may be (C)
operated under RACES rules? [97.407]
A. Only those club stations Page 3-6
licensed to Amateur Extra
Class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur
station except a Technician
Class
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur
station certified by the
responsible civil defense
organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur
station participating in the
Military Auxiliary Radio
System (MARS)
E1B10 E1B10
What frequencies are authorized (A)
to an amateur station operating [97.407]
under RACES rules? Page 3-6
A. All amateur service
frequencies authorized to the
control operator
B. Specific segments in the
amateur service MF, HF, VHF
and UHF bands
C. Specific local government
channels
D. Military Auxiliary Radio
System (MARS) channels
E1B11 E1B11
What does PRB-1 require of (B)
regulations affecting amateur [97.15]
radio? Page 3-8
A. No limitations may be placed
on antenna size or placement
B. Reasonable accommodations
of amateur radio must be made
C. Amateur radio operations
must be permitted in any
private residence
D. Use of wireless devices in a
vehicle is exempt from
regulation
E1B12 E1B12
What must the control operator (A)
of a repeater operating in the 70 [97.303(b)]
cm band do if a radiolocation Page 3-19
system experiences interference
from that repeater?
A. Cease operation or make
changes to the repeater to
mitigate the interference
B. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice
to Airmen) with the repeater
system’s ERP, call sign, and
six-character grid locator
C. Reduce the repeater antenna
HAAT (Height Above Average
Terrain)
D. All these choices are correct
E1C08 E1C08
What is the maximum permissible (B)
duration of a remotely controlled [97.213]
station’s transmissions if its Page 3-10
control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
E1C09 E1C09
What is the highest modulation (B)
index permitted at the highest [97.307]
modulation frequency for angle Page 8-4
modulation below 29.0 MHz?
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
E1C10 E1C10
What is the permitted mean (A)
power of any spurious emission [97.307]
relative to the mean power of the Page 3-7
fundamental emission from a
station transmitter or external RF
amplifier installed after January
1, 2003 and transmitting on a
frequency below 30 MHz?
A. At least 43 dB below
B. At least 53 dB below
C. At least 63 dB below
D. At least 73 dB below
E1C11 E1C11
Which of the following operating (A)
arrangements allows an FCC- [97.5]
licensed U.S. citizen to operate in Page 3-21
many European countries, and
alien amateurs from many
European countries to operate in
the U.S.?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU reciprocal license
D. All these choices are correct
E1C12 E1C12
On what portion of the 630 (D)
meter band are phone emissions [97.305(c)]
permitted? Page 3-5
A. None
B. Only the top 3 kHz
C. Only the bottom 3 kHz
D. The entire band
E1C13 E1C13
What notifications must be given (C)
before transmitting on the 630 [97.303(g)]
meter or 2200 meter bands? Page 3-5
A. A special endorsement must
be requested from the FCC
B. An environmental impact
statement must be filed with
the Department of the Interior
C. Operators must inform the
Utilities Technology Council
(UTC) of their call sign and
coordinates of the station
D. Operators must inform the
FAA of their intent to operate,
giving their call sign and
distance to the nearest runway
E1C14 E1C14
How long must an operator wait (B)
after filing a notification with [97.303(g)]
the Utilities Technology Council Page 3-5
(UTC) before operating on the
2200 meter or 630 meter band?
A. Operators must not operate
until approval is received
B. Operators may operate after
30 days, providing they have
not been told that their station
is within 1 km of PLC
systems using those
frequencies
C. Operators may not operate
until a test signal has been
transmitted in coordination
with the local power company
D. Operations may commence
immediately, and may
continue unless interference
is reported by the UTC
E1D07 E1D07
Which HF amateur bands have (A)
frequencies authorized for space [97.207]
stations? Page 3-13
A. Only the 40, 20, 17, 15, 12,
and 10 meter bands
B. Only the 40, 20, 17, 15, and
10 meter bands
C. Only the 40, 30, 20, 15, 12,
and 10 meter bands
D. All HF bands
E1D08 E1D08
Which VHF amateur bands have (D)
frequencies authorized for space [97.207]
stations? Page 3-13
A. 6 meters and 2 meters
B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25
meters
C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
D. 2 meters
E1D09 E1D09
Which UHF amateur bands have (B)
frequencies authorized for space [97.207]
stations? Page 3-13
A. 70 cm only
B. 70 cm and 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm
E1D10 E1D10
Which amateur stations are (B)
eligible to be telecommand [97.211]
stations of space stations (subject Page 3-13
to the privileges of the class of
operator license held by the
control operator of the station)?
A. Any amateur station
designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so
designated by the space station
licensee
C. Any amateur station so
designated by the ITU
D. All these choices are correct
E1D11 E1D11
Which amateur stations are (D)
eligible to operate as Earth [97.209]
stations? Page 3-13
A. Any amateur station whose
licensee has filed a pre-space
notification with the FCC’s
International Bureau
B. Only those of General,
Advanced or Amateur Extra
Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra
Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject
to the privileges of the class of
operator license held by the
control operator
E1D12 E1D12
Which of the following amateur (A)
stations may transmit one-way [97.207(e),
communications? 97.203(g)]
A. A space station, beacon Page 3-10
station, or telecommand
station
B. A local repeater or linked
repeater station
C. A message forwarding station
or automatically controlled
digital station
D. All these choices are correct
E1F11 E1F11
Which of the following best (D)
describes one of the standards [97.317]
that must be met by an external Page 3-19
RF power amplifier if it is to
qualify for a grant of FCC
certification?
A. It must produce full legal
output when driven by not more
than 5 watts of mean RF input
power
B. It must be capable of external
RF switching between its input
and output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB
or less over its full output
range
D. It must satisfy the FCC’s
spurious emission standards
when operated at the lesser of
1500 watts or its full output
power
SUBELEMENT E2
— OPERATING
PROCEDURES
[5 Exam Questions
— 5 Groups]
E2A — Amateur radio in space:
amateur satellites; orbital mechanics;
frequencies and modes; satellite
hardware; satellite operations
E2A01 E2A01
What is the direction of an (C)
ascending pass for an amateur Page 2-9
satellite? E2A02
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
E2A02 (D)
Which of the following occurs Page 2-11
when a satellite is using an
inverting linear transponder?
A. Doppler shift is reduced
because the uplink and
downlink shifts are in opposite
directions
B. Signal position in the band is
reversed
C. Upper sideband on the uplink
becomes lower sideband on the
downlink, and vice versa
D. All these choices are correct
E2A03 E2A03
How is the signal inverted by an (D)
inverting linear transponder? Page 2-11
A. The signal is detected and
remodulated on the reverse
sideband
B. The signal is passed through a
non-linear filter
C. The signal is reduced to I and
Q components and the Q
component is filtered out
D. The signal is passed through a
mixer and the difference rather
than the sum is transmitted
E2A04 E2A04
What is meant by the term (B)
“mode” as applied to an amateur Page 2-12
radio satellite?
A. Whether the satellite is in a
low earth or geostationary
orbit
B. The satellite’s uplink and
downlink frequency bands
C. The satellite’s orientation with
respect to the Earth
D. Whether the satellite is in a
polar or equatorial orbit
E2A05 E2A05
What do the letters in a satellite’s (D)
mode designator specify? Page 2-12
A. Power limits for uplink and
downlink transmissions
B. The location of the ground
control station
C. The polarization of uplink and
downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink
frequency ranges
E2A06 E2A06
What are Keplerian elements? (A)
A. Parameters that define the Page 2-8
orbit of a satellite
B. Phase reversing elements in a
Yagi antenna
C. High-emission heater
filaments used in magnetron
tubes
D. Encrypting codes used for
spread spectrum modulation
E2A07 E2A07
Which of the following types of (D)
signals can be relayed through a Page 2-10
linear transponder?
A. FM and CW
B. SSB and SSTV
C. PSK and packet
D. All these choices are correct
E2A08 E2A08
Why should effective radiated (B)
power to a satellite that uses a Page 2-11
linear transponder be limited?
A. To prevent creating errors in
the satellite telemetry
B. To avoid reducing the
downlink power to all other
users
C. To prevent the satellite from
emitting out-of-band signals
D. To avoid interfering with
terrestrial QSOs
E2A09 E2A09
What do the terms “L band” and “S (A)
band” specify regarding satellite Page 2-12
communications?
A. The 23 centimeter and 13
centimeter bands
B. The 2 meter and 70
centimeter bands
C. FM and Digital Store-and-
Forward systems
D. Which sideband to use
E2A10 E2A10
What type of satellite appears to (B)
stay in one position in the sky? Page 2-8
A. HEO
B. Geostationary
C. Geomagnetic
D. LEO
E2A11 E2A11
What type of antenna can be used (B)
to minimize the effects of spin Page 2-9
modulation and Faraday rotation?
A. A linearly polarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array
E2A12 E2A12
What is the purpose of digital (C)
store-and-forward functions on an Page 2-12
amateur radio satellite?
A. To upload operational
software for the transponder
B. To delay download of
telemetry between satellites
C. To store digital messages in
the satellite for later download
by other stations
D. To relay messages between
satellites
E2A13 E2A13
Which of the following (B)
techniques is normally used by Page 2-12
low Earth orbiting digital
satellites to relay messages
around the world?
A. Digipeating
B. Store-and-forward
C. Multi-satellite relaying
D. Node hopping
E2B02 E2B02
How many horizontal lines make (C)
up a fast-scan (NTSC) television Page 8-19
frame?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 1080
E2B03 E2B03
How is an interlaced scanning (D)
pattern generated in a fast-scan Page 8-20
(NTSC) television system?
A. By scanning two fields
simultaneously
B. By scanning each field from
bottom to top
C. By scanning lines from left to
right in one field and right to
left in the next
D. By scanning odd numbered
lines in one field and even
numbered lines in the next
E2B04 E2B04
How is color information sent in (A)
analog SSTV? Page 8-23
A. Color lines are sent
sequentially
B. Color information is sent on a
2.8 kHz subcarrier
C. Color is sent in a color burst
at the end of each line
D. Color is amplitude modulated
on the frequency modulated
intensity signal
E2B05 E2B05
Which of the following describes (C)
the use of vestigial sideband in Page 8-21
analog fast-scan TV
transmissions?
A. The vestigial sideband carries
the audio information
B. The vestigial sideband
contains chroma information
C. Vestigial sideband reduces
bandwidth while allowing for
simple video detector circuitry
D. Vestigial sideband provides
high frequency emphasis to
sharpen the picture
E2B06 E2B06
What is vestigial sideband (A)
modulation? Page 8-21
A. Amplitude modulation in
which one complete sideband
and a portion of the other are
transmitted
B. A type of modulation in which
one sideband is inverted
C. Narrow-band FM modulation
achieved by filtering one
sideband from the audio before
frequency modulating the
carrier
D. Spread spectrum modulation
achieved by applying FM
modulation following single
sideband amplitude modulation
E2B07 E2B07
What is the name of the signal (B)
component that carries color Page 8-20
information in NTSC video?
A. Luminance
B. Chroma
C. Hue
D. Spectral intensity
E2B08 E2B08
What technique allows (A)
commercial analog TV receivers Page 8-19
to be used for fast-scan TV
operations on the 70 cm band?
A. Transmitting on channels
shared with cable TV
B. Using converted satellite TV
dishes
C. Transmitting on the abandoned
TV channel 2
D. Using USB and demodulating
the signal with a computer
sound card
E2B09 E2B09
What hardware, other than a (D)
receiver with SSB capability and a Page 8-23
suitable computer, is needed to
decode SSTV using Digital Radio
Mondiale (DRM)?
A. A special IF converter
B. A special front end limiter
C. A special notch filter to
remove synchronization pulses
D. No other hardware is needed
E2B10 E2B10
What aspect of an analog slow- (A)
scan television signal encodes the Page 8-23
brightness of the picture?
A. Tone frequency
B. Tone amplitude
C. Sync amplitude
D. Sync frequency
E2B11 E2B11
What is the function of the (B)
Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) Page 8-23
code sent as part of an SSTV
transmission?
A. To lock the color burst
oscillator in color SSTV
images
B. To identify the SSTV mode
being used
C. To provide vertical
synchronization
D. To identify the call sign of the
station transmitting
E2B12 E2B12
What signals SSTV receiving (A)
software to begin a new picture Page 8-23
line?
A. Specific tone frequencies
B. Elapsed time
C. Specific tone amplitudes
D. A two-tone signal
E2D02 E2D02
Which of the following is a good (D)
technique for making meteor Page 10-
scatter contacts? 16
A. 15-second timed transmission
sequences with stations
alternating based on location
B. Use of special digital modes
C. Short transmissions with
rapidly repeated call signs and
signal reports
D. All these choices are correct
E2D03 E2D03
Which of the following digital (D)
modes is especially useful for Page 10-
EME communications? 17
A. MSK144
B. PACTOR III
C. Olivia
D. JT65
E2D04 E2D04
What technology is used to track, (C)
in real time, balloons carrying Page 8-12
amateur radio transmitters?
A. Ultrasonics
B. Bandwidth compressed
LORAN
C. APRS
D. Doppler shift of beacon
signals
E2D05 E2D05
What is one advantage of the JT65 (B)
mode? Page 10-
A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth 17
B. The ability to decode signals
which have a very low signal-
to-noise ratio
C. Easily copied by ear if
necessary
D. Permits fast-scan TV
transmissions over narrow
bandwidth
E2D06 E2D06
Which of the following describes (A)
a method of establishing EME Page 10-
contacts? 17
A. Time synchronous
transmissions alternately from
each station
B. Storing and forwarding digital
messages
C. Judging optimum
transmission times by
monitoring beacons reflected
from the moon
D. High-speed CW identification
to avoid fading
E2D07 E2D07
What digital protocol is used by (C)
APRS? Page 8-11
A. PACTOR
B. 802.11
C. AX.25
D. AMTOR
E2D08 E2D08
What type of packet frame is used (A)
to transmit APRS beacon data? Page 8-12
A. Unnumbered Information
B. Disconnect
C. Acknowledgement
D. Connect
E2D09 E2D09
What type of modulation is used (A)
for JT65 contacts? Page 8-13
A. Multi-tone AFSK
B. PSK
C. RTTY
D. IEEE 802.11
E2D10 E2D10
How can an APRS station be used (C)
to help support a public service Page 8-12
communications activity?
