TIPS! TIPS! TIPS!

(COR AD)
Jesmar C. Lobo (Dei Gratia)

1. It is the branch of criminology which deals with the management and administration of
inmates:
a. Criminal justice
b. Penology
c. Victimology
d. Jail Management

2. A Latin word which means punishment:

a. Penology
b. Poena – latin word meaning pain or suffering
c. Poenalis
d. All of the abovementioned

3. What is the classification of dormitory with an inmate capacity of 101-500 and lot area of 1.5
hectares?
A. Type A Dormitory – above 500, more than 1.5 hectares
B. Type B Dormitory
C. Type C Dormitory – 1-100, 3000 sq.m.
D. Type D Dormitory

4. During the eleventh and successive years of his imprisonment, the convict shall be allowed a
deduction of ____ for each month of good behavior during detention.
A. 20 days
B. 23 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days

5. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an offending member of the society for the
transgression of the law
a. Penalty
b. Punishment - redress that the state takes against an offending member.
c. incarceration
d. ordeal

6. The “safety valve” of Therapeutic Community Modality Program.

A. Static Group
B. Encounter Group
C. Extended Group
D. Peer-Confrontation Group
7. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal severity of punishment through a
compromise with the church
A. Benefit of Clergy
B. None – securing sanctuary
C. Rehabilitation
D. Retribution

8. This were the former (abandoned) warships used to house prisoners in the 18th century and
19th century as means of relieving congestion of prisoners refers to
a. Galleys
b. Hulks
c. Gaols
d. Warships

9. He is an actor convicted of rape. In the classification of PDL is classified in what security?

A. High Risk
B. High Profile
C. High Value Target (HVT)
D. Security Threat Group

10. According to this ancient law that was practice in the areas of Babylon, the killer is
answerable not to the family but to the king:
a. Code of Hammurabi – 1st codified law; lex talionis; tit for tat
b. Roman twelve tables – 1st codification of roman law; Lex Decemviri Tabulae
c. Pharaoh’s law – Egypt
d. Burgundian code – France; give penalty according to social class

11. What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the beliefs, customs and practices, it is
also reflects the level of uprightness and morality of the people?
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
B. Law of the Talion
C. Kalantiaw Code
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779

12. Existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before Christ was born, the king ruled
the City of Ur in ancient Sumeria:
a. King Ur Nammu (Sumerian Law – Myth)
b. King Herodes
c. Emperor Justinian – author of the Justinian Code that amended the code of the 12 tables
d. None of the above

13. In case an inmate has given disciplinary action, the board of discipline is authorized to
impose any of the following disciplinary measures, EXCEPT ______.
A. Additional penalty for service of sentence
B. Caution or reprimand
C. Cancellation of recreation, education, entertainment, and visiting privileges
D. Deprivation of GCTA for a specific period

14. The most popular workhouse in London which was built for the employment and housing
of English prisoners.
A. Bridewell – 1st English Prison
B. Hospicio de San Michelle – 1st Juvenile Reformatory made by Pope Clement XI
C. Saint Bridget Well – Origin of the word Bridewell
D. Walnut Street Jail – Philadelphia, USA

15. It was opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel its philosophy away from
punitive and retributive practices and veered towards reformation and treatment. Educational
and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a way to treat his lack of life skills to survive
according to the rules of the outside society:
a. Elmira Reformatory
b. Sing-sing prisons
c. Alcatraz
d. Walnut street jail

Note: 1st Electrocution – happened in Auburn Prison (New York) – William Kemmler (Executed)

16. The early Roman place of confinement which was built under the main sewer of Rome in
64 BC refers to
a. Town Gates
b. Walnut Street Jail – Philadelphia, USA
c. Bridewell Workhouse – London, England
d. Mamertine Prison

Another option: Carcere Mamertino

17. When Governor Dan was arrested and put in a correctional facility, what will be his inmate
security classification?
A. High risk inmates
B. High profile inmates
C. Ordinary inmates
D. Extraordinary inmates

18. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also referred to as the Irish System:
a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise – Borstal Institution (England) Boys 16- 21
b. Manuel Montesinos – Prison Companies with Petty officers
c. Sir Walter Crofton
d. Alexander Maconochie – Father of parole; he established the “Mark System”
19. He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system
of grades for prisoners:
a. Zebulon Brockway – Forerunner of Modern Penology ang Elmira
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. Manuel Montesinos
d. Domets of France – he established the Agricultural colonies of delinquent boys (Frederick
August Demets) Headed by House fathers

20. When probation can be granted?

A. When the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment and/or a fine only
B. When the sentence imposes fine only
C. When the sentence a term of imprisonment
D. When the sentence imposes the penalty of prison mayor

21. What is the minimum rank required to be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management
and Penology?
A. Superintendent
B. C/Superintendent
C. Senior Superintendent
D. Director

22. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established by Domets of France. The boys
were confined in cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
a. Penal guards – former names for Correctional Officers
b. Immediate supervisors
c. House fathers
d. Big brothers

23. Among the 3 high ranking BJMP officials, which of the following is the presidential
appointee?
A. Chief BJMP
B. Deputy of administration
C. Deputy for operation
D. Chief of staff

24. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in January 1824 and located in New York
City.
A. Borstal Institution – located ito sa London England
B. Elmira Reformatory – forerunner of modern penology ginawa ni Zebulon Brockway
C. New York House of Refuge – 1st juvenile reformatory in USA
D. Panopticon Prison – design made by Bentham

25. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are confined in their own cells during the
night and congregate work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate System”.
A. Auburn Prison System
B. Custody Oriented Prison
C. Pennsylvania Prison System – confinement of the prisoners in their own cells day and night
D. Treatment Oriented Prison

26. This prison is known as the “ROCK” built in San Francisco Bay.
A. New York Prison
C. San Francisco Prison
B. Alcatraz Prison
D. New Gate Prison

27. Who are the three (3) famous escapees of Alcatraz Prison?
I. Al Capone – “The Outfit Gang” – he popularized the crime called “bootlegging” – illegal sale
and manufacture of liquor; tobacco products = buttlegging”; died due to HIV/AIDS
II. John Anglin
III. Clarence Anglin
IV. Frank Morris
a. 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4
c. 4 3 1
d. 1 2 4

28. What was the penal management system developed by Capt. Alexander Maconochie
whereby a convict could earn freedom by hard work and good behavior in prison?
a. Parole Sysytem
b. Mark System
c. Maconochie System
d. Indeterminate System

29. Parole shall not be granted to the following inmates, except:

A. Those convicted of piracy, mutiny, on the high seas or Philippine waters
B. Those convicted of offenses punishable by less than six years
C. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or proposal to commit treason or espionage
D. Those convicted of offenses punished with death penalty

30. Provincial jails were first established in 1910 under American regime. At present, who
supervises and controls the said jails?
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Provincial Government
C. Department of Justice
D. Board of Pardons and Parole

31. In the case of BJMP, the grant of the time allowance shall be primarily vested with the ____.
A. Director, BJMP
B. Provincial Directors
C. Regional Directors
D. Wardens

32. What is the act of postponing the imposition of a sentence especially a death sentence to
permit an appeal?
A. Reprimand
B. Reprieve
C. Absolute Pardon
D. Pardon

33. Parole in the Philippines is governed by ______.

A. Determinate Sentence Law
B. Probation Law
C. Indeterminate Sentence Law
D. Prison Law

34. In case of vacancy by reason of death, incapacity, resignation or removal of any of the Board
members, who is authorized to designate a temporary member possessing the qualification?
A. Secretary of Interior and Local Government
B. Chairman of the Board of Pardon and Parole
C. President
D. Executive Director

35. Which is NOT a function of the Board Secretary of the Board of Pardon and Parole?
A. Prepare and keep the minutes of all the Board sessions in a book of records kept for the
purpose
B. Authenticate and/or attest all minutes, resolutions and recommendations of the Board
C. Prepare an annual report to be submitted to the President about the list of probationers
D. Prepare and serve all notices of board meetings or sessions to the member of the board

36. What prison system was referred to as the forerunner of modern penology?
A. Elmira
B. Norfolk
C. Brockway
D. Borstal

37. What is the nature of interview and information gathering to an applicant probation?
A. It shall be confidential in nature and applicant does not a counsel
B. It is overt in nature and applicant does not need a counsel
C. It shall be confidential and applicant does not require a counsel
D. It shall be confidential and applicant need a counsel
38. Which is designed to provide jail inspectors with the basic functions and responsibilities of
an officer particularly on Jail Management, Administration and Operation?
A. Jail Advance Course
B. Jail Officers Orientation Course
C. Jail Basic Recruit Course – JO1
D. Jail Officers Basic Course

Follow up Question: Where does the training of the BJMP conducted? NJMPTI under the PSSC
(Laguna)

39. What statement BEST describes punishment in general?

A. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending member
B. It is an infliction of pain to a member of the society
C. It is a government remedy to correct a wrong - penalty
D. It is a human suffering inflicted to an individual

40. In the execution by electrocution, the sentenced person is strapped to a specially built chair
and electrocuted by electrodes set to the ____
A. Hands and legs
B. Chest and fingers
C. Head and legs
D. Head and chest

41. How many days will be deducted from an inmate for each month for his good behavior
during his seventh year in prison or jail?
A. 23 days for each month of good behavior
B. 25 days for each month of good behavior
C. 30 days for each month of good behavior
D. 20 days for each month of good behavior

42. Which of the following are the major goals of correction?

a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment

43. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and prison
without walls?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
44. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the
BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Oriental Mindoro
D. Occidental Mindoro

45. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons
originally intended as a site for boys’ training school. Today, the Old Bilibid Prison is now being
used as the Manila City Jail, famous as the:
A. “May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail

46. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm.
I. Central
II. Pasugui
III. Pusog
IV. Yapang
V. Panabo
VI. Kapalong
VII. Sta. Lucia
VIII. Inagawan
IX. Montible
X. Central

A. I, II, III, IV
B. V and VI – Davao Prison and Penal Farm
C. VII, VIII, IX & X – Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
D. Either of these

47. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred to as

a. Determinate sentence – Fixed sentence
b. Capital punishment – Death penalty
c. Corporal punishment – physical torture
d. Indeterminate sentence

48. Any article, item, or thing prohibited by law and/or forbidden by jail rules that would pose
as security hazards or endanger the lives of inmates.
A. Contraband
B. Impact Weapon
C. Illegal Contrabands
D. Merely Prohibited and Nuisance Contraband
2 Types of Contrabands:
• Illegal Contrabands – prohibited by law inside and outside jail
• Nuisance contrabands – prohibited by jail rules

49. Choose the ancient form of punishment where convicts are executed by means of
asphyxiation.
A. Fusillading – execution by firing squad
B. Garotte
C. Flogging – by means of beating/whipping
D. Guillotine – device for people cutting’s head

50. This refers to the act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious
beliefs sect or the like to another while under confinement is referred to as
A. Proselytizing
B. Proselyte – newly converted
C. Fraternization
D. Inducement

51. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were granted the time for their marital
sexual obligation. What do you call this affair?
a. Sexual relation
b. Conjugal partnership
c. Conjugal privilege
d. Conjugal visitation

• Conjugal Visit can only be availed by a male prisoner

• What will happen if a female inmate gave birth inside jail or prison?
Ans. She will be let to have her children with her.
• BJMP: 1 month and may be extended
• BUCOR: 1 year
• What is the purpose of Conjugal Visit?
Ans. To maintain normal sex life.

52. An inmate who is about to be released shall be proceeded at the separation and placement
center for how many days before his actual release.
a. 25 days
b. 30 days
c. 35 days
d. 60 days

53. The ____ may grant GCTA to an inmate as a matter of privilege for good behavior with no
record of disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules and regulation. Except.
A. Director of BJMP
B. Warden
C. President
D. Director of Corrections

54. Kyle is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time. He classified as ____ among the
classification of inmates according to privileges.
A. 1st class inmate
B. 3rd class inmate
C. 2nd class inmate
D. Colonist

4 Classes of Inmate (Ranking)

• 3rd class – 3x or more committed in the BuCor. (Suki)
• 2nd class – Newly arrived & 1st time
• 1st class – promoted from 2nd class due to GCTA
• Colonist – promoted from 1st class provided that they maintain their GCTA for 7 years

55. Robin Pinadilla was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was he
photographed at the Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics?
a. He is an actor and photogenic
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure

• What do you call this procedure? Booking

56. Ronald “Graba” Dela Rosa was arrested by the police for theft in the amount of P5,000.00.
He was brought to the police station and an administrative record of the arrest was prepared.
He was fingerprinted, photographed, interrogated and placed in a line-up for identification by
witnesses. What process did he undergo?
a. Preliminary hearing
b. Booking
c. Trial
d. Indictment

57. With the enactment of Republic Act No. 9263, the rank of Superintendent is appointed by:
A. Secretary, DILG – for Jail Sr. Superintendent
B. Chief, BJMP
C. Regional Director
D. None of the above

58. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail?

a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place – less grave
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail where it is off- limits to inmates - grave
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official communication, transaction or investigation –
grave

59. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board hear and decide the case brought before
it?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

• BJMP – 48 hours
• BUCOR – 72 hours

Note: Jail Disciplinary and classification board is headed by Asst. Warden

60. In STAL, a deduction of _____ from the period of sentence shall be granted in case a
prisoner does not leave his place of confinement during earthquake.
a. 1/5
b. 2/5
c. 2/3
d. 1/3

61. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment imposable to inmates?

A. Close Confinement – solitary confinement, lone wolf, disciplinary cell (bartolina) (BJMP – 1-7
days; BuCor 30-60 days)
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
C. Reprimand – verbal warning
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges

62. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between ___ in any calendar month provided
that this punishment shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when other
disciplinary measured had been proven ineffective.
A. 30-60 days – BuCor
B. 1-7 Days
C. 1 day
D. NONE

Note: Irish System ➔ 9 months

63. Head count of inmates shall be conducted ____ times a day or as often as necessary to
ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for:
a. Two
b. Four
c. Three
d. Five

BuCor = 4x a day
BJMP = 5 to 6x a day

64. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation or prisoners and
known to be the “cornerstone of rehabilitation”
a. Recreational program – sports to ease the boredom
b. Religious program – faith based program
c. Educational program
d. Employment of prisoners – livelihood program; prison industry

65. Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily
contact with inmates?
a. Chaplain
b. Warden
c. Psychologist
d. Jail / Correction Officers

66. It is a deduction given to prisoners who have returned to their places of confinement
within 48 hours after a calamity.
a. Good conduct time allowance
b. Special time allowance for loyalty
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Special Time Allotment for loyalty

67. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity 72 hours after the
pronouncement of the passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence – return within 48 hours
B. 2/5 reduction of sentence – decided to stay
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. none

68. Jose Sotto was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for 20 years.
While serving his sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several
inmates escaped. Jose returned the following day (24 hours), how many years would be
deducted from his sentence?
a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 year

Solution: 20 / 5 = 4 x 1 = 4
Formula:
• Step 1 – divide the whole number by the denominator
• Step 2 – the answer must be multiplied by the numerator

69. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where W, X, Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z,
escaped (stay). W surrendered after 24 hours (stal), X surrendered after 2 days (no kasi after 48
hours na) and Y surrendered after 3 days (72 hours). Who among them are not entitled to
Special Time Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98.
A. X
B. W
C. Y
D. X AND Y

Z - deduction of 2/5 (RA 10592)

70. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum or maximum term for
maintaining good behavior or participating in various types of vocational, educational and
treatment programs.
a. Good time
b. Credits
c. Days off
d. Vacation

71. A person convicted and sentenced to serve for not more than six months is classified as
A. Municipal Prisoner
B. City Prisoner
C. Insular Prisoner
D. Provincial Prisoner

72. Mario is in prison for the past 48 months (4 years) and has never been involved in any
trouble, no matter how minor. If you were the prison director, how many days for each month
would you approve as Mario’s good conduct time allowance?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 20 days
D. 23 days

73. An inmate maybe transferred by the Prison Director upon the recommendation of the ____
concerned to another prison facility to bring said inmate closer to family or as part of his
rehabilitation program.
A. President
B. Superintendent
C. Prison Guard
D. DOJ Secretary

74. Mark Naculong was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
jurisdiction to detain him?
A. BuCor
B. BJMP
C. PNP
D. AFP

Tandaan:
• Newly arrested = Lock up jail
• Detainee = BJMP
• Convicted 3 years below = BJMP
• Exactly 3 years = BJMP
• 3 years & 1 day = BuCor

75. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional. What is the duration of his penalty?
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y - RT
B. 6M1D to 6 Y
C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y – PM
D. 1M&1D – 6 M – A. Mayor

76. Mara (babae) has duration of penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years. What correctional
facility she should be incarcerated?
A. Bureau of Correction
B. Lock-up Jail
C. CIW
D. BJMP

77. Where Jayson shall be confined if his sentence is 0- 6-0?

a. National prison
b. Municipal jail
c. City jail
d. Provincial jail

Tandaan:
• 0-6-0
1st number – year
2nd number – month
3rd number – days

78. What law was passed during the Aquino administration that renamed the Bureau of Prisons
to Bureau of Corrections?
a. E.O. 292
b. E.O. 929
c. A.O 229
d. E.O. 229

Tandaan:
• EO 292 – Revised Administrative Code of 1989
• President – Corazon C. Aquino

79. Its task is to conduct a more effective rehabilitation of prisoners through a more scientific
study and diagnoses of each and every prisoner committed to the Bureau of Corrections. It
was established by virtue of Administrative Order No. 11 issued by the Secretary of Justice as
amended by RA 10575
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway – Minimum security
B. Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics
C. Reception and Diagnostic Center (old name)
D. Camp Bagong Diwa - NCRPO

Note: What process is being done inside the DRD? Treatment Planning

Note: How long is the total number of days under DRD? 60 days
Quarantine ➔ 5 days
Diagnostic ➔ 55 days

Note: Where does the DRD located? Camp Sampaguita

First RDC – Building 9
Now – Building 7

Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit (ICCU) in jails where it is available. The inmate shall
stay at the ICCU for a minimum period of thirty (30) days but not exceeding sixty (60) days or
until the completion of the classification process.

80. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for the conduct of medical
examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent physical contamination.
a. Reception diagnostic center
b. Medical center
c. Quarantine unit – 5 days
d. None of the above

81. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of firearms who shall be
ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in Command?
A. 1st group Anti-Riot – dispersal team (anti riot equipment)
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot – funeraria (St. Peter) jk.
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot – gas grenades and tear gases
82. A writ ordering the temporary confinement of a person in penal institution while
undergoing trial.
a. Detention order
b. Commitment order
c. Mittimus Order - convicted prisoner and about to serve the sentence
d. None of the above

83. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison which contains his commitment
order or mittimus, information and decision of a trial court.
A. Mittimus
B. Carpeta
C. Commitment Order
D. Prison Record – record of previous convictions

84. It is known as the “Age of Reason or Age of Enlightment”.

A. 1870 – 1880 – Golden Age of Penology
B. 18th century
C. 19th century
D. 21st century – current era

85. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant

a. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and Photograph – Booking
b. Examination for Contraband
c. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk – Carpeta
d. All of These

86. What is the standard ratio in escorting a nonbailable (high risk) inmate?
a. One is to one security officer
b. One is to three security officers
c. One is to two plus one security officers
d. One is to one plus one security office

87. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not less than ____ paces (step) from
his charge.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 15
D. 45

Tandaan: Transit van/vehicle

88. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for every number of inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

BJMP MANNING LEVEL

• Custodial ratio – 1 : 3 (ideal)
• Court room ratio – 2 : 1 or 1 : 2
• Transit ratio – 1 : 1 + 1 (in case of high risk)
• Long Travel – 1 : 3

89. The ideal ratio of educational program (teachers) is _____ officers for every _____
inmates.
a. 1:180 – Work and Livelihood
b. 1:120
c. 1:225 – Sports and Recreation
d. 1:1

BUCOR MANNING LEVEL (RA 10575 – IRR)

• Moral and Spiritual personnel (chaplain)-to-inmate ratio is 1:240;
• Education and Training personnel (teachers) -to-inmate ratio is 1:120;
• Work and Livelihood personnel (vocational officer) -to-inmate ratio is 1:180;
• Sports and Recreation personnel (sports instructor) -to-inmate ratio is 1:225;
• Health and Welfare personnel (Doctor)-to-inmate ratio is 1:80; and
• Behavior Modification personnel (Psychologist)-to-inmate ratio is 1:150.

90. To compute for the ideal capacity of a certain jail for every inmate, you must divide the
measurement of the cells floor area by:
A. 2.5 sq. meters
C. 3.5 sq. meters
B. 4.7 sq. meters
D. 4.5 sq. meters

91. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders prescribes that penal
facilities should not exceed _____ inmates.
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 1200
D. 2000

92. In line with the formula stated above, what is the maximum capacity of Valenzuela City Jail
if the total cell floor is 2,300 sqm.
a. 591
b. 489
c. 498
d. 476

2,300 ÷ 4.7sqm = 489.36

93. The establishment of the usefulness and responsibility of the offender as a productive
individual is a punishment justified by
a. Expiation - synonymous with atonement
b. Rehabilitation
c. Atonement – group vengeance
d. Retribution – personal vengeance

94. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, prepares and cooks food
and serve to inmates?
a. General Service Branch – Maintenance of cleanliness
b. Mess Service Branch
c. Budget and Finance Brach – Comptrollership
d. Property and Supply Branch – Logistics and equipment

95. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil for inmates
shall be made of:
A. Wood
B. Paper
C. Plastic
D. Carton

96. Refers to the Head of Bureau of Correction.

a. C, BuCor
b. Director – Head of a Bureau
c. Director General
d. Commander

Tandaan: What is the highest rank in the BUCOR? USEC

97. When the death penalty was still enforced by means of lethal injection, four guards keep a
death watch, the convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled time
of execution which is usually 3:00 in the afternoon.
A. 6
B. 24
C. 12
D. 36

98. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal
injection.
A. Potassium Chloride – poison that make the heart stop beating
B. Pancuronium Bromide – lethal drug that cause muscle paralysis
C. Sodium Thiopental – barbiturate / synthetic depressant / deep sleep
D. Sodium chloride

• RA 8177 – Lethal Injection Law

• 1st convicted prisoner for Lethal Injection – Leo Echegaray

What happened to death penalty in the Philippines?

a. Suspended
b. Abolished
c. Prohibited
d. Cancelled

99. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an execution method

originating in the United States (Singsing prison, Ossining, NY) in which the person being put to
death is strapped to a specially built wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed
on the body. In the Philippines, its first use was in:
A. 1926
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918

100. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was created thru ____ as one of the Tri
Bureau under the Department of the Interior and Local Government.
A. Section 13, RA 6975 - NAPOLCOM
B. Section 23 of RA 6975 – PNP
C. Section 53, RA 6975 - BFP
D. Section 60 of RA 6975

Tandaan:
• PPSC – Section 66 of RA. 6975
• PLEB – Section 43 of RA 6975

101. All except one is included in the command group of BJMP

A. Chief of Staff – Chief of the AFP
B. Deputy C/BJMP
C. Chief of BJMP – 1st
D. Chief of Directorial staff – 4th

• 2nd in command – DCAadmin

• 3rd in command – DCOpt

102. Who appoints Jail Sr. Superintendent?

a. Chief Executive
b. DILG Secretary
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BUCOR

BJMP Appointment System:

JO1 – SJO4 = Appointed by Regional Director, recommended by Immediate Superior
JINP – JSUPT = Appointed by Chief of BJMP, recommended by Immediate Superior
JSSUPT = Appointed by DILG, Secretary, recommended by Chief BJMP
JCSUPT – Jail Director = Appointed by President, recommended by DILG, Secretary

Civilian (NHQ) = Appointed by Chief, BJMP

JO1 to SJO4 = Appointed by Chief, BJMP

103. Bong Rebudot is colonist, when classified by the director of the Bureau of Corrections who
is punished with reclusion perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction from
maximum term of forty years to ___.
A. 20 Years
B. 25 Years
C. 30 Years
D. 35 Years

Tanong: Ano yung Privileges ng isang Colonist

o Reclusion Perpetua ➔ max of 40 years ➔ ➔ 30 years
o Additional GCTA of 5 days per month
o An inmate can bring his Family
o Homestead land – 6 hectares
o Civilian clothes – “WDDWM” “Never Give Up”
o Prison Facilities – library, computers
o Subsidy – allowance from the government

104. Freddy is a prisoner confined in a level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner, a tower post is manned
by heavily armed guards:
a. Maximum security facility
b. Medium security facility
c. Super maximum-security facility
d. Minimum security facility

Security Classifications
• Maximum Security – above 20 years, life sentences, death penalty, heinous crimes, high risk,
habitual delinquents (Tangerine)
• Medium security – 20 years below; 1st time offender; newly arrived. (Blue)
• Minimum security – 6 months left, handicapped(PWD), 65 yrs old. (Brown)
• Halfway House – adjustment period 30 days before release; donated by Asian Crime
Prevention Foundation

105. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security
prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners

106. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners in the Philippines is the
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution

107. The minimum security prisons provides a model for those inmates who are:
A. First-time offenders - Medium
B. In the death row – Maximum
C. Serving life sentences - Maximum
D. Near the ends of their sentences – 6 months before release

108. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners?
A. Blue - med
B. Brown
C. Tangerine – max
D. Gray – detainees

109. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release
facility called _______________ for counseling and therapy.
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group
c. Half-way House
d. Diagnostic Center

110. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.

A. 60 years old – maintenance of cell cleanliness
B. 56 years old
C. 50 years old
D. 21 years old

111. Inmates’ earnings that may be used to buy his needs.

A. ½ of his earnings
B. ¼ if his earnings
C. ¾ of his earnings
D. Discretion of Warden

Note: ½ - go the prisoner; ½ - savings

112. Antonio is a member of Magdaldal group and was convicted of rebellion, unfortunately her
mother died and requested an authorization to be released to visit the corpse of his mother
this is known as __
A. Furlough
B. Prisonization
C. Diversification
D. Counseling

• Prisonization – learning of jail rules and culture

RULES ON FURLOUGH

• Requested 3 days before the release

• Escort – 1 : 1 + 1
• Time – daytime; max of 3 hours
• Distance – 30km
• Prohibited for inmates confined in Max.Sec.
• Not allowed during election period (60-30 rule)
• Not allowed for funeral procession and burial

113. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility and the actual stay of the inmates
to view the remains.
A. 20 kilometers
B. 40 Kilometers
C. 30 Kilometers = or 30 km radius
D. 50 Kilometers

114. How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from going out?
A. 30 days – after election
B. 90 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 120 Days

115. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes every ___
days.
A. 30
B. 90
C. 60
D. 120
116. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
A. Excessive number of inmates
B. Lack of funds
C. Sex problems
D. Discipline

Tandaan:
• Food allowance = 70 pesos

117. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a Child in Conflict with the law after
conviction of a trial Court?
A. His sentence serve
B. His sentence is suspended
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family
D. His sentence is NOT suspended

Tandaan:
While under suspended sentence, the CICL will be placed inside the BAHAY PAG ASA until the
age of 18.

118. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even individuals people conflicts:
A. Bodong
B. Capic
C. Korte Supremo
D. Hito

• Capic – official trademark of products made inside prison

• Hito – jargon for letters or mail

119. Nestro Guevarra is an indigent. He is an accused which is released from imprisonment on

his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon the undertaking of a suitable person
that he will guarantee the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called:
a. Promise
b. Acknowledgment
c. Surety
d. Recognizance – free bail for indigent

(RA 6036)
• Indigent
• Promise to attend hearing
• Guarantor
• Case less than 6 months penalty
120. Which of these is known as the Release on Recognizance Law providers for the release of
offender charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and /or a fine
of P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible person in the community, instead of a bail
bond
A. RA 6036
B. PD 603
C. Act 2489
D. RA 9262

121. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate to a jail by competent court or
authority for investigation, trial and/or service of sentence
A. Commitment
B. Safekeeping
C. Entrustment
D. Imprisonment

Question: Ano yung 2 documents needed for a legal commitment

• In case of detention – commitment order
• In case of service of sentence – mittimus order

122. All letters for the inmates before distribution shall pass through ______ for inspection and
examination of contents.
a. Mail examination
b. Letter checking
c. Letter sorting
d. Mail Censorship

123. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it has been posted, the mail should
be delivered to him.
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

124. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each page and
on the envelope. The letter should be placed back in the same envelope and resealed.
A. Back
B. Conspicuous Area
C. Side
D. Top

125. Valenzuela City Jail experience a sudden jailbreak, as part of the SOP, who will
immediately sound the alarm?
A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer
C. Control Center
D. Officer-in-Charge

Jailbreak – riot or mass escape of 3 or more prisoners

126. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise
authority and the next in command or the ___ officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
B. most senior
C. assistant
D. custodian

127. These are visitors of the inmate such as family members like mother, father and other
close relatives.
A. Special Visitor
B. Strange Visitor
C. Regular Visitor
D. Unusual visitor

• Special Visitor – doctor or lawyer

• Unusual visitor – workmate, classmate, friends

128. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s quarter and the keys shall be available
all the time.
A. Key Matron
B. Resident Matron – key keeper
C. Matron
D. Any of these

• Key Management – systematic control of keys

• Key Logs – log book of person barrowing and returning keys

129. Before the actual date of interview, the media shall file request within ____ and the
duration of interview must be _____ minutes.
A. 1 day – 10 minutes
B. 3 days – 20 minutes
C. 2 days – 20 minutes
D. 8 days – 15 minutes

Requirements: List of questions

Tandaan: for inmates convicted or having a case of crimes against national security or public
order ➔ recorded and not live
130. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will exempt prison authorities from any
liability arising from death or injury sustained while in prison:
A. Waiver of Liability
B. Waiver of Responsibility
C. Waiver of Acceptance
D. Waiver of Agreement

131. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the frequency of requests for
interviews reach a volume that warrants limitations:
a. Media group
b. Press pool
c. news team
d. public affairs

• Press pool – list of accredited media

132. Garry Alejandro is a newly arrived inmate in the BJMP, he was placed in shakedown
procedure. Who among the following shall be responsible in the custody of all the properties
seized from the detainee prior to his detention?
A. Custodial Officer
B. Chief of Detention Center
C. Property Custodian Officer
D. Evidence Custodian / Officer – evidence care taker in court

133. Mr. Peter Jakonini was convicted of the crime rape. After 12 days from the promulgation
of the sentence he escaped from his place of confinement. He is ______ :
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
C. considered as an escaped prisoner
D. Either C or B

Tandaan:
Art 157 or Evasion of sentence is only applicable for those escapees who are convicted by FINAL
JUDGMENT
Question: When does the judgment of conviction became final?
• Waived the right to appeal
• Lapsed 15 days without appeal
• Apply probation
• The judgment was given by SC

134. Ms. Dina Virgen, a prisoner, learns that she is already overstaying in jail because her jail
guard, Many Nilip, who happens to be a law expert advised her that there is no more legal
ground for his continued imprisonment, and Manny told her that she can go. Ms. Dina Virgen
got out of jail and went home. Was there any crime committed?
A. Evasion of Service of sentence
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison

135. As far as Manny, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Dina Virgen to go, is concerned, the crime
committed if the former fallen asleep during his tour of duty.
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison

Crimes Related to Escapes

• Escape made by a convicted ➔ art 157, Evasion
• Failure to return after calamity within 48hrs = Art 158, evasion
• Violation of conditional pardon ➔ art 159, evasion
• Violated destierro ➔ evasion
• Jail / Correctional Officer
o Dolo – Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
o Culpa – Evasion thru negligence
• Private individual facilitated the escape ➔ Delivering prisoners from jail or prison

136. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison.

A. Director
B. Warden
C. Superintendent
D. Wardress

137. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting investigation?

A. BUCOR
B. Jail
C. Penitentiary
D. Prison

Tandaan: Kapag ang question sa board naghahanap ng specific answer isagot ay Lock up Jail.

138. It was established in 1910 under the American Regime.

A. Philippine Prison System
B. Provincial Jail System
C. Probation
D. Parole

139. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail?

