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Junior Science NCO
Junior Science NCO
Junior Science NCO
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 12
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections: 10
questions in section I, 10 in section II and 30 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers, Linear Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry,
SOF Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic
Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics & Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks,
Shares and Debentures, Average and Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants,
Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and nonverbal reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Programming in C++, Database Concepts, SQL, Boolean
Algebra, Networking & Topologies, Network Security Concepts, Cyber ethics, Viruses and Antiviruses,
Open Source Terminologies.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 20 questions
in section I and 30 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mathematics) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers, Linear Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry,
Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic
Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics & Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks,
Shares and Debentures, Average and Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants,
Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus, Verbal and Nonverbal Reasoning.
OR
Section – I (Biology) : Reproduction, Genetics and Evolution, Biology in Human Welfare, Bio-
technology, Ecology.
Section – II (Physics & Chemistry) : Physics: Electricity and Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction,
AC, E.M. Waves, Optics, Modern Physics, Solids & Semiconductor Devices, Communication Systems.
Chemistry: Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General
Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements (Group 15 to 18), d- & f-
Block Elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and
Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in
Everyday Life.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections, 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section I : Logical Reasoning, Section II : Mathematical Reasoning & Section III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
SOF Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms, Complex Numbers, Linear
Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular
Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Permutations and
Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics
& Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks, Shares and Debentures, Average and
Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants, Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral
Calculus, Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning.
IN ASSOCIATION WITH
OPEN SYLLABUS
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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
3(log x )2 +log ( x )- 5
2 2
1. The equation x4 = 2 has 4
(A) Atleast one real solution (B) Exactly four real solutions
(C) Exactly two irrational solutions (D) Complex roots
1 1 1
2. The roots of the equation x 3 + ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are p, q and r. The equation with roots are , ,
p q r is
(A) x 4 + ax 2 + b = 0 (B) bx 4 + ax 2 + 1 = 0
(C) (x2 + ax + b)2 = 0 (D) None of these
1
3.
p
Find Lim tan + x
x ®0 4 { ( )} x
5. If the function f (x) increases in the interval (a, b) then the function f( x ) = [f ( x )]2
(A) Increases in (a, b) (B) Decreases in (a, b)
(C) We cannot say that f(x) increases or decreases in (a, b)
(D) All of these
x
ò log t dt
a
6. Lim x
is equal to
cos p dt
x ®1
a ò 2t
(A) p / 2 (B) 0 (C) 2 / p (D) Does not exist
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
7. In a group of persons working in a software company, 6 persons can operate on DOS, 15 can operate on
windows operating system and 6 can operate on Linux. In that group none can operate on any other
operating system. If 2 persons in the group can work on two operating systems and one person can work
on all the three, then how many persons are there in the group?
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
8. Four persons Alok, Bhupesh, Chandu and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and
Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chandu and Dinesh between them but Alok has more
money than Bhupesh, and Chandu has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more
than Dinesh. Who has the most money?
(A) Alok (B) Bhupesh (C) Chandu (D) Dinesh
9. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that
order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What
is the integer assigned to N ?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
10. Which one of the following four logical diagrams represents correctly the relationship between musicians,
instrumentalists and violinists?
11. Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3. When there is storm,
Y is blocked. When there are floods X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked. At
a time when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used ?
(A) Z and 2 (B) Only Z (C) Only 3 (D) Only Y
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Class 12
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12. Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it should be testable and that it should be stated in
a manner that it can be refuted. Which one of the following hypothesis, fulfills these characteristics?
(A) Intelligent persons have good memory (B) Some birds are animals
(C) Some businessmen are dishonest (D) All men are mortal
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MATHEMATICS
1. A large watermelon weighs 20 kg with 98% of its weight being water. It is left to stand in the sun and some
of the water evaporates so that now only 95% of its weight is water. What is its reduced weight?
(A) 17 kg (B) 19.4 kg (C) 10 kg (D) 8 kg
2. Four bags were to be weighed but the scale could weigh only weights in excess of 100 kg. If the bags were
weighed in pairs and the weights were found to be 103, 105, 106, 107 and 109, then the weight of the
lightest bag is
(A) 50 kg (B) 51 kg (C) 49 kg (D) 52 kg
3. A plane flies from A to B and back again with a constant engine speed. Turnaround time may be neglected. Will
the travel time be more with a wind of constant speed blowing in the direction from A to B than in still air?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Depends on the engine (D) Insufficient data
4. Given four points in space which are not in a plane, the number of planes which are equidistant from all the
four points is
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
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OR
BIOLOGY
1. Gametophytic self incompatibility differs from sporophytic self incompatibility in that
(A) It allows germination of pollens
(B) It occurs due to incompatibility of stigma
(C) It occurs due to incompatibility of sporophytic tissues
(D) It occurs due to incompatibility of pollens.
2. XOchromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
(A) Turner’s syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) None of these.
3. The best definition of an ecosystem is
(A) The interrelationship between producers, consumers and decomposers of an environment
(B) A stable coexistence of dominant species in an environment
(C) A natural unit including plants, animals and nonliving constituent of the environment
(D) A number of population of organisms of different species
4. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is
(A) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(B) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(C) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(D) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics.
PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
5. A metal x is prepared by the electrolysis of fused chlorides. It reacts with hydrogen to form a colourless
solid from which hydrogen is released on treatment with water. The metal is
(A) Al (B) Ca (C) Cu (D) Zn
6. Mortar is a mixture of
(A) Ca(OH)2, Silica and Water (B) CaCO3 and SiO2
(C) CaO and Silica (D) CaCO3, SiO2 and Water
7. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refractive index m, the angle of incidence is found to be
twice the angle of refraction. Then the angle of incidence is
(A) cos–1 (m/2) (B) 2cos–1 (m/2) (C) 2sin–1 m (D) 2sin–1(m/2)
8. What causes the tail of the comet?
(A) Centrifugal force pushes away the gases (B) Lighter gases are left behind during the orbital motion
(C) Tail of comet always exists but becomes visible near the sun.
(D) The radiation pressure from the sun causes the tail
9. A ray of light in a liquid of refractive index 1.4, approaches the boundary surface between the liquid and air
at an angle of incidence whose sine is 0.8. Which of the following statements is correct about the behavior
of the light ?
(A) It is impossible to predict the behavior of the light ray on the basis of the information supplied
(B) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be less than 0.8
(C) The ray will be internally reflected
(D) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be greater than 0.8
V =30V V 2=20V
10. For the circuit shown in figure, which of the following statements is true? S1 1 S3 S2
+ – + –
(A) With S1 closed, V1 = 15 V, V2 = 20 V
(B) With S3 closed, V1 = V2 = 25 V C1=2pF C2=3pF
CH 3 CH 3
11. The IUPAC name of CH – CH 2 – C – CH 2 – CH is
CH 3 CH 3
O
(A) 2,4dimethylhexanone3 (B) 2,6dimethylheptanone4
(C) 2,6dimethylhexanone4 (D) 2,6dimethylheptanone5
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Class 12
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SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. The “Golden Rectangle” of the ancient Greeks was considered to have the most pleasing proportion of any
rectangle. The ratio of width (w) to height (h) of the rectangle is expressed in the following proportion and
is shown in the drawing below. w
w 2 h
=
h 5 -1
Jason is planning to paint a rectangular mural using the proportions of the “Golden Rectangle.” If the mural
is 15 meters wide, how high should it be?
(A) 1.6 meters (B) 9.3 meters (C) 16.5 meters (D) 24.2 meters
2. The given table shows the boiling points in degrees Celsius for BOILING POINTS OF SOME ELEMENTS
some different elements.Which of the following elements have Element Boiling Point (in °C)
boiling points that are lower than –190°C ? Chlorine – 34.6
(A) Chlorine and Oxygen Helium – 269.0
Hydrogen – 252.9
(B) Oxygen and nitrogen
Nitrogen – 195.8
(C) Chlorine, helium, and hydrogen
Oxygen – 183.0
(D) Helium, hydrogen, and nitrogen
t
æ 1 ö 300 ,
3. A certain radioactive element decays over time according to the equation y = A è ø where A = the
2
number of grams present initially and t = time in years. If 1000 grams were present initially, how many
grams will remain after 900 years?
(A) 500 grams (B) 250 grams (C) 125 grams (D) 62.5 grams
4
4. Which is the first incorrect step in simplifying log4 ?
64
Step 1: log4 4 = log4 4 - log4 64 Step 2 : = 1 – 16 Step 3 : = – 15
64
(A) Step 1 (B) Step 2 (C) Step 3 (D) Each step is correct
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. Which expression represents f(g(x)) if f (x) = x2 – 1 and g(x) = x + 3?
(A) x3 + 3x2 – x – 3 (B) x2 + 6x + 8 (C) x2 + x + 2 (D) x2 + 8
6. From a deck of card two are drawn. The probability that both are of same suit is
1 1 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 13 17 17
x 2 - 16
7. On a recent test, Jyoti wrote the equation = x + 4. Which of the following statements is correct
x-4
about the equation she wrote?
(A) The equation is always true (B) The equation is always true, except when x = 4
(C) The equation is never true (D) The equation is sometimes true when x = 4
8. If x is a real number, which best describes the values of x for which the inequality x > 0 is true?
(A) All x > 0 (B) All x ³ 0 (C) All values of x (D) No values of x
9. If the equation y = 2x is graphed, which of the following values of x would produce a point closest to the xaxis?
(A) 1/4 (B) 3/4 (C) 5/3 (D) 8/3
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2 2
æ xö æ yö
10. The graph of è ø - ç ÷ = 1 is a hyperbola. Which set of equations represents the asymptotes of the
2 è 3ø
hyperbola’s graph ?