A. An APRS station with an
emergency medical technician
can automatically transmit
medical data to the nearest
hospital
B. APRS stations with General
Personnel Scanners can
automatically relay the
participant numbers and time as
they pass the check points
C. An APRS station with a
Global Positioning System unit
can automatically transmit
information to show a mobile
station’s position during the
event
D. All these choices are correct
E2D11 E2D11
Which of the following data are (D)
used by the APRS network to Page 8-12
communicate station location?
A. Polar coordinates
B. Time and frequency
C. Radio direction finding
spectrum analysis
D. Latitude and longitude
E2E02 E2E02
What do the letters FEC mean as (A)
they relate to digital operation? Page 8-17
A. Forward Error Correction
B. First Error Correction
C. Fatal Error Correction
D. Final Error Correction
E2E03 E2E03
How is the timing of FT4 contacts (C)
organized? Page 8-13
A. By exchanging ACK/NAK
packets
B. Stations take turns on
alternate days
C. Alternating transmissions at
7.5 second intervals
D. It depends on the lunar phase
E2E04 E2E04
What is indicated when one of the (A)
ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse Page 8-10
display suddenly disappears?
A. Selective fading has occurred
B. One of the signal filters is
saturated
C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz
from the desired receive
frequency
D. The mark and space signal
have been inverted
E2E05 E2E05
Which of these digital modes (A)
does not support keyboard-to- Page 8-12
keyboard operation?
A. PACTOR
B. RTTY
C. PSK31
D. MFSK
E2E06 E2E06
What is the most common data (C)
rate used for HF packet? Page 8-12
A. 48 baud
B. 110 baud
C. 300 baud
D. 1200 baud
E2E07 E2E07
Which of the following is a (D)
possible reason that attempts to Page 8-14
initiate contact with a digital
station on a clear frequency are
unsuccessful?
A. Your transmit frequency is
incorrect
B. The protocol version you are
using is not supported by the
digital station
C. Another station you are unable
to hear is using the frequency
D. All these choices are correct
E2E08 E2E08
Which of the following HF digital (B)
modes can be used to transfer Page 8-12
binary files?
A. Hellschreiber
B. PACTOR
C. RTTY
D. AMTOR
E2E09 E2E09
Which of the following HF digital (D)
modes uses variable-length Page 8-7
coding for bandwidth efficiency?
A. RTTY
B. PACTOR
C. MT63
D. PSK31
E2E10 E2E10
Which of these digital modes has (C)
the narrowest bandwidth? Page 8-11
A. MFSK16
B. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300-baud packet
E2E11 E2E11
What is the difference between (A)
direct FSK and audio FSK? Page 8-10
A. Direct FSK applies the data
signal to the transmitter VFO,
while AFSK transmits tones via
phone
B. Direct FSK occupies less
bandwidth
C. Direct FSK can transmit
faster baud rates
D. Only direct FSK can be
decoded by computer
E2E12 E2E12
How do ALE stations establish (A)
contact? Page 8-6
A. ALE constantly scans a list of
frequencies, activating the
radio when the designated call
sign is received
B. ALE radios monitor an
internet site for the frequency
they are being paged on
C. ALE radios send a constant
tone code to establish a
frequency for future use
D. ALE radios activate when they
hear their signal echoed by
back scatter
E2E13 E2E13
Which of these digital modes has (D)
the fastest data throughput under Page 8-12
clear communication conditions?
A. AMTOR
B. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300 baud packet
SUBELEMENT E3
— RADIO WAVE
PROPAGATION
[3 Exam Questions
— 3 Groups]
E3A — Electromagnetic waves;
Earth-Moon-Earth communications;
meteor scatter; microwave
tropospheric and scatter propagation;
aurora propagation; ionospheric
propagation changes over the day;
circular polarization
E3A01 E3A01
What is the approximate (D)
maximum separation measured Page 10-
along the surface of the Earth 17
between two stations
communicating by EME?
A. 500 miles, if the moon is at
perigee
B. 2000 miles, if the moon is at
apogee
C. 5000 miles, if the moon is at
perigee
D. 12,000 miles, if the moon is
visible by both stations
E3A02 E3A02
What characterizes libration (B)
fading of an EME signal? Page 10-
A. A slow change in the pitch of 17
the CW signal
B. A fluttery irregular fading
C. A gradual loss of signal as the
sun rises
D. The returning echo is several
hertz lower in frequency than
the transmitted signal
E3A03 E3A03
When scheduling EME contacts, (A)
which of these conditions will Page 10-
generally result in the least path 17
loss?
A. When the moon is at perigee
B. When the moon is full
C. When the moon is at apogee
D. When the MUF is above 30
MHz
E3A04 E3A04
What do Hepburn maps predict? (D)
A. Sporadic E propagation Page 10-
B. Locations of auroral 12
reflecting zones
C. Likelihood of rain scatter
along cold or warm fronts
D. Probability of tropospheric
propagation
E3A05 E3A05
Tropospheric propagation of (C)
microwave signals often occurs in Page 10-
association with what 12
phenomenon?
A. Grayline
B. Lightning discharges
C. Warm and cold fronts
D. Sprites and jets
E3A06 E3A06
What might help to restore (B)
contact when DX signals become Page 10-7
too weak to copy across an entire
HF band a few hours after sunset?
A. Switch to a higher frequency
HF band
B. Switch to a lower frequency
HF band
C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the
signal degradation to pass
D. Wait 24 hours before
attempting another
communication on the band
E3A07 E3A07
Atmospheric ducts capable of (C)
propagating microwave signals Page 10-
often form over what geographic 12
feature?
A. Mountain ranges
B. Forests
C. Bodies of water
D. Urban areas
E3A08 E3A08
When a meteor strikes the Earth’s (A)
atmosphere, a cylindrical region Page 10-
of free electrons is formed at 16
what layer of the ionosphere?
A. The E layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The F2 layer
D. The D layer
E3A09 E3A09
Which of the following frequency (C)
ranges is most suited for meteor Page 10-
scatter communications? 16
A. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
B. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
C. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
D. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
E3A10 E3A10
Which type of atmospheric (B)
structure can create a path for Page 10-
microwave propagation? 12
A. The jet stream
B. Temperature inversion
C. Wind shear
D. Dust devil
E3A11 E3A11
What is a typical range for (B)
tropospheric propagation of Page 10-
microwave signals? 12
A. 10 miles to 50 miles
B. 100 miles to 300 miles
C. 1200 miles
D. 2500 miles
E3A12 E3A12
What is the cause of auroral (C)
activity? Page 10-
A. The interaction in the F2 layer 14
between the solar wind and the
Van Allen belt
B. An extreme low-pressure area
in the polar regions
C. The interaction in the E layer
of charged particles from the
Sun with the Earth’s magnetic
field
D. Meteor showers concentrated
in the extreme northern and
southern latitudes
E3A13 E3A13
Which of these emission modes (A)
is best for auroral propagation? Page 10-
A. CW 14
B. SSB
C. FM
D. RTTY
E3A14 E3A14
What is meant by circularly (B)
polarized electromagnetic waves? Page 10-3
A. Waves with an electric field
bent into a circular shape
B. Waves with a rotating electric
field
C. Waves that circle the Earth
D. Waves produced by a loop
antenna
E3B03 E3B03
What is the best time of day for (C)
transequatorial propagation? Page 10-
A. Morning 14
B. Noon
C. Afternoon or early evening
D. Late at night
E3B04 E3B04
What is meant by the terms (B)
“extraordinary” and “ordinary” Page 10-7
waves?
A. Extraordinary waves describe
rare long-skip propagation
compared to ordinary waves,
which travel shorter distances
B. Independent waves created in
the ionosphere that are
elliptically polarized
C. Long-path and short-path
waves
D. Refracted rays and reflected
waves
E3B05 E3B05
Which amateur bands typically (C)
support long-path propagation? Page 10-9
A. Only 160 meters to 40 meters
B. Only 30 meters to 10 meters
C. 160 meters to 10 meters
D. 6 meters to 2 meters
E3B06 E3B06
Which of the following amateur (B)
bands most frequently provides Page 10-9
long-path propagation?
A. 80 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 6 meters
E3B07 E3B07
What happens to linearly (C)
polarized radio waves that split Page 10-7
into ordinary and extraordinary
waves in the ionosphere?
A. They are bent toward the
magnetic poles
B. They become depolarized
C. They become elliptically
polarized
D. They become phase locked
E3C03 E3C03
Which of the following signal (B)
paths is most likely to experience Page 10-8
high levels of absorption when the
A index or K index is elevated?
A. Transequatorial
B. Polar
C. Sporadic E
D. NVIS
E3C04 E3C04
What does the value of Bz (B sub (C)
Z) represent? Page 10-5
A. Geomagnetic field stability
B. Critical frequency for vertical
transmissions
C. Direction and strength of the
interplanetary magnetic field
D. Duration of long-delayed
echoes
E3C05 E3C05
What orientation of Bz (B sub z) (A)
increases the likelihood that Page 10-5
incoming particles from the sun
will cause disturbed conditions?
A. Southward
B. Northward
C. Eastward
D. Westward
E3C06 E3C06
By how much does the VHF/UHF (A)
radio horizon distance exceed the Page 10-
geometric horizon? 10
A. By approximately 15 percent
of the distance
B. By approximately twice the
distance
C. By approximately 50 percent
of the distance
D. By approximately four times
the distance
E3C07 E3C07
Which of the following (D)
descriptors indicates the greatest Page 10-4
solar flare intensity?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class M
D. Class X
E3C08 E3C08
What does the space weather term (A)
“G5” mean? Page 10-5
A. An extreme geomagnetic
storm
B. Very low solar activity
C. Moderate solar wind
D. Waning sunspot numbers
E3C09 E3C09
How does the intensity of an X3 (B)
flare compare to that of an X2 Page 10-4
flare?
A. 10 percent greater
B. 50 percent greater
C. Twice as great
D. Four times as great
E3C10 E3C10
What does the 304A solar (B)
parameter measure? Page 10-4
A. The ratio of x-ray flux to radio
flux, correlated to sunspot
number
B. UV emissions at 304
angstroms, correlated to the
solar flux index
C. The solar wind velocity at 304
degrees from the solar equator,
correlated to solar activity
D. The solar emission at 304
GHz, correlated to x-ray flare
levels
E3C11 E3C11
What does VOACAP software (C)
model? Page 10-8
A. AC voltage and impedance
B. VHF radio propagation
C. HF propagation
D. AC current and impedance
E3C12 E3C12
How does the maximum range of (C)
ground-wave propagation change Page 10-6
when the signal frequency is
increased?
A. It stays the same
B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E3C13 E3C13
What type of polarization is best (A)
for ground-wave propagation? Page 10-6
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
E3C14 E3C14
Why does the radio-path horizon (D)
distance exceed the geometric Page 10-
horizon? 10
A. E-region skip
B. D-region skip
C. Due to the Doppler effect
D. Downward bending due to
density variations in the
atmosphere
E3C15 E3C15
What might be indicated by a (B)
sudden rise in radio background Page 10-8
noise across a large portion of the
HF spectrum?
A. A temperature inversion has
occurred
B. A solar flare has occurred
C. Increased transequatorial
propagation is likely
D. Long-path propagation is
likely
SUBELEMENT E4
— AMATEUR
PRACTICES
[5 Exam Questions
— 5 Groups]
E4A — Test equipment: analog and
digital instruments; spectrum
analyzers; antenna analyzers;
oscilloscopes; RF measurements;
computer-aided measurements
E4A01 E4A01
Which of the following limits the (A)
highest frequency signal that can Page 7-7
be accurately displayed on a
digital oscilloscope?
A. Sampling rate of the analog-
to-digital converter
B. Amount of memory
C. Q of the circuit
D. All these choices are correct
E4A02 E4A02
Which of the following (B)
parameters does a spectrum Page 7-10
analyzer display on the vertical
and horizontal axes?
A. RF amplitude and time
B. RF amplitude and frequency
C. SWR and frequency
D. SWR and time
E4A03 E4A03
Which of the following test (B)
instruments is used to display Page 7-10
spurious signals and/or
intermodulation distortion
products generated by an SSB
transmitter?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
E4A04 E4A04
How is the compensation of an (A)
oscilloscope probe typically Page 7-7
adjusted?
A. A square wave is displayed and
the probe is adjusted until the
horizontal portions of the
displayed wave are as nearly
flat as possible
B. A high frequency sine wave is
displayed and the probe is
adjusted for maximum
amplitude
C. A frequency standard is
displayed and the probe is
adjusted until the deflection
time is accurate
D. A DC voltage standard is
displayed and the probe is
adjusted until the displayed
voltage is accurate
E4A05 E4A05
What is the purpose of the (D)
prescaler function on a frequency Page 7-4
counter?
A. It amplifies low-level signals
for more accurate counting
B. It multiplies a higher
frequency signal so a low-
frequency counter can display
the operating frequency
C. It prevents oscillation in a
low-frequency counter circuit
D. It divides a higher frequency
signal so a low-frequency
counter can display the input
frequency
E4A06 E4A06
What is the effect of aliasing on a (A)
digital oscilloscope caused by Page 7-7
setting the time base too slow?
A. A false, jittery low-frequency
version of the signal is
displayed
B. All signals will have a DC
offset
C. Calibration of the vertical
scale is no longer valid
D. Excessive blanking occurs,
which prevents display of the
signal
E4A07 E4A07
Which of the following is an (B)
advantage of using an antenna Page 9-40
analyzer compared to an SWR
bridge to measure antenna SWR?
A. Antenna analyzers
automatically tune your
antenna for resonance
B. Antenna analyzers do not need
an external RF source
C. Antenna analyzers display a
time-varying representation of
the modulation envelope
D. All these choices are correct
E4A08 E4A08
Which of the following measures (D)
SWR? Page 9-39
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A Q meter
C. An ohmmeter
D. An antenna analyzer
E4A09 E4A09
Which of the following is good (A)
practice when using an Page 7-6
oscilloscope probe?
A. Keep the signal ground
connection of the probe as
short as possible
B. Never use a high-impedance
probe to measure a low-
impedance circuit
C. Never use a DC-coupled
probe to measure an AC circuit
D. All these choices are correct
E4A10 E4A10
Which of the following displays (D)
multiple digital signal states Page 7-7
simultaneously?
A. Network analyzer
B. Bit error rate tester
C. Modulation monitor
D. Logic analyzer
E4A11 E4A11
How should an antenna analyzer (D)
be connected when measuring Page 9-39
antenna resonance and feed point
impedance?