A. DILG
B. Governor
C. DOJ
D. LGU

140. Mr. Puslit was able to commit hustling in the BJMP. What is referred to as “hustling” inside
the prison?
A. Reporting illegal activities – squealing
B. Doing prison assignment
C. Using prohibited drugs
D. Selling illegal commodities

• Selling legal item inside jail ➔ Vending

• Hustler – seller of illegal items
• Vendor – seller of legal goods

141. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. protect the other inmates
C. to shoot the escape (last resort)
D. give warning shots

142. Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance of the necessary anti-riot
equipment and firearms?
A. The Warden
B. Director for operation
C. Director
D. Desk Officer / Armorer

143. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what shall be done at the sound of the
first pre-arranged alarm?
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
b. Saturate the area with riot gas
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their respective cell
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders

144. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside the jail (BJMP) is allowed to be
with his child?
A. 6 months (nearest answer)
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 7 years
Note: Sa question na ito ang pinaka correct answer is 1 month and may be extended , if ever
ma encounter sa board yung mga ganitong tanong choose the nearest answer.

145. Raymod Angasin is a prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome and does not
cooperate with other inmates is referred to as
a. Squealer – reporters of violations
b. Sucker
c. Hustler – seller of illegal commodities
d. Tough

146. Which of the following unusual offender should be under the close supervision of the jail
physician?
1. Mentally-ill
2. Sex deviates
3. Infirm or sick
4. Escape-prone prisoners

A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3

Tandaan: Place for injured or sick inmates ➔ Infirmary

147. Bikoy is currently imprisoned for the crime of estafa. While in prison a prison guard was
able to acquire shabu (RA 9165) SPL – offense) in the pocket of Bikoy. There is ________
A. Quasi-recidivism
B. No Quasi Recidivism
C. Habitual Delinquency
D. Recidivism

148. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official
records?
A. Mitigation
B. Expungement
C. Exoneration
D. Restriction

Exoneration – Acquittal; removal from the list of suspects

When to expunge?
Acquitted or the accused is a child and pardon / amnesty
149. All original appointments of officers who are lawyers in the jail bureau shall commence
with the rank of ___
A. JO1
B. Jail Inspector
C. JO11
D. Jail Senior Inspector

3 Technical Professions Eligible for SINSP :

o Physicians / MD
o Chaplain
o Lawyers

• Age limit for lateral entry = 46 y/o

150. If Jail Officer I Masipag was appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of 19,000, how much his
total salary including his longevity pay in 2018?
A. 9000 pesos
B. 1900 pesos
C. 9500 pesos
D. 20, 900 pesos

Tandaan: longevity pay = additional 10% for every 5 years in service

19,000 ➔ 10% ➔ 1,900 +19,000 = 20,900

• Limit: 50% or 25 years in service

151. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in excessive quantities to become a
fire hazard, a threat to security or has become causative in making the place unsanitary.
A. Contraband
B. Paraphernalia
C. Prohibited items
D. Nuisance Contraband

152. Is a pecuniary (money) punishment imposed by the law tribunal upon a person convicted
of crime or misdemeanor?
a. Remission
b. Forfeiture
c. Fine
d. All of the above

Bail – security for temporary freedom (piyansa)

Civil liability – payment for damages (danyos)
Fine – payment for the crime (multa)
153. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. This was tied to the crime committed:
a. Banishment
b. Death
c. Torture – corporal punishment
d. Mutilation – clipping and cutting of body parts

154. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time
rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment
program:
a. Solitary confinement – isolation cell
b. Punishment
c. Floggings – whipping
d. Imprisonment – incarceration / commitment / incapacitation

155. Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete reversal of the past. It was the late
Pro-Life Pope John Paul II who reversed this so called:
a. Ecclesiastical court
b. Inquisition
c. Ordeal
d. Culture of death

Iron maiden, burning alive, crucifixion, feeding to lions, stoning

156. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:

a. 100 or more
b. 21- 99 – type B jail
c. 150 or more
d. 20 or less – type C jail

157. While undergoing trial for the alleged theft with a possible maximum penalty of 3 years
and in the lapse of 3 years of trial, the judgement is not yet given to him. Which of these
authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent
to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
A. B.P 85
B. RA 4200 – wiretapping
C. B.P. 22 – bouncing check
D. PD 968 – probation

158. JOI Donald Dick confiscated white crystalline substance rolled in a transparent sachet and
he suspected it to be “shabu”. What should he do first?
a. Record the incident in the logbook
b. Bring the substance to NBI
c. Properly identify the substance
d. Properly preserve the evidence
159. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is imposed on the offender to
allow society to vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
a. Retribution
b. Restoration – reparation; indemnification
c. Rehabilitation – reformation
d. Deterrence – FEAR

160. There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some items in their cell. You are the guard
on duty. What will you do?
a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate the matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit

161. These are studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents with crimes
which are not usually reported to the police. What are these studies called?
a. Population surveys
b. Police surveys
c. Victimization surveys
d. Information surveys

162. Jayson was placed in a correctional program which enables him to enhance his
employability, develop his intellectual faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community
living all at the same time is referred to as _______________
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program – cornerstone / Zebulon Brockway / Elmira
d. Religious program

163. Stores and basketball courts can also be found in Jail. What rehabilitation program that
provides a pre-social environment within the prison to help the inmates develop noncriminal
ways to coping outside?
a. Psychotherapy
b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy
d. Milieu therapy

164. How is an offender released from prison or jail?

1. After service of sentence (yes – warden)
2. Issuance of order of the court (yes – release /probation)
3. Grant of parole (yes – BPP)
4. Grant of pardon (yes – President)
5. Grant of amnesty (yes – president + congress)
6. Any lawful order of competent authority (deportation)

a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
c. 2,3,4,5, and 6
d. All of those listed above

165. This place is where inmates are doing labor or anything for their livelihood?
a. Hardwood shops
b. Soft wood shops
c. Barbershops
d. Livelihood shops

• Hardwood shops – place for work; industrial place for inmates

166. The superintendent is the disciplinary authority (head) in prison while in jail, is the ___.
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C. Chief, Custodial force
D. Chief, Escort team

• Assistant warden – head of the classification and disciplinary board of the BJMP

167. The center of reformation of the probationer is

a. The probation administration
b. DOJ
c. The community
d. The people

Tandaan: Ang probation ay kasama sa non-institutional correction , ito ay isang community

based correction.

168. Mr. Paasa is in a temporary custody of a person or the detention of a person for his own
protection or care, to secure from liability, harm, injury or damage.
A. Safekeeping
B. Preventive imprisonment
C. Custodial investigation
D. Voluntary surrender

• Preventive imprisonment – temporary detention while under trial

Question: what is the remedy? BAIL

169. Also known as the Bureau of Correction Law of 2013.

A. RA 10175 – Anti Cyber Crime
B. RA 10575
C. RA 10705
D. RA 10707 – Probation Law of 2015

170. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the Revised Administrative Code (EO 292) as amended is known as
A. Correction Law – RA 10575 (2013)
B. Jail Management Law – RA 6975 / RA 9263
C. Prison Law
D. Parole and Probation Law – Parole – Act 4103 / probation – PD 968

• EO 292 – renamed the BOP to BUCOR

175. He handled and headed the last batch of prisoners of Alcatraz Prison.
a. Warden Fred Wilkinson
b. Warden James Bennet
c. Warden Elam Lynd
d. Gaylord Hubbell

• James Bennet – the person responsible for closing of Alcatraz

176. When was the Philippine Prisons placed under the Bureau of Corrections?
a. 1989 – EO 292 – Renaming of BOP – BUCOR
c. 1990
b. 1905 – Reorganization Act of 1905 (Act 1407) – Bureau of Prisons
d. 1910 – Provincial Jails

177. How many days are given to the Disciplinary Board of Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology to resolve issue?
A. 5 working Days
B. Within 48 hours
C. 30 working Days
D. 24 Hours

178. The inmates may request a review of the findings of the Disciplinary Board and the
propriety and the penalty to the _______.
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
B. Chief, BJMP
C. Central Office/BJMP
D. Warden or Summary Disciplinary Officer

179. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of _¬¬___ for every offender shall be observed in
BJMP.
A. 1:1+1
B. 1:120
C. 1:7
D. 1:24
E. At least 2 Correction officer

180. The BuCor shall maintain the custodial personnel-to-inmate ratio of?
A. One Custodial Personnel for every 7 Prisoner (1:7)
B. One is to One hundred twenty (1:120) for Educational and Training
C. At least two (2) vehicles must be used in escorting HR/HP inmates.
D. There must be no more than eight (8) inmates per prisoner’s van

181. When the offender is in transit, In case of _______that demands extra precaution
additional guards shall be employed.
A. High Profile Inmate
B. High-risk Inmate
C. Bisexual Inmate
D. Either of These

182. An enemy combatant, high ranking official or a civilian in danger of capture or death,
typically in possession of critical intelligence, data, or authority marked as an objective for a
mission.
A. High Value Target
B. Security Threat Group
C. Violent Extremist Offender
D. Terrorist Group

183. What is the mandatory document to be signed by the detainee in jails if he/she a greed to
abide by the disciplinary measure similar to those convicted inmates ?
A. Detainee Certification
B. Detainee Manifestation or Prison Agreement
C. Good Conduct Time Allowance
D. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty

184. The transfer of inmates to a provincial jail or vice versa as the occasion may require, the
transfer of inmates from National prison to a provincial jail. The expenses for such transfers
shall be borne by the Bureau except the cost of escort service which shall provide by the
Philippine National Police may direct by whom?
A. Warden
B. Directors
C. President
D. Provincial Administrator

185. To be a ______, one must be at least a 1st class inmate and has serve one year
immediately preceding the completion of the period specified in the following qualification: has
served imprisonment with good conduct for at least 7 years in the case of life imprisonment .
A. 1st class inmate
B. 2nd class inmate
C. 3rd class inmate
D. Colonist

186. A device, contrivance, tool or instrument used to hold back, keep in, check or control
inmates.
A. Instrument of Restraint
B. Iron leg Lock
C. Handcuffs
D. Metallic chains

187. The inmate’s ___ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.
A. Senior Citizens Inmates
B. 56 years old
C. Jail Aide
D. Colonist

188. To be considered as the forgotten victim?

A. Women
B. Victim
C. Offender
D. Client

189. The Presiding Judge shall place the witness stand _______. When the prisoners is on the
witness stand, the custodian shall stand between the judge and the prisoner.
A. At least one and a half meter away from his seat
B. At least forty meters
C. Not less than 20 meters
D. At least one meter and sixty-two centimetre

190. It is an act of leaving from jail of an inmate through unofficial and illegal ways or without
any legal order from the authorities.
A. Jail Break → more than 2 ang tumakas
B. Jail Escape
C. Noise Barrage
D. Jail Incident

191. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
192. The Custodial Division is in charge of all matters pertaining to the custody of the prisoners
and security of the institutions, which of the following is considered as the commanding
officers? A. Security Officers
B. Senior Prison Guards
C. Supervisor Prison Guards
D. Prison Guards

193. It is a written order of the court, or any other agency authorized by law to issue, entrusting
an inmate to a jail for the purpose of safekeeping during the pendency of his/her case.
A. Commitment Order
B. Safekeeping of National Prisoner
C. Safekeeping
D. Mittimus Order → for service of sentence

194. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are
temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court
to serve judgment is called? (1000 stars)
A. Custody
B. Safekeeping – temporary custody of a person for his own protection.
C. Maximum Tolerance
D. Classification

195. This refers to the institutional record (national record) of an inmate which consists of his
Mittimus/commitment order, the prosecutor’s information and the decision of the trial court,
including that of the appellate court, if any:
A. Mittimus Order
B. Carpeta “Inmate record or Jacket”
C. Commitment Order
D. Prison record

196. This refers to information concerning an, the offense he committed inmate’s personal
circumstances, the sentence imposed, the criminal case numbers in the trial and appellate
courts, the date he commenced service of his sentence, the date he was received for
confinement, the place of confinement, the date of expiration of his sentence, the number of
previous convictions, if any, and his behavior or conduct while in prison.
A. Carpeta
B. Prison record
C. Mittimus Order
D. Commitment Order

197. The following are the requisites of a valid Mittimus Order EXCEPT:
A. Signature of the Judge
B. Seal of the Court
C. Name of the President
D. Attested of the Clerk of Court

198. It refers to an order of the court directed to the counsel, litigant and the witnesses not to
discuss matters pertaining the case to the reporters to assure fair trial.
A. Commitment order
B. Mittimus Order
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Gag order → aka Subjudice

199. The Detainee are allowed to smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. Under
the BuCor manual this is allowed. The statement is
A. Partially True
B. Partially False
C. Absolutely False
D. Absolutely True

200. The visiting room officer shall be responsible for compiling the regular visiting list for each
inmate:
A. Special Visitor
B. Strange Visitor
C. Regular Visitor
D. Unusual Visitor

201. Mr. Cruz, was sentenced to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the
Judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the Judge’s death to the
service of Cruz sentence?
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentenced will be reduced

202. How do inmates know that they have letters?

A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
D. Inmate with letters is called to the Jail Warden’s Office

Note:
Dapat makuha ng PDL ang letter within 24 hours.

203. The ____ Program employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks.
A. Agricultural
B. Industrial
C. Operational
D. Administrative

204. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside the BJMP is allowed to be with
his child?
A. One month or maybe extended
B. One year and no extension → BUCOR
C. Relative
D. DSWD

205. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation and uncertainty over
their fate constitute a form of mental cruelty and those especially long-time death row
inmates are liable to become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is referred to as
A. Deathrow phenomenon
B. Cruelty syndrome
C. Execution syndrome
D. None of these

206. Constructed in a radial spoke of a wheel architectural designed and established as a major
or central confinement facility for Filipino prisoners.
a. Davao Penal Colony
b. Iwahig Penal Colony and Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
d. Bilibid Prison = old name – carcel y presidio correccional

• Carcel – 600
• Presidio – 527
• Total = 1,127
• New name – Manila City Jail

207. The preventive imprisonment will exist, except…

a. When the offense charged is non bailable
b. When the accused is acquitted
c. When bail required cannot be furnished by the accused
d. Answer not given

• Preventive imprisonment – temporary detention while under trial

208. This involves the application of security measures in guarding and safekeeping of
prisoners to ensure their safety and control inside the correctional institution.
a. Prison discipline
c. Security
b. Control
d. Custody
209. It handed the “Tagumpay Settlement”. A settlement intended to those released prisoners
who have decided to live along the premises of the penal institution together with their
respective families.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony and Farm
b. Leyte Regional Prison
c. Davao Prison and Penal Farm ➔ Tanglaw Settlement
d. San Ramon Prisons and Penal Farm

Tandaan: Tanglaw Settlement and Tagumpay settlement – homestead land (6 hectares)

210. Which of the following Philippine correctional institution was established on 1931 by virtue
of Act No. 3579 on Nov. 27, 1929?
a. Leyte Regional Prison – 1973
b. Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm – 1954
c. Davao Prison and Penal Farm – 1932
d. Women’s Correctional – located in Mandaluyong City

211. Is the separation of different types of inmates for their sound execution of treatment
programs and custody.
a. Security classification
b. Classification
c. Isolation
d. Diversification

• Father of penitentiary science = Jean Jacques Villian (He separated men from women in
Maison de Force in Belgium)
• Angel of Prison = Elizabeth Fry – She fought for women inmates rights

212. An Act establishing the “Bureau of Fire and Protection and Bureau of Jail Management
and Penology Professionalization Act of 2004”.
a. R. A. 9262 - VAWC
b. R. A. 9263
c. R. A. 9346
d. R. A. 9243

213. What is the effect if the accused after conviction filed an appeal to the appellate court?
a. May apply probation
b. Sentence is deem suspended
c. Waiver of probation
d. All of the above

Tandaan: PD 1257 – appeal will remove probation application

Follow up Question: What will happen if the convict will not do anything after 15 days from the
promulgation of judgment = The judgement will become final and executory ➔ issue “mittimus
order”.