3 3 3 2
(A) y = x, y = - x (B) y = x, y = - x
2 2 2 3
1 1 1 1
(C) y = x, y = - x (D) y = x, y = - x
2 2 3 3
Y
11. What system of inequalities best represents the graph shown? 5
4
3
(A) y > – 2 and y > x + 1 (B) y > – 2 and y < x + 1 2
1
x
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 00 2 3 4 5
–1
(C) y < – 2 and y > x + 1 (D) y < – 2 and y < x + 1 –2
–3
–4
–5
p/3
sin x k
12. If ò dx = then value of k equals
p/6
cos x + sin x 4
(A) p/12 (B) p/3 (C) p/2 (D) p/7
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Mrs. Ballad decided to apply wallpaper on one wall of her living room.
A diagram of the rectangular wall with its window is shown.
8 ft 4 ft window
A roll of wallpaper covers approximately 30 square feet. What is the
minimum number of rolls she will have to buy in order to cover the 8 ft
entire wall excluding the window? 24 ft
(A) 2 rolls (B) 5 rolls (C) 6 rolls (D) 7 rolls
14. A box contains 7 large red marbles, 5 large yellow marbles, 3 small red marbles, and 5 small yellow
marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is yellow, given that it is one of the
large marbles?
(A) 5/12 (B) 7/20 (C) 5/8 (D) 1/5
15. A restaurant manager bought 20 packages of bagels. Some packages contained 6 bagels each, and the
rest contained 12 bagels each. There were 168 bagels in all. How many packages of 12 bagels did the
manager buy?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 12
E SOF
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4. More traffic and faster vehicles mean that, __________ safe and reliable a car may be, its driver has
to have more driving skill than ever before.
(A) though (B) however (C) also (D) always
5. Today’s drivers cannot neglect their own direct and personal_________ for the accidents that happen
on the road every year.
(A) responsibility (B) risks (C) dangers (D) well being
6. A good driver has many things in his makeup. Some of ________, such as experience and skill, will
come only in time.
(A) them (B) that (C) this (D) it
7. But othersjust as importantmust _____ part of him from the start.
(A) Get (B) form (C) being (D) of
8. These qualities are a ___________ of responsibility for the safety of others.
(A) seeing (B) sense (C) felt (D) being
9. And a determination to ________ on the job of driving, patience and courtesy.
(A) Aim (B) focus (C) think (D) succeed
10. Together, these become what is generally known ________ the driver’s attitude.
(A) All (B) of (C) as (D) has
READING
C. For each sentence match one half of the sentence with the second half of the sentence from
AD.
11. Hardly had he put the phone down.....
12. At no time in my life.......
13. Under no circumstances.....
14. Little did I realise ........
(A) that the teachers were watching me.
(B) when he heard the sound of the fire engines.
(C) have I taken something that didn’t belong to me.
(D) would I not protect a friend who was accused unfairly.
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Class 12
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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET
1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International M athematics International English
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) MATHEMATICS Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A)
7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A)
10.(A) 11. (C) 12. (A) BIOLOGY, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B)
13.(D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D)
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (D) 11. (B)
8
Class 12
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CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 11
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections : 10
questions in section I, 10 in section II and 30 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series
SOF (A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and
Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial
Theorem, Statistics, Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and Non-verbal Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : History, Generation and Types of Computers, Working with OS,
Input, Output & Memory Devices, Data Representation, Basics of IT, Internet Services and Protocols,
Introduction to XML, Networking, Viruses and Antiviruses, Introduction to C++ till Data Structures.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 20 questions
in section I and 30 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mathematics) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series
SOF
(A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and
Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial
Theorem, Statistics, Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry, Verbal and
Non-Verbal Reasoning.
OR
Section – I (Biology) : Diversity in the Living World, Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals,
Cell : Structure and Functions, Plant Physiology, Human Physiology.
Section – II (Physics & Chemistry) : Physics: Units & Measurements, Mechanics, Properties of
Matter, Heat & Thermodynamics, Oscillations, Waves.
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, Thermodynamics,
Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Groups 13 and
14), Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections, 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section I : Logical Reasoning, Section II : Mathematical Reasoning & Section III : Everyday
Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms, Complex Numbers & Quadratic
SOF
Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series (A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry,
Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Statistics,
Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry, Problems Based on Figures,
Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical
Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.
IN ASSOCIATION WITH
OPEN SYLLABUS
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. The points z1, z2, z3, on the complex plane are the vertices of an equilateral triangle if and only if :
2
(A) å (z1 - z2 ) ( z2 - z3 ) = 0 (B) åz
1 = 2å z1z2
2
(C) åz 1 = 4å z1z2 (D) ( z1 + z2 + z3 )2 = 3å z1z2
2. A student is allowed to select atmost n books from a collection of (2n + 1) books. If the total number of
ways in which he can select atleast 1 book is 63, find the value of n.
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
3. c1 is a fixed circle and c2 is a variable circle with fixed radius. The common transverse tangents to c1 and
c2 are perpendicular to each other. The locus of the centre of variable circle is
(A) Circle (B) Ellipse
(C) Hyperbola (D) Parabola
7. Which letter will be the sixth to the left of the nineteenth letter from the right end of the following alphabets?
ABC D EFG H IJ K LMN O PQ R STU VW XYZ
(A) N (B) M (C) Y (D) F
8. Bablu ranked sixteenth from the top and twentyninth from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in the examination. How many
boys were there in that class?
(A) 44 (B) 50 (C) 55 (D) 40
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MATHEMATICS
1. A man moving on a parabolic path finds the angle of elevation of a pole, standing on the focus of path,
to be 75°. If the directrix of path is at a distance of 7 metres from him then height of pole is
(2 + 3 ) (2 - 3 )
(A) (14 + 7 3) m (B) m (C) (14 - 7 3 ) m (D) m
7 7
2. Three ladies have each brought a child for admission to a school. The head of the school wishes to
interview the six people one by one, taking care that no child is interviewed before its mother. The
number of ways of doing this is
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) 90
3. A refrigerator is offered for sale at Rs. 250.00 with successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The sale price
of the refrigerator is
(A) 35% less than Rs. 250.00 (B) 65% of Rs. 250.00
(C) 77% of Rs. 250.00 (D) 68% of Rs. 250.00
4. The number of revolutions of a wheel, with fixed centre and with an outside diameter of 6 m, required to
cause a point on the rim to go one km is
(A) 880 (B) 440/p (C) 500/3p (D) 440 p
OR
BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following statements are true for photosynthetic bacteria (PB) and chemosynthetic bacteria
(CB)?
(a) obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic molecule such as ammonium salt
(b) obtain energy from sunlight (c) contain photosynthetic pigments
(d) are autotrophs.
(A) PB b, c, d ; CB a, d (B) PB a, c ; CB b, d
(C) PB b, d ; CB a, b (D) PB a, b, c ; CB b, c, d
7. A boy throws a table tennis ball of mass 20 g upwards with a velocity of u0 = 10 m/s at an angle q0 with
the vertical. The wind imparts a horizontal force of 0.08 N, so that the ball returns to the starting point.
Then, the angle q0 must be such that, tan q0 is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 2.5 (D) 1.2
8. A weight is attached to the free end of a sonometer wire. It gives resonance at a length 40 cm when it is
resonanced with a tuning fork of frequency 51Hz. The weight is then immersed wholly in water, the
resonant length is reduced to 30 cm. The relative density in which weight suspended is
(A) 16/9 (B) 16/7 (C) 16/5 (D) 16/3
9. A tank of water has a pinhole leak in the side, 1 m below the water line. If the tank is open to the
atmosphere (air pressure = 1.013 × 105 pa), how fast is the water leaving the pinhole ?
(A) g / 4 (B) g / 0.1 (C) 2g (D) g
10. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas expands till its temperature doubles under the process V2T =
constant. If the initial temperature is 400 K, the work done by the gas is
(A) 400 R (B) 200 R (C) – 200 R (D) Indeterminate
11. In the reaction,
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion :
(A) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (B) 2.0 mole of NO will be produced
(C) All the oxygen will be consumed (D) All the ammonia will be consumed
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. Tony and Sunil are participating in a jogathon to raise money for charity. Tony will raise Rs. 20, plus Rs. 2 for
each lap he jogs. Sunil will raise Rs. 30, plus Rs.1.50 for each lap he jogs. The total amount of money each
will raise can be calculated using the follwing expressions where n represents the number of laps run :
Tony : 20 + 2n ; Sunil : 30 + 1.50n
After how many laps will they have raised the same amount of money?
(A) 3 (B) 6.5 (C) 14.5 (D) 20
mx + my
2. A formula for computing a value r is r = , where m, x, y, w and z are positive integers. An
wz
increase in which variable would result in a corresponding decrease in r ?
(A) m (B) x (C) y (D) z
3. The Venn diagram below shows the types of novels the literature club Literature Club Summer Reading
members read during their summer break. Adventure Romance
Which of the following is NOT supported by the information in the Venn
diagram? 36 14 43
7
(A) 21 members read both an adventure novel and a romance novel 2 3
(B) 64 members read only an adventure novel or a mystery novel 28
(C) 26 members read all three types of novels
Mystery
(D) 67 members read a romance novel
4. A guitar manufacturer uses a computercontrolled machine to make electric Hours Total Number of
guitars. The table shows the total number of guitars made after 2, 4, 8 and 16 (h ) Guitars Made
( g)
hours. If g represents the total number of guitars made after h hours, which
2 18
equation represents the pattern shown in the table?
4 42
(A) g = 12h – 6 (B) g = 12h 8 90
(C) g = 3h2 – 6 (D) g = 3h2 + 6 16 186
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. What is the solution to the system of equations shown below?