A. Loosely couple the analyzer
near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer via a
high-impedance transformer to
the antenna
C. Loosely couple the antenna
and a dummy load to the
analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line
directly to the analyzer’s
connector
E4B02 E4B02
What is the significance of (A)
voltmeter sensitivity expressed in Page 7-2
ohms per volt?
A. The full scale reading of the
voltmeter multiplied by its
ohms per volt rating will
indicate the input impedance of
the voltmeter
B. When used as a galvanometer,
the reading in volts multiplied
by the ohms per volt rating will
determine the power drawn by
the device under test
C. When used as an ohmmeter,
the reading in ohms divided by
the ohms per volt rating will
determine the voltage applied
to the circuit
D. When used as an ammeter, the
full scale reading in amps
divided by ohms per volt rating
will determine the size of shunt
needed
E4B03 E4B03
Which S parameter is equivalent (C)
to forward gain? Page 9-39
A. S11
B. S12
C. S21
D. S22
E4B04 E4B04
Which S parameter represents (A)
input port return loss or Page 9-38
reflection coefficient (equivalent
to VSWR)?
A. S11
B. S12
C. S21
D. S22
E4B05 E4B05
What three test loads are used to (B)
calibrate an RF vector network Page 9-40
analyzer?
A. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90
ohms
B. Short circuit, open circuit, and
50 ohms
C. Short circuit, open circuit, and
resonant circuit
D. 50 ohms through ⅛
wavelength, ¼ wavelength, and
½ wavelength of coaxial cable
E4B06 E4B06
How much power is being (D)
absorbed by the load when a Page 9-32
directional power meter
connected between a transmitter
and a terminating load reads 100
watts forward power and 25 watts
reflected power?
A. 100 watts
B. 125 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 75 watts
E4B07 E4B07
What do the subscripts of S (A)
parameters represent? Page 9-38
A. The port or ports at which
measurements are made
B. The relative time between
measurements
C. Relative quality of the data
D. Frequency order of the
measurements
E4B08 E4B08
Which of the following can be (C)
used to measure the Q of a series- Page 4-32
tuned circuit?
A. The inductance to capacitance
ratio
B. The frequency shift
C. The bandwidth of the circuit’s
frequency response
D. The resonant frequency of the
circuit
E4B09 E4B09
What is indicated if the current (D)
reading on an RF ammeter placed Page 9-32
in series with the antenna feed
line of a transmitter increases as
the transmitter is tuned to
resonance?
A. There is possibly a short to
ground in the feed line
B. The transmitter is not
properly neutralized
C. There is an impedance
mismatch between the antenna
and feed line
D. There is more power going
into the antenna
E4B10 E4B10
Which of the following methods (B)
measures intermodulation Page 7-11
distortion in an SSB transmitter?
A. Modulate the transmitter
using two RF signals having
non-harmonically related
frequencies and observe the RF
output with a spectrum analyzer
B. Modulate the transmitter
using two AF signals having
non-harmonically related
frequencies and observe the RF
output with a spectrum analyzer
C. Modulate the transmitter
using two AF signals having
harmonically related
frequencies and observe the RF
output with a peak reading
wattmeter
D. Modulate the transmitter
using two RF signals having
harmonically related
frequencies and observe the RF
output with a logic analyzer
E4B11 E4B11
Which of the following can be (D)
measured with a vector network Page 9-40
analyzer?
A. Input impedance
B. Output impedance
C. Reflection coefficient
D. All these choices are correct
E4D06 E4D06
What is the term for spurious (D)
signals generated by the Page 7-22
combination of two or more
signals in a non-linear device or
circuit?
A. Amplifier desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel interference
D. Intermodulation
E4D07 E4D07
Which of the following reduces (A)
the likelihood of receiver Page 7-17
desensitization?
A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of
the receiver
B. Raise the receiver IF
frequency
C. Increase the receiver front
end gain
D. Switch from fast AGC to slow
AGC
E4D08 E4D08
What causes intermodulation in (C)
an electronic circuit? Page 7-22
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback
E4D09 E4D09
What is the purpose of the (C)
preselector in a communications Page 7-14
receiver?
A. To store often-used
frequencies
B. To provide a range of AGC
time constants
C. To increase rejection of
signals outside the desired
band
D. To allow selection of the
optimum RF amplifier device
E4D10 E4D10
What does a third-order intercept (C)
level of 40 dBm mean with Page 7-19
respect to receiver performance?
A. Signals less than 40 dBm will
not generate audible third-
order intermodulation products
B. The receiver can tolerate
signals up to 40 dB above the
noise floor without producing
third-order intermodulation
products
C. A pair of 40 dBm input signals
will theoretically generate a
third-order intermodulation
product that has the same
output amplitude as either of
the input signals
D. A pair of 1 mW input signals
will produce a third-order
intermodulation product that is
40 dB stronger than the input
signal
E4D11 E4D11
Why are odd-order (A)
intermodulation products, created Page 7-18
within a receiver, of particular
interest compared to other
products?
A. Odd-order products of two
signals in the band of interest
are also likely to be within the
band
B. Odd-order products overload
the IF filters
C. Odd-order products are an
indication of poor image
rejection
D. Odd-order intermodulation
produces three products for
every input signal within the
band of interest
E4D12 E4D12
What is the term for the reduction (A)
in receiver sensitivity caused by a Page 7-16
strong signal near the received
frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation
interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
E4E04 E4E04
How can conducted and radiated (D)
noise caused by an automobile Page 7-26
alternator be suppressed?
A. By installing filter capacitors
in series with the DC power
lead and a blocking capacitor in
the field lead
B. By installing a noise
suppression resistor and a
blocking capacitor in both
leads
C. By installing a high-pass filter
in series with the radio’s power
lead and a low-pass filter in
parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio’s
power leads directly to the
battery and by installing coaxial
capacitors in line with the
alternator leads
E4E05 E4E05
How can radio frequency (B)
interference from an AC motor Page 7-25
be suppressed?
A. By installing a high-pass filter
in series with the motor’s
power leads
B. By installing a brute-force
AC-line filter in series with the
motor leads
C. By installing a bypass
capacitor in series with the
motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault
current interrupter in the
circuit used to power the
motor
E4E06 E4E06
What is one type of electrical (C)
interference that might be caused Page 7-25
by a nearby personal computer?
A. A loud AC hum in the audio
output of your station receiver
B. A clicking noise at intervals of
a few seconds
C. The appearance of unstable
modulated or unmodulated
signals at specific frequencies
D. A whining type noise that
continually pulses off and on
E4E07 E4E07
Which of the following can cause (B)
shielded cables to radiate or Page 7-25
receive interference?
A. Low inductance ground
connections at both ends of the
shield
B. Common-mode currents on
the shield and conductors
C. Use of braided shielding
material
D. Tying all ground connections
to a common point resulting in
differential-mode currents in
the shield
E4E08 E4E08
What current flows equally on all (B)
conductors of an unshielded Page 7-25
multi-conductor cable?
A. Differential-mode current
B. Common-mode current
C. Reactive current only
D. Return current
E4E09 E4E09
What undesirable effect can (C)
occur when using an IF noise Page 7-26
blanker?
A. Received audio in the speech
range might have an echo
effect
B. The audio frequency
bandwidth of the received
signal might be compressed
C. Nearby signals may appear to
be excessively wide even if
they meet emission standards
D. FM signals can no longer be
demodulated
E4E10 E4E10
What might be the cause of a loud (D)
roaring or buzzing AC line Page 7-25
interference that comes and goes
at intervals?
A. Arcing contacts in a
thermostatically controlled
device
B. A defective doorbell or
doorbell transformer inside a
nearby residence
C. A malfunctioning illuminated
advertising display
D. All these choices are correct
E4E11 E4E11
What could cause local AM (B)
broadcast band signals to combine Page 7-23
to generate spurious signals in the
MF or HF bands?
A. One or more of the broadcast
stations is transmitting an over-
modulated signal
B. Nearby corroded metal joints
are mixing and re-radiating the
broadcast signals
C. You are receiving skywave
signals from a distant station
D. Your station receiver IF
amplifier stage is defective
SUBELEMENT E5
— ELECTRICAL
PRINCIPLES
[4 Exam Questions
— 4 Groups]
E5A — Resonance and Q:
characteristics of resonant circuits:
series and parallel resonance;
definitions and effects of Q; half-
power bandwidth; phase relationships
in reactive circuits
E5A01 E5A01
What can cause the voltage across (A)
reactances in a series RLC circuit Page 4-30
to be higher than the voltage
applied to the entire circuit?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
E5A02 E5A02
What is resonance in an LC or (C)
RLC circuit? Page 4-27
A. The highest frequency that
will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will
pass current
C. The frequency at which the
capacitive reactance equals the
inductive reactance
D. The frequency at which the
reactive impedance equals the
resistive impedance
E5A03 E5A03
What is the magnitude of the (D)
impedance of a series RLC Page 4-30
circuit at resonance?
A. High, as compared to the
circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to
capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to
inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to
circuit resistance
E5A04 E5A04
What is the magnitude of the (A)
impedance of a parallel RLC Page 4-30
circuit at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to
circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to
inductive reactance
C. Low compared to the circuit
resistance
D. High compared to the circuit
resistance
E5A05 E5A05
What is the result of increasing (A)
the Q of an impedance-matching Page 4-33
circuit?
A. Matching bandwidth is
decreased
B. Matching bandwidth is
increased
C. Matching range is increased
D. It has no effect on impedance
matching
E5A06 E5A06
What is the magnitude of the (B)
circulating current within the Page 4-30
components of a parallel LC
circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It equals 1 divided by the
quantity 2 times pi, multiplied
by the square root of
inductance L multiplied by
capacitance C
D. It equals 2 multiplied by pi,
multiplied by frequency,
multiplied by inductance
E5A07 E5A07
What is the magnitude of the (A)
current at the input of a parallel Page 4-30
RLC circuit at resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
E5A08 E5A08
What is the phase relationship (C)
between the current through and Page 4-31
the voltage across a series
resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current
by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage
by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in
phase
D. The voltage and current are
180 degrees out of phase
E5A09 E5A09
How is the Q of an RLC parallel (C)
resonant circuit calculated? Page 4-32
A. Reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
divided by the resistance
B. Reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
multiplied by the resistance
C. Resistance divided by the
reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
D. Reactance of the inductance
multiplied by the reactance of
the capacitance
E5A10 E5A10
How is the Q of an RLC series (A)
resonant circuit calculated? Page 4-32
A. Reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
divided by the resistance
B. Reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
multiplied by the resistance
C. Resistance divided by the
reactance of either the
inductance or capacitance
D. Reactance of the inductance
multiplied by the reactance of
the capacitance
E5A11 E5A11
What is the half-power bandwidth (C)
of a resonant circuit that has a Page 4-33
resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz
and a Q of 150?
A. 157.8 Hz
B. 315.6 Hz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 23.67 kHz
E5A12 E5A12
What is the half-power bandwidth (C)
of a resonant circuit that has a Page 4-33
resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz
and a Q of 118?
A. 436.6 kHz
B. 218.3 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 15.7 kHz
E5A13 E5A13
What is an effect of increasing Q (C)
in a series resonant circuit? Page 4-32
A. Fewer components are needed
for the same performance
B. Parasitic effects are
minimized
C. Internal voltages increase
D. Phase shift can become
uncontrolled
E5A14 E5A14
What is the resonant frequency of (C)
an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L Page 4-28
is 50 microhenries and C is 40
picofarads?
A. 44.72 MHz
B. 22.36 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 1.78 MHz
E5A15 E5A15
Which of the following increases (A)
Q for inductors and capacitors? Page 4-31
A. Lower losses
B. Lower reactance
C. Lower self-resonant
frequency
D. Higher self-resonant
frequency
E5A16 E5A16
What is the resonant frequency of (D)
an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L Page 4-29
is 50 microhenries and C is 10
picofarads?
A. 23.5 MHz
B. 23.5 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz
E5B05 E5B05
What happens to the magnitude of (D)
a pure reactance when it is Page 4-19
converted to a susceptance?
A. It is unchanged
B. The sign is reversed
C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
D. It becomes the reciprocal
E5B06 E5B06
What is susceptance? (C)
A. The magnetic impedance of a Page 4-19
circuit
B. The ratio of magnetic field to
electric field
C. The imaginary part of
admittance
D. A measure of the efficiency
of a transformer
E5B07 E5B07
What is the phase angle between (C)
the voltage across and the current Page 4-22
through a series RLC circuit if
XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm,
and XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
E5B08 E5B08
What is the phase angle between (A)
the voltage across and the current Page 4-22
through a series RLC circuit if
XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms,
and XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
E5B09 E5B09
What is the relationship between (D)
the AC current through a Page 4-14
capacitor and the voltage across a
capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in
phase
B. Voltage and current are 180
degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90
degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90
degrees
E5B10 E5B10
What is the relationship between (A)
the AC current through an Page 4-15
inductor and the voltage across an
inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90
degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90
degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180
degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in
phase
E5B11 E5B11
What is the phase angle between (B)
the voltage across and the current Page 4-23
through a series RLC circuit if
XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms,
and XL is 50 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
E5B12 E5B12
What is admittance? (A)
A. The inverse of impedance Page 4-19
B. The term for the gain of a
field effect transistor
C. The turns ratio of a
transformer
D. The inverse of Q factor
E5C02 E5C02
How are impedances described in (C)
polar coordinates? Page 4-16
A. By X and R values
B. By real and imaginary parts
C. By phase angle and magnitude
D. By Y and G values
E5C03 E5C03
Which of the following (C)
represents an inductive reactance Page 4-16
in polar coordinates?
A. A positive magnitude
B. A negative magnitude
C. A positive phase angle
D. A negative phase angle
E5C04 E5C04
What coordinate system is often (D)
used to display the resistive, Page 4-16
inductive, and/or capacitive
reactance components of
impedance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Rectangular coordinates
E5C05 E5C05
What is the name of the diagram (C)
used to show the phase Page 4-16
relationship between impedances
at a given frequency?