214. A system of penalty which limits the culprit penalty up to not more than the three fold the
length of time corresponding to the most severe and in no case to exceed 40 years.
a. Absorption system
b. Material Accumulation System
c. Correctional system
d. Juridical Accumulation System

215. Which is NOT a theory justifying imposition of penalty?

A. Incarceration – imprisonment/ commitment / isolation
B. Expiation – group vengeance / atonement
C. Retribution – personal vengeance
D. Deterrence – fear of penalty

216. The self-defense theory justifying the imposition of penalty implies that offenders to
_________.
A. Serve as example to deter other (Exemplary)
B. Correct and reform them (Reformation)
C. Protect the society from danger and evil
D. Prevent and suppress crime (Prevention)

217. Offenders found guilty and sentenced by the courts for deprivation of liberty are
categorized based on their
_________.
A. degree of risk
B. degree of security
C. physical condition
D. length of sentence

218. The Second Officer in command of the Bureau of Corrections has the rank of
A. Undersecretary
B. Deputy Director
C. Director
D. Assistant Secretary

• Head of the DOJ ➔ Secretary

• Head of the BuCOr ➔ USec
• Asst. Director of Bucor ➔ ASec

1st in Command – Undersecretary

2nd in Command – Assistant Secretary
3rd in Command – Chief Superintendent
4th in Command – Senior Superintendent
5th in Command - Superintendent

219. Who among the following shall be designated as District Jail Warden?
A. Chief Inspector Kiko, a graduate of Bachelor Laws.
B. Sr. Superintendent Sara, a graduate of Master in Public Administration
C. Superintendent Willie, a Registered Criminologist.
D. Chief Inspector Tito, a graduate of M.S. Criminology

Key Positions:
1. Municipal Jail Warden – Should have the rank of Chief Inspector, who have finished at least
second year Bachelor of Laws or earned at least twelve (12) units in a master' degree program

2. City Jail Warden – Should have the rank of Chief Inspector, who must have finished at least
second year Bachelor of Laws or earned at least twenty four (24) units in master's degree
program.

3. District Jail Warden, Provincial Jail Administrator, Assistant Regional Director for
Administration, Assistant Regional Director for Operations and Regional Chief of Directorial Staff
– Should have the rank of Superintendent, who must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a
holder of a master's degree.

4. Regional Director for Jail Management and Penology and Director of the Directorate of the
National Headquarters Office - Should have the rank of Senior Superintendent, who must be a
graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a holder of a master's degree.

5. Deputy Chief for Administration of the Jail Bureau, Deputy Chief for Operations of the Jail
Bureau and Chief of Directorial Staff of the Jail Bureau — Should have the rank of Chief
Superintendent, who must be a member of the Philippine Bar or a holder of a master’s degree.

6. Chief of the Jail Bureau- Should have the rank of director, who must be a member of the
Philippine Bar or a holder of a master’s degree.

220. Select the classification of inmates who have lesser tendencies to commit offenses and
generally pose the least risk to public safety.
A. Maximum risk
B. Minimum risk
C. Low risk
D. Medium risk

221. The identification as a prisoner is established by one's

A. valid identification card, case number and photograph
B. certification of detention and the commitment order of the court
C. court decision of the case, valid identification card and photograph
D. rolled fingerprint card, photograph and prison number – BOOKING

222. What report is prepared by the staff regarding their findings on the prisoners?
A. Narrative
B. Admission Summary
C. Staff
D. Staff Summary

223. What is the MAIN purpose of providing correctional treatment program?

A. To give shelter and change the attitude of prisoners.
B. To punish prisoners and segregate them from the public
C. To segregate prisoners from the community.
D. To eliminate pattern of criminal behavior and reform prisoners.

224. The treatment of prisoners to be effective shall include services and programs that will
improve and enhance their ________.
A. Love of God and their fellowmen
B. Self-respect, dignity and sense of responsibility
C. Physical, moral and spiritual aspect
D. Discipline, nationalism and patriotism

225. The following Core programs of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology EXCEPT.
A. Cultural and Sports
B. Welfare and Development – major program
C. Provision of basic services
D. Health Services

Four (4) major programs under the mandate of BJMP and they are the following:

1. PDL Custody, Security and Control Program;

2. PDL Welfare and Development Program;
3. Decongestion Program; and
4. Good Governance.

Core Programs:
1. Provisions of Basic Needs
2. Health Services
3. Educational Program
4. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program
5. Livelihood Program
6. Behavioral Management/ Modification Program
7. Interfaith Program
8. Cultural and Sports Program
9. Paralegal Program
10. E-Dalaw

226. Online or e-marketing of PDL livelihood products is being run by the _______.
A. Welfare and Development Office
B. Alternative Learning System Unit
C. Office of the Jail Warden
D. Business Administration Office

227. The entire treatment process of an offender requires individualized treatment program
success will depend upon.
A. Training programs of personnel
B. Fiscal Planning and Allotment
C. Workable Classification System
D. Effective Custodial Discipline

228. Choose the correction model that completely encapsulates the lives of the people live
there.
A. Custodian
B. Rehabilitation
C. Responsibility
D. Total Institution

229. As a Jail Warden, you received an information from the Health Services that the inmate, is
recently found to be exhibiting bizarre behaviors (weird behavior). The MOST appropriate and
should do is to ___
A. request the Physician to prescribed sedatives as initial treatment
B. place her in a comfortable quarter separate from other inmates
C. prevent male offenders to enter the women's quarter
D. arrange her transfer to the metal institutions for psychiatric treatment

• Bizzare Behavior is a symptom of schizophrenia.

230. Which is frequently conducted by Bureau of Corrections to search inmates and their
quarters for possible of contraband?
A. Operation Salikop
B. Operation Greyhound → BJMP
C. Operation Galugad
D. Operation Kontrabando

Tandaan: Regular search before admission = Shakedown*

231. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has been given due course
by the court but fails to report to the probation officer or cannot be located within a reasonable
period of time.
A. Absconding Petitioner
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Uncooperative Petitioner

232. A judicial action (GRANTED BY COURT) for legal disposition that allows the offender to
remain in the community subject to conditions imposed by the court?
a. Reprieve – granted by the president
b. Probation
c. Commutation – granted by president
d. Parole – granted by BPP

233. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which means ___, has historical
roots in the practice of judicial reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. promise

• Probation
o Probare – to prove or to test
o Probatio – testing period
• Parole – French – Parole – word of honor
• Pardon – Latin – “pardoun” to forgive
• Amnesty – Latin – “Amnestia” to forget

Note: Parole lang yung naiba kasi French word.

234. Is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released
subject to conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Probation
D. Executive Clemency

235. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the board should refer the petition to the
probation and parole officer who should conduct and investigation within ____.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
236. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an
individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended
by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called:
a. Amnesty – General pardon; blanket pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Pardon

237. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ______.

a. punishment – no – probation is a release
b. treatment – non institutional treatment
c. enjoyment – no – probation has conditions
d. incarceration – no – community based

Tandaan: Probation is otherwise known as “Judicial clemency”.

238. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the
ability to ____ and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
C. change
D. aggravate his behavior

239. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to?

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender
B. prevent the commission of offenses
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with individualized
treatment
D. All of these

240. A person who is placed (granted) under probation.

a. Petitioner – person applying for probation
b Client
c. Probationee
d. probationer

Client – general term for person granted probation, parole and pardon

241. Is a statutory privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his
term of imprisonment.
A. Probation
B. Executive Clemency
C. Special loyal time allowance
D. Good Conduct Time Allowance

242. He is the Father of Probation in the Philippines.

a. Ferdinand Marcos – President that signed PD 968
b. Manuel Roxas – 1st president who granted Amnesty to HUKBALAHAP
c. Teodulo Natividad – Principal author of PD 968
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. - co-author of PD 968

243. Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century in

a. Japan
b. U.S.A.
c. England – Recognizance (ancestor ng Probation) - sa Parole din sa England nag originate
d. Ireland – Irish system (Walter Crofton)

244. When does probation started?

a. 1938
b. 1841 – Boston, Massachusetts
c. 1896
d. 1932

Tandaan: Sa PILIPINAS ang probation ay nagsimula noong 1935 by virtue of Act 4221 na tinawag
na 1st probation law kung saan ay naabolished naman ito noong 1937 sa kaso ng PP vs Vera.

245. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S?

a. Mathew Davenport Hill – Father of probation in England
b. Edward Savage – 1st appointed probation officer
c. John Augustus
d. Teodulo Natividad – Father of probation in the Philippines

• Fr. Rufus Cook – Successor of John Augustus when he died in 1858.

246. It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by the government:
a. John Augustus
b. Teodulo C. Natividad
c. Edward N. Savage
d. Mattew Davenport

247. In the process of parole investigation, the Penal Superintendent has the obligation to
transmit to the Prison Director all pertinent records of prisoners in prison within ____ days
before the expiration of the prisoner’s minimum sentence.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 10 days
d. 60 days
248. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it
become a matter of right?
A. After the submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When his probation is approved

Other answer: When the applicant or the petitioner is a Child/CICL.

249. Federal (USA wide) Probation act signed by President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on
_____.
A. April 26, 1878
B. 1899
C. 1887
D. March 4, 1925

Questions:
• When did FM signed PD 968? July 24, 1976
• When did the PD 968 took effect? January 3, 1978

250. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue of ___ also known as Philippine
Probation Act of 1935
A. HB 393
B. PD 968
C. Act 4221 – unconstitutional because of the case People vs. Vera
D. RA 4221

• 1935 – under commonwealth

• House Bill 393 – bill filed by Natividad and Bagatsing proposing to bring back probation (1972)

251. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring unconstitutional of the first probation
law of November 16, 1937
A. People vs. Vera
B. People vs. De Vera
C. People vs. De Vega
D. People vs. Vega

Accused: Judge Jose Vera

252. What law grants probation to first time offenders who are sent to prison terms of not
more than six (6) years?
a. Presidential Decree No. 448
b. Presidential Decree No. 968
c. Presidential Decree No. 603
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184

Follow up Question: What law is considered as the child probation law? PD 603

253. Where the application for probation should be filed?

a. Board of Pardons and Parole – application for parole
b. Office of the Solicitor General
c. Trial court
d. Appellate court

254. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified applicants.

a. Post Investigation Report
b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
c. Admission report
d. Post Sentence Investigation

Follow up Questions: How many days is given to the PPO to finish and submit his PSIR?
Answer = within 60 days

255. Which of the following is NOT an objective in the conduct of interview of probation
applicant?
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
b. To determine how the person shall respond to supervision
c. To gather information about the person
d. To determine his paying capacity

Tandaan: Ang probation is FREE of charge/ libre/walang bayad.

256. It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared for the judge to decide on the
approval or denial of application of probation.
a. Probation Report
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Pre-Trial Report

257. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide whether to grant or
deny the application for probation?
a. 5 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

SUMMARY FOR APPLICATION FOR PROBATION

Follow up Questions pertaining to Probation:
• When will you apply for probation ➔ within 15 days after conviction
• What do you call the applicant for probation? PETITIONER
• What shall be submitted by the petitioner within 15 days? APPLICATION FORM
• Where you will apply for probation? SAME COURT
• What is the requirement before the grant of probation? PSI
• How many days is given to finish the PSI? 60 days
• What shall be submitted by the PPO within 60 days? PSI
• Where will the PPO submit his PSIR? Same court
• How many days will the court decide to grant or deny probation? 15 days

258. The approval of the application of probation is done by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket
b. Probation Order
c. Probation Certificate
d. Probation Clearance

Follow up Question: When will the probation order take effect? UPON ITS ISSUANCE

259. What is the effect of the grant of probation?

a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled

• Specific answer – Suspension of criminal liability

Follow up Question: Is civil liability affected by probation? NO

260. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for probation, the offender
applying for probation _______
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
D. all of these

261. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that _______.

a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed. (Ex. Murder)
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment (ex. Heinous crime)
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation the offender will commit another
crime (recidivist, habitual delinquent)
d. All of the choices

262. Is the denial of probation appealable?

a. It depends on the violation
b. Yes
c. No
d. Partially No

263. Mr. Bogie was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an imprisonment term of 8 years,
since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his case to a higher court. The
appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser penalty of six years. Can he apply now
for probation?
a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
b. No, because he already appealed his case
c. No, because he is disqualified
d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable and his 2nd sentence is a probationable
offense.

264. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of?

A. Department of Finance – BIR, Customs, Treasury, BSP
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. BJMP

265. The probationer and his probation program shall be under the control and supervision of
____?
a. Probation Officer
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Court
d. All of the above

266. Bebe Josh was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will he qualify for
probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day

267. Violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify an offender to avail of the
benefits of PD 968 except,
A. Omnibus Election Code
B. Robbery
C. Wage Rationalization Act
D. Videogram Law

268. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is qualified to
apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
A. Section 12
B. Section 14
C. Section 13
D. Section 17

Section 12, 14, 17, 57 and 70 – pwede ang probation.

269. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s application for probation if
an appeal is perfected.
A. PD 1357
B. BP 76
C. PD 968
D. PD 1257

• PD 1257 – if a petitioner chose to appeal, he /she loses the chance to apply for probation
• RA 10707 – an appellant may still apply for probation provided that the decision of the lower
court is a non probationable offense and the decision of the appellate court is a probationable
offense.

270. Bulldog is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under the adult probation system?
a. No, because he is entitled for parole
b. No, because his crime is theft
c. No, because he is only 17 years old
d. No, because he is convicted of a crime

Tandaan: Except if the child will avail PD 603.

271. How many times an offender be granted probation under PD 968.

a. Never
b. Twice
c. Only once
d. 3 times

Scenario Question: In 2010 a child named Nene (15) was convicted of the crime of theft and
penalized with 3 years of imprisonment, she decided to apply for probation and was granted.
After 10 years Nene was again convicted of theft and again decided to apply for probation. Can
she apply? ANS. YES!!!

• 2010 – PROBATION – UNDER PD 603

• 2020 – PROBATION – UNDER PD 968

272. Who shall have the control over the probationer once the latter is permitted to reside
under the jurisdiction of another court?
a. Regional Director
b. Executive Judge of the Municipal Court
c. Executive Judge of the First Instance (RTC)
d. Appellate Court

273. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of six months, how many years
would
be the duration of his probation?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Shall not exceed two years
d. Shall not be more than six years

Period of Probation:
• Rule # 1 – if the sentence of the probationer is not more than 1 year, the period of probation
is
not more than 2 years.
• Rule # 2 – if the sentence of the probationer is more than 1 year, the period of probation is
not
more than 6 years.

274. How long is the period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a term of imprisonment
of more than one (1) year?
A. Not to exceed 6 years
B. Not to exceed 8 years
C. Not to exceed 10 years
D. Not to exceed 2 years

275. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum number of minor
violations that would result in the revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 Violations
B. 3 Violations
C. 4 Violations
D. 2 Violations

• Major violation = Max of 3x ➔ revoked

276. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?

A. Formal
B. Summary
C. Due process
D. None of the above
277. What should the court do where the accused violated the terms and conditions of his
probation?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his probation

Follow up Question – What document will be issued by the court in case of revocation?
REVOCATION ORDER

278. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if the reasons for non-compliance is
not meritorious the court will issue a ____.
A. Termination order
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. OAR
D. Revocation Order

279. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Probationer?

A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full

• Parole = Serve the remaining maximum sentence!!!

280. When does probation revocable before the final discharge of the probationer by the court
for the violation of any of the conditions of probation.
a. Any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
c. After 1 year under probation
d. None of the above

281. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed ___.

A. 15 days after granting it
B. At any time during supervision
C. Upon the application of the community
D. Any of these

282. Who is authorized to modify the condition of probation?

a. Judge
b. Probationer – person under probation
c. Probation officer – conducts PSI and supervision
d. all of the above
Follow up Questions:
• What is the relationship between the court and the probation officer? Amicus Curiae (friend
of court)
• What is the relationship between the P.O and the probationer? – Supervision

283. What is the effect of the termination of probation?

a. Erase criminal records
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended because of conviction
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

284. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among the citizens of ____
A. Good religious background
B. High Educational Level
C. Good Repute and Probity
D. High Social Standing

Dating Tawag – Probation Assistants

QUALIFICATIONS:
• 25 years old and above (Dati 18 years old)
• Living in the same locality
• Good repute and probity
• No salary = pure volunteerism (pero may allowance)
• Contract – 2 years which may be renewed or recalled anytime for just cause

Appointed: Probation Administrator

Caseload: 80 percent of the clients. Maximum caseload is 5 clients. (1:5)

Dating caseload:
10 probationers in minimum case classification (Short term probation).
3 probationers on maximum classification (Long term probation)

285. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide.