ì2 x - y + 3 z = 8
ï
íx - 6 y - z = 0
ï -6 x + 3 y - 9 z = 24
î
æ 10 ö
(A) (0, 4, 4) (B) ç 1, 4, ÷ (C) No solution (D) Infinitely many solutions
è 3ø
6. What is the nth term in the arithmetic series below?
3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 .....
(A) 4n (B) 3 + 4n (C) 2n + 1 (D) 4n – 1
7. A train is made up of a locomotive, 7 different cars, and a caboose. If the locomotive must be first, and
the caboose must be last, how many different ways can the train be ordered?
(A) 5040 (B) 181,440 (C) 362,880 (D) 823,543
p
8. If A + B = then value of (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B) equals
4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) –2 (D) –1
9. What are the coordinates of the image of point P(–3, –7) after a reflection about the line y = 2?
(A) (– 3, 9) (B) (– 3, 11) (C) (5, – 7) (D) (7, – 7)
y
10. Look at this function 3
As the value of x increases, the yvalues form a repeating pattern. 2
If this pattern continues, what is the yvalue when x = 26? 1
–1 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x
(A) – 2 (B) – 1
–2
(C) 1 (D) 2 –3
12. The sum of three consecutive odd integers is 21. If x is the least of these odd integers, which equation
must be true?
(A) 3x = 21 (B) 3x + 3 = 21 (C) 3x + 4 = 21 (D) 3x + 6 = 21
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
Giant Wheel
13. Julie works at the amusement park with the maintenance crew. She needs to replace
a string of burnedout lights along the arc shown between seat 1 and seat 6. The arc
makes up 1/4 of the Giant Wheel. Seat 6
The 20 seats of the wheel are equally spaced, and the supports from the centre of 15 feet
the wheel to each seat are 15 feet in length. How long, to the nearest foot, does the
string of replacement lights need to be? Seat 1
(A) 24 feet (B) 30 feet (C) 47 feet (D) 90 feet
14. The typical wingspan of the little blue heron is 4 inches more than half the typical wingspan of the great
blue heron. If g represents the typical wingspan of the great blue heron, which expression represents the
typical wingspan of the little blue heron?
æ1 ö 1 1
(A) 4 çè g ÷ø (B) g+4 (C) 2g + 4 (D) (g + 4)
2 2 2
15. This diagram shows the angle of inclination of the triangular faces of the Great
Pyramid in Egypt.
When it was built, the length of each side of the square base was 230 meters. h
Which equation represents the height, h, of the Great Pyramid when it was built? 52°
(A) h = 115 sin 52° (B) h = 115 tan 52°
115 115
(C) h = (D) h = 230 m
sin52° tan52°
E SOF
11. Which European country has the least no. of teens on Facebook?
(A) India (B) USA (C) Japan (D) Germany
12. Which country follows India closely?
(A) Japan (B) USA (C) Germany (D) None of them
13. Japan and Germany put together have more teens on the Facebook than India.
(A) True (B) False (C) Cannot say (D) Partly true
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) MATHEMATICS Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B)
4. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C)
BIOLOGY, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (B)
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D)
13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C)
10. (C) 11. (C)
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 10
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two
Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry, Introduction
SOF
to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related to Circles,
Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and Non-verbal Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Basics of IT, Operating System, Word Processing Tool, Networking,
Multimedia, MS-Power Point, HTML, Internet, MS-Excel, Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices,
Memory & Storage Devices.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 15 questions
in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two
Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry, Introduction
SOF to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related to Circles,
Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability, Direction Sense Test, Mathematical operations,
Number Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Coding-Decoding, Distance, Speed, Time and General
Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Science) : Chemical Reactions and Equations, Acids, Bases and Salts, Metals and
Non-metals, Carbon and its Compounds, Periodic Classification of Elements, Life Processes, Reproduction
in Organisms, Heredity and Evolution, Light-Reflection and Refraction, Human Eye and Colourful
World, Electricity, Magnetic Effects of Electric Current, Sources of Energy, Our Environment and its
Management.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections: 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Direction Sense Test, Mathematical Operations, Number
SOF
Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Coding-Decoding, Distance, Speed, Time and General Reasoning
Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry,
Introduction to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related
to Circles, Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.
The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Concord, Question forms, Tenses, Conditionals,
Modals, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones, Words related to weather,
Countries, Language and people, Global problems, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like Encyclopedias,
Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format, Message format
and others , Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in longer texts
like editorials, Essays, etc., Make inferences from advanced texts
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like Giving/accepting compliments, Agreeing, Disagreeing, Requesting, Seeking
information, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is double that of
a red ball then the number of blue balls in the bag is
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7
2. Which of the following equations have the same graph?
x2 - 9
I. y = x + 3 II. y = III. ( x - 3)y = x 2 - 9
x -3
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(C) II and III only (D) All of these.
æ x 1ö
3. The value of the real number x satisfying log9 x - log9 ç + ÷ = 1 is
è 10 9 ø
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 10
2
4. The sum of first 24 terms of the sequence whose nth term is an = 3 + n, is
3
(A) 275 (B) 272 (C) 280 (D) 270.
5. In a group of five people, K, L and M are ambitious, M, N and R are honest, L, M and N are intelligent and
K, M and R are industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
(A) K alone (B) L and R (C) M and N (D) N alone
6. On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are ‘sky’, ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’
and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
(A) Sky (B) Water (C) Air (D) Light.
7. Step 1 : Multiply by 2
Step 2 : Subtract 1
Step 3 : If less than 10, jump to step 1 and continue from there; otherwise proceed to step 4
Step 4 : Add 7
Step 5 : Divide by 2
Step 6 : Add 2
Step 7 : Multiply by 2
If you start with a value of 6 then calculate how many times you had to jump to step 1.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 0
8. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom,
F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers
and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
(A) G’s brother (B) F’s father (C) E’s daughter (D) A’s son
11. While working in MSExcel cell address $A4 in a formula means it is a ________ .
(A) Mixed cell reference (B) Absolute cell reference
(C) Relative cell reference (D) Initial cell reference
2
Class 10
14. Name the smallest addressable set of bits of the computer memory.
(A) Byte (B) Word (C) Pixel (D) Digit
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. In an office with 21 staff members, 1/3 are men and 2/3 are women. To obtain a staff in which 1/4 are
men, how many women should be hired?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
2. A jogger desires to run a certain course in 1/4 less time than she usually takes; by what percent must she
increase her average running speed to accomplish this goal?
1
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 33 % (D) 50%.
3
3. A salesman makes a commission of x percent on the first ` 2,000 worth of sale in any given month and
y percent on all further sales during that month. If he makes ` 700 from ` 4,000 of sales in October and
he makes ` 900 from ` 5,000 of sales in November, what is the value of x ?
(A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 15%.
4. A magician wants to ship a magic wand to the location of his next show. The rectangular box he has
available for this purpose measures 6 inches wide by 8 inches long by 10 inches high. What is the
longest cylindrical wand of negligible diameter that can be shipped in this box?
(A) 10 inches (B) 8 2 inches (C) 8 3 inches (D) 10 2 inches
5. The price of sugar increased 20 percent in 2000 and 10 percent in 2001. By approximately what percent
would the price at the end of 2001 have to be decreased to restore the price of the sugar to its pre2000 price?
(A) 40% (B) 32% (C) 30% (D) 24%.
SCIENCE
6. Cornea is a transparent spherical structure which
(A) Reflects light (B) Scatters light (C) Refracts light (D) None of these.
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. There are 6 short pieces of link chain, each having 4 links. It takes
10 seconds to cut a link and 25 seconds to weld it back together.
What is the shortest possible time to make the longest chain?
(A) 175 seconds (B) 210 seconds
(C) 150 seconds (D) 60 seconds
2. What should come at the place of ‘?’ so that every column or diagonal 3
has the same sum? 19 17
16 7 18
(A) 19 (B) 12 2 1
? 5 11
(C) 13 (D) 15 4 6
10 8 9
13 14
15
Magic Hexagon
4
Class 10
3. A child was looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the East before turning to his right. He went
20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this
point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 metres to the North before meeting his father in
a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
(A) 80 metres (B) 100 metres (C) 140 metres (D) 260 metres
4. If + stands for ‘division’, × stands for ‘addition’, – stands for ‘multiplication’ and ¸ stands for ‘subtraction’,
then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 36 × 6 + 7 ¸ 2 – 6 = 20 (B) 36 ¸ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 = 45
(C) 36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ¸ 3 = 24 (D) 36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ¸ 3 = 74
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
B D
5. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in the following figure.
°
40
(A) 75° (B) 40°
O
65° x
(C) 65° (D) 90° A C
If we assume that mÐA = mÐC, it follows that AB = BC. This contradicts the given
statement that AB > BC. What conclusion can be drawn from this contradiction?
(A) mÐA = mÐB (B) mÐA ¹ mÐB
(C) mÐA = mÐC (D) mÐA ¹ mÐC C B
9. 2 x + 7 2 x 4 + 21x 3 + 35 x 2 – 37 x + 46 =
4 4
(A) x 3 + 7 x 2 – 7 x + 6 – (B) 2 x 3 +14 x 2 – 14 x +12 –
2x + 7 2x + 7
4 4
(C) x 3 – 7 x 2 + 7 x – 6 + (D) x 3 + 7 x 2 – 7 x + 6 +
2x + 7 2x + 7
10. There are two numbers with the following properties.
1) The second number is 3 more than the first number.
2) The product of the two numbers is 9 more than their sum.
Which of the following represents possible values of these two numbers?
(A) – 6, – 3 (B) – 4, – 1 (C) – 1, 4 (D) – 3, 6
5
Class 10
15. A cereal company decided to increase the height of its boxes by 30 percent
and reduce the width in order to maintain the same volume.
h
Initially, length = 20 cm, height = 40 cm, width = 30 cm
What will the new width be if the length stays the same?