A. Venn diagram
B. Near field diagram
C. Phasor diagram
D. Far field diagram
E5C06 E5C06
What does the impedance 50–j25 (B)
represent? Page 4-16
A. 50 ohms resistance in series
with 25 ohms inductive
reactance
B. 50 ohms resistance in series
with 25 ohms capacitive
reactance
C. 25 ohms resistance in series
with 50 ohms inductive
reactance
D. 25 ohms resistance in series
with 50 ohms capacitive
reactance
E5C07 E5C07
Where is the impedance of a pure (D)
resistance plotted on rectangular Page 4-16
coordinates?
A. On the vertical axis
B. On a line through the origin,
slanted at 45 degrees
C. On a horizontal line, offset
vertically above the horizontal
axis
D. On the horizontal axis
E5C08 E5C08
What coordinate system is often (D)
used to display the phase angle of Page 4-16
a circuit containing resistance,
inductive and/or capacitive
reactance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Polar coordinates
E5C09 E5C09
When using rectangular (A)
coordinates to graph the Page 4-16
impedance of a circuit, what do
the axes represent?
A. The X axis represents the
resistive component and the Y
axis represents the reactive
component
B. The X axis represents the
reactive component and the Y
axis represents the resistive
component
C. The X axis represents the
phase angle and the Y axis
represents the magnitude
D. The X axis represents the
magnitude and the Y axis
represents the phase angle
E5C10 E5C10
Which point on Figure E5-1 best (B)
represents the impedance of a Page 4-21
series circuit consisting of a 400-
ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad
capacitor at 14 MHz?
A. Point 2
B. Point 4
C. Point 5
D. Point 6
E5C11 E5C11
Which point in Figure E5-1 best (B)
represents the impedance of a Page 4-20
series circuit consisting of a 300-
ohm resistor and an 18-
microhenry inductor at 3.505
MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
E5C12 E5C12
Which point on Figure E5-1 best (A)
represents the impedance of a Page 4-22
series circuit consisting of a 300-
ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad
capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
E5D05 E5D05
What is the power factor of an RL (C)
circuit having a 30-degree phase Page 4-26
angle between the voltage and the
current?
A. 1.73
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.577
E5D06 E5D06
In what direction is the magnetic (D)
field oriented about a conductor Page 4-7
in relation to the direction of
electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the
current
B. In a direction opposite to the
current
C. In all directions; omni-
directional
D. In a circle around the
conductor
E5D07 E5D07
How many watts are consumed in (B)
a circuit having a power factor of Page 4-26
0.71 if the apparent power is 500
VA?
A. 704 W
B. 355 W
C. 252 W
D. 1.42 mW
E5D08 E5D08
How many watts are consumed in (D)
a circuit having a power factor of Page 4-26
0.6 if the input is 200 VAC at 5
amperes?
A. 200 watts
B. 1000 watts
C. 1600 watts
D. 600 watts
E5D09 E5D09
What happens to reactive power (B)
in an AC circuit that has both Page 4-24
ideal inductors and ideal
capacitors?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the
circuit
B. It is repeatedly exchanged
between the associated
magnetic and electric fields,
but is not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic
energy in the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the
formation of inductive and
capacitive fields
E5D10 E5D10
How can the true power be (A)
determined in an AC circuit Page 4-25
where the voltage and current are
out of phase?
A. By multiplying the apparent
power by the power factor
B. By dividing the reactive power
by the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent
power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the reactive
power by the power factor
E5D11 E5D11
What is the power factor of an RL (C)
circuit having a 60-degree phase Page 4-26
angle between the voltage and the
current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73
E5D12 E5D12
How many watts are consumed in (B)
a circuit having a power factor of Page 4-26
0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4
amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts
E5D13 E5D13
How many watts are consumed in (B)
a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm Page 4-26
resistor in series with a 100-ohm
inductive reactance drawing 1
ampere?
A. 70.7 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 141.4 watts
D. 200 watts
E5D14 E5D14
What is reactive power? (A)
A. Wattless, nonproductive Page 4-24
power
B. Power consumed in wire
resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of
capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q
E5D15 E5D15
What is the power factor of an RL (D)
circuit having a 45-degree phase Page 4-26
angle between the voltage and the
current?
A. 0.866
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.707
SUBELEMENT E6
— CIRCUIT
COMPONENTS
[6 Exam Questions
— 6 Groups]
E6A — Semiconductor materials and
devices: semiconductor materials;
germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type;
transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction,
field-effect transistors: enhancement
mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS;
N-channel; P-channel
E6A01 E6A01
In what application is gallium (C)
arsenide used as a semiconductor Page 5-13
material?
A. In high-current rectifier
circuits
B. In high-power audio circuits
C. In microwave circuits
D. In very low-frequency RF
circuits
E6A02 E6A02
Which of the following (A)
semiconductor materials contains Page 5-2
excess free electrons?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Bipolar
D. Insulated gate
E6A03 E6A03
Why does a PN-junction diode (C)
not conduct current when reverse Page 5-3
biased?
A. Only P-type semiconductor
material can conduct current
B. Only N-type semiconductor
material can conduct current
C. Holes in P-type material and
electrons in the N-type
material are separated by the
applied voltage, widening the
depletion region
D. Excess holes in P-type
material combine with the
electrons in N-type material,
converting the entire diode into
an insulator
E6A04 E6A04
What is the name given to an (C)
impurity atom that adds holes to a Page 5-2
semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Insulator impurity
B. N-type impurity
C. Acceptor impurity
D. Donor impurity
E6A05 E6A05
How does DC input impedance at (C)
the gate of a field-effect Page 5-10
transistor compare with the DC
input impedance of a bipolar
transistor?
A. They are both low impedance
B. An FET has lower input
impedance
C. An FET has higher input
impedance
D. They are both high impedance
E6A06 E6A06
What is the beta of a bipolar (B)
junction transistor? Page 5-9
A. The frequency at which the
current gain is reduced to
0.707
B. The change in collector
current with respect to base
current
C. The breakdown voltage of the
base to collector junction
D. The switching speed
E6A07 E6A07
Which of the following indicates (D)
that a silicon NPN junction Page 5-8
transistor is biased on?
A. Base-to-emitter resistance of
approximately 6 to 7 ohms
B. Base-to-emitter resistance of
approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C. Base-to-emitter voltage of
approximately 6 to 7 volts
D. Base-to-emitter voltage of
approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
E6A08 E6A08
What term indicates the (D)
frequency at which the grounded- Page 5-9
base current gain of a transistor
has decreased to 0.7 of the gain
obtainable at 1 kHz?
A. Corner frequency
B. Alpha rejection frequency
C. Beta cutoff frequency
D. Alpha cutoff frequency
E6A09 E6A09
What is a depletion-mode FET? (A)
A. An FET that exhibits a current Page 5-11
flow between source and drain
when no gate voltage is applied
B. An FET that has no current
flow between source and drain
when no gate voltage is applied
C. Any FET without a channel
D. Any FET for which holes are
the majority carriers
E6A10 E6A10
In Figure E6-1, what is the (B)
schematic symbol for an N- Page 5-11
channel dual-gate MOSFET?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E6A11 E6A11
In Figure E6-1, what is the (A)
schematic symbol for a P-channel Page 5-10
junction FET?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E6A12 E6A12
Why do many MOSFET devices (D)
have internally connected Zener Page 5-11
diodes on the gates?
A. To provide a voltage reference
for the correct amount of
reverse-bias gate voltage
B. To protect the substrate from
excessive voltages
C. To keep the gate voltage
within specifications and
prevent the device from
overheating
D. To reduce the chance of static
damage to the gate
E6B — Diodes
E6B01 E6B01
What is the most useful (B)
characteristic of a Zener diode? Page 5-5
A. A constant current drop under
conditions of varying voltage
B. A constant voltage drop under
conditions of varying current
C. A negative resistance region
D. An internal capacitance that
varies with the applied voltage
E6B02 E6B02
What is an important (D)
characteristic of a Schottky diode Page 5-4
as compared to an ordinary
silicon diode when used as a
power supply rectifier?
A. Much higher reverse voltage
breakdown
B. More constant reverse
avalanche voltage
C. Longer carrier retention time
D. Less forward voltage drop
E6B03 E6B03
What type of bias is required for (B)
an LED to emit light? Page 5-7
A. Reverse bias
B. Forward bias
C. Zero bias
D. Inductive bias
E6B04 E6B04
What type of semiconductor (A)
device is designed for use as a Page 5-6
voltage-controlled capacitor?
A. Varactor diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
D. Zener diode
E6B05 E6B05
What characteristic of a PIN (D)
diode makes it useful as an RF Page 5-7
switch?
A. Extremely high reverse
breakdown voltage
B. Ability to dissipate large
amounts of power
C. Reverse bias controls its
forward voltage drop
D. Low junction capacitance
E6B06 E6B06
Which of the following is a (D)
common use of a Schottky diode? Page 5-5
A. As a rectifier in high current
power supplies
B. As a variable capacitance in an
automatic frequency control
circuit
C. As a constant voltage
reference in a power supply
D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or
detector
E6B07 E6B07
What is the failure mechanism (B)
when a junction diode fails due to Page 5-4
excessive current?
A. Excessive inverse voltage
B. Excessive junction
temperature
C. Insufficient forward voltage
D. Charge carrier depletion
E6B08 E6B08
Which of the following is a (A)
Schottky barrier diode? Page 5-4
A. Metal-semiconductor
junction
B. Electrolytic rectifier
C. PIN junction
D. Thermionic emission diode
E6B09 E6B09
What is a common use for point- (C)
contact diodes? Page 5-5
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF detector
D. As a high-voltage rectifier
E6B10 E6B10
In Figure E6-2, what is the (B)
schematic symbol for a light- Page 5-7
emitting diode?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E6B11 E6B11
What is used to control the (A)
attenuation of RF signals by a PIN Page 5-7
diode?
A. Forward DC bias current
B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
C. Reverse voltage larger than
the RF signal
D. Capacitance of an RF
coupling capacitor
E6C11 E6C11
In Figure E6-3, what is the (C)
schematic symbol for the NOT Page 5-19
operation (inverter)?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E6D02 E6D02
What is the equivalent circuit of a (A)
quartz crystal? Page 6-15
A. Motional capacitance,
motional inductance, and loss
resistance in series, all in
parallel with a shunt capacitor
representing electrode and
stray capacitance
B. Motional capacitance,
motional inductance, loss
resistance, and a capacitor
representing electrode and
stray capacitance all in parallel
C. Motional capacitance,
motional inductance, loss
resistance, and a capacitor
representing electrode and
stray capacitance all in series
D. Motional inductance and loss
resistance in series, paralleled
with motional capacitance and
a capacitor representing
electrode and stray capacitance
E6D03 E6D03
Which of the following is an (A)
aspect of the piezoelectric Page 6-15
effect?
A. Mechanical deformation of
material by the application of a
voltage
B. Mechanical deformation of
material by the application of a
magnetic field
C. Generation of electrical
energy in the presence of light
D. Increased conductivity in the
presence of light
E6D04 E6D04
Which materials are commonly (B)
used as a core in an inductor? Page 4-36
A. Polystyrene and polyethylene
B. Ferrite and brass
C. Teflon and Delrin
D. Cobalt and aluminum
E6D05 E6D05
What is one reason for using (C)
ferrite cores rather than powdered Page 4-36
iron in an inductor?
A. Ferrite toroids generally have
lower initial permeability
B. Ferrite toroids generally have
better temperature stability
C. Ferrite toroids generally
require fewer turns to produce
a given inductance value
D. Ferrite toroids are easier to
use with surface mount
technology
E6D06 E6D06
What core material property (D)
determines the inductance of an Page 4-36
inductor?
A. Thermal impedance
B. Resistance
C. Reactivity
D. Permeability
E6D07 E6D07
What is current in the primary (A)
winding of a transformer called if Page 4-36
no load is attached to the
secondary?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current
E6D08 E6D08
What is one reason for using (B)
powdered-iron cores rather than Page 4-36
ferrite cores in an inductor?
A. Powdered-iron cores
generally have greater initial
permeability
B. Powdered-iron cores
generally maintain their
characteristics at higher
currents
C. Powdered-iron cores
generally require fewer turns
to produce a given inductance
D. Powdered-iron cores use
smaller diameter wire for the
same inductance
E6D09 E6D09
What devices are commonly used (C)
as VHF and UHF parasitic Page 4-37
suppressors at the input and
output terminals of a transistor
HF amplifier?
A. Electrolytic capacitors
B. Butterworth filters
C. Ferrite beads
D. Steel-core toroids
E6D10 E6D10
What is a primary advantage of (A)
using a toroidal core instead of a Page 4-36
solenoidal core in an inductor?
A. Toroidal cores confine most
of the magnetic field within the
core material
B. Toroidal cores make it easier
to couple the magnetic energy
into other components
C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater
hysteresis
D. Toroidal cores have lower Q
characteristics
E6D11 E6D11
Which type of core material (B)
decreases inductance when Page 4-36
inserted into a coil?
A. Ceramic
B. Brass
C. Ferrite
D. Powdered iron
E6D12 E6D12
What is inductor saturation? (C)
A. The inductor windings are Page 4-36
over-coupled
B. The inductor’s voltage rating
is exceeded causing a flashover
C. The ability of the inductor’s
core to store magnetic energy
has been exceeded
D. Adjacent inductors become
over-coupled
E6D13 E6D13
What is the primary cause of (A)
inductor self-resonance? Page 4-34
A. Inter-turn capacitance
B. The skin effect
C. Inductive kickback
D. Non-linear core hysteresis
E6E03 E6E03
Which of the following materials (D)
is likely to provide the highest Page 5-13
frequency of operation when used
in MMICs?
A. Silicon
B. Silicon nitride
C. Silicon dioxide
D. Gallium nitride
E6E04 E6E04
Which is the most common input (A)
and output impedance of circuits Page 5-12
that use MMICs?
A. 50 ohms
B. 300 ohms
C. 450 ohms
D. 10 ohms
E6E05 E6E05
Which of the following noise (A)
figure values is typical of a low- Page 5-13
noise UHF preamplifier?
A. 2 dB
B. –10 dB
C. 44 dBm
D. –20 dBm
E6E06 E6E06
What characteristics of the (D)
MMIC make it a popular choice Page 5-12
for VHF through microwave
circuits?