A. 3 – probation aide kaya old na caseload
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9

286. Probation aids shall have the term in office for _____?
a. 3 years
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 4 years

287. When does an applicant who was granted probation report to the assigned Probation
Officer for Interview?
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of probation order
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of probation order
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his receipt of the probation order
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of probation order

288. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional Probation Officers and Assistant
Probation Officers?
A. DILG Secretary
B. President
C. DOJ Secretary
D. Administrator

289. A French word meaning “word of honor”

a. Pardon
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Amnesty

290. Before the conduct of supervision, the probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare
a _____.
A. Associate Plan
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
C. Treatment Program
D. Orientation Plan

291. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of probation except

a. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
b. Abstain from visiting house of all ill repute
c. Report at least once a month – mandatory condition
d. Cooperate with the program of probation

292. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?

A. Criminal
B. Society
C. Family
D. Governor

293. It refers to those that handle the investigation of petitioners for probation, and the
supervision of probationers, parolees and conditional pardonees.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Department of Justice

294. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative
to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community based
treatment programs.
a. BJMP - DILG
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government - DILG
d. Parole and Probation Administration

295. A term means a friend of a court.

A. Amicos curae
B. Amigos curae
C. Amicus curiae
D. None of the above

Amicus – Plural Form

Amici – Singular form

296. PPA is headed by:

a. Director – head of a bureau
b. Administrator
c. Secretary – head of a department
d. Superior – head of a unit / team

297. Probation officer may authorize a probationer to travel outside his area of operational
territorial jurisdiction for a period of
a. 1-5 days
b. 5-10 days
c. 10-30 days
d. 30 days

298. When will you close a probation case?

A. When the probationer absconds the place
B. When he incurred violations
C. When there is recommendation for revocation
D. When the termination order is approved

299. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake supervision and visitation
of the probationer. However, control over the probationer and probation program is exercised
by:
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation

300. A drug user (Sec. 57 – voluntary surrender) who is placed under probation may be made
to serve his sentence by the court if he ________
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old
d. Violates any of the conditions of his probation

• Sec 12, 14, 17, 57, & 70 RA 9165 – allowed to be given probation

301. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the Court to pay certain amounts to the
victim as part of his civil liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for remittance of the
victim?
a. Municipal treasurer
b. Cashier of the trial court
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
d. Cashier of the Probation Office

3 Ways of Paying Civil Liability

• Pay personally to the victim
• Bank details of the victim
• Thru the clerk of court

302. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the Chairman of the Board of Pardons
and Parole?
a. PNP Chief
b. DILG Secretary
c. DOJ Secretary
d. Chief Executive

7 Composition of the BPP:

Ex Officio Chairman – DOJ Secretary
Ex officio Member – PPA, Administrator

5 Regular Members
▪ Sociologist
▪ Lawyer
▪ Psychiatrist
▪ Clergy or educator
▪ Any professional
303. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board of Pardon and
Parole.
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 6 years

Tandaan: Without reappointment

304. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person should serve part of his
sentence?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Amnesty

• Specific answer: Conditional pardon

Tandaan: Conditional pardon requires that the applicant must serve ½ of the minimum.

305. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction is final and executory and has
already served the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.
A. Parole
B. Word of Hohor
B. Parole d’ Honeur
D. Probare

306. An alternative granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence and is
allowed to complete a sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Shock imprisonment
C. Parole
D. Split sentencing

307. Whom to apply for Parole?

A. Administrator, Parole and Probation
B. Chairman, Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Presiding Judge of the Case
D. Secretary, Department of Justice

308. Parole is a matter of ___.

a. privilege
b. right
c. grace
d. requirement

NOTE:
Probation – privilege
Parole – privilege
Pardon – an act of grace

309. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
a. President
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Director of Prison
d. Court
Summary:
• Who grants probation? Court
• Who recommends probation? PPO
• Who grants parole? BPP
• Who recommends parole? PPO
• Who grants pardon? President
• Who recommends pardon? BPP
• Who grants GCTA and STAL? C, BJMP/Director, Bucor, Warden

310. Which is considered the forerunner (1st version) of parole?

A. Mark system – founded by Alexander Maconochie
B. Solitary system – Pennsylvania system
C. Benefits of a clergy – power of the church
to conduct trial and give judgment
D. Congregate system – Auburn System

311. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate sentence (minimum sentence)
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final judgment of conviction (true)
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time allowance earned
(true)
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence (conditional pardon)
a. 4, 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1
d. 1, 2 and 3

312. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate sentence (minimum sentence)
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final judgment of conviction (true)
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time allowance earned
(true)
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence (conditional pardon)

a. 4, 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1
d. 1, 2 and 3

313. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for review of a Parole cases.
A. Final conviction – yes!
B. Maximum period of sentence exceeds one year – yes!
C. Served the minimum period of said sentence – yes!
D. None of the above

314. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one:

a. Those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence (DQ)
b. Those convicted of offense punished by death penalty, reclusion perpetua or life
imprisonment (DQ)
c. Those who are habitual delinquents (DQ)
d. None of the above

315. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted.

a. Who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; (yes)
b. Those who have pending criminal case; (yes)
c. Habitual delinquencies; (yes)
d. Suffering from any mental disorder; and (yes)
e. Conviction is on appeal (yes)

A. a,b,c, and e
B. a,b,c, and d
C. b,c,d, and e
D. a,b,c,d, and e

316. All except one are objectives of the Parole System.

A. It standardize the penalty
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty (early release)
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic usefulness (productive)
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without prejudice to the basic needs of
maintaining and protecting social order (parole is individual)

317. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the document to the board, ____
before the expiration of prisoner’s minimum sentence.
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

Summary of Parole Application:

• Step 1 – 30 days before the expiration of the prisoners minimum sentence, the director of the
BuCor shall submit the Carpeta to the BPP
• Step 2 – the petitioner shall submit his formal petition to the BPP
• Step 3 – the BPP will order the PPO to conduct PPI within 30 days and submit PPIR to the BPP.
• Step 4 – the BPP will have an en banc proceeding (7 compositions) ➔ voting (majority)
• Step 5 – the BPP will issue a release document (discharge on parole) ➔ “parolee or client”

318. It is an investigation conducted by a parole officer made before the grant of Parole.
a. Post Sentence Investigation
b. Pre Probation and Parole System Investigation
c. Pre Parole Investigation
d. Pre Parole and Investigation Report

319. It is an investigation conducted by a parole officer made before the grant of Parole
a. Post Sentence Investigation
b. Pre Probation and Parole System Investigation
c. Pre Parole Investigation
d. Pre Parole and Investigation report

320. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known as
discharge on parole.
A. Release Document
B. Final Release & Discharge – termination of parole
C. Discharge on Parole
D. Summary Report – submitted before the issuance of CFR

321. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the parolee is to report at least once a
month for those residing outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a month for those
who are residing in Metro Manila.
A. True
B. Partially True
C. False
D. Partially False

322. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of the
terms and conditions stated in the release document.
A. Violation Report
B. Progress Report
C. Infraction Report
D. Summary Report

323. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an ______ against the parolee.
A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Order of Arrest
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)

324. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?

A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full

325. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence stated in the release document
except if the petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration

Outside Travel of Parolee:

a. 1 – 30 days = approved from C,PPO
b. Above 30 days = approved from the RD of the PPA
c. Change residence = approved from the RD of the PPA, confirmed by BPP
d. Travel abroad – no pending case, approved by PPA Administrator and confirmed by the BPP

326. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize outside travel of a parolee his area of
jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than ___.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 10 days

327. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved by the ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration

328. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO pending criminal case in any court.
Application for travel and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration and confirmed
by the ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation and Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration

Other names: Board of Indeterminate Sentence (old name of BPP)

329. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of the President for the objective of
preventing miscarriage of Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Executive Clemency
D. Reprieve

4 Types of Executive Clemencies (PARC)

• P - PARDON
• A – AMNESTY
• R – REPRIEVE
• C – COMMUTATION

310. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his exercise of the power to grant
executive clemency?
A. DOJ
B. BOARD / BPP
C. Administration
D. Administrator

311. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an ordinary crime.

a. General pardon
b. Absolute pardon
c. Conditional pardon
d. Special pardon

312. It refers to leniency or mercy.

a. Power
b. Clemency
c. Grace
d. Damages

313. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a certain category.
a. Special pardon
b. Absolute pardon
c. Conditional pardon
d. General pardon
314. Who is responsible to conduct an immediate fact-finding investigation of any alleged
violation of probation?
A. Probation Administrator
B. Chief, Parole and Probation Officer
C. Probation and Parole Officer
D. Supervising Probation Officer

315. Which of the following is not an administrative function exercised by the Executive Branch
of the government?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Reprieve
D. Amnesty

316. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the absolute pardon
removes all that is left of the consequences of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it
restores the pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino
C. People vs. Galit
D. None of these

317. He is tasked to administer the Parole and Probation System and exercise general
supervision overall Pardonees, Parolees and Probationers in the country.
A. Parole and Probation Administrator
B. Parole and Probation Administration
C. President, Republic of the Philippines
D. Senate President, Republic of the Philippines

318. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual within certain limits or conditions
from the punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting from the
partial extinction of his criminal liability.
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Reprieve
C. Probation
D. Conditional Pardon

319. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is
granted without any condition.
a. Special pardon
b. Absolute pardon
c. Conditional pardon
d. General pardon
320. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT:
A. Carnapping
B. Impeachment
C. Estafa
D. Parricide

7 DQ for Pardon
• Impeachment
• Tax cases
• Civil contempt
• Election code violation
• Art 157, RPC – Evasion (1 year)
• On going trial
• On going appeal

321. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for imprisonment of “prision correctional”.
A. Article 95 of RPC
B. Article 59 of RPC
C. Article 159 of RPC
D. A and C

• Art 157 – actual escape

• Art 158 – failure to return after calamity
• Art 159 – violation of conditional pardon

322. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner should be addressed to ____.

A. Board
B. Administrator
C. Chairman of BPP
D. President

Tandaan: all applicants of executive clemencies shall write a letter addressed “TO” the president
“Thru” the BPP

Follow up Question: Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for absolute or conditional
pardon if the crime committed is against the national security?
A. DFA Secretary
B. COMELEC
C. DOJ Secretary
D. DND Secretary

323. What is the effect of Probation to a sentence imposed by the Court to a convicted
individual?
A. Exempted from criminal liability
B. Justified the wrongful act
C. Mitigated both criminal and civil liability
D. Suspend the execution of sentence

324. Any willful or malicious concealing material information made by the client either or
after the grant of Conditional Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to –
A. Extend the period of Supervision
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional Pardon
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior has shown by the client

325. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?

a. Pardon
b. Appeal
c. Commutation
d. Reprieve

Three grounds of reprieve

▪ Pregnant /Newly given birth (1 year)
▪ Old age – 70 years old
▪ Insane

326. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of
congress?
a. probation
b. Amnesty
c. pardon
d. Parole

327. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer
term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
c. Commutation
d. none of the foregoing

328. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been subsequently convicted of
another
crime.
a. Progress report
b. Violation report
c. Infraction report
d. All of the above
329. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for a time after conviction and
sentence.
a. Reprieve
b. Amnesty
c. Probation
d. Commutation

330. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?

a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
d. A prisoner with good behavior

PRIORITIES IN THE GRANT OF PARDON AND PAROLE?

▪ Alien prisoner
▪ Terminal sickness (stage 4 cancer)
▪ Youth offender
▪ Old age 70 y/o above
▪ Those who are recommended by court

331. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the parolee?
1. Prison record
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
4. Order of Court

a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3

332. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what portion of the sentence must have
been served by a petitioner prisoner?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
b. At least one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
d. At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence

333. What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release and Discharge of a Parolee?
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Department of Justice
Tandaan:
• CFRD is release for termination of parole (successful)
• OAR is released for the revocation of parole (violation)

334. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed when the parolee commits an
infraction of the terms and conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an Infraction Report to the Board of
Pardon and Parole
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the arrest of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that the continuation of his parole is
incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction

a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 4, 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, 4 and 1

Steps in Revocation of parole

• Step 1 – PPO ➔ progress report ➔ BPP
• Step 2 – PPO ➔ violation report / infraction report ➔ BPP
• Step 3 – BPP ➔ EnBanc (7) ➔ voting ➔ majority
• Step 4 – BPP ➔ OAR ➔ prison ➔ serve the remaining maximum sentence

335. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner for executive clemency be
forwarded to the Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for
prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate
sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison
record and carpeta
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request made by the BPP for
the prison record and carpeta

336. Mario is in prison for the past 48 months and has never been involved in any trouble, no
matter how minor. If you were the prison director, how many days for each month would you
approve as Mario’s good conduct time allowance?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 20 days
D. 23 days
337. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week
(mon-fri) and return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend (sat-sun) or non-
working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. Good conduct time allowance
C. Probation
D. Delayed sentence

• Other options – weekend confinement

338. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon him by the
sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted

• Pardon only extinguish criminal liability

• Pardon doesn’t affect civil liability

339. Amnesty came from the Latin word amnestia which means?
a. To forgive
b. To forget
c. To test
d. Promise

340. Deduction of ____ the period of his sentence shall be granted in case said prison stay in
the place of his confinement notwithstanding the existence of a calamity or cat enumerated in
Article 158 of this Code.
A. two-fourth
B. two-fifth
C. two-third
D. two-sixth

Summary of STAL
• Applicability: during destructive calamity
o Rule 1: Art 98, RPC – escape but returned within 48 hrs after passing of calamity a prisoner
will be granted -1/5
o Rule 2: Art 158, RPC – escape and did not return within 48 hours = evasion of service of
sentence
o Rule 3: Art 158, RPC – escape and eturned but after 48 hours = evasion + mitigating (voluntary
surrender)
o Rule 4: RA 10592 – stayed in prison = -2/5
o Rule 5: STAL and GCTA are not applicable for Heinous crimes, habitual delinquents, escapees
and recidivist

341. What shall be imposed upon a convict who shall evade the service of his sentence in
penal institution during a calamity or disorder?
A. He shall suffer an increase of one-third of the time remaining to be served un sentence.
B. He shall suffer an increase of one-fifth of the time remaining to be served your sentence.
C. He shall suffer an increase of one-fourth of the time remaining to be served sentence.
D. He shall suffer an increase of two-fifth of the time remaining to be served

342. The Post Sentence Investigation Report which will serve as guide for the court granting or
denying the application is ________
A. Optional
B. Jurisdictional
C. Mandatory
D. Required

343. One advantage of probation is that it protects the society by placing the probation
supervision of the _______
A. Probation Officer
B. Trial Court
C. Mayor
D. Court

344. What shall be accomplished by the applicant once he reports to the Probation OFFICER
during initial interview?
A. Post-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
B. Interview Work Sheet
C. Pre-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
D. Investigation Work Sheet

HOW LONG IS THE PSI? Within 60 days

How long will the judge decide to grant or deny probation? 15 days

345. The probation officer when conducting investigation, either interviewing or examining
documents must weigh the evidence based on the best available information in order to
provide the court accurate basis for sentencing. It is important on the part of probation officer
to
A. utilize the instrumentation approach to scientifically obtain the facts needed by the court
B. distinguish between facts and the inferences, opinions or conclusion based upon those fact
C. conduct surveillance operations against the applicant or potential source of information that
verify the truth
D. apply the method of crime scene search to cover all the details of the case
4 Requirements of PSI
• Initial interview (within 5 days)
• PSI proper / Full blown character investigation
• Local Agency check - brgy, police, fiscal, mtc and rtc ➔ clearance
• National agency check – nbi, pdea, cidg ➔ clearance

What is the nature of PSI? Informational

What is the nature of information obtained during the Post Sentence Investigation? Confidential

346. When shall the supervision service to a probationer commence?

A. Upon the issuance of the probation order.
B. Upon completion of the Post Sentence Investigation.
C. After 72 hours from receipt of the order.
D. On the day of initial interview or reporting.