(A) 52 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 23.08 cm (D) 23 cm w
E SOF
6
Class 10
7
Class 10
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (A)
10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (D) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D)
8
Class 10
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 9
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles, Quadrilaterals,
Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface Areas and
SOF
Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Algorithms and Flowcharts in Programming, Visual Basic,
Animations, HTML, Internet and Viruses, MS-Word, MS-Excel, MS-Power Point, Hardware, Software,
Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices, Flash, Networking.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles, Quadrilaterals,
Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface Areas and
Volumes, Statistics, Probability, Logical (Verbal and Non-verbal) and Analytical Reasoning.
Section – II (Science) : Motion, Force and Laws of Motion, Gravitation, Work and Energy, Sound,
Matter in Our Surroundings, Is Matter Around Us Pure, Atoms and Molecules, Structure of Atom,
Cell - The Fundamental Unit of Life, Tissues, Diversity in Living Organisms, Why Do We Fall Ill,
Natural Resources, Improvement in Food Resources.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Mathematical Operations, Series Completion, Arithmetical
Reasoning, Problems on Cubes and Dice, Number Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Inserting Missing
SOF Character and General Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry,
Linear Equations in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles,
Quadrilaterals, Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface
Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Concord, Question forms, Tenses, Conditionals,
Modals, Reported speech. Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones, Words
related to social cause, Travel, Workplace, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like flyers,
Classifieds, Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format,
Message format and others. Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information
in longer texts like editorials, Essays, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like Giving advice, Stating preferences, Discussing probability, Making an offer, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Two clocks are set at the same time, one is seen to gain 40 seconds and other to lose 50 seconds
in 24 hours. In how much time will they show a difference of 15 minutes?
(A) 90 days (B) 10 days (C) 90 hours (D) 10 hours.
2. Students of the psychology class in a college were getting ready to challenge and outwit their new
lecturer on her first day of teaching but became dumbfounded when she asked them to find the
product of (x – a) (x – b) (x – c) (x – d).......(x – y)(x – z). What do you think is the answer?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) xn – (a) (b) (c) .......(z).
Q
3. In the given figure if PQR is an isosceles triangle and PSR is an equilateral triangle
and X = 26° then the value of Y ( in degrees) will be X
S
(A) 17° (B) 27° Y
4. Each side of a rhombus is 5 cm and one of the diagonals is 8 cm. Calculate the length of another
diagonal and the area of the rhombus.
(A) 8 cm, 32 cm 2 (B) 6 cm, 24 cm 2 (C) 4 cm, 16 cm 2 (D) 7 cm, 28 cm 2 .
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
5. Step 1 : Add 4
Step 2 : Subtract 1
Step 3 : If less than 15, jump to step 1 and continue from there; otherwise proceed to step 4
Step 4 : Add 3
Step 5 : If greater than 18, subtract 2
If you start with a value of 1 and then apply the above instructions, what is the end result?
(A) 11 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19.
6. On planet X, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are light, air, earth, sky and water
respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
(A) Sky (B) Water (C) Air (D) Light.
7. Consider the given Venn diagram.
The numbers in the Venn diagram indicate the number of persons reading the 3 12 14
2
newspapers. The diagram is drawn after surveying 50 persons. 8 5
In a population of 10,000 how many can be expected to read at least two newspapers? 6
(A) 5000 (B) 6250 (C) 6000 (D) 5400.
8. Hari, Pinto, Oliver, Chris, and Tony drew different geometric figures: a circle,a pentagon, a trapezoid,
a hexagon, and an octagon. No persons's name begins with the same first letter as that person's
drawing. Chris, Pinto, and Tony drew figures with more than 4 sides. Chris drawing has the most
sides. Oliver's drawing has exactly one pair of parallel lines. What did Chris draw?
(A) Circle (B) Octagon (C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon
2
Class 9
15. Which of the following symbols will be used to end the flowchart?
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A person is standing on a staircase. He walks down 4 steps, up 3 steps, down 6 steps, up 2 steps,
up 9 steps, and down 2 steps. Where is he standing in relation to the step on which he started?
(A) 2 steps above (B) 1 step above (C) The same place (D) 1 step below.
4. Chandra spent 2/5 of her income of January for rent, and 3/4 of the remainder on other expenses.
If she put the remaining ` 180 in her savings account, how much was her income in January?
(A) ` 1,000 (B) ` 1,200 (C) ` 1,400 (D) ` 1,600.
5. The hollow sphere in which the circus motorcyclist performs his stunts has a diameter of 7 m. Find the
area available to the motorcyclist for riding.
(A) 154 m 2 (B) 160 m 2 (C) 272 m 2 (D) 616 m 2 .
SCIENCE
6. Elements having the same number of valence electrons in their atoms have
(A) Similar atomic sizes (B) Similar combining capacities
(C) Similar metallic character (D) Similar chemical properties.
3
Class 9
7. Suppose you are pushing a loaded shopping cart. Which of the following is true ?
(A) If action force always equals reaction force, you cannot move the cart because the cart pushes
you backward just as hard as you push forward on the cart
(B) You push the cart slightly harder than the cart pushes you backward, so the cart moves forward
(C) You push before the cart has time to react, so the cart moves forward
(D) You are in contact with the earth through your highfriction shoes, while the cart is free to roll on
its round wheels, so the cart moves.
8. The speed c of surface waves of wavelength l travelling in deep water is given by the equation
lg
c= where g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which one of the following options would give
2p
a straight line graph, given that f is the frequency of the waves ?
(A) f against l–1 (B) f against l (C) f against l2 (D) f 2 against l–1 .
9. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the equilibrium position is at x = 0 and the amplitude
at x = A. The kinetic energy of the particle will be equal to the potential energy
(A) At x = 0 (B) At x = A (C) At x = A/2
(D) When x is greater than A/2 but less than A.
10. What happens to the inertia of an object when its velocity is doubled ?
(A) The object’s inertia becomes 2 times greater
(B) The object’s inertia becomes 2 times greater
(C) The object’s inertia becomes 4 times greater
(D) The object’s inertia is unchanged.
11. Filtration as a method of separation can be used for mixtures that are
(A) homogeneous and liquidingas mixtures
(B) heterogeneous and liquidinliquid mixtures
(C) homogeneous and solidinliquid mixtures
(D) heterogeneous and solidinliquid mixtures.
13. The given figure shows the anatomical structure of certain plant tissues.
If you are to label the parts marked 1, 2, 3 & 4 you would choose
14. Species X are chlorophyllous plants which are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition & may be
green, yellow, orange & red colour etc. Species X belongs to Y which are nonvascular plants and
whose plant body is not differentiated into true roots, stems & leaves and have unicellular and
nonjacketed sex organs. In the above passage species Y is
(A) Bryophyta (B) Thallophyta (C) Pteridophyta (D) Gymnosperms.
15. Refer the figure and identify from the marked alphabets (a, b, c,
d) which is responsible for the following functions. Endoplasmic
reticulum
(I) Means of localization of the chromosomes within the cell
a
(II) Selective barrier, allowing certain substances in or out of the Perinuclear space
nucleus b
c
(III) Means of sequestering many of the mRNA processing Heterochromatin
activities from the cytosol and separating nuclear and Chromatin net
d
cytoplasmic constituents Chromocentre
4
Class 9
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. Apples, cherries and grapes are arranged on a platter in the following fashion:
?
opposite sectors contain fruit which is of equal value. To equal the value of
two bunches of grapes, how much fruit must be placed in the empty sector?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. If L denotes ¸ , M denotes ×, P denotes + and Q denotes –, then which of the following statements is true?
3 173
(A) 32 P 8 L 16 Q 4 = – (B) 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 = 13
2
38
(C) 11 M 34 L 17 Q 8 L 3 = (D) 9 P 9 L 9 Q 9 M 9 = – 71
3
2 1 4 3 6
2 3 4 7
3. Find the missing number :
584 694 ?
2 5 2 3
2
2 1
1
2
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. In the accompanying diagram, parallel lines l and m t
are cut by transversal t. 1 l
Which statement about angles 1 and 2 must be true? 2 m
(A) Ð1 @ Ð 2 (B) Ð1 is the complement of Ð 2
(C) Ð1 is the supplement of Ð 2 (D) Ð1 and Ð2 are right angles
N 21 O
6. What values of a and b make quadrilateral MNOP a parallelogram?
(A) a = 1, b = 5 (B) a = 5, b = 1 3 a – 2b 13
11 34 34 11
(C) a = ,b= (D) a = ,b=
7 7 7 7 M 4a + b P
C
7. For the quadrilateral shown below, what is m Ð a + m Ð c? c
B 95°
(A) 53° (B) 137°
32° D
(C) 180° (D) 233° a
A
8. If a cylindrical barrel measures 22 cm in diameter, how many cm will it roll in 8 revolutions along a
smooth surface?
(A) 121p cm (B) 168p cm (C) 176p cm (D) 228p cm
9. A right circular cone has radius 5 cm and height 8 cm.
What is the lateral surface area of the cone?
(A) 40p sq cm (B) 445p sq cm 8 cm
5 cm
(C) 5p 39 sq cm (D) 5p 89 sq cm
5
Class 9
5 cm
11. The four sides of this figure will be folded up and taped to make an open box.
What will be the volume of the box?
(A) 50 cm 3 (B) 75 cm 3
3
(C) 100 cm (D) 125 cm 3
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. One snail started from the dot. What side will it be on when it has crawled Side A
Side E
13/20 of the distance around the regular pentagon of equal sides?
(A) A (B) C
Side D
(C) D (D) E Side B
Side C
14. A rectangular kitchen table is three times as long as it is wide. If it was 3 m shorter and
3 m wider it would be a square. What are the dimensions of the rectangular table?