A. The ability to retrieve
information from a single
signal even in the presence of
other strong signals
B. Plate current that is
controlled by a control grid
C. Nearly infinite gain, very high
input impedance, and very low
output impedance
D. Controlled gain, low noise
figure, and constant input and
output impedance over the
specified frequency range
E6E07 E6E07
What type of transmission line is (D)
used for connections to MMICs? Page 5-13
A. Miniature coax
B. Circular waveguide
C. Parallel wire
D. Microstrip
E6E08 E6E08
How is power supplied to the (A)
most common type of MMIC? Page 5-12
A. Through a resistor and/or RF
choke connected to the
amplifier output lead
B. MMICs require no operating
bias
C. Through a capacitor and RF
choke connected to the
amplifier input lead
D. Directly to the bias voltage
(VCC IN) lead
E6E09 E6E09
Which of the following (D)
component package types would Page 4-35
be most suitable for use at
frequencies above the HF range?
A. TO-220
B. Axial lead
C. Radial lead
D. Surface mount
E6E10 E6E10
What advantage does surface- (D)
mount technology offer at RF Page 4-35
compared to using through-hole
components?
A. Smaller circuit area
B. Shorter circuit-board traces
C. Components have less
parasitic inductance and
capacitance
D. All these choices are correct
E6E11 E6E11
What is a characteristic of DIP (D)
packaging used for integrated Page 4-35
circuits?
A. Package mounts in a direct
inverted position
B. Low leakage doubly insulated
package
C. Two chips in each package
(Dual In Package)
D. A total of two rows of
connecting pins placed on
opposite sides of the package
(Dual In-line Package)
E6E12 E6E12
Why are DIP through-hole (C)
package ICs not typically used at Page 4-33
UHF and higher frequencies?
A. Too many pins
B. Epoxy coating is conductive
above 300 MHz
C. Excessive lead length
D. Unsuitable for combining
analog and digital signals
E6F02 E6F02
What happens to the conductivity (A)
of a photoconductive material Page 5-15
when light shines on it?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes unstable
E6F03 E6F03
What is the most common (D)
configuration of an optoisolator Page 5-16
or optocoupler?
A. A lens and a photomultiplier
B. A frequency modulated
helium-neon laser
C. An amplitude modulated
helium-neon laser
D. An LED and a phototransistor
E6F04 E6F04
What is the photovoltaic effect? (B)
A. The conversion of voltage to Page 5-17
current when exposed to light
B. The conversion of light to
electrical energy
C. The conversion of electrical
energy to mechanical energy
D. The tendency of a battery to
discharge when exposed to
light
E6F05 E6F05
Which describes an optical shaft (A)
encoder? Page 5-16
A. A device that detects rotation
of a control by interrupting a
light source with a patterned
wheel
B. A device that measures the
strength of a beam of light
using analog to digital
conversion
C. A digital encryption device
often used to encrypt
spacecraft control signals
D. A device for generating RTTY
signals by means of a rotating
light source
E6F06 E6F06
Which of these materials is most (A)
commonly used to create Page 5-15
photoconductive devices?
A. A crystalline semiconductor
B. An ordinary metal
C. A heavy metal
D. A liquid semiconductor
E6F07 E6F07
What is a solid-state relay? (B)
A. A relay using transistors to Page 5-16
drive the relay coil
B. A device that uses
semiconductors to implement
the functions of an
electromechanical relay
C. A mechanical relay that
latches in the on or off state
each time it is pulsed
D. A semiconductor passive
delay line
E6F08 E6F08
Why are optoisolators often used (C)
in conjunction with solid-state Page 5-16
circuits when switching 120
VAC?
A. Optoisolators provide a low
impedance link between a
control circuit and a power
circuit
B. Optoisolators provide
impedance matching between
the control circuit and power
circuit
C. Optoisolators provide a very
high degree of electrical
isolation between a control
circuit and the circuit being
switched
D. Optoisolators eliminate the
effects of reflected light in the
control circuit
E6F09 E6F09
What is the efficiency of a (D)
photovoltaic cell? Page 5-18
A. The output RF power divided
by the input DC power
B. Cost per kilowatt-hour
generated
C. The open-circuit voltage
divided by the short-circuit
current under full illumination
D. The relative fraction of light
that is converted to current
E6F10 E6F10
What is the most common type of (B)
photovoltaic cell used for Page 5-17
electrical power generation?
A. Selenium
B. Silicon
C. Cadmium Sulfide
D. Copper oxide
E6F11 E6F11
What is the approximate open- (B)
circuit voltage produced by a fully Page 5-17
illuminated silicon photovoltaic
cell?
A. 0.1 V
B. 0.5 V
C. 1.5 V
D. 12 V
SUBELEMENT E7
— PRACTICAL
CIRCUITS
[8 Exam Questions
— 8 Groups]
E7A — Digital circuits: digital circuit
principles and logic circuits; classes of
logic elements; positive and negative
logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
E7A01 E7A01
Which circuit is bistable? (C)
A. An AND gate Page 5-22
B. An OR gate
C. A flip-flop
D. A bipolar amplifier
E7A02 E7A02
What is the function of a decade (A)
counter? Page 5-24
A. It produces one output pulse
for every 10 input pulses
B. It decodes a decimal number
for display on a seven-segment
LED display
C. It produces 10 output pulses
for every input pulse
D. It decodes a binary number
for display on a seven-segment
LED display
E7A03 E7A03
Which of the following can divide (B)
the frequency of a pulse train by Page 5-23
2?
A. An XOR gate
B. A flip-flop
C. An OR gate
D. A multiplexer
E7A04 E7A04
How many flip-flops are required (B)
to divide a signal frequency by 4? Page 5-23
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E7A05 E7A05
Which of the following is a (D)
circuit that continuously Page 5-23
alternates between two states
without an external clock?
A. Monostable multivibrator
B. J-K flip-flop
C. T flip-flop
D. Astable multivibrator
E7A06 E7A06
What is a characteristic of a (A)
monostable multivibrator? Page 5-23
A. It switches momentarily to the
opposite binary state and then
returns to its original state
after a set time
B. It produces a continuous
square wave oscillating
between 1 and 0
C. It stores one bit of data in
either a 0 or 1 state
D. It maintains a constant output
voltage, regardless of
variations in the input voltage
E7A07 E7A07
What logical operation does a (D)
NAND gate perform? Page 5-20
A. It produces logic 0 at its
output only when all inputs are
logic 0
B. It produces logic 1 at its
output only when all inputs are
logic 1
C. It produces logic 0 at its
output if some but not all
inputs are logic 1
D. It produces logic 0 at its
output only when all inputs are
logic 1
E7A08 E7A08
What logical operation does an (A)
OR gate perform? Page 5-20
A. It produces logic 1 at its
output if any or all inputs are
logic 1
B. It produces logic 0 at its
output if all inputs are logic 1
C. It only produces logic 0 at its
output when all inputs are logic
1
D. It produces logic 1 at its
output if all inputs are logic 0
E7A09 E7A09
What logical operation is (C)
performed by an exclusive NOR Page 5-20
gate?
A. It produces logic 0 at its
output only if all inputs are
logic 0
B. It produces logic 1 at its
output only if all inputs are
logic 1
C. It produces logic 0 at its
output if only one input is logic
1
D. It produces logic 1 at its
output if only one input is logic
1
E7A10 E7A10
What is a truth table? (C)
A. A table of logic symbols that Page 5-19
indicate the high logic states of
an op-amp
B. A diagram showing logic
states when the digital device
output is true
C. A list of inputs and
corresponding outputs for a
digital device
D. A table of logic symbols that
indicate the logic states of an
op-amp
E7A11 E7A11
What type of logic defines “1” as (D)
a high voltage? Page 5-20
A. Reverse Logic
B. Assertive Logic
C. Negative logic
D. Positive Logic
E7B06 E7B06
Which of the following amplifier (B)
types reduces even-order Page 6-11
harmonics?
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Class C
D. Class AB
E7B07 E7B07
Which of the following is a likely (D)
result when a Class C amplifier is Page 6-11
used to amplify a single-sideband
phone signal?
A. Reduced intermodulation
products
B. Increased overall
intelligibility
C. Signal inversion
D. Signal distortion and
excessive bandwidth
E7B08 E7B08
How can an RF power amplifier (C)
be neutralized? Page 6-14
A. By increasing the driving
power
B. By reducing the driving power
C. By feeding a 180-degree out-
of-phase portion of the output
back to the input
D. By feeding an in-phase
component of the output back
to the input
E7B09 E7B09
Which of the following describes (D)
how the loading and tuning Page 6-40
capacitors are to be adjusted when
tuning a vacuum tube RF power
amplifier that employs a Pi-
network output circuit?
A. The loading capacitor is set to
maximum capacitance and the
tuning capacitor is adjusted for
minimum allowable plate
current
B. The tuning capacitor is set to
maximum capacitance and the
loading capacitor is adjusted
for minimum plate permissible
current
C. The loading capacitor is
adjusted to minimum plate
current while alternately
adjusting the tuning capacitor
for maximum allowable plate
current
D. The tuning capacitor is
adjusted for minimum plate
current, and the loading
capacitor is adjusted for
maximum permissible plate
current
E7B10 E7B10
In Figure E7-1, what is the (B)
purpose of R1 and R2? Page 6-3
A. Load resistors
B. Voltage divider bias
C. Self bias
D. Feedback
E7B11 E7B11
In Figure E7-1, what is the (D)
purpose of R3? Page 6-3
A. Fixed bias
B. Emitter bypass
C. Output load resistor
D. Self bias
E7B12 E7B12
What type of amplifier circuit is (C)
shown in Figure E7-1? Page 6-3
A. Common base
B. Common collector
C. Common emitter
D. Emitter follower
E7B13 E7B13
Which of the following describes (D)
an emitter follower (or common Page 6-4
collector) amplifier?
A. A two-transistor amplifier
with the emitters sharing a
common bias resistor
B. A differential amplifier with
both inputs fed to the emitter
of the input transistor
C. An OR circuit with only one
emitter used for output
D. An amplifier with a low
impedance output that follows
the base input voltage
E7B14 E7B14
Why are switching amplifiers (B)
more efficient than linear Page 6-12
amplifiers?
A. Switching amplifiers operate
at higher voltages
B. The power transistor is at
saturation or cutoff most of the
time
C. Linear amplifiers have high
gain resulting in higher
harmonic content
D. Switching amplifiers use
push-pull circuits
E7B15 E7B15
What is one way to prevent (C)
thermal runaway in a bipolar Page 6-3
transistor amplifier?
A. Neutralization
B. Select transistors with high
beta
C. Use a resistor in series with
the emitter
D. All these choices are correct
E7B16 E7B16
What is the effect of (A)
intermodulation products in a Page 6-12
linear power amplifier?
A. Transmission of spurious
signals
B. Creation of parasitic
oscillations
C. Low efficiency
D. All these choices are correct
E7B17 E7B17
Why are odd-order rather than (A)
even-order intermodulation Page 6-12
distortion products of concern in
linear power amplifiers?
A. Because they are relatively
close in frequency to the
desired signal
B. Because they are relatively far
in frequency from the desired
signal
C. Because they invert the
sidebands causing distortion
D. Because they maintain the
sidebands, thus causing
multiple duplicate signals
E7B18 E7B18
What is a characteristic of a (C)
grounded-grid amplifier? Page 6-4
A. High power gain
B. High filament voltage
C. Low input impedance
D. Low bandwidth
E7C03 E7C03
What advantage does a series-L (A)
Pi-L-network have over a series-L Page 6-40
Pi-network for impedance
matching between the final
amplifier of a vacuum-tube
transmitter and an antenna?
A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
C. Does not require a capacitor
D. Greater transformation range
E7C04 E7C04
How does an impedance-matching (C)
circuit transform a complex Page 6-39
impedance to a resistive
impedance?
A. It introduces negative
resistance to cancel the
resistive part of impedance
B. It introduces
transconductance to cancel the
reactive part of impedance
C. It cancels the reactive part of
the impedance and changes the
resistive part to a desired value
D. Reactive currents are
dissipated in matched
resistances
E7C05 E7C05
Which filter type is described as (D)
having ripple in the passband and a Page 6-34
sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter
E7C06 E7C06
What are the distinguishing (C)
features of an elliptical filter? Page 6-34
A. Gradual passband rolloff with
minimal stop band ripple
B. Extremely flat response over
its pass band with gradually
rounded stop band corners
C. Extremely sharp cutoff with
one or more notches in the
stop band
D. Gradual passband rolloff with
extreme stop band ripple
E7C07 E7C07
Which describes a Pi-L-network (B)
used for matching a vacuum tube Page 6-40
final amplifier to a 50-ohm
unbalanced output?
A. A Phase Inverter Load
network
B. A Pi-network with an
additional series inductor on
the output
C. A network with only three
discrete parts
D. A matching network in which
all components are isolated
from ground
E7C08 E7C08
Which of the following factors (A)
has the greatest effect on the Page 6-35
bandwidth and response shape of a
crystal ladder filter?
A. The relative frequencies of
the individual crystals
B. The DC voltage applied to the
quartz crystal
C. The gain of the RF stage
preceding the filter
D. The amplitude of the signals
passing through the filter
E7C09 E7C09
What is a crystal lattice filter? (D)
A. A power supply filter made Page 6-35
with interlaced quartz crystals
B. An audio filter made with four
quartz crystals that resonate at
1 kHz intervals
C. A filter using lattice-shaped
quartz crystals for high-Q
performance
D. A filter with narrow bandwidth
and steep skirts made using
quartz crystals
E7C10 E7C10
Which of the following filters (B)
would be the best choice for use Page 6-33
in a 2 meter band repeater
duplexer?
A. A crystal filter
B. A cavity filter
C. A DSP filter
D. An L-C filter
E7C11 E7C11
Which of the following describes (C)
a receiving filter’s ability to Page 6-34
reject signals occupying an
adjacent channel?
A. Passband ripple
B. Phase response
C. Shape factor
D. Noise factor
E7C12 E7C12
What is one advantage of a Pi- (A)
matching network over an L- Page 6-40
matching network consisting of a
single inductor and a single
capacitor?
A. The Q of Pi-networks can be
controlled
B. L-networks cannot perform
impedance transformation
C. Pi-networks are more stable
D. Pi-networks provide balanced
input and output
E7D04 E7D04
Which of the following types of (B)
linear voltage regulator usually Page 6-42
make the most efficient use of
the primary power source?