347. Who shall approve the request of a probationer to travel outside his area for more than
thirty (30) days?
A. The Trial Court Judge – approved ang ginamit
B. The Chief Probation Officer – recommended
C. The Probation and Parole Officer
D. None of these

Outside Travel:
1 – 9 days = Free to go
10-30 = recommended (authorize) from the PPO approved by the CPPO
Above 30 days = recommended (authorize) from the CPPO approved by Trial Court
Change residence = Approval of the Trial Court
Travel Abroad = NO!

Outside travel for a comulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a period of 6
months shall be considered as courtesy supervision.

348. Pardon is given only after conviction, while _______ may be exercised even before
investigation trial or conviction.
a. Amnesty
c. Pardon
b. Probation
d. Parole

349. The inmate shall not be allowed to stay more than _____ in the place where the remains
of the deceased relative.
A. three (3) hours
B. two (2) hours
C. five (5) hours
D. twenty-four (24) hours

350. Assistant probation administrator shall be appointed by_____.

A. Secretary of Justice
B. President
C. Probation administrator
D. Secretary of DILG

Probation Administrator - Appointed by President

Assistant Probation Administrator - Appointed by President
Regional Probation Officer and Assistant Regional Officer - Appointed by President
Provincial and City Probation Officer - Appointed by Sec. DOJ

351. The earliest forerunner of the probation.

A. Judicial reprieve
B. Recognizance
C. Benefits of clergy
D. Transportation

352. One who assists the probation officer the Chief Probation and Parole Officers in the
supervised treatment program of the probationers.
A. Voluntary probation assistants - 2 years term
B. Probation aide
C. Voluntary parolee
D. Absconding probationer

353. Who appoints the Director General of BuCor who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
a. Chief BJMP
b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive
d. Sec. of DOJ

BUCOR Appointment System:

a) Corrections Officer I to Corrections Chief Superintendent – Appointed by the Director General
of Corrections, and attested by the Civil Service Commission (CSC); and
(b) Director General of Corrections and Deputy Director General of Corrections – Appointed by
the President upon the recommendation of the Secretary of the DOJ, with the proper
endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC

354. Prisoners sentenced from one day to three years or a fine of not more than one thousand
pesos are categorized as
A. Insular Prisoner
B. City Prisoner
C. Provincial Prisoner
D. None of these

355. Online or e-marketing of PDL products is also run by the jail unit Welfare and
Development Office is a part of what core program?
A. E-dalaw
B. Provisions of Basic Needs
C. Livelihood Program
D. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program – Technical/vocational skills which they can use in
seeking employment or starting their own business

356. Other instruments of restraint shall only be used when authorized by law and in the
following circumstances____
a. As a precaution against escape during a transfer, provided that they are removed when the
prisoner appears before a judicial or administrative authority
b. By order of the warden
c. For the maximum classification of prisoner only
d. All of these

357. Basic principles under the Nelson Mandela rules on prisoners, except.
A. All prisoners shall be treated with the respect due to their inherent dignity and value as
human beings.
B. No prisoner shall be subjected to, and all prisoners shall be protected from, torture and other
cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment, for which no circumstances whatsoever
may be invoked as a justification.
C. The present rules shall be applied partially.
D. There shall be no discrimination on the grounds of race, colour, sex, language, religion,
political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or any other status.

358. Mr. Durant a person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be classified as what
kind of prisoner?
a. Municipal prisoner - 1 day to 6 mos
b. Insular prisoner - more than 3 years
c. Provincial prisoner - 6 mos to 3 years
d. City prisoner - 1 day to 3 years

359. It is a form authorizing the PPA and/or the Probation Office to secure any and all
information on the petitioner, shall be duly executed and signed by him/her.
A. Waiver of Agreement
B. Waiver of liability
C. Waiver cum authorization
D. Probation order

360. Colony assistant superintendent shall have the rank of___.

A. Correction superintendent - Colony Superintendent
B. Correction Senior inspector - Sub-colony Supervisor
C. Correction Undersecretary
D. Correction Chief Inspector

Regional Superintendent - Rank of Senior or Chief Superintendent

361. There are four major programs under the mandate of BJMP and they are the following,
except?
a. Provisions of Basic Needs
b. Welfare and development program
c. Decongestion program
d. Good governance

362. What is the role of the prosecution in the future of corrections?

a. supervision efforts, providing support to monitoring and enforcement activities.
b. assist by crafting effective sentencing strategies
c. imposition of conditions as part of their sentencing decisions provide the structure and tools
that community corrections needs to manage offenders successfully and promote offender
success in the community.
d. All of these

363. What is the role of the judges in the future of corrections?

a. supervision efforts, providing support to monitoring and enforcement activities.
b. assist by crafting effective sentencing strategies
c. imposition of conditions as part of their sentencing decisions provide the structure and tools
that community corrections needs to manage offenders successfully and promote offender
success in the community.
d. All of these

364. What could be the role of law enforcement in future corrections or community-based
corrections collaboration?
A. Monitoring and enforcement activities
B. Imposition of conditions as part of sentencing decisions
C. Ensures health safety standards
D. Crafting effective sentencing strategies

365. What is this early form of prison discipline that involved giving the same food that is “off”
diet, or requiring the prisoners to perform dowdy and boring daily routine?
a) Degradation
b) Starving
c) Deprivation
d) Monotony
366. A court order modifying the probation conditions or revoking probationer's probation
____.
A. Shall be appealable
B. Shall not be appealable
C. Cannot be revoked
D. Shall be appealable by imposable penalty only

367. What is the program of activity directed to restore a PDL’s self respect and sense of
responsibility to community, thereby making him/her a law-abiding citizen after serving his/her
sentence.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Reformation – amending or improving or changing inmate’s behavior
c. Restoration
d. Incapacitation

368. Which among the following is NOT included in the Therapeutic Community Beliefs?
a. Belief in the Higher power
b. Individual must take responsibility
c. Inherent goodness of man
d. No man is an island

369. A means of amending or improving by changing an inmate’s behavior or removing his or

her faults or abuse and removing or correcting an abuse of a wrong or error.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Reformation
c. Restoration
d. Incapacitation

370. A professional activity of helping individuals, groups or communities enhance or restore

their capacity for psychological, emotional and social functioning and creating an environment
favorable for the attainment of these goals.
A. Counseling
B. Therapeutic Community
C. Behavior Shaping Tools
D. Behavior management

371. Therapeutic Modality Program is an approach that focuses on _____ of behavioral skills,
attitudes and values, associated with socialized living of Persons Deprived of Liberty (PDL) in a
jail setting.
a. Learning and relearning
b. Enforcing and reinforcing
c. Healing and treatment
d. Rehabilitation and reshaping
372. Is an outright correction done by any member of the TC community to another member
who has done a minor infraction but is not aware of it.
A. TALK TO
B. PULL-UP
C. DEALT WITH
D. HAIRCUT

373. The Board of Claims was created to resolve applications for claims for compensation by
victims of unjust imprisonment, detention and victims of violent crimes is under what
department of the Government?
a. DOJ
b. CHR
c. Office of the President
d. DOH

374. It is a system of criminal justice which focuses on the rehabilitation of offenders through
reconciliation with victims and the community at large.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Restorative Justice
c. Criminal Justice System
d. Mediation

375. It is a community-based gathering that brings the victim, the victimized community, and
the offender together. It supports the healing process of the victims by providing a safe and
controlled setting for them to meet and speak with the offender on a confidential and strictly
voluntary basis.
a. Peacemaking Encounter
b. Victim Offender Mediation
c. Family Group Conferencing
d. Community Conferencing

376. This is provided to motivate a resident to make restitutions for the mistakes he
committed and redeem himself in the community.
a. Bans
b. General meeting
c. Learning
d. Expulsion

377. In the ideal setting, a resident at this stage is now ready to be released back to society as
he has demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic
Modality is being describe?
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment
c. Phase III- Pre-Entry – internalized the TC values, role model
d. Phase IV- Re-entry – dito ready na siya lumabas

378. Serves as safety valve within the community which is usually highly pressured and
structured.
a. Static Group
b. Peer Confrontation Group
c. Encounter group
d. Extended Group

379. It is the process where victims, offenders, and communities affected by a particular offense
meet to find a way to restore or make amends for the harm resulting from an offense.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Reformation
c. Restoration
d. Incapacitation

380. It is a positive environment for learning how to be accountable for one's choices in a
caring community where members can help themselves and each other make positive
changes.
a. Therapeutic Community
b. Behavior Management
c. Cognitive Aspect
d. Affective Aspect

381. Gwapito, a TC resident has internalized the TC values and concept and has given a lesser
supervision as he has proven his ability to take on more responsibility. In what phase of the
modality does he belong to?
A. Phase I
B. Phase II – to effect behavioral change
C. Phase III – Pre-reentry, aware na siya sa mga responsibilidad
D. Phase V

382. Implemented in progressive phases within the non-residential community-based setting

of the Parole & Probation Administration rehabilitation program for clients. This also
integrates the TC treatment modality with the probation/parole conditions.
a. Therapeutic Modality
b. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
c. Therapeutic Community Ladderized Program
d. PPA rehabilitation program

383. The conceptual and organizational lineage of the modern addiction TC began about 1909
with the ____ also known as the Buchmanites, the First Century Christians Fellowship, and
Moral Rearmament.
a. Qumran Community
b. Oxford Group Movement – tandan lang moral rearmament
c. Alcoholics Anonymous
d. Synanon

384. This was a residential drug treatment program that utilized confrontation and peer
pressure to encourage its members to deal with their addiction . It was founded by Charles E.
Dederich, a reformed alcoholic.
a. Qumran Community
b. Oxford Group Movement
c. Alcoholics Anonymous
d.Synanon – tandan ang confrontation and peer pressure

385. This is implemented by the Bureau of Jail and Management Penology to manage and
modify behaviors of PDL with the goal of positively changing their thinking and behavior
through structured group process.
a. Therapeutic Modality
b. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
c. Therapeutic Community Ladderized Program
d. BJMP rehabilitation program

386. This is the means used for enforcing community sanctions on behaviors that undermine
the safety and integrity of the community. E.g. violation of the cardinal rules.
a. Treatment Categories
b. Behavior Management Tools
c. Behavioral Shaping Tools
d. Behavior Reformation Tools

387. In the hierarchy of Behavior Shaping Tools (BST), this is the most severe punishment
imposed upon a client.
a. Banishment
b. General Meeting
c. Verbal Haircut
d. Talk to

388. The TC Cardinal Rules are important in maintaining the integrity of the community and in
fostering a safe environment. Which of the following is not among the Cardinal Rules.
a. No gambling
b. No violence or threat of violence
c. No sex or sexual acting out
d. No stealing

TC Cardinal Rules:
1. No sex or sexual acting out
2. No drugs/alcohol
3. No violence or threat of violence
4. No stealing

389. Which of the following is not among the five (5) treatment categories of the Therapeutic
Community?
a. Role Modelling
b. Relational/Behavior Management
c. Affective/Emotional-Psychological
d. Cognitive/Intellectual

PPA 5 distinct categories of activity that help promote the change:

1. Relational/Behavior Management
2. Affective/Emotional/Psychological
3. Cognitive/Intellectual
4. Spiritual
5. Psychomotor/Vocational-Survival Skills

390. It is at this stage that the probation officer should aim to create in client and his/her
family a mind-set of cooperation and support for the former’s rehabilitation program.
a. Preparatory Stage: Secure Commitment – Hindi pa siya phase, preparatory pa siya
b. Orientation: Build Foundation
c. Primary Treatment: Focus and Develop
d. Immersion: Internalize and Apply

391. Client is assimilated into the TC culture during this phase. He/she acquires understanding
of the program, the philosophy and beliefs of TC, his/her role in the Hierarchical Structure, and
the rules to be observed as a TC Family member.
a. Preparatory Stage: Secure Commitment
b.Orientation: Build Foundation – Phase I
c. Primary Treatment: Focus and Develop
d. Immersion: Internalize and Apply

392. During this Phase, clients apply their learnings from Phase II and are now internalizing the
TC precepts and beliefs. In the process, clients become mature and responsible, endeavoring
to fulfill their duties to their families and community.
a. Preparatory Stage: Secure Commitment
b.Orientation: Build Foundation
c. Primary Treatment: Focus and Develop
d. Immersion: Internalize and Apply – Phase III - aware na siya sa mga responsibilidad

393. It is in this phase that client is expected to consistently behave in a responsible manner
both in the family and in the community without the direct supervision of a Probation and
Parole Officer/SO.
a. Preparatory Stage: Secure Commitment
b. Orientation: Build Foundation
c. Primary Treatment: Focus and Develop
d. Integration: Live and Sustain – Phase IV (Last phase)

394. A type of behavioral shaping tools used on a “one on one” situation. The client who
committed a misdeed will be verbally reprimanded by someone from among his peers, elders
or staff.
a. Talk to
b. Spoken to
c. Dealt with
d. Pull-ups

395. A behavioral shaping tool that which is a formal admonition to a misbehavior. It is done
privately and formally by the staff or team leader. The circumstances are recorded in a file
folder and is done as in a manner of “one way communication.”
a. Talk to
b. Spoken to
c. Dealt with
d. Pull-ups

396. This is a serious and stern reprimand done by one senior member and two (2) peers. It
has no sanctions but demands for awareness and immediate change in behavior.
a. Talk to
b. Spoken to
c. Dealt with – kinompronta ka na ng isang senior member at dalawang kasamahan mo.
d. Pull-ups

397. This is given by peers, elders and staff when they do not know who the transgressor is. It
demands awareness and immediate behavior change from erring client.
a. Talk to
b. Spoken to
c. Dealt with
d. Pull-ups – ginagawa sa therapeutic community once na may nangyaring mali pero hindi alam
kung sino ang nagkasala.

398. This is a verbal reprimand through exaggeration and engrossment with an objective to
clarify issues through planned effective intervention.
a. Verbal haircut – dito sobrang seryoso na pag-intervene sayo ng mga residente, binibigyan ka
ng leksyon sa pamamagitan ng verbal reprimand. Planned and structured verbal reprimand.
b. Peer confrontation
c. Group encounter
d. General meeting

399. This is an avenue to express feelings, and resolve underlying issues or conflict.
a. Verbal haircut
b. Peer confrontation
c. Group encounter – nag-usap-usap kayong lahat, dito nilalabas ang mga hinanakit sa isa’t isa.
d. General meeting

400. It identifies the duties & responsibilities each member is expected to carry out in order
that the goals of the organization can be achieved.
a. TC Organizational Structure
b. TC Job Functions
c. TC Hierarchical Structure – hierarchical structure ang tawag, hindi naman kasi to
organisasyon.
d. TC Functional Structure

401. Through clients participation and performance in positive characteristics such as personal
habits, work habits, work relations and self management and work values are addressed and
reinforced.
a.TC organizational structure
b.TC job functions – ito ay mga partisipasyon ng mga residente ng TC sa mga iba’t ibang Gawain.
c. TC hierarchical structure
d.TC functional structure

402. To promote human and social transformation among ourselves and among our clients.
a.TC vision
b.TC mission
c. TC norms
d.TC essential elements

403. The resident is focused in creating a new lifestyle applying the tools and concept of TC.
A. Entry/Orientation phase
B. Primary Treatment – resident is handled gently and expected to commit mistakes.
C. Pre Entry Phase
D. Re-entry - preparing for his life outside the jail
E. After care – client is focused on the integration into society. Nakalabas na sa jail.