(A) 9 × 3 (B) 4 × 2
(C) 12 × 6 (D) 16 × 4
70 cm
15. Two carpenters decided to design desks for students at the Junior High
School. The dimensions of the desk are as shown. How much wood (in
30 cm
cm 2) would they need for 30 desks?
(A) 2700 cm 2 (B) 80000 cm 2
2 20 cm 20 cm
(C) 21000 cm (D) 81000 cm 2
E SOF
2. The discussion was by no means _______________. It went on for more than four hours!
(A) Cut and dried (B) Chopped and dried
(C) Cut and shredded (D) Dried and cut
Direction (Q. No. 5 and 6) : Fill in the blanks using the correct word/phrase.
5. A class full of very good students means ________ failures for the teachers to worry about.
(A) Lesser (B) Less (C) Fewer (D) Less than
6. He seems to know a lot about you! How long have you ____________him?
(A) Known (B) Knew (C) Been knowing (D) Know
6
Class 9
7
Class 9
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A)
7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A)
10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
8
Class 9
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 8
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Rational Numbers, Operation on Rational Numbers, Decimal
Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents, Direct and Inverse Variations, Percentage and Its
Application, Algebraic Expression, Factorization of Algebraic Expressions, Linear Equation in One
SOF Variable, More About Triangles, Congruent Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Area of Rectangular
Paths, Surface Area and Volumes, Statistics, Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problem Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral
Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning, Mirror
Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Internet & Viruses, HTML, Flash, MS-Access, Networking,
MS-Word, MS-Power Point, MS-Excel, Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory &
Storage Devices.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Rational Numbers, Operation on Rational Numbers, Decimal
SOF
Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents and Powers, Direct and Inverse Variations, Comparing
Quantities, Algebraic Expression, Factorization of Algebraic Expressions, Linear Equation in One
Variable, More About Triangles, Congruent Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Mensuration, Statistics,
Arithmetic Ability, Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots, Problem Based on Figures,
Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical
Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – II (Science) : Crop Production and Management, Microorganisms, Synthetic Fibres
and Plastics, Metals and Non-metals, Coal and Petroleum, Combustion and Flame, Conservation
of Plants and Animals, Cell, Reproduction in Animals, Force and Pressure, Friction, Sound, Chemical
Effects of Electric Current, Some Natural Phenomena, Light, Stars and Solar System, Pollution of
Air and Water.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
SOF Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Mathematical Operations, Series Completion, Direction
Sense Test, Analytical Reasoning, Problems on Cubes and Dice, Number Ranking & Time Sequence
Test and General Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots,
Exponents and Radicals, Comparing Quantities, Algebraic Identities, Polynomials, Equations in
One Variable, Parallel Lines, Special Types of Quadrilaterals and Their Constructions, Mensuration,
Arithmetic Ability, Data Handling.
Section – III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.
The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositional phrases, Participle phrases, Tenses,
Question tags, Conditionals, Reported speech. Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms,
Homonyms and homophones, Words related to leisure, Household items/issues, Social causes,
Outdoor locations and activities, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
reports, Blurb, Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format,
Message format and others. Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information
in longer texts like editorials, Essays, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requesting, Giving information, Expressing surprise, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
A
1. In the star shape shown in figure, the sum of the angles marked at the corners
P
A, B, C, D, E is B E
2. The age of a man is same as his wife’s age with the digits reversed. Then sum of their ages is 99 and
the man is 9 years older than his wife. How old is the man?
(A) 50 (B) 49 (C) 54 (D) 44
3. In the adjoining figure, AOB and COD are the diameters of a circle.
If ÐADO = 55o then ÐOCB is
(A) 27 1 °2
(B) 62 21 °
(C) 55° (D) 35°
4. A cylinder and a cone have the same height and the same radius of the base. The ratio between the
volumes of the cylinder and the cone is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
5. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
(A) PRYG (B) ORTG (C) NPUH (D) ORYH
6. The number of times in a day the hourhand and the minutehand of a clock are at right angles is
(A) 44 (B) 48 (C) 24 (D) 12.
7. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket
players and students?
8. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a
round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, D and E are not on neighbouring
chairs. The person sitting opposite B is
(A) A (B) D (C) E (D) F
2
Class 8
(A) Fill color (B) Paint bucket (C) Ink bottle (D) Lasso
13. Modern Computers do not work with decimal numbers. Instead they process binary numbers, groups
of 0’s and 1’s because
(A) Electronic devices are most reliable when designed for two state (binary) operation
(B) Binary circuits are simple
(C) Memory is only possible for binary numbers
(D) With decimal numbers, the circuits are complex and costly
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A contest began at noon one day and ended 1000 minutes later. At what time did the contest end?
(A) 10:00 p.m. (B) Midnight (C) 2:30 a.m. (D) 4:40 a.m.
2. Which of the following sets of whole numbers has the largest average?
(A) Multiples of 2 between 1 and 101 (B) Multiples of 3 between 1 and 101
(C) Multiples of 4 between 1 and 101 (D) Multiples of 5 between 1 and 101.
3. Beena used a calculator to find the product 0.075 × 2.56. She forgot to enter the decimal points. The
calculator showed 19200. If Beena had entered the decimal points correctly, the answer would have been
(A) 0.0192 (B) 0.192 (C) 1.92 (D) 19.2
4. Two cyclists, k km apart, and starting at the same time, would be together in r hours if they travelled in
the same direction, but would pass each other in t hours if they travelled in opposite directions. The ratio
of the speed of the faster cyclist to that of the slower is
r +t r r +t r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r -t r -t r t
10
SCIENCE
6. A Brief History of Time is the title of a book written by
(A) Albert Einstein (B) Stephen Hawking
(C) Hendrick Lorentz (D) Isaac Newton
3
Class 8
12. Which of the following is an acute infection of the small intestine caused by a bacterium?
(A) Cholera (B) Tuberculosis (C) Polio (D) Night blindness
13. Some basic steps are needed in agricultural practice. Which of the following given as A, B, C, D is the
right sequence?
(1) Preparation of the soil (2) Harvesting (3) Irrigation
(4) Broadcasting (5) Tilling (6) Weeding
(7) Manuring.
(A) 1, 5, 4, 7, 3, 6, 2 (B) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7 (C) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 7 (D) 1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 7, 3
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. What is the number you started with? ?
(A) 5
(B) 45 Multiply by 0.10
(C) 56
Divide by 3
(D) 25
462
4
Class 8
2. One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
24, 27, 31, 33, 36
(A) 24 (B) 27 (C) 31 (D) 33
(A) 14 (B) 15
(C) 12 (D) 20
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
X
5. What is the length of YZ ?
(A) 9 cm (B) 15 cm 17 cm
8 cm
(C) 19 cm (D) 25 cm
Y Z
5 cm
10. A right triangle’s hypotenuse has length 5 units. If one leg has length 2 units, what is the length of the
other leg?
(A) 3 (B) 21 (C) 29 (D) 7
11. The sum of a number (n) and 14 is 72. Which equation shows this relationship?
(A) 14 + n = 72 (B) 72n = 14 (C) 14 – n = 72 (D) 72 + n = 14
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Dennis the Menace is thinking of two numbers. Their greatest common factor is 6. Their least common
multiple is 36. One of the numbers is 12. What is the other number?
(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 6 (D) 24
5
Class 8
14. Farmer Ramu put a square fence around his vegetable garden to keep the deer from eating his corn.
One side was 10 m in length. If the posts were placed 2 m apart, how many posts did he use?
(A) 16 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15
15. Anita passed around a basket of strawberries to the girls at her party. Before the party she ate 5
strawberries and gave a friend 3. Eight girls arrived at the party. The first girl took a strawberry, the
second girl took 3 strawberries, the third girl took 5 strawberries and so on. After the last girl took her
strawberries, the basket was empty. How many strawberries were there in the basket at the beginning?
(A) 72 (B) 60 (C) 65 (D) 45
E SOF
2. The thief walked away with the diamond crown on display. No one stopped him because he was
……………………………. the director of the museum.
(A) Contacting (B) Impersonating (C) Implanting (D) Contradicting
3. The transmission of the President’s speech remained ____ interrupted.
(A) Mis (B) Dis (C) Un (D) Non
4. Given below are pairs of sentences, marked ‘P’ and ‘Q’. In each case, one or both sentences
could be right or wrong. Use the following code to indicate your answer.
If both P and Q are right, tick A (+ +)
If P is right and Q is wrong, tick B (+ –)
If P is wrong and Q is right, tick C (– +)
If both P and Q are wrong, tick D (– –)
P : The old abandoned building was being burnt to the ground last night.
Q : The police suspect that the fire was caused due to short circuit.
(A) (+ +) (B) (+ –) (C) (– +) (D) (– –)
Directions (Q. No. 5 & 6) : Find the incorrect part and mark it in your answer sheet.
5. The papers are increasing/ full of stories /of mindless violence./No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. The Taj Residency/ is not as expensive than/ the Four Seasons Hotel./ No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
READING
Direction (Q. No. 8 to 10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The greatest threat to life on Earth today comes from global warming. This is caused due to multiple
factors including human activity. It happens when greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, water vapour,
nitrous oxide, and methane) trap heat and light from the sun in the earth’s atmosphere, which increases
the overall temperature on Earth. This impacts people, animals, and plants. Many who cannot take the
change, die. Global warming is affecting many parts of the world, particularly sea coasts. People living
on islands and in coastal areas are therefore at risk as the polar ice caps and sea levels rise.