A. A series current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt regulator
D. A shunt current source
E7D05 E7D05
Which of the following types of (D)
linear voltage regulator places a Page 6-41
constant load on the unregulated
voltage source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt current source
D. A shunt regulator
E7D06 E7D06
What is the purpose of Q1 in the (C)
circuit shown in Figure E7-2? Page 6-42
A. It provides negative feedback
to improve regulation
B. It provides a constant load for
the voltage source
C. It controls the current
supplied to the load
D. It provides D1 with current
E7D07 E7D07
What is the purpose of C2 in the (A)
circuit shown in Figure E7-2? Page 6-42
A. It bypasses rectifier output
ripple around D1
B. It is a brute force filter for the
output
C. To self-resonate at the hum
frequency
D. To provide fixed DC bias for
Q1
E7D08 E7D08
What type of circuit is shown in (C)
Figure E7-2? Page 6-42
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Grounded emitter amplifier
C. Linear voltage regulator
D. Monostable multivibrator
E7D09 E7D09
What is the main reason to use a (C)
charge controller with a solar Page 6-42
power system?
A. Prevention of battery
undercharge
B. Control of electrolyte levels
during battery discharge
C. Prevention of battery damage
due to overcharge
D. Matching of day and night
charge rates
E7D10 E7D10
What is the primary reason that a (C)
high-frequency switching type Page 6-43
high-voltage power supply can be
both less expensive and lighter in
weight than a conventional power
supply?
A. The inverter design does not
require any output filtering
B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier
for increased output
C. The high frequency inverter
design uses much smaller
transformers and filter
components for an equivalent
power output
D. It uses a large power factor
compensation capacitor to
recover power from the unused
portion of the AC cycle
E7D11 E7D11
What is the function of the pass (D)
transistor in a linear voltage Page 6-42
regulator circuit?
A. Permits a wide range of
output voltage settings
B. Provides a stable input
impedance over a wide range of
source voltage
C. Maintains nearly constant
output impedance over a wide
range of load current
D. Maintains nearly constant
output voltage over a wide
range of load current
E7D12 E7D12
What is the dropout voltage of an (C)
analog voltage regulator? Page 6-42
A. Minimum input voltage for
rated power dissipation
B. Maximum output voltage
drops when the input voltage is
varied over its specified range
C. Minimum input-to-output
voltage required to maintain
regulation
D. Maximum that the output
voltage may decrease at rated
load
E7D13 E7D13
What is the equation for (C)
calculating power dissipated by a Page 6-42
series linear voltage regulator?
A. Input voltage multiplied by
input current
B. Input voltage divided by output
current
C. Voltage difference from input
to output multiplied by output
current
D. Output voltage multiplied by
output current
E7D14 E7D14
What is the purpose of (D)
connecting equal-value resistors Page 6-43
across power supply filter
capacitors connected in series?
A. Equalize the voltage across
each capacitor
B. Discharge the capacitors when
voltage is removed
C. Provide a minimum load on
the supply
D. All these choices are correct
E7D15 E7D15
What is the purpose of a step- (D)
start circuit in a high-voltage Page 6-43
power supply?
A. To provide a dual-voltage
output for reduced power
applications
B. To compensate for variations
of the incoming line voltage
C. To allow for remote control
of the power supply
D. To allow the filter capacitors
to charge gradually
E7E05 E7E05
What circuit is added to an FM (D)
transmitter to boost the higher Page 6-23
audio frequencies?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. A heterodyne enhancer
D. A pre-emphasis network
E7E06 E7E06
Why is de-emphasis commonly (A)
used in FM communications Page 6-23
receivers?
A. For compatibility with
transmitters using phase
modulation
B. To reduce impulse noise
reception
C. For higher efficiency
D. To remove third-order
distortion products
E7E07 E7E07
What is meant by the term (B)
“baseband” in radio Page 6-20
communications?
A. The lowest frequency band
that the transmitter or receiver
covers
B. The frequency range occupied
by a message signal prior to
modulation
C. The unmodulated bandwidth of
the transmitted signal
D. The basic oscillator frequency
in an FM transmitter that is
multiplied to increase the
deviation and carrier frequency
E7E08 E7E08
What are the principal (C)
frequencies that appear at the Page 6-19
output of a mixer circuit?
A. Two and four times the
original frequency
B. The square root of the product
of input frequencies
C. The two input frequencies
along with their sum and
difference frequencies
D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the
input frequency
E7E09 E7E09
What occurs when an excessive (A)
amount of signal energy reaches a Page 6-20
mixer circuit?
A. Spurious mixer products are
generated
B. Mixer blanking occurs
C. Automatic limiting occurs
D. A beat frequency is generated
E7E10 E7E10
How does a diode envelope (A)
detector function? Page 6-23
A. By rectification and filtering
of RF signals
B. By breakdown of the Zener
voltage
C. By mixing signals with noise
in the transition region of the
diode
D. By sensing the change of
reactance in the diode with
respect to frequency
E7E11 E7E11
Which type of detector circuit is (C)
used for demodulating SSB Page 6-24
signals?
A. Discriminator
B. Phase detector
C. Product detector
D. Phase comparator
E7F03 E7F03
What type of digital signal (C)
processing filter is used to Page 6-32
generate an SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. An elliptical filter
E7F04 E7F04
What is a common method of (D)
generating an SSB signal using Page 6-32
digital signal processing?
A. Mixing products are
converted to voltages and
subtracted by adder circuits
B. A frequency synthesizer
removes the unwanted
sidebands
C. Varying quartz crystal
characteristics emulated in
digital form
D. Signals are combined in
quadrature phase relationship
E7F05 E7F05
How frequently must an analog (B)
signal be sampled by an analog- Page 6-26
to-digital converter so that the
signal can be accurately
reproduced?
A. At least half the rate of the
highest frequency component
of the signal
B. At least twice the rate of the
highest frequency component
of the signal
C. At the same rate as the highest
frequency component of the
signal
D. At four times the rate of the
highest frequency component
of the signal
E7F06 E7F06
What is the minimum number of (D)
bits required for an analog-to- Page 6-28
digital converter to sample a
signal with a range of 1 volt at a
resolution of 1 millivolt?
A. 4 bits
B. 6 bits
C. 8 bits
D. 10 bits
E7F07 E7F07
What function is performed by a (C)
Fast Fourier Transform? Page 6-28
A. Converting analog signals to
digital form
B. Converting digital signals to
analog form
C. Converting digital signals
from the time domain to the
frequency domain
D. Converting 8-bit data to 16-
bit data
E7F08 E7F08
What is the function of (B)
decimation? Page 6-28
A. Converting data to binary code
decimal form
B. Reducing the effective sample
rate by removing samples
C. Attenuating the signal
D. Removing unnecessary
significant digits
E7F09 E7F09
Why is an anti-aliasing digital (A)
filter required in a digital Page 6-28
decimator?
A. It removes high-frequency
signal components that would
otherwise be reproduced as
lower frequency components
B. It peaks the response of the
decimator, improving
bandwidth
C. It removes low-frequency
signal components to eliminate
the need for DC restoration
D. It notches out the sampling
frequency to avoid sampling
errors
E7F10 E7F10
What aspect of receiver analog- (A)
to-digital conversion determines Page 6-30
the maximum receive bandwidth
of a Direct Digital Conversion
SDR?
A. Sample rate
B. Sample width in bits
C. Sample clock phase noise
D. Processor latency
E7F11 E7F11
What sets the minimum (B)
detectable signal level for a Page 6-28
direct-sampling SDR receiver in
the absence of atmospheric or
thermal noise?
A. Sample clock phase noise
B. Reference voltage level and
sample width in bits
C. Data storage transfer rate
D. Missing codes and jitter
E7F12 E7F12
Which of the following is an (A)
advantage of a Finite Impulse Page 6-38
Response (FIR) filter vs an
Infinite Impulse Response (IIR)
digital filter?
A. FIR filters can delay all
frequency components of the
signal by the same amount
B. FIR filters are easier to
implement for a given set of
passband rolloff requirements
C. FIR filters can respond faster
to impulses
D. All these choices are correct
E7F13 E7F13
What is the function of taps in a (D)
digital signal processing filter? Page 6-37
A. To reduce excess signal
pressure levels
B. Provide access for debugging
software
C. Select the point at which
baseband signals are generated
D. Provide incremental signal
delays for filter algorithms
E7F14 E7F14
Which of the following would (B)
allow a digital signal processing Page 6-37
filter to create a sharper filter
response?
A. Higher data rate
B. More taps
C. Complex phasor
representations
D. Double-precision math
routines
E7G02 E7G02
What is ringing in a filter? (D)
A. An echo caused by a long time Page 6-36
delay
B. A reduction in high frequency
response
C. Partial cancellation of the
signal over a range of
frequencies
D. Undesired oscillations added
to the desired signal
E7G03 E7G03
What is the typical input (D)
impedance of an op-amp? Page 6-7
A. 100 ohms
B. 1000 ohms
C. Very low
D. Very high
E7G04 E7G04
What is meant by the term “op- (C)
amp input offset voltage”? Page 6-8
A. The output voltage of the op-
amp minus its input voltage
B. The difference between the
output voltage of the op-amp
and the input voltage required
in the immediately following
stage
C. The differential input voltage
needed to bring the open loop
output voltage to zero
D. The potential between the
amplifier input terminals of the
op-amp in an open loop
condition
E7G05 E7G05
How can unwanted ringing and (A)
audio instability be prevented in Page 6-36
an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
A. Restrict both gain and Q
B. Restrict gain but increase Q
C. Restrict Q but increase gain
D. Increase both gain and Q
E7G06 E7G06
What is the gain-bandwidth of an (B)
operational amplifier? Page 6-7
A. The maximum frequency for a
filter circuit using that type of
amplifier
B. The frequency at which the
open-loop gain of the amplifier
equals one
C. The gain of the amplifier at a
filter’s cutoff frequency
D. The frequency at which the
amplifier’s offset voltage is
zero
E7G07 E7G07
What magnitude of voltage gain (C)
can be expected from the circuit Page 6-9
in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10
ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
A. 0.21
B. 94
C. 47
D. 24
E7G08 E7G08
How does the gain of an ideal (D)
operational amplifier vary with Page 6-7
frequency?
A. It increases linearly with
increasing frequency
B. It decreases linearly with
increasing frequency
C. It decreases logarithmically
with increasing frequency
D. It does not vary with
frequency
E7G09 E7G09
What will be the output voltage of (D)
the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 Page 6-9
if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000
ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is
applied to the input?
A. 0.23 volts
B. 2.3 volts
C. –0.23 volts
D. –2.3 volts
E7G10 E7G10
What absolute voltage gain can be (C)
expected from the circuit in Page 6-9
Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800
ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
A. 1
B. 0.03
C. 38
D. 76
E7G11 E7G11
What absolute voltage gain can be (B)
expected from the circuit in Page 6-7
Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300
ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
A. 28
B. 14
C. 7
D. 0.07
E7G12 E7G12
What is an operational amplifier? (A)
A. A high-gain, direct-coupled Page 6-7
differential amplifier with very
high input impedance and very
low output impedance
B. A digital audio amplifier
whose characteristics are
determined by components
external to the amplifier
C. An amplifier used to increase
the average output of frequency
modulated amateur signals to
the legal limit
D. A RF amplifier used in the
UHF and microwave regions
E7H03 E7H03
How is positive feedback supplied (A)
in a Hartley oscillator? Page 6-14
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through a capacitive divider
C. Through link coupling
D. Through a neutralizing
capacitor
E7H04 E7H04
How is positive feedback supplied (C)
in a Colpitts oscillator? Page 6-14
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a capacitive divider
D. Through a neutralizing
capacitor
E7H05 E7H05
How is positive feedback supplied (D)
in a Pierce oscillator? Page 6-15
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a neutralizing
capacitor
D. Through a quartz crystal
E7H06 E7H06
Which of the following oscillator (B)
circuits are commonly used in Page 6-15
VFOs?
A. Pierce and Zener
B. Colpitts and Hartley
C. Armstrong and deForest
D. Negative feedback and
balanced feedback
E7H07 E7H07
How can an oscillator’s (D)
microphonic responses be Page 6-16
reduced?
A. Use NP0 capacitors
B. Reduce noise on the
oscillator’s power supply
C. Increase the bias voltage
D. Mechanically isolate the
oscillator circuitry from its
enclosure
E7H08 E7H08
Which of the following (A)
components can be used to Page 6-16
reduce thermal drift in crystal
oscillators?
A. NP0 capacitors
B. Toroidal inductors
C. Wirewound resistors
D. Non-inductive resistors
E7H09 E7H09
What type of frequency (A)
synthesizer circuit uses a phase Page 6-17
accumulator, lookup table, digital
to analog converter, and a low-
pass anti-alias filter?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop
synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix
synthesizer
E7H10 E7H10
What information is contained in (B)
the lookup table of a direct digital Page 6-17
synthesizer (DDS)?
A. The phase relationship
between a reference oscillator
and the output waveform
B. Amplitude values that
represent the desired waveform
C. The phase relationship
between a voltage-controlled
oscillator and the output
waveform
D. Frequently used receiver and
transmitter frequencies
E7H11 E7H11
What are the major spectral (C)
impurity components of direct Page 6-17
digital synthesizers?
A. Broadband noise
B. Digital conversion noise
C. Spurious signals at discrete
frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise
E7H12 E7H12
Which of the following must be (B)
done to ensure that a crystal Page 6-16
oscillator provides the frequency
specified by the crystal
manufacturer?
A. Provide the crystal with a
specified parallel inductance
B. Provide the crystal with a
specified parallel capacitance
C. Bias the crystal at a specified
voltage
D. Bias the crystal at a specified
current
E7H13 E7H13
Which of the following is a (D)
technique for providing highly Page 6-15
accurate and stable oscillators
needed for microwave
transmission and reception?
A. Use a GPS signal reference
B. Use a rubidium stabilized
reference oscillator
C. Use a temperature-controlled
high Q dielectric resonator
D. All these choices are correct
E7H14 E7H14
What is a phase-locked loop (C)
circuit? Page 6-18
A. An electronic servo loop
consisting of a ratio detector,
reactance modulator, and
voltage-controlled oscillator
B. An electronic circuit also
known as a monostable
multivibrator
C. An electronic servo loop
consisting of a phase detector,
a low-pass filter, a voltage-
controlled oscillator, and a
stable reference oscillator
D. An electronic circuit
consisting of a precision push-
pull amplifier with a
differential input
E7H15 E7H15
Which of these functions can be (D)
performed by a phase-locked Page 6-19
loop?