404. A BJMP TCMP Phase, wherein the resident is expected to have proven his ability to take
on more responsibility hence needs lesser supervision.
A. Entry/Orientation Phase
B. Primary Treatment
C. Pre Entry Phase
D. Re-Entry

405. A BJMP TCMP phase, wherein the resident is learning how to trust the environment by
disclosing self to the community and develop insight in the process.
A. Entry/Orientation Phase
B. Primary Treatment
C. Pre Entry Phase
D. Re-Entry

406. TCMP is under this BJMP Core Program –

a. E -Dalaw program
b. Help desk
c. Behavioral management program
d. Paralegal program

407. The program is in line with the government’s policy of providing timely and speedy access
to government service.
a. E-Dalaw program
b. Help desk
c. Behavioral management program
d. Paralegal program

408. TC Philosophy recital is an activity under –

A. Behavioral Management – Morning meeting, Haircut, Behavioral Management
B. Emotional/Psychological Aspect – Counseling
C. Intellectual/Spiritual Aspect
D. Vocational and Surival Aspect – Job Functions

409. A TC Hierarchy that serves as liaison between resident and staff.

A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

410. TC Hierarchy that is responsible for carrying-out tasks, duties and responsibilities of their
concerned departments.
A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

411. A TC Hierarchy that oversees the schedule of the day.

A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

412. A TC Hierarchy that communicates with department heads in execution of job functions.
A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

413. A TC Hierarchy that supervises the over-all functions of the department in the TC Facility.
A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

414. A Behavioral Shaping Tool involving a panel of three –

A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With - A panel of three (3) composed of a senior resident, peer and a friend are tasked
to deliver a serious and stern reprimand to the subjected resident.
D. Hair Cut

415. A Behavioral Shaping Tool involving a panel of five –

A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With
D. Hair Cut - It is a carefully planned and structured verbal reprimand given by a Staff with four
other residents - Senior Resident, Peer, Big Brother, and Department Head

416. A Behavioral Shaping Tool done as a result of lack, missed or lapses in awareness in a
resident. It encourages honesty, demeanor awareness and owning up to one’s mistakes.
A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With
D. Hair Cut

417. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense
are done for the third time or more or for first time grave offenses.
A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With
D. Hair Cut

418. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense
are done for the second time of same offense by a resident.
A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With
D. Hair Cut
419. It is an environment that helps people get help while helping others.
a. Therapeutic Community (TC)
b. Therapeutic Community Model (TCM)
c. Community Service
d. Literacy and Education

420. A component of Therapeutic Community Modality Program (TCMP) that introduces the
concept and mechanics of the various shaping tools to include Morning Meeting in order to
facilitate the management of and shape the behavior of the residents.
a. Behavioral Management
b. Behavior Shaping Tools
c. Therapeutic Community
d. Counseling

421. A permanent group of peers and leaders that meet regularly while the residents are in
treatment.
a. Static group
b. Peer confrontation group
c. Encounter group
d. Extended group

422. Group activity where participants are given the opportunity to unload emotional baggage
and thus experience freedom from internal psychological conflict.
a. Static Group
b. Peer Confrontation Group
c. Secrets
d. Encounter Group

423. It is known as a probe marathon and typically has 5 to 12 residents. It is conducted by 2

highly trained members.
A. Static Group
B. Peer Confrontation Group
C. Extended Group
D. Secrets

424. These are groups that have been chosen by the staff and are based on peers. For
example, adult members will enter the facility on the same day as middle-aged and younger
members.
A. Static Group
B. Peer Confrontation Group
C. Extended Group
D. Secrets
425. Also known as genuineness. It includes the act of being honest and authentic in dealing
with the client. It is showing real concern rather than focusing on techniques during sessions.
a. Warmth
b. respect
c. Congruence (Hindi plastikan)
d. Confidentiality

426. Refers to the ability to perceive the client’s feelings and to demonstrate accurate
perception of the client. It is putting oneself in the client’s shoes.
a. Counseling
b. Empathy
c. Congruence
d. Warmth

427. It is also known as unconditional positive regard. It involves accepting and caring about
the client as a person, regardless of any evaluation or prejudices on the client’s behavior or
thoughts.
a. Warmth
b. respect
c. Congruence
d. Confidentiality

428. Client is assimilated into the TC culture during this phase. He/she acquires understanding
of the program, the philosophy and beliefs of TC, his/her role in the Hierarchical Structure, and
the rules to be observed as a TC Family member.
a. Preparatory Stage: Secure Commitment
b. Orientation: Build Foundation
c. Primary Treatment: Focus and Develop
d. Immersion: Internalize and Apply

429. It is a daily ritual done for an hour that starts the day in a TC facility. It commences with
the Opening prayer, singing of the National Anthem, recitation of TC Philosophy and
announcements.
a. Pre-Morning Meeting – 15 minutes
b. Morning Meeting – 1 hour
c. Afternoon Meeting
d. Rituals

430. A meeting led by a senior member of the staff, usually the director of the facility. The
extent of the problem is assessed to determine who among the community members are
involved in the incident.
A. Morning Meeting
B. General Meeting
C. Pre-morning Meeting
D. Staff meeting

431. It holds that people have within themselves all the resources they need to live healthy and
functional lives, and that problems occur as a result of restricted or unavailable problem-solving
resources.
a. Humanistic Theories
b. Cognitive Approach - thinking
c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach

432. A behavior shaping tool characterized by a friendly reminder given by a superior member
and a peer to a young member conducted in a private and formal.
A. Talk To
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt With
D. Haircut

433. It is a ritualistic and highly structured verbal reprimand that is delivered by staff or peers.
A. Talk to
B. Pull Up
C. Dealt with
D. Haircut

434. It is also known as historical perspective. The techniques include free association, dream
analysis, and transference.
a. Humanistic Theories
b. Cognitive Approach
c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach

435. Any action or activity that reflects or brings out the goodness in a man.
A. Spirituality
B. Therapeutic Community Philosophy
C. Theme/Concept of the Day
D. Intellectual component

436. It is also known as person-centered therapy or Rogerian therapy. It is a non-directive form

of talk therapy. In this approach, the client act as an equal partner in the therapy process,
while the therapist remains non-directive meaning they pass judgment on your feelings or offer
suggestions or solutions.
a. client- centered therapy
b. existential therapy
c. gestalt therapy
d. cognitive approach
437. It is a form of psychotherapy that is centered on increasing a person’s awareness, freedom,
and self-direction. It focuses on the present moment rather than past experiences. It is based on
the idea that people are influenced by their present environment.
a. client- centered therapy
b. existential therapy
c. gestalt therapy
d. cognitive approach

438. It holds that knowledge is merely an invented understanding of actual events in the world.
While actual events in the world can trigger people’s meaning-making process, it is those
meaning-making processes, rather than the events themselves, that determine how people
think, feel and behave.
a. Humanistic Theories
b. Cognitive Approach
c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach

439. It focuses on free-will, self-determination, and the search for meaning, often centering on
the person rather than on the symptoms. The approach emphasizes the client’s capacity to
make rational choices and to develop to his/her maximum potential.
a. client- centered therapy
b. existential therapy
c. gestalt therapy
d. cognitive approach

440. This counseling theory focuses on how people’s thinking can change feelings and
behaviors. It is brief and oriented toward problem solving.
a. Humanistic Theories
b. Cognitive Approach
c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach

441. A form of counseling that views behaviors as choices. It states that psychological
symptoms occur not because of a mental health condition, but due to people choosing
behaviors to fulfill their needs.
a. acceptance and commitment therapy
b. reality therapy
c. cognitive behavior therapy
d. answer not given

442. It is a type of mindful psychotherapy that helps a person to stay focused on the present
moment and accept thoughts and feelings without judgment.
a. acceptance and commitment therapy
b. reality therapy
c. cognitive behavior therapy
d. answer not given

443. X appoints as Director General of BUCOR in 2021. What year ends his term?
A. 2025
B. 2026
C. 2027
D. 2028

444. Which prison system was designed to have 24-hour protection of each prisoner together
with in-cell feeding, work and sometimes vocational instructions?
A. Quaker
B. Penetentiary
C. Auburn
D. Pennsylvania

445. The Fort William Mc Kinley in Fort Bonifacio which was converted on June 30, 1968 to a
prison was intended to ____.
A. Incarcerate political prisoners and incorrigibles
B. House women prisoners who violated the law
C. Separate political offenders from other criminal offenders
D. Incarcerate offenders who violated military laws

446. The position of a City Jail Warden is occupied by an officer with a rank of _____.
A. Senior Jail Inspector
B. Jail Inspector
C. Chief Jail Inspector – Municipal Jail Warden kasama
D. Jail Superintendent – District Jail Warden

447. District Jails are under the supervision of _____.

A. Department of Interior and Local Government
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Provincial Jail
D. Bureau of Corrections

448. Under the Bureau of Corrections of 2013, those personnel who fails to qualify with the Civil
Service Commission Rule on Qualification Standards will be given ____ years to have elegibility
otherwise will be subjected to attrition system.
A. 10
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
449. In the classification of prisoners of the bureau of corrections, what are the categories of a
medium security?
I. Those inmates whose maximum is less than 20 years
II. Recidivist, habitual delinquents and escapes
III. Remanded inmates whose sentence are below 20 years
IV. Those under disciplinary punishment or safekeeping
A. I, III, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III
D. I, II, III

450. What conference should be undertaken after all the tests, interviews and examination has
been conducted to plan for the inmate program for treatment and training?
A. Admission
B. Treatment
C. Inmate
D. Staff

451. PDL who are members of the LGBT community maybe segregated from the general
population in terms of housing to _____.
A. Avoid incidents of homosexuality
B. Prevent potential mistreatments
C. Avoid the spread of sex diseases
D. Prevent transmission of gender expression

452. Which program promotes camaraderie among Persons Deprived of Liberty; encourage the
development of self-confidence and sharing of talents as forms of positive entertainment?
A. Cultural and sports
B. Welfare and development
C. Health services
D. Behavioral management

453. Which correction model emphasizes the maintenance and security and order through the
subordination of the prisoner to the authority of the warden?
A. Control
B. Rehabilitation
C. Custodial model
D. Responsibility

454. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment program best suited to the needs of the
individual prisoner, based on the findings of RDC.
A. treatment planning
B. Diagnostics
C. Execution of treatment Plan
D. Quarantine

455. Select the control measures that may be imposed against escape-prone inmates.
I. Put them in a secured quarter preferable single cell
II. Prevent them to have visitors and social contact
III. Monitor their conduct and actions regularly
IV. Search their quarters frequently including their body

A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

456. In dealing with unusual or special offenders they should not be held in jails or prison with
the common jails/prison population but instead they should be ____.
A. Release to the custody of the local government executives
B. Segregated with other institutions as their temporary detention houses
C. Detained under the care of the department of social work
D. Advise to avail of the privilege of probation from the court

457. As a matter of procedure, a youthful offender who cannot post bail from the time of his
arrest shall be committed to the care of the _____.
A. Department of interior and local government
B. Jail warden or his authorized representative
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. Local chief executive or the mayor

458. Which disciplinary sanctions can be imposed on inmates?

A. Payment of fees to the office of the warden
B. Forfeiture of salaries and wages earned
C. Cancellation of telephone calls
D. Cancellation of some or all recreational privilege

459. Whenever a riot or escape alarm is sounded by siren, bell or gunfire, all prisoners shall be
order to ______.
A. Kneel down with both hands raised in the air
B. Lie flat on the ground, face down and with arms and legs spread out of the body
C. Stop their movements and maintain their positions until being told otherwise
D. Sit down with both hand placed at the back of the neck

460. During inmates count all movements of inmates shall ______ until the count is
completed.
A. Form
B. Be at ease
C. Cease
D. Commence

461. In case of mass jail break all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
firearms and assigned to critical post to block the escape routes while the pursuing teams
should _____.
A. Get out of jail premises to recapture the escapes
B. Position themselves at the perimeter and use firearms as a last resort
C. Be contacted through fastest means and required to report for duty
D. Investigate the flaws in the implementation of the security plan

462. Under the United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, the
following practices shall be prohibited except:
A. Placement of a prisoner in a well-lighted cell
B. Corporal punishment or the reduction of a prisoner’s diet
C. Prolonged solitary confinement
D. Indefinite solitary confinement

463. What is the description of the United Nation Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment
of Prisoners about solitary confinement?
A. Confinement of prisoner for a period more than 15 consecutive days
B. Placement of instrument of restraint to any part of the body of the prisoner
C. Placement of prisoner in a dark or constantly lit cell
D. Confinement of prisoner for 22 hours or more a day without human contact

464. Every prisoner who is not employed in outdoor work shall have at least _____ hour of
suitable exercise in the open air daily if the weather permits.
A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. Three

465. The rationalization promotion system of the BJMP shall be based on ______.
A. Merit and on the availability of vacant ranks
B. Educational attainment and awards
C. Gender and leadership skills
D. Physical and psychological stability

466. The grant of good conduct time allowance should start on ____ following the effectivity of
RA 10152.
A. October 31, 2013
B. October 10, 2013
C. October 15, 2015
D. October 31, 2015
467. Who are disqualified for GCTA?
A. Those convicted of RA 9165
B. Those former police officer
C. Those who were cooperative
D. Those who violated the jail rules

468. The introduction of probation is the United States became successful because of the help
of _______.
A. Governor
B. Philanthropists
C. Religious Leaders
D. Judges

469. Select the law that did not amend certain provisions of PD 968.
A. RA 9165
B. RA 1990 – PD 1990 (Appeal and Probation are separate remedies)
C. RA 10707
D. RA 9344

470. From the date of conviction and sentence, when may an applicant for probation file the
application for probation?
A. Before 15 days
B. After 15 days
C. Within 15 days
D. On appeal

471. The application for probation shall be in the form approved by Secretary of Justice and it
may be obtained from any ______. (1000 stars)
A. City or provincial prosecutor’s office
B. City or Provincial Parole and Probation Office
C. City or regional police office
D. Municipal and regional trial court

472. What is the attribute of post-sentence investigation on the part of the court in giving a
decision whether to deny or grant probation?
A. Mandatory
B. Special
C. Optional
D. Supplemental

473. From the receipt of the order of the court to conduct the investigation, the probation
officer must submit the Post-Setence Investigation Report not later than ____ days.
A. 15
B. 45
C. 30
D. 60

474. Who shall assign the conduct of post-sentence investigation to an investigating probation
officer?
A. The Chief Probation and Parole Officer
B. The prosecutor
C. The trial court
D. The supervising probation and parole officer

475. The supervision activity of the Probation Officer to a probationer granted with probation
is basically considered as ______.
A. Judicial Function
B. Legal Process
C. Administrative Process
D. Police Function

476. When does the probation officer submit the termination report?
A. At least 30 days after the expiration of the period of probation
B. At least 10 days before the expiration of the period of probation
C. At least 15 days before the expiration of the period of probation
D. At least 30 days before the expiration of the period of probation

477. Manny, a probationer, wanted to travel outside his area of territorial jurisdiction for a
period of ten (10) days but not exceeding 30 days. The authority to allow Manny to travel may
come from ____.
A. The Trial Court Judge
B. The Probation Officer
C. The chief probation officer
D. The supervising probation officer

478. Who shall assess and recommend the appropriate treatment and supervision program
upon the applicant if granted probation?
A. The Supervising probation officer or the chief probation officer
B. The Investigating probation officer or the chief probation officer
C. The Trial court judge or the chief probation officer
D. The Trial court judge of the prosecuting officer

479. Who shall represent the state if there is a serious violence of probation condition(s)
during a hearing of proceeding?
A. Chief state prosecutor
B. Judge
C. Prosecuting officer
D. Secretary of justice

480. Once a serious violation of a probation condition has been established in the hearing, the
trial court may ______.
A. Revoke the probation and shall order the probation officer on case to submit the probation
administrative file to the court within 72 hours for safekeeping
B. Order the conduct of full blown investigation to determine the surrounding circumstances of
violation of probation and impose the necessary sanction to the probationer
C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s probation or modification of the probation
condition or revoke his probation whichever is proper and just under judicial discretion
D. Place the probationer on a watchlist in coordination with the probation officer to prevent him
from leaving the country or evade his sentence

481. Parole is different from probation in that the former is an administrative function while the
latter is a _____.
A. Judicial function
B. Police function
C. Operational function
D. Executive function

482. What are the eligibilities for review of a parole case?

I. Inmate is serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum of which exceeds 1 year
II. Inmate has served the minimum period of the indeterminate sentence
III. Inmate conviction is final and executory
IV. Inmate has no pending case
V. Inmate is serving sentence in the national penitentiary unless the confinement of said inmate
in municipal, city, district or provincial is justified