6
Class 8
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C)
7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C)
13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
8
Class 8
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 7
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Natural Numbers and Whole Numbers, Integers, Factors and
Multiples, Ratios, Proportion and Unitary Method, Percentage and Its Applications, Algebraic
Expressions, Linear Equations in One Variable, Basic Geometrical Concepts, Line Segments, Angles,
SOF Triangles, Pairs of Lines and Transversal, Construction, Perimeter and Area, Rational Numbers,
Decimal Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning,Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Fundamentals of Computer, Evolution of Computers,
Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices,Using Windows, MS-
Word, MS-Power Point, MS-Excel, Programming in QBasic, Internet & Viruses.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Integers, Fractions and Decimals, Data Handling, Simple Equations,
SOF Lines and Angles, The Triangle and its Properties, Congruence of Triangles, Comparing Quantities,
Rational Numbers, Practical Geometry, Perimeter, Area and Volume, Algebraic Expressions, Exponents
and Powers, Symmetry, Visualising Solid Shapes, Logical Reasoning, Conversions, Simple Probability.
Section – II (Science) : Heat, Motion and Time, Electric Current and its Effect, Winds, Storms
and Cyclones, Light, Acids, Bases and Salts, Physical and Chemical Changes, Weather, Climate
and Adaptations of Animals, Fibres to Fabrics, Nutrition in Plants and Animals, Respiration in
Organisms, Transportation in Plants and Animals, Reproduction in Plants, Natural Resources and
Their Conservation.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Integers, Properties of Integers, Fractions, Multiplication and Division of Fractions, Representation
SOF
of Rational Numbers on Number Line, Operations of Rational Numbers, Multiplication and Division
of Decimals, Conversion of Units, Powers and Exponents, Algebraic Expressions, Simple Linear
Equations, Concept of Percentage, Profit and Loss, Simple Interest, Understanding Shapes, Properties
of Triangle, Symmetry, Congruence of Triangles, Perimeter, Area, Volume, Circles, Data Handling,
Arithmetical Ability.
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense, Number
Ranking and Alphabetical Test.
The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Perfect tenses, Prepositions, Modals, Adjectives,
and Adverbs, Conjunctions, Direct indirect speech, Word order, Phrasal verbs, etc.
Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, and Words related to Travel, Locations, Activities,
Homonyms and Homophones, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
stories, Brochures and advertisements. Understand information given in news reports, Brochures,
Itinerary, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short narratives,
Advertisements, Biographies, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requesting and refusing, Apologies and stating of preferences and expression
of intent, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A circular park of 20 metre diameter has a circular path just inside the boundary of width 1 metre.
The area of the path is (in sq.m)
(A) 15p (B) 17p (C) 19p (D) 25p
4. (
If x -
x )
1 = 5, 2 1
the value of x + 2 is
x
(A) 23 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 29
7. In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, square represents sportspersons
and circle represents coaches. Which portion of the figure represents girls who F
B
are sportspersons but not coaches? A
C
(A) A (B) B
D E
(C) C (D) D
8. Five boys A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row. A is between C and D and B is between D and E. Which
of the following pairs represents the boys standing at both the ends?
(A) C, B (B) E, C (C) E, A (D) A, C
9. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in presentation?
(A) Slide show menu (B) Rehearse timing button
(C) Slide transition button (D) All of these
10. Virus is a program written using one of the computer languages to cause damage to the data, the
information stored in the computer, or the hardware of the computer. The most common damage done
by virus is
(A) Erase or corrupt useful data from the hard disk
(B) Increase the file size of command file by several 1000 bytes
(C) Affect hardware components
(D) Slow down the computer.
2
Class 7
11. Match the following terms with what they stand for
Term Stands for
1. .Com A. Education
2. .Edu B. India
3. .In C Australia
4. .Au D. Commerce
(A) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D (B) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
(C) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B (D) 1D, 2A, 3B, 4C.
12. A browser is an interactive program that permits a user to view information from the computer. The
browser performs which of the following services?
(A) Connecting to the source computer whose address is specified
(B) Requesting new page from the source
(C) Receiving new page
(D) All of these.
13. Modern Computers compared to earlier computers are
(A) Faster and larger (B) Less reliable
(C) Larger and stronger (D) Faster and smaller.
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1
1. Jennifer wants to run 3 km. The track she runs on is of a km in length. How many times does
4
Jennifer have to run the length of the track to run a total of 3 km?
3 1
(A) (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 12
4 4
2. The bottom, side, and front areas of a rectangular box are known. The product of these areas is
equal to
(A) The volume of the box (B) The square root of the volume
(C) Twice the volume (D) The square of the volume
3. P can do a piece of work in 9 days. Q is 50% more efficient than P. The number of days it takes
Q to do the same piece of work is
1 1
(A) 13 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 3
2 2
B2
4. ×7B
6396
In the product shown above, B is a digit. The value of B is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
3
Class 7
5. A piece of paper containing six joined squares labelled as shown in the diagram is folded along the
edges of the squares to form a cube. The label of the face opposite the face labeled X is
Y
U V W
X
Z
Distance
Distance
Distance
Distance
8. Which of the following statements about the Jurassic period are correct?
1. Many large dinosaurs lived during this period.
2. Evidence of first birds have been found in fossils of this period.
3. It saw the emergence of many forms of primates.
4. This period related to what the Earth was 140 million years ago.
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
10. The temperature at which no more energy can be removed from matter is called
(A) Absolute zero (B) Boiling point (C) 32º F (D) 32°C
12. Which one of the following is true for all chemical reactions?
(A) There is a change in volume (B) Heat is evolved
(C) Chemical bonds are broken or formed (D) There is a change in mass
13. The movement of oxygenated blood from the left auricle to left ventricle and then to aorta to all parts
of the body is called
(A) Extracellular circulation (B) Pulmonary circulation
(C) Systemic circulation (D) Intracellular circulation
14. The process of crossing two varieties with different characters to obtain new variety is called
(A) Introduction (B) Selection (C) Hybridization (D) Conservation
15. Which metal is present in the human body in greater percentage ?
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) Potassium (D) Iron
4
Class 7
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
1. Which will come next in the series?
az, by, cx, ?
(A) ef (B) gh (C) ij (D) dw
5
2. Insert the missing character. 4 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
64 8
(C) 3 (D) 4
? 2
25
3. Which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word.
STROKE
(A) (B) EKORTS (C) ROKETS (D)
(C) 12 (D) 14
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
3 1
7. 4 –2 =
4 2
1 3 1 3
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2
4 4 4 4
5
Class 7
7 5
12. Which of the following shows the next step using the least common denominator to simplify – ?
8 6
æ 7 3ö æ 5 4ö æ 7 4ö æ 5 3 ö
(A) è 8 ´ 3 ø – è 6 ´ 4 ø (B) è 8 ´ 4 ø – è 6 ´ 3 ø
æ 7 5ö æ 5 7 ö æ 7 7ö æ 5 5 ö
(C) è 8 ´ 5 ø – è 6 ´ 7 ø (D) è 8 ´ 7 ø – è 6 ´ 5 ø
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
3
13. Ram can throw a ball 50 metres high. Shyam can throw the same ball 48 1 metres high. How
5 3
much farther can Ram throw the ball than Shyam?
2 4 3 4
(A) 2 m (B) 2 m (C) 2 m (D) 2 m
15 15 5 5
14. In a parking lot, 1 out of every 8 cars is blue. What percent of the cars in this lot are blue?
(A) 1.25% (B) 7% (C) 9% (D) 12.5%
15. A duck flew at 18 km per hour for 3 hours, then at 15 km per hour for 2 hours. How far did the
duck fly in all?
(A) 69 km (B) 75 km (C) 81 km (D) 84 km
E SOF
6
Class 7
11. Which of the following words would you use to describe the feeling of the rabbits on seeing the troop
of wild horses?
(A) Frightened (B) Unfriendly (C) Worried (D) Hostile
Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Find one sentence to complete the paragraph.
14. Sentence 1. God wanted the people he had created to have a happy life.
Sentence 2. ___________________________________________________
Sentence 3. Water, air and sunlight were, therefore, given in abundance.
(A) That’s why he decided to bless the earth with riches.
(B) People had to live with water, air, and sun.
(C) Earth could have them in abundance.
(D) Therefore, he created the earth.
15. Sentence 1. From ancient times Indians have worshipped plants and trees.
Sentence 2. ____________________________________________________
Sentence 3. While modern man often works to ‘conquer’ Nature, ancient Indians worshipped her.
(A) They regarded all flora and fauna as sacred.
(B) These plants give us food and oxygen.
(C) They lend beauty to our surroundings.
(D) These plants sacrifice themselves to serve us.
7
Class 7
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C)
10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B)
13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
8
Class 7
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 6
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Roman Numerals, Numbers and Numeration, Prime and Composite
Numbers, HCF and LCM, Addition and Subtraction, Multiplication and Division, Fractional Numbers,
SOF Decimal Fractions, Basic Geometrical Shapes, Angles, Triangles, Circles, Measurement of Length,
Mass and Capacity, Time, Money, Profit and Loss, Temperature, Area and Perimeter, Volume, Pictorial
Representation of Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : History and Generation of Computers, Types of Computers,
MS-Windows, MS-Word, MS-Power Point, Internet & E-mail, Introduction to QBasic, Hardware,
Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Roman Numerals, Number Sense, HCF and LCM, Addition and
Subtraction, Multiplication and Division, Fractional Numbers, Decimal Fractions, Geometrical Shapes,
Angles, Arithmetical Ability, Measurements, Area and Perimeter of Rectangle, Square, Circle, Triangle,
Volume, Pictorial Representation of Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion,
Percentage, Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-
Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense,
Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Motion and Measurement of Distances, Light, Shadows and Reflections,
Electricity & Circuits, Fun with Magnets, Air & Water, Sorting and Separation of Materials into
Groups, Changes Around Us, Living Organisms & Their Surroundings, Food, Health & Hygiene,
Fibres to Fabrics.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Roman Numerals, Number Sense, HCF and LCM, Addition and Subtraction, Multiplication and
Division, Fractional Numbers, Decimal Fractions, Geometrical Shapes, Angles, Arithmetical Ability,
Area and Perimeter of Rectangle, Square, Circle, Triangle, Volume, Pictorial Representation of
Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Measurements.