A. Wide-band AF and RF power
amplification
B. Comparison of two digital
input signals, digital pulse
counter
C. Photovoltaic conversion,
optical coupling
D. Frequency synthesis, FM
demodulation
SUBELEMENT E8
— SIGNALS AND
EMISSIONS
[4 Exam Questions
— 4 Groups]
E8A — AC waveforms: sine, square,
and irregular waveforms; AC
measurements; average power and
PEP of RF signals; Fourier analysis;
analog to digital conversion: digital to
analog conversion; advantages of
digital communications
E8A01 E8A01
What is the name of the process (A)
that shows that a square wave is Page 7-8
made up of a sine wave plus all its
odd harmonics?
A. Fourier analysis
B. Vector analysis
C. Numerical analysis
D. Differential analysis
E8A02 E8A02
Which of the following is a type (A)
of analog-to-digital conversion? Page 6-30
A. Successive approximation
B. Harmonic regeneration
C. Level shifting
D. Phase reversal
E8A03 E8A03
What type of wave does a Fourier (A)
analysis show to be made up of Page 7-9
sine waves of a given fundamental
frequency plus all its harmonics?
A. A sawtooth wave
B. A square wave
C. A sine wave
D. A cosine wave
E8A04 E8A04
What is “dither” with respect to (B)
analog-to-digital converters? Page 6-28
A. An abnormal condition where
the converter cannot settle on a
value to represent the signal
B. A small amount of noise
added to the input signal to
allow more precise
representation of a signal over
time
C. An error caused by irregular
quantization step size
D. A method of decimation by
randomly skipping samples
E8A05 E8A05
What of the following (D)
instruments would be the most Page 7-2
accurate for measuring the RMS
voltage of a complex waveform?
A. A grid dip meter
B. A D’Arsonval meter
C. An absorption wave meter
D. A true-RMS calculating meter
E8A06 E8A06
What is the approximate ratio of (A)
PEP-to-average power in a typical Page 7-3
single-sideband phone signal?
A. 2.5 to 1
B. 25 to 1
C. 1 to 1
D. 100 to 1
E8A07 E8A07
What determines the PEP-to- (B)
average power ratio of a single- Page 7-3
sideband phone signal?
A. The frequency of the
modulating signal
B. Speech characteristics
C. The degree of carrier
suppression
D. Amplifier gain
E8A08 E8A08
Why would a direct or flash (C)
conversion analog-to-digital Page 6-30
converter be useful for a software
defined radio?
A. Very low power consumption
decreases frequency drift
B. Immunity to out-of-sequence
coding reduces spurious
responses
C. Very high speed allows
digitizing high frequencies
D. All these choices are correct
E8A09 E8A09
How many different input levels (D)
can be encoded by an analog-to- Page 6-27
digital converter with 8-bit
resolution?
A. 8
B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the
input amplifier
C. 256 divided by the gain of the
input amplifier
D. 256
E8A10 E8A10
What is the purpose of a low-pass (C)
filter used in conjunction with a Page 6-28
digital-to-analog converter?
A. Lower the input bandwidth to
increase the effective
resolution
B. Improve accuracy by
removing out-of-sequence
codes from the input
C. Remove harmonics from the
output caused by the discrete
analog levels generated
D. All these choices are correct
E8A11 E8A11
Which of the following is a (A)
measure of the quality of an Page 6-28
analog-to-digital converter?
A. Total harmonic distortion
B. Peak envelope power
C. Reciprocal mixing
D. Power factor
E8C04 E8C04
What technique minimizes the (C)
bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? Page 8-11
A. Zero-sum character encoding
B. Reed-Solomon character
encoding
C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8C05 E8C05
What is the approximate (C)
bandwidth of a 13-WPM Page 8-9
International Morse Code
transmission?
A. 13 Hz
B. 26 Hz
C. 52 Hz
D. 104 Hz
E8C06 E8C06
What is the bandwidth of a 170- (C)
hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII Page 8-10
transmission?
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz
E8C07 E8C07
What is the bandwidth of a 4800- (A)
Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud Page 8-10
ASCII FM transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz
E8C08 E8C08
How does ARQ accomplish error (D)
correction? Page 8-17
A. Special binary codes provide
automatic correction
B. Special polynomial codes
provide automatic correction
C. If errors are detected,
redundant data is substituted
D. If errors are detected, a
retransmission is requested
E8C09 E8C09
Which digital code allows only (D)
one bit to change between Page 8-8
sequential code values?
A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
B. Extended Binary Coded
Decimal Interchange Code
C. Excess 3 code
D. Gray code
E8C10 E8C10
How may data rate be increased (C)
without increasing bandwidth? Page 8-6
A. It is impossible
B. Increasing analog-to-digital
conversion resolution
C. Using a more efficient digital
code
D. Using forward error
correction
E8C11 E8C11
What is the relationship between (A)
symbol rate and baud? Page 8-5
A. They are the same
B. Baud is twice the symbol rate
C. Symbol rate is only used for
packet-based modes
D. Baud is only used for RTTY
E8C12 E8C12
What factors affect the bandwidth (C)
of a transmitted CW signal? Page 8-9
A. IF bandwidth and Q
B. Modulation index and output
power
C. Keying speed and shape factor
(rise and fall time)
D. All these choices are correct
E8D05 E8D05
What is the most common (A)
method of reducing key clicks? Page 8-9
A. Increase keying waveform rise
and fall times
B. Low-pass filters at the
transmitter output
C. Reduce keying waveform rise
and fall times
D. High-pass filters at the
transmitter output
E8D06 E8D06
What is the advantage of including (D)
parity bits in ASCII characters? Page 8-8
A. Faster transmission rate
B. The signal can overpower
interfering signals
C. Foreign language characters
can be sent
D. Some types of errors can be
detected
E8D07 E8D07
What is a common cause of (D)
overmodulation of AFSK signals? Page 8-14
A. Excessive numbers of retries
B. Ground loops
C. Bit errors in the modem
D. Excessive transmit audio
levels
E8D08 E8D08
What parameter evaluates (D)
distortion of an AFSK signal Page 8-14
caused by excessive input audio
levels?
A. Signal-to-noise ratio
B. Baud rate
C. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
D. Intermodulation Distortion
(IMD)
E8D09 E8D09
What is considered an acceptable (D)
maximum IMD level for an idling Page 8-14
PSK signal?
A. +10 dB
B. +15 dB
C. –20 dB
D. –30 dB
E8D10 E8D10
What are some of the differences (B)
between the Baudot digital code Page 8-7
and ASCII?
A. Baudot uses 4 data bits per
character, ASCII uses 7 or 8;
Baudot uses 1 character as a
letters/figures shift code,
ASCII has no letters/figures
code
B. Baudot uses 5 data bits per
character, ASCII uses 7 or 8;
Baudot uses 2 characters as
letters/figures shift codes,
ASCII has no letters/figures
shift code
C. Baudot uses 6 data bits per
character, ASCII uses 7 or 8;
Baudot has no letters/figures
shift code, ASCII uses 2
letters/figures shift codes
D. Baudot uses 7 data bits per
character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot
has no letters/figures shift
code, ASCII uses 2
letters/figures shift codes
E8D11 E8D11
What is one advantage of using (C)
ASCII code for data Page 8-7
communications?
A. It includes built-in error
correction features
B. It contains fewer information
bits per character than any
other code
C. It is possible to transmit both
upper and lower case text
D. It uses one character as a shift
code to send numeric and
special characters
SUBELEMENT E9
— ANTENNAS
AND
TRANSMISSION
LINES
[8 Exam Questions
— 8 Groups]
E9A — Basic Antenna parameters:
radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth,
efficiency; effective radiated power
E9A01 E9A01
What is an isotropic antenna? (C)
A. A grounded antenna used to Page 9-3
measure Earth conductivity
B. A horizontally polarized
antenna used to compare Yagi
antennas
C. A theoretical, omnidirectional
antenna used as a reference for
antenna gain
D. A spacecraft antenna used to
direct signals toward Earth
E9A02 E9A02
What is the effective radiated (D)
power relative to a dipole of a Page 9-24
repeater station with 150 watts
transmitter power output, 2 dB
feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer
loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?
A. 1977 watts
B. 78.7 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 286 watts
E9A03 E9A03
What is the radiation resistance (C)
of an antenna? Page 9-5
A. The combined losses of the
antenna elements and feed line
B. The specific impedance of the
antenna
C. The value of a resistance that
would dissipate the same
amount of power as that
radiated from an antenna
D. The resistance in the
atmosphere that an antenna
must overcome to be able to
radiate a signal
E9A04 E9A04
Which of the following factors (B)
affect the feed point impedance Page 9-6
of an antenna?
A. Transmission line length
B. Antenna height
C. The settings of an antenna
tuner at the transmitter
D. The input power level
E9A05 E9A05
What is included in the total (D)
resistance of an antenna system? Page 9-5
A. Radiation resistance plus
space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus
transmission resistance
C. Transmission-line resistance
plus radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus loss
resistance
E9A06 E9A06
What is the effective radiated (A)
power relative to a dipole of a Page 9-24
repeater station with 200 watts
transmitter power output, 4 dB
feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer
loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and
10 dBd antenna gain?
A. 317 watts
B. 2000 watts
C. 126 watts
D. 300 watts
E9A07 E9A07
What is the effective isotropic (B)
radiated power of a repeater Page 9-24
station with 200 watts transmitter
power output, 2 dB feed line loss,
2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB
circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna
gain?
A. 159 watts
B. 252 watts
C. 632 watts
D. 63.2 watts
E9A08 E9A08
What is antenna bandwidth? (B)
A. Antenna length divided by the Page 9-8
number of elements
B. The frequency range over
which an antenna satisfies a
performance requirement
C. The angle between the half-
power radiation points
D. The angle formed between
two imaginary lines drawn
through the element ends
E9A09 E9A09
What is antenna efficiency? (B)
A. Radiation resistance divided Page 9-6
by transmission resistance
B. Radiation resistance divided
by total resistance
C. Total resistance divided by
radiation resistance
D. Effective radiated power
divided by transmitter output
E9A10 E9A10
Which of the following improves (A)
the efficiency of a ground- Page 9-8
mounted quarter-wave vertical
antenna?
A. Installing a radial system
B. Isolating the coax shield from
ground
C. Shortening the radiating
element
D. All these choices are correct
E9A11 E9A11
Which of the following factors (C)
determines ground losses for a Page 9-8
ground-mounted vertical antenna
operating in the 3 MHz to 30
MHz range?
A. The standing wave ratio
B. Distance from the transmitter
C. Soil conductivity
D. Take-off angle
E9A12 E9A12
How much gain does an antenna (A)
have compared to a ½-wavelength Page 9-3
dipole when it has 6 dB gain over
an isotropic antenna?
A. 3.85 dB
B. 6.0 dB
C. 8.15 dB
D. 2.79 dB
E9A13 E9A13
What term describes station (C)
output, taking into account all Page 9-23
gains and losses?
A. Power factor
B. Half-power bandwidth
C. Effective radiated power
D. Apparent power
E9B — Antenna patterns and designs: E
and H plane patterns; gain as a function
of pattern; antenna modeling
E9B01 E9B01
In the antenna radiation pattern (B)
shown in Figure E9-1, what is the Page 9-5
beamwidth?
A. 75 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 30 degrees
E9B02 E9B02
In the antenna radiation pattern (B)
shown in Figure E9-1, what is the Page 9-5
front-to-back ratio?
A. 36 dB
B. 18 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 14 dB
E9B03 E9B03
In the antenna radiation pattern (B)
shown in Figure E9-1, what is the Page 9-5
front-to-side ratio?
A. 12 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 24 dB
E9B04 E9B04
What is the front-to-back ratio of (B)
the radiation pattern shown in Page 9-7
Figure E9-2?
A. 15 dB
B. 28 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 38 dB
E9B05 E9B05
What type of antenna pattern is (A)
shown in Figure E9-2? Page 9-7
A. Elevation
B. Azimuth
C. Radiation resistance
D. Polarization
E9B06 E9B06
What is the elevation angle of (C)
peak response in the antenna Page 9-7
radiation pattern shown in Figure
E9-2?
A. 45 degrees
B. 75 degrees
C. 7.5 degrees
D. 25 degrees
E9B07 E9B07
How does the total amount of (C)
radiation emitted by a directional Page 9-3
gain antenna compare with the
total amount of radiation emitted
from a theoretical isotropic
antenna, assuming each is driven
by the same amount of power?
A. The total amount of radiation
from the directional antenna is
increased by the gain of the
antenna
B. The total amount of radiation
from the directional antenna is
stronger by its front-to-back
ratio
C. They are the same
D. The radiation from the
isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB
stronger than that from the
directional antenna
E9B08 E9B08
What is the far field of an (D)
antenna? Page 9-2
A. The region of the ionosphere
where radiated power is not
refracted
B. The region where radiated
power dissipates over a
specified time period
C. The region where radiated
field strengths are constant
D. The region where the shape of
the antenna pattern is
independent of distance
E9B09 E9B09
What type of computer program (B)
technique is commonly used for Page 9-40
modeling antennas?
A. Graphical analysis
B. Method of Moments
C. Mutual impedance analysis
D. Calculus differentiation with
respect to physical properties
E9B10 E9B10
What is the principle of a Method (A)
of Moments analysis? Page 9-40
A. A wire is modeled as a series
of segments, each having a
uniform value of current
B. A wire is modeled as a single
sine-wave current generator
C. A wire is modeled as a single
sine-wave voltage source
D. A wire is modeled as a series
of segments, each having a
distinct value of voltage across
it
E9B11 E9B11
What is a disadvantage of (C)
decreasing the number of wire Page 9-41
segments in an antenna model
below 10 segments per half-
wavelength?
A. Ground conductivity will not
be accurately modeled
B. The resulting design will favor
radiation of harmonic energy
C. The computed feed point
impedance may be incorrect
D. The antenna will become
mechanically unstable
E9C08 E9C08
What is a folded dipole antenna? (C)
A. A dipole one-quarter Page 9-10
wavelength long
B. A type of ground-plane
antenna
C. A half-wave dipole with an
additional parallel wire
connecting its two ends
D. A dipole configured to
provide forward gain
E9C09 E9C09
Which of the following describes (A)
a G5RV antenna? Page 9-11
A. A multi-band dipole antenna
fed with coax and a balun
through a selected length of
open wire transmission line
B. A multi-band trap antenna
C. A phased array antenna
consisting of multiple loops
D. A wide band dipole using
shorted coaxial cable for the
radiating elements and fed with
a 4:1 balun
E9C10 E9C10
Which of the following describes (B)
a Zepp antenna? Page 9-10
A. A dipole constructed from zip
cord
B. An end-fed dipole antenna
C. An omni-directional antenna
commonly used for satellite
communications
D. A vertical array capable of
quickly changing the direction
of maximum radiation by
changing phasing lines
E9C11 E9C11
How is the far-field elevation (D)
pattern of a vertically polarized Page 9-8
antenna affected by being
mounted over seawater versus
soil?