A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
C. II, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V

483. What system was developed by Sir Walter Crofton that allowed convicts to earn marks to
move from solitary confinement and return to the community on a conditional pardon?
A. Mark system
B. Parole system
C. Crofton system – Progressive Mark System
D. Indeterminate system

484. A prisoner shall released upon the grant of parole. What shall be the basis of the grant of
parole?
A. Prison record
B. Prison jacket
C. Release document
D. Parole document

485. Which is not a factor to be considered in reviewing a parole case? (1000 stars)
A. The waiver or undertaking that the prisoner will not commit any offense in the future
B. Evidence that the prisoner will be legitimately employed upon release or has a place to reside
C. Previous criminal record, if any, and the risks to other persons or possibility to retaliation
D. The degree of prisoner’s rehabilitation and his institutional behavior

486. Which should be done in case a parolee dies during supervision?

A. The PPO shall transmit a certified true copy of the death certificate of parolee to the board
recommending the closing of the case
B. The PPO shall initiate the conduct of investigation as to the cause of death and transmits its
findings to the trial court for reference
C. The probation officer shall inform the prosecutor in order to conduct the investigation as to
the cause of death of the parolee
D. The probation officer shall immediately notify the family of the parolee and the barangay
chairman for information and action

487. Identify the grant of forgiveness for a past criminal offense by a sovereign power, usually
for an offense committed against the government.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Rebellion

488. Which is not a limitation on the pardoning power of the President?

A. The power of the president to grant pardon is absolute
B. No favorable recommendation from the COMELEC on election offenses
C. On impeachment case
D. When the judgement is not yet final

489. Pardon is granted to individual offender while amnesty is granted to _____.

A. Classes of persons with the same political belief
B. Group of criminal organizations
C. Religious leaders
D. Members of the mafia

490. Which qualifications are to be met by an inmate for conditional pardon?

A. Has serve at least ¼ of the maximum of the original indeterminate and/or definite prison
term
B. Has serve at least 1/3 of the definite or aggregate prison terms
C. Has serve at least ½ of the maximum of the original indeterminate and/or definite prison
term
D. Has serve at least 1/5 of the determinate or aggregate prison term

491. Boyet, a minor, applied for probation after he was convicted and sentenced for
committing a crime. What shall be done by the court?
A. Turn over boyet to his parents for custody and monitoring
B. Turn over boyet to the barangay chairman for supervision
C. Commit boyet to juvenile holding facility or dormitory
D. Place boyet on probation in lieu of service of his sentence

492. Corrections officer 3 Simplicio will be promoted as Corrections officer 4 among the
following, who will be appoint him to the next rank?
A. President
B. DOJ secretary
C. Chief BJMP
D. Regional director

Note: Pag may Director General of BUCOR, yun ang piliin.

493. Probation started in ____ with the old practice of suspending judgement and releasing the
offender on his own recognizance with the promise not to commit any more crime.
A. England
B. America
C. Rome
D. Italy

494. Cardo Dalisay is convicted in Cebu in 2014 and Ramon convinces him to join the suicide
death squad. He is categorized as what group?
A. High profile inmate
B. High extremist group – walang ganito
C. Subversive group
D. Influential group – walang ganito

495. Who appointed the highest rank of non-commissioned officer of jail officer?
A. President
B. Regional Director, BJMP
C. Director General
D. Secretary of DOJ

496. When a person a probation officer settles cases at initial phase before onset of the
formal criminal proceeding. What process does probation officer is doing so?
A. Compromise
B. Intake
C. Work release
D. Amicable settlement
497. A person under the supervision of probationer officer shall report for how many times per
month?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Every week

Parole:
 To report to the probation office within 45 days
 To report at least once a month for those who are residing outside Metro Manila/ to report
at least twice a month for those who are residing within Metro Manila.

498. What is this rule on correction wherein the willingness to assume responsibility more or
less dignified for working straight with offenders?
A. Gatekeeper of opportunity
B. Correction volunteer
C. Social Persuader
D. Inmate peer groups in non-official basis

499. Correction superintendent is equivalent rank of _____.

A. Jail Superintendent – rank ang tinutukoy
B. Jail Director
C. Chief BJMP
D. Colony supervisor

500. Who is accountable to inform the probationer into the condition under probation and
those consequence if not comply?
A. Court of law – Judge of the Trial Court
B. Probation officer
C. Amicus curiae
D. Petitioner

501. If James Santos is sentenced to serve a prison of not over three years, what type of
prisoner is he?
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Insular prisoner
C. National prisoner
D. City prisoner

502. Which of the following is considered as the first amnesty granted to the people with
collaborate, to the Japanese during world war II?
A. Proclamation no. 52
B. Proclamation no. 72
C. Proclamation no. 87
D. Proclamation no. 51

503. The exemption of an individual, within certain limits or conditions from the punishment
which the law inflicts from the offense he has committed resulting into partial extinction of
criminal liability, which of these represents the statement?
A. Reprieve granted to suspend the death
B. Parole granted to Mr. Joenel
C. Probation granted to Mr. Eugenio
D. Conditional pardon granted to Mr. Jeric

504. What is this core values of the BJMP that concern on the willingness in sharing effort in
implementing plans and achieving goals?
A. Competence
B. Cooperation
C. Commitment
D. Courtesy

505. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that ____.
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy
B. No one must escape its effects
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance with the law

506. If based on the pre-parole investigation report conducted on the prisoner, there is clear
and convincing experience that his release on parole will endanger his own life and those of
his relatives or the life, safety and well-being of the victim, his relatives, his witnesses and the
community, the release of the prisoner should be ____.
A. Deferred until the danger ceases
B. Disapproved by the board
C. Referred to the office of the president for comment
D. Granted and placed on the witness protection program

507. As a matter of procedure, the fourth pillar of the criminal justice system, correction pillar,
takes over once the accused _____.
A. Has been delivered to the new bilibid prison
B. Received the order of the court
C. After having been found guilty, meted out the penalty for the crime he committed
D. Has been arrested by the police and has been investigated of the crime

508. When the San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm in Zamboanga City were established?
A. October 16, 1974
B. August 21, 1869
C. June 4, 1801
D. March 16, 1621

509. As per the organizational structure of the BUCOR and the given function of the office,
under what office the chief of the RDC directly reports?
A. The Director
B. The Deputy Director
C. The Head of The Technical Division
D. Secretary of Justice

510. Being the initial stop of every national male prisoner, the RDC greatly improved its
rehabilitative programs. By the adoption of the behavioral modification modality, a program for
drug dependents, the RDC was converted into a Therapeutic Community Camp on –
A. February 6, 2003
B. March 7, 2004
C. April 8, 2003
D. February 22, 1990

511. Which of the following records is not necessarily included in the carpeta of prisoners?
A. the prosecutor's information
B. the decisions of the trial court
C. certificate of non-appeal
D. the police investigation report

512. The Bilibid Prison was constructed as the main penitentiary in Oroquieta Street, Manila
and designed to house the prison population of the country. This prison became known as the
–
A. Bilibid Prison I
B. Correctional de bilibid
C. Manila National Prison
D. Carcel y Presidio Correccional

513. A prison model or theory which argues that an inmate’s mode of adaptation to prison is
influenced by factors external to the immediate context of the prisons, as well as the
immediate conditions of imprisonment. Which one of these?
A. Importation model
B. Exportation Model
C. Family Model
D. None of these

514. The Philippine Legislature during the American regime passed Act No. 1876 providing for
the establishment of a prison in _____. The prison was built for the prisoners of the province
and insular prisoners who were members of the non-Christian tribes of the Mountain
Provinces and Nueva Viscaya.
A. La Trinidad, Benguet
B. Tiger Hill, Ifugao
C. Baguio Jail and Prison
D. Bontoc, Mt. Province

515. Among the penal farms in the country, ____ is the largest operating institution under the
BuCor covering a total land area of more or less 28,000 hectares.
A. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
B. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm

516. The Board of Pardon and Parole may not consider the release on pardon/parole of a
national prisoner who is serving sentence in a municipal, city, district or provincial jail unless –
A. the confinement in said jail is in good faith or due to circumstances beyond the prisoner's
control
B. upon the request of the President
C. the prisoner is over 70 yrs of age
D. the jail which he is being committed is over crowded

517. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the board should refer the petition to the
probation and parole officer who should conduct and investigation within ____.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days

518. In case of an alien, the petition for executive clemency should be referred to the _____.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Department of justice
C. Department of Foreign Affairs
D. All of the above

Follow-up:
An alien parolee turned over for disposition, documentation and appropriate order , which
agency shall accept him for this matter?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation

519. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be referred by the Board to the
____ for comment and recommendation if the crime committed by the petitioner is against
national security or public orders or laws of the nations.
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief Executive
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Director of Bureau of Corrections

520. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of sentence are not eligible for executive
clemency for a period of ____ from the date of their last recommitment to prison or conviction
for evasion of service of sentence.
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months

521. The Bureau of Corrections has a classification board that classifies inmates according to its
manual of operation. The chairman of this classification board is the ______.
A. Superintendent
B. Chief of RDC
C. Medical officer
D. Chief of custodial force

522. Those inmates who have 2 or more records of escapes but they have served 8 years since
they recommitted should be classified as ______.
A. Maximum security prisoners
B. Medium security prisoners
C. Minimum security prisoners
D. Unclassified incorrigibles

523. Pancho Makalintal a convict whose application for probation has been granted but fails to
report to the proper probation officer within 72 hours upon receipt of notice or a probationer
whose whereabouts cannot be determined for more than a month.
A. Fugitive from justice
B. Absconding probationer
C. Wanted person
D. Absconding petitioner

524. Which of this team has this duties and responsibilities of escorting high ranking/key
officers and other dignitaries of state?
A. Greyhound Force
B. Quick Response Team (QRT)
C. Special Tactics and Response (STAR) Team
C. Crisis Management Group

525. After release, from prison, when does a parolee present himself to the Parole and
Probation Officer?
A. At least three weeks from release
B. Within the period prescribed in the Release Document (Initial Report tawag dito)
C. At least one month from release
D. Within three weeks from release

Note:
If within forty five (45) days from the date of release from prison or jail, the parolee/pardonee
concerned still fails to report, the Probation and Parole Officer shall inform the Board of such
failure, for appropriate action.

526. This is an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the jurisdiction of the
court.
A. Initial Investigation
B. Post Sentence Investigation Report
C. Courtesy Investigation Report
D. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report

527. A Probation Officer may authorize to travel outside his area of operational or territorial
jurisdiction for a period of
A. More than 30 days within a period of 6 months
B. More than 10 days but not exceeding 30 days
C. More than 30 days but not exceed 60 days
D. Not more than 10 days

528. What is being refers to the Jail Bureau’s aims to enhance public safety by providing
humane safekeeping and development of inmates in all district, city and municipal jails?
A. Mission
B. Powers
C. Vision
D. Mandate

529. Under the progressive development where it focused on re-education rather than the
imposition of punitive measure.
A. Domets of France
B. Auburn System
C. Borstal Institution
D. Elmira Reformatory

530. In the history of Correctional Institution, if Xian Lim is one of the 2 million prisoners who
has been tortured and slaughtered in a known prison in Poland, what prison institution would
that be?
A. Bastille Prison
B. Sachsenhausen Prison
C. Auschwitz Prison
D. Insein prison
531. Failure to report for work detail without sufficient justification.
A. Minor Offense
B. Allowed in the Jail
C. Grave Offenses
D. Less Grave Offenses

532. Mr. Trilly has been imprisoned for almost 5 years, until then he was not given a chance to
avail the good conduct time allowance due to his negative performance in the correctional
institution. If given a chance and if he will display good behavior for a three consecutive
months, how many days will be deducted from his penalty?
A. 23 days
B. 25 days
C. 69 days – 23 X 3
D.75 days

533. What is this process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for
assigning them to programs according to their existing resources?
A. Diversification
B. Classification
C. Quarantine
D. Quality Control

534. This code punishes offenders to hard labor of four years to life. Fortunate prisoners
sentenced to hard labor were destined to the factories or construction of fortresses. Sentences
to labor in the mines were the unluckiest of the destinations.
A. Code of Hammurabi
B. Justinian Code
C. King Ur-Nammu’s Code
D. Penal Code of Russia

535. The following category of prisoners shall not be considered for conditional pardon ,
EXCEPT:
A. The petitioner is eligible for parole
B. The petitioner had been sentenced to another prison within 1 year from the date of his last
recommitment to the jail
C. The prisoner is suffering from mental illness
D. At least two (2) years of the minimum sentenced if convicted of murder or parricide but not
sentenced to reclusion perpetua

536. The Chief BJMP is retiring by 2019. His successor will assume office by the time the
position will be vacant. In this instance, who will endorse the Director as the next Chief BJMP?
A. Secretary of the DILG - siya ang nag-endorse o nagrecommend
B. Chairman of the Civil Service Commission
C. President
D. Secretary of DOJ

537. When was the establishment of the Iwahig Penal Colony of Palawan with 16 prisoners
sailed for Palawan to start building the colony thereat on orders for Gov. Forbes.
A. November 15, 1904
B. November 17, 1904
C. November 14, 1904
D. November 16, 1904

538. Selling or bartering with fellow inmate(s) those items not classified as contraband.
A. Grave offenses
B. Minor offenses
C. Allowed in the jail
D. Less grave offenses

539. This unit examines the completeness and authenticity of the requirements for
Commitment (Commitment Order, Booking Sheet, Arrest Report and Information) before it
refers the inmate for physical examination by the Health Unit.
A. Property Custodian - Checks the inmate’s belongings for presence of contraband. Discovery
of any contraband shall be treated in accordance with existing policies.
B. Health Unit
C. Desk Officer - books the newly committed inmate in the jail blotter; assigns the inmate to a
reception area
D. Records Unit

540. Suficar Alibutu had served his term of sentence and had been released and while being
released, he didn’t commit any other offense and totally renewed his life as a law abiding
citizen of the community. What is the idea behind this scenario would refer?
A. Reformation – amending or improving by changing inmate’s behavior
B. Positive Changes
C. Rehabilitation - a program of activity directed to restore an inmate’s self-respect and sense of
responsibility to the community, thereby making him/her a law-abiding citizen after serving
his/her sentence.
D. Renewal

541. Who will be responsible in taking measure to abate the tension in tail in the event of
crisis situations until the intervention of crisis response authorities?
A. Quick Response Team (QRT)
B. Special Tactics and Response (STAR) team
C. Crisis Management Group
D. National Inmates’ Monitoring System
542. Two are the most closely associated with the founding of the probation _____, an 18th
century English barrister and judge, and John Augustus, a 19th Century Boston boot-maker.
A. John Howard
B. Matthew Davenport Hill
C. None of the above
D. Edward Savage

543. Considered as the special form of pardon exercised by the President.

A. Reprieve
B. Amnesty
C. Pardon
D. Commutation

544. When an individual cannot move on to the pain he suffered cause by his aggressor and
goes back to a primitive justification of punishment by putting the law into his own hand. What
justification of punishment would this be?
A. Reformation
B. Deterrence
C. Expiation
D. Retribution

545. This is the seed of Auburn Prison System of the United States wherein rehabilitative
concept and pioneered segregation of prisoners and force silence to make prisoners
contemplate their wrongdoings.
A. Connecticut State Prison
B. St. Michael Prison
C. Sing Sing Prison
D. Maine State Prison

547. Maryann Quijano is a Dentist inside the penitentiary. Based on RA 10575, what type of
Corrections Officer does she belong?
A. Admin’s Officer
B. Reformation’s Officer
C. Custodial Officer
D. Engineering’s Officer

548. Penology is the broader part of __________.

A. Correctional administration
B. Penology
C. Criminology
D. None

549. When these rights are already being enjoyed by the citizens by the transformation of the
social, economic and political order.
a. Positivization
b. Realization
c. Idealization
d. Restitution

550. It is an agency mandated to direct, supervise, and control the administration and
operation of all district jails nationwide.
a. BJMP
b. BUCOR
c. PPA
d. DOJ