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense, Number
Ranking and Alphabetical Test.
The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositions, Continuous tenses, Adjectives
and Adverbs, Agreement, etc., Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, and Words related
to everyday problems, Relationships, Health and Medicine, Travel, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
headlines, Brochures, Formal letters, etc. ., Understand information given in News reports, Brochures,
Itenary, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in Short narratives,
Timetables, News stories, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like agreement and disagreement, Requests, Refusals apologies, etc. and also distinguish
differences in the use of conjunctions.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Find the number that should replace the box.
12 : 21 :: 8 :
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20
2. The product of two numbers is 3000. If the H.C.F. of the number is 10, then L.C.M. will be
(A) 30 (B) 300 (C) 305 (D) 5
3. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes were distributed among students. The percentage
of mangoes left in the basket is
(A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 50% (D) 75%
3
2 1
4
(A) Ð1 = Ð2 (B) Ð4 = Ð3
(C) Ð3 + Ð1 = 180° (D) Ð1 = Ð4
6. 6 + 0 ¸ 6 × 2 + 1 equals
(A) 18 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 0
7. If + 50 = and – 50 = ,
what is the correct relation between and ?
(A) 50 + = (B) 50 – = (C) 100 + = (D) 100 – =
8. I think of a number, add 10 to it and divide the answer by 2. Let the resulting number be . Starting
with , how can I get my original number back ?
(A) Multiply by 2 and then subtract 10 from the result
(B) Divide by 2 and then add 10 to the result
(C) Multiply by 2 and then add 10 to the result
(D) Add 2 to and then divide the resulting number by 10
COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
9. The following steps results in
(1) Choose the insert picture clipart
(2) Select the picture
(3) Click insert clip
(A) Insertion of a picture to the file from clipart
(B) Insertion of the clipart from a file to another similar file
(C) Insertion of the picture from file to clipart file
(D) All of the above
10. The software program that acts as an interface between the user and the www is
(A) Email (B) Internet
(C) Protocol (D) Web browser.
2
Class 6
11. PARAM is a
(A) Super computer (B) Mini computer
(C) Main computer (D) Micro computer
13. By clicking which button one can return the window to its previous size ?
(A) Maximize button (B) Minimize button
(C) Restore button (D) Close button .
15. Cut, copy and paste are the part of which of the menu ?
(A) VIEW (B) FAVORITES (C) FORMAT (D) EDIT
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Find L.C.M. of following numbers.
12, 24, 48, 108
(A) 504 (B) 432 (C) 405 (D) 440
2. Gita has 558 flags to pack into boxes. Each box will hold 62 flags. How many boxes will Gita need
to hold all the flags ?
(A) 34,596 (B) 0.9 (C) 9 (D) 620
X
3.
18 36
4. What is the area of a rectangle that measures 5 meters wide and 6 meters long ?
(A) 11 m 2 (B) 22 m 2 (C) 30 m 2 (D) 16 m 2
SCIENCE
6. The body system that gives you support and allows movement is the
(A) Skeletal system (B) Circulatory system
(C) Respiratory system (D) Excretory system
7. Which food group BEST provides the necessary nutrients for healthy teeth and bones ?
(A) Milk and dairy products (B) Fruits and vegetables
(C) Bread and cereal (D) Meat
3
Class 6
8. The Sun is a
(A) Comet (B) Star (C) Huge planet (D) Satellite
9. The Earth is surrounded by an insulating blanket of gases which protects it from the light and heat
of the Sun. This insulating layer is called the
(A) Hydrosphere (B) Lithosphere (C) Atmosphere (D) Biosphere
10. Which part of the body receives messages transmitted by nerve cells located throughout the body ?
(A) Heart (B) Lungs (C) Brain (D) Liver
15. If you dissolved a lot of salt in some water in a large flat dish and put the dish in bright sunlight
on a hot day, what would be left in the dish after a long time ?
(A) Dry salt (B) Water with no salt
(C) The same salty water as before (D) Nothing
SOF
LOGICAL REASONING
Class President Results
1. The following are the results from the class election.
If 150 students voted, about how many votes did Ram receive? Ram
Jiwan
(A) 25 (B) 38 Dev
(C) 50 (D) 75
2. The weekly milk order for the New Guest house includes 40 litres of lowfat milk and 15 litres of
chocolate milk. What is the ratio of the number of lowfat milk to chocolate milk in the New Guest
house’s weekly milk order?
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 5 : 3 (D) 8 : 3
3. Joy wants to save ` 50 to buy a pair of roller blades. Amount saved
He plans to save ` 2 in the first month, Month during month Total savings
1 `2 `2
` 4 in the second month,
2 `4 `6
` 6 in the third month, and ` 8 in the fourth month. `6 ` 12
3
If Joy continues this savings pattern, 4 `8 ` 20
how many months will it take Joy to save ` 50 ?
(A) 5 months (B) 7 months
(C) 9 months (D) 13 months
4
Class 6
4. = , = , = 50
Using the diagram above, which of the following statements is true?
(A) < (B) > (C) < (D) <
5. According to this diagram, how many students have more Favourite Book Types
than one favourite type of book? × ×
× ××
Fantasy × × ×
× Biography
× × ×× × ×
(A) 3 (B) 5 × × ××
× ×
× × ××
Mystery
(C) 7 (D) 8
x = 1 student
MATHEMATICAL REASONING
6. In Parul’s garden, there are 25 rows of vegetables. She has five more rows of peppers than tomatoes
and two fewer rows of cucumbers than tomatoes. If y represents the number of rows of tomatoes in
the garden, which number sentence can be used to find how many rows of each vegetable were
planted?
(A) y + (y + 5) + (y + 2) + y = 25 (B) (y + 5) + y = 25
(C) (y + 5) + (y – 2) = 25 (D) (y + 5) + (y – 2) + y = 25
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Vinita can type 28 words per minute. At this rate, how many words can Vinita type in 5.5 minutes?
(A) 154 (B) 157 (C) 159 (D) 162
14. At a school, there are 704 desks to place into 22 classrooms. If the same number of desks is
placed in each classroom, how many desks will be in each room?
(A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 42 (D) 44
15. The students in a wood working class were building birdhouses. It takes four pieces of wood (each
3
piece of foot long) to build a birdhouse. At most, how many birdhouses can be made from 4
4
feet of wood?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
5
Class 6
E SOF
1. Complete the word using the letters from the given below options.
The magician had clever___ concealed several rabbits in his hat.
(A) Fully (B) Ness (C) Ly (D) Ity
10. We know that noodles were made thousands of years ago in China because the
(A) Chinese claim that they invented noodles.
(B) Oldest noodles have been discovered in China.
(C) Historians say so.
(D) Chinese still eat noodles.
Direction (Q. No. 11 and 12) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
The surface of the Earth is not evenly flat. Mountains and plateaus cover large areas giving variety
to the earth’s surface. Mountains are spectacular features that rise several hundred metres above
the surrounding land. When a hill is above 600 metres, it is generally called a mountain. If a chain
of mountains exists, it is referred to as a mountain range. The Himalayas which form the northern
boundary of India is one of the most spectacular mountain ranges in the world.
6
Class 6
Direction (Q. No. 13 to 15) : Complete the paragraph. Choose the most suitable sentence.
13. Asha: Why are you in such a hurry to go home today?
Tara: ———————————
Asha: I am sure you are eager to see her.
(A) I will go when I like.
(B) Going to my home is not difficult because my sister will come with me.
(C) My aunt is coming home from London after two years.
(D) I am always in a hurry to go home.
14. Asif: Arun, where were you yesterday? I had come home and I found it locked.
Arun: ———————————
Asif: I hope you found her hale and hearty.
(A) I like going out for long walks with my dog.
(B) I’d gone to visit my grandmother along with my parents.
(C) We could have gone cycling along orchard road.
(D) My house was locked throughout this summer.
15. Sentence 1 : The Amazon river is the largest river in the world with a total river flow greater than
the next ten largest rivers combined.
Sentence 2 : —————————————
Sentence 3 : Because of its vast dimensions, it is sometimes called The River Sea.
(A) However, in terms of length it is slightly shorter than the Nile.
(B) The Amazon river is surrounded by thick rain forest.
(C) Hundreds of people use the Amazon river to transport goods.
(D) The Amazon river is in South America.
7
Class 6
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D)
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C)
7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D)
10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (A)
10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
8
Class 6
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 5
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Regional and Roman Numerals, Numbers up to one Lakh,
Multiples and Factors, Fractional Numbers, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Estimation,
SOF Geometrical Shapes, Measurement, Time, Money, Perimeter, Area, Angle, Pictorial Representation
of Data, Prime and Composite Numbers, HCF and LCM.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Input and Output Devices, Hardware, Software, Storage
Devices, Memory Primary & Secondary Memory, MS-Paint, MS-Word, Introduction to MS-
Power Point, Introduction to Multimedia, Internet, Computer Networks, MS-Windows.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Sense, Regional and Roman Numerals, Numbers up
to Lakhs, Multiples and Factors, Fractional Numbers, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
SOF Division, Decimals, Geometrical Shapes and Angles, Symmetry, Measurement of Length, Time,
Money, Weight, Perimeter and Area of Square, Rectangle and Circle, Pictorial Representation
of Data, HCF and LCM, Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion,
Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense,
Patterns, Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Animals, Plants and Food, Human Body and Health, Water, Matter,
Natural Resources and Calamities, Earth and Universe, General Science.