A. The low-angle radiation
decreases
B. Additional higher vertical
angle lobes will appear
C. Fewer vertical angle lobes
will be present
D. The low-angle radiation
increases
E9C12 E9C12
Which of the following describes (C)
an Extended Double Zepp Page 9-11
antenna?
A. A wideband vertical antenna
constructed from precisely
tapered aluminum tubing
B. A portable antenna erected
using two push support poles
C. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength
antenna (two 5⁄8-wave elements
in phase)
D. An end-fed folded dipole
antenna
E9C13 E9C13
How does the radiation pattern of (B)
a horizontally polarized 3- Page 9-9
element beam antenna vary with
increasing height above ground?
A. The takeoff angle of the
lowest elevation lobe increases
B. The takeoff angle of the
lowest elevation lobe
decreases
C. The horizontal beamwidth
increases
D. The horizontal beamwidth
decreases
E9C14 E9C14
How does the performance of a (B)
horizontally polarized antenna Page 9-9
mounted on the side of a hill
compare with the same antenna
mounted on flat ground?
A. The main lobe takeoff angle
increases in the downhill
direction
B. The main lobe takeoff angle
decreases in the downhill
direction
C. The horizontal beamwidth
decreases in the downhill
direction
D. The horizontal beamwidth
increases in the uphill
direction
E9D04 E9D04
Why should an HF mobile antenna (C)
loading coil have a high ratio of Page 9-13
reactance to resistance?
A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To lower the radiation angle
C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q
E9D05 E9D05
What usually occurs if a Yagi (B)
antenna is designed solely for Page 9-42
maximum forward gain?
A. The front-to-back ratio
increases
B. The front-to-back ratio
decreases
C. The frequency response is
widened over the whole
frequency band
D. The SWR is reduced
E9D06 E9D06
What happens to the SWR (B)
bandwidth when one or more Page 9-13
loading coils are used to resonate
an electrically short antenna?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. It is unchanged if the loading
coil is located at the feed point
D. It is unchanged if the loading
coil is located at a voltage
maximum point
E9D07 E9D07
What is an advantage of using top (D)
loading in a shortened HF vertical Page 9-13
antenna?
A. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength
C. Higher losses
D. Improved radiation efficiency
E9D08 E9D08
What happens as the Q of an (B)
antenna increases? Page 9-8
A. SWR bandwidth increases
B. SWR bandwidth decreases
C. Gain is reduced
D. More common-mode current
is present on the feed line
E9D09 E9D09
What is the function of a loading (D)
coil used as part of an HF mobile Page 9-12
antenna?
A. To increase the SWR
bandwidth
B. To lower the losses
C. To lower the Q
D. To cancel capacitive reactance
E9D10 E9D10
What happens to feed-point (B)
impedance at the base of a fixed Page 9-12
length HF mobile antenna when
operated below its resonant
frequency?
A. The radiation resistance
decreases and the capacitive
reactance decreases
B. The radiation resistance
decreases and the capacitive
reactance increases
C. The radiation resistance
increases and the capacitive
reactance decreases
D. The radiation resistance
increases and the capacitive
reactance increases
E9D11 E9D11
Which of the following (B)
conductors would be best for Page 9-9
minimizing losses in a station’s
RF ground system?
A. Resistive wire, such as spark
plug wire
B. Wide flat copper strap
C. Stranded wire
D. Solid wire
E9D12 E9D12
Which of the following would (C)
provide the best RF ground for Page 9-9
your station?
A. A 50-ohm resistor connected
to ground
B. An electrically short
connection to a metal water
pipe
C. An electrically short
connection to 3 or 4
interconnected ground rods
driven into the Earth
D. An electrically short
connection to 3 or 4
interconnected ground rods via
a series RF choke
E9E07 E9E07
What parameter describes the (B)
interactions at the load end of a Page 9-31
mismatched transmission line?
A. Characteristic impedance
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Velocity factor
D. Dielectric constant
E9E08 E9E08
What is a use for a Wilkinson (C)
divider? Page 9-18
A. It divides the operating
frequency of a transmitter
signal so it can be used on a
lower frequency band
B. It is used to feed high-
impedance antennas from a
low-impedance source
C. It is used to divide power
equally between two 50-ohm
loads while maintaining 50-
ohm input impedance
D. It is used to feed low-
impedance loads from a high-
impedance source
E9E09 E9E09
Which of the following is used to (C)
shunt-feed a grounded tower at its Page 9-26
base?
A. Double-bazooka match
B. Hairpin match
C. Gamma match
D. All these choices are correct
E9E10 E9E10
Which of these choices is an (C)
effective way to match an antenna Page 9-38
with a 100-ohm feed point
impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial
cable feed line?
A. Connect a ¼-wavelength open
stub of 300-ohm twinlead in
parallel with the coaxial feed
line where it connects to the
antenna
B. Insert a ½ wavelength piece of
300-ohm twinlead in series
between the antenna terminals
and the 50-ohm feed cable
C. Insert a ¼-wavelength piece
of 75-ohm coaxial cable
transmission line in series
between the antenna terminals
and the 50-ohm feed cable
D. Connect a ½ wavelength
shorted stub of 75-ohm cable
in parallel with the 50-ohm
cable where it attaches to the
antenna
E9E11 E9E11
What is the primary purpose of (A)
phasing lines when used with an Page 9-18
antenna having multiple driven
elements?
A. It ensures that each driven
element operates in concert
with the others to create the
desired antenna pattern
B. It prevents reflected power
from traveling back down the
feed line and causing harmonic
radiation from the transmitter
C. It allows single-band antennas
to operate on other bands
D. It creates a low-angle
radiation pattern
E9F06 E9F06
What is the approximate physical (C)
length of an air-insulated, parallel Page 9-30
conductor transmission line that
is electrically ½ wavelength long
at 14.10 MHz?
A. 7.0 meters
B. 8.5 meters
C. 10.6 meters
D. 13.3 meters
E9F07 E9F07
How does ladder line compare to (A)
small-diameter coaxial cable such Page 9-30
as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
A. Lower loss
B. Higher SWR
C. Smaller reflection coefficient
D. Lower velocity factor
E9F08 E9F08
Which of the following is a (D)
significant difference between Page 9-31
foam dielectric coaxial cable and
solid dielectric cable, assuming
all other parameters are the same?
A. Foam dielectric has lower
safe operating voltage limits
B. Foam dielectric has lower
loss per unit of length
C. Foam dielectric has higher
velocity factor
D. All these choices are correct
E9F09 E9F09
What is the approximate physical (B)
length of a foam polyethylene Page 9-29
dielectric coaxial transmission
line that is electrically ¼
wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
A. 10.4 meters
B. 8.3 meters
C. 6.9 meters
D. 5.2 meters
E9F10 E9F10
What impedance does a ⅛- (C)
wavelength transmission line Page 9-37
present to a generator when the
line is shorted at the far end?
A. A capacitive reactance
B. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the line
C. An inductive reactance
D. Zero
E9F11 E9F11
What impedance does a ⅛- (C)
wavelength transmission line Page 9-36
present to a generator when the
line is open at the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the line
B. An inductive reactance
C. A capacitive reactance
D. Infinite
E9F12 E9F12
What impedance does a ¼- (D)
wavelength transmission line Page 9-36
present to a generator when the
line is open at the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the line
B. The same as the input
impedance to the generator
C. Very high impedance
D. Very low impedance
E9F13 E9F13
What impedance does a ¼- (A)
wavelength transmission line Page 9-36
present to a generator when the
line is shorted at the far end?
A. Very high impedance
B. Very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the transmission
line
D. The same as the generator
output impedance
E9G02 E9G02
What type of coordinate system (B)
is used in a Smith chart? Page 9-35
A. Voltage circles and current
arcs
B. Resistance circles and
reactance arcs
C. Voltage lines and current
chords
D. Resistance lines and
reactance chords
E9G03 E9G03
Which of the following is often (C)
determined using a Smith chart? Page 9-33
A. Beam headings and radiation
patterns
B. Satellite azimuth and elevation
bearings
C. Impedance and SWR values in
transmission lines
D. Trigonometric functions
E9G04 E9G04
What are the two families of (C)
circles and arcs that make up a Page 9-35
Smith chart?
A. Resistance and voltage
B. Reactance and voltage
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage and impedance
E9G05 E9G05
Which of the following is a (A)
common use for a Smith chart? Page 9-27
A. Determine the length and
position of an impedance
matching stub
B. Determine the impedance of a
transmission line, given the
physical dimensions
C. Determine the gain of an
antenna given the physical and
electrical parameters
D. Determine the loss/100 feet
of a transmission line, given
the velocity factor and
conductor materials
E9G06 E9G06
On the Smith chart shown in (B)
Figure E9-3, what is the name for Page 9-35
the large outer circle on which
the reactance arcs terminate?
A. Prime axis
B. Reactance axis
C. Impedance axis
D. Polar axis
E9G07 E9G07
On the Smith chart shown in (D)
Figure E9-3, what is the only Page 9-33
straight line shown?
A. The reactance axis
B. The current axis
C. The voltage axis
D. The resistance axis
E9G08 E9G08
What is the process of (C)
normalization with regard to a Page 9-35
Smith chart?
A. Reassigning resistance values
with regard to the reactance
axis
B. Reassigning reactance values
with regard to the resistance
axis
C. Reassigning impedance values
with regard to the prime center
D. Reassigning prime center with
regard to the reactance axis
E9G09 E9G09
What third family of circles is (A)
often added to a Smith chart Page 9-35
during the process of solving
problems?
A. Standing wave ratio circles
B. Antenna-length circles
C. Coaxial-length circles
D. Radiation-pattern circles
E9G10 E9G10
What do the arcs on a Smith chart (D)
represent? Page 9-35
A. Frequency
B. SWR
C. Points with constant
resistance
D. Points with constant
reactance
E9G11 E9G11
How are the wavelength scales on (B)
a Smith chart calibrated? Page 9-35
A. In fractions of transmission
line electrical frequency
B. In fractions of transmission
line electrical wavelength
C. In fractions of antenna
electrical wavelength
D. In fractions of antenna
electrical frequency
SUBELEMENT E0
— SAFETY
[1 exam question —
1 group]
E0A — Safety: RF radiation hazards;
hazardous materials; grounding
E0A01 E0A01
What is the primary function of (B)
an external earth connection or Page 11-8
ground rod?
A. Reduce received noise
B. Lightning protection
C. Reduce RF current flow
between pieces of equipment
D. Reduce RFI to telephones and
home entertainment systems
E0A02 E0A02
When evaluating RF exposure (B)
levels from your station at a Page 11-5
neighbor’s home, what must you
do?
A. Ensure signals from your
station are less than the
controlled Maximum
Permitted Exposure (MPE)
limits
B. Ensure signals from your
station are less than the
uncontrolled Maximum
Permitted Exposure (MPE)
limits
C. Ensure signals from your
station are less than the
controlled Maximum
Permitted Emission (MPE)
limits
D. Ensure signals from your
station are less than the
uncontrolled Maximum
Permitted Emission (MPE)
limits
E0A03 E0A03
Over what range of frequencies (C)
are the FCC human body RF Page 11-4
exposure limits most restrictive?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 to 30 MHz
C. 30 to 300 MHz
D. 300 to 3000 MHz
E0A04 E0A04
When evaluating a site with (C)
multiple transmitters operating at Page 11-7
the same time, the operators and
licensees of which transmitters
are responsible for mitigating
over-exposure situations?
A. Only the most powerful
transmitter
B. Only commercial transmitters
C. Each transmitter that produces
5 percent or more of its MPE
limit in areas where the total
MPE limit is exceeded
D. Each transmitter operating
with a duty cycle greater than
50 percent
E0A05 E0A05
What is one of the potential (B)
hazards of operating in the Page 11-7
amateur radio microwave bands?
A. Microwaves are ionizing
radiation
B. The high gain antennas
commonly used can result in
high exposure levels
C. Microwaves often travel long
distances by ionospheric
reflection
D. The extremely high frequency
energy can damage the joints
of antenna structures
E0A06 E0A06
Why are there separate electric (D)
(E) and magnetic (H) field MPE Page 11-3
limits?
A. The body reacts to
electromagnetic radiation from
both the E and H fields
B. Ground reflections and
scattering make the field
strength vary with location
C. E field and H field radiation
intensity peaks can occur at
different locations
D. All these choices are correct
E0A07 E0A07
How may dangerous levels of (B)
carbon monoxide from an Page 11-2
emergency generator be
detected?
A. By the odor
B. Only with a carbon monoxide
detector
C. Any ordinary smoke detector
can be used
D. By the yellowish appearance
of the gas
E0A08 E0A08
What does SAR measure? (C)
A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of Page 11-4
the human body
B. Signal Amplification Rating
C. The rate at which RF energy is
absorbed by the body
D. The rate of RF energy
reflected from stationary
terrain
E0A09 E0A09
Which insulating material (C)
commonly used as a thermal Page 11-2
conductor for some types of
electronic devices is extremely
toxic if broken or crushed and the
particles are accidentally inhaled?
A. Mica
B. Zinc oxide
C. Beryllium Oxide
D. Uranium Hexafluoride
E0A10 E0A10
What toxic material may be (A)
present in some electronic Page 11-2
components such as high voltage
capacitors and transformers?
A. Polychlorinated biphenyls
B. Polyethylene
C. Polytetrafluoroethylene
D. Polymorphic silicon
E0A11 E0A11
Which of the following injuries (C)
can result from using high-power Page 11-3
UHF or microwave transmitters?
A. Hearing loss caused by high
voltage corona discharge
B. Blood clotting from the
intense magnetic field
C. Localized heating of the body
from RF exposure in excess of
the MPE limits
D. Ingestion of ozone gas from
the cooling system