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Number sense, Numeral and Number Name (7 and 8 digit numbers), Roman Numbers, Addition,
Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Factors and Multiples, LCM, HCF, Rules of Divisibility,
Whole, Prime and Composite Numbers, Fractions, Decimals, Geometrical Shapes & Angles,
Circles, Symmetry, Measurement of Length, Mass, Capacity, Perimeter and Area of Rectangle,
Square, Measurement of Volume, Temperature, Time and Various Operations on Time, Relationship
Between Seconds, Minutes and Hours, Money, Representation of Data in Pictorial Form, Patterns,
Formation of Numbers and Figures, Direction Sense, Number Ranking and Alphabetical Test,
Series, Odd One Out.
The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositions, Tenses, Irregular verbs, Pronouns,
Modals quantifiers, etc. , Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones,
Words related to feelings, Travel, Food, Health, appearance, Character, etc.
Section-II : Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like news
headlines, Messages, Letters, etc., Understand information given in News reports, Time tables,
Messages, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short texts
like messages, menu card dialogues, etc.
Section-III : Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requests, Refusals apologies, etc. and the use of conjunctions.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Which of the following are supplementary angles?
(A) 180°, 180° (B) 100°, 80° (C) 50°, 50° (D) 40°, 50°
2. A table was sold for ` 900. If the profit of ` 100 earn on it, then the cost price of the table is
(A) ` 800 (B) ` 700 (C) ` 1000 (D) ` 1200
(A) 264 m2 30 m 2m
(B) 192 m2
(C) 190 m2
(D) 36 m2. 40 m
(figure not drawn to scale)
1
4. Which of the figures shows correct fraction for ?
3
(A) × × × × × × (B) ¸ ¸ ¸ ¸ ¸ (C) O O O O O (D) O O O O O O O
8. If the day before yesterday is two days after Monday then what day is it today ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
13. MS–paint is
(A) Accounting software (B) System software
(C) Application software (D) Physical component
15. While working in MS–paint, the option which is used to show the drawing in a small reference window
is
(A) Show grid (B) Zoom in (C) View bitmap (D) Show thumbnail
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A circle is drawn, with centre point O. C
3. A race started at 11:16 A.M. The first person to cross the finish line came in at 1:22 P.M. How long did
it take the first person to reach the finish line ?
(A) 13 hours 38 minutes (B) 2 hours 6 minutes
(C) 1 hours 6 minutes (D) 2 hours 38 minutes
4. An arrow makes an angle with the level ground, as shown in the picture.
Which is the best name for this angle ?
(A) Obtuse (B) Right
?
(C) Straight (D) Acute
SCIENCE
6. Oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide may be grouped together because at room temperature they are
all —
(A) Colloids (B) Solids (C) Gases (D) Liquids
8. Which of these is a process that allows plants to convert light energy into food energy?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Excretion (C) Reproduction (D) Digestion
13. Today, which human activity is responsible for endangering the greatest number of land animal species?
(A) Accidental starting of forest fires (B) Cutting wildflowers in national parks
(C) Destruction of habitats (D) Hunting for food and sport
SOF
1. Harry had 500 coins in a jar. He sorted the coins into 25 different stack. Each stack had the same
number of coins. How many coins were in each stack?
(A) 20 (B) 45 (C) 25 (D) 12
2. There are 914 students enrolled in Lakeview Elementary School. Frederich Elementary School has 276
fewer students enrolled. How many students are enrolled at Frederich Elementary School?
(A) 642 (B) 762 (C) 1,190 (D) 638
3. Which of the following shows a reflection (flip) of the shaded shape across the dotted line?
6. Which figure has an area of 8 and a perimeter of 12? Each square block is of side 1 unit.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
7. Tom left home at 7 : 15 a.m. to go to work. He returned home at 4 : 45 p.m. What is the total amount of
time Tom was away from home?
(A) 7 hours 30 minutes (B) 9 hours 30 minutes
(C) 3 hours 30 minutes (D) 8 hours 30 minutes
4
Class 5
10. An optometrist uses the symbol below as a tool during an eye exam.
Which figure would result when the symbol is flipped over the dotted line?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11. Simon and Julie need 72 paper flowers to complete a bulletin board. They have 19 paper flowers so far.
Which operation should be used in the box below to find how many more paper flowers they need?
72 ? 19 =
(A) Addition (B) Division (C) Multiplication (D) Subtraction
12. Shelley is ordering a skirt from a catalog. She can choose one
of two lengths: a short skirt or a long skirt. Then she can choose
one of three fabric patterns: stripes, plaid, or flowers. How many Short Stripes Plaid Flowers
Long
different combinations could Shelley order choosing a length
Skirts Fabric Patterns
and a fabric pattern?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
14. The picture below shows a spinner for an animal board game.
In which animal section is spinner least likely to land?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. The following table shows the distance around four DISTANCE AROUND
different planets. Planet Distance Around (in miles)
Which planet’s distance has the numeral 3 in the Jupiter 88,732
tenthousands place? Mars 4,213
(A) Jupiter (B) Mars Mercury 3,032
(C) Mercury (D) Neptune Neptune 30,603
5
Class 5
E SOF
4. Match the underlined phrase with its correct meaning in the box.
Mother tried in vain to make her finish her milk.
8. If a student is not well, / he must to stay home / and rest till he feels better. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and mark
it in your answer sheet.
(A) I will start my course on June.
(B) He wore a shirt that came well below his knees.
(C) Sangeeta was lying on the bed reading a book.
(D) None of these
6
Class 5
READING
Direction (Q. No. 11 and 12) : Read the passage and answer the following questions.
Miss Jabber Blabber
The teacher, Mr. Rao walked to the blackboard and wrote up a list of words. He pointed to the list.
“I want you to read these words to yourselves,” he said. “Then, without talking to your neighbour,
choose any word from the list and draw a picture of it in your notebook.”
Joy squealed very thrilled.
I stared at the words. Then I tapped my chin. And I scratched my head. Finally I reached out to Rahul
and tapped on his head.
“Psst, Rahul”, I whispered, “which word are you drawing?”
Joy jumped up from her seat and pointed at me.
“Sir, Sir, Jenny is talking to her neighbour.”
That’s how Joy earned her famous name, one that she never liked, “J Joy Jabber Blabber”!
12. Which of the following words would Rahul and Jenny use to describe Joy?
(A) Irritating (B) Liar (C) Friendly (D) None of these
Direction (Q. No. 13 to 15) : Find one sentence to complete the dialogue.
13. Mother: When did you come back from the zoo? Did you like it there?
Minu : ...........................................
(A) Yes, I did. (B) I will think about it. (C) I cannot come (D) None of these
14. Teacher 1 : You have got a list of students. How many of them are coming to the picnic?
Teacher 2 : ...................................................
(A) I don’t know. (B) I can’t see them. (C) I haven’t got any. (D) None of these
7
Class 5
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B)
7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C)
10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
8
Class 5
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 4
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number and Numeration, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
Division, Geometrical Shapes, Measurement of Time, Measurement of Length, Mass, Perimeter
SOF
and Capacity, Money, Fractional Numbers, Pictorial Representation of Data, Roman Numerals,
Numbers upto one Lakh, Multiples and Factors.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images,
Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : About Computers (General Information), Parts of
Computer, Input and Output Devices, Hardware, Software, MS-Word, Using MS-Windows,
Introduction to Internet, Computer Networks, Uses of Internet, MS-Paint.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number and Numeration (5 digit numbers), Place-value,
Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Comparison, Geometrical Shapes, Symmetry,
SOF Measurement of Length, Weight and Capacity, Time, Money, Fractional Numbers, Pictorial
Representation of Data, Roman Numerals, Multiples and Factors, Perimeter of Various Shapes,
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Direction Sense, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Conversions,
Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Water, Matter and Materials, Transport,
General Activities, Earth and Universe.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Numerals and Number Name (5 digit numbers), Place Value, Roman Numerals, Addition and
Subtraction, Geometry : Square, Rectangle, Circle, Closed, Open Figure, Multiplication and
Division, Factors and Multiples, Fractions, Measurement, Pictorial Representation of Data,
Money, Time, Weight and Capacity, Series and Pattern Formation of Numbers and Figures,
Conversions, Comparison, Perimeter of Various Shapes, Direction Sense, Mirror Images, Embedded
Figures, Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Symmetry.
The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Adverbs, Prepositions, Pronouns (possessive,
demonstrative, etc.), Simple tenses, Irregular verbs, Modals (of ability and permission, etc.), Basic
questions, etc., Collocations, Spellings, Words related to animals, Household things, Clothes,
Basic emotions, Food, Animals and pets, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like stories,
Anecdotes, etc., Understand information through pictures, Time-table format, etc., Acquire broad
understanding of and look for specific information in short texts like messages, Invitations, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like apology, greeting, introduction, request, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. 5 is one of the factors of
(A) 36 (B) 30 (C) 42 (D) 21
is
5 12 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 5 2 3
3. There were 3856 trees in a forest. In another forest there were 4795 trees. How many more trees
were there in the second forest?
(A) 930 (B) 939 (C) 1689 (D) 1600
10 cm
4. Perimeter of the figure given here is 2 cm
8 cm
(A) 40 cm (B) 50 cm 10 cm
8 cm
(C) 45 cm (D) 55 cm
2 cm
6. If ‘a’ means ‘+’ ; ‘b’ means ‘–’ ; ‘c’ means ‘¸’ and ‘d’ means ‘×’ then the expression
16a 4b 4c 4d2 =
1
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) 2
2
10. This key is used to move cursor to the beginning of the line or the screen depending on the
software used. Identify the key.
2
Class 4
13. While working with MSPaint which option is used to add name to your drawing ?
(A) Text tool (B) Pencil (C) Edit (D) Brush
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Hill 1 is 5,729 metre high. Hill 2 is 4,049 metre high. How much higher is Hill 1 than Hill 2 ?
(A) 1,720 m (B) 680 m (C) 1,680 m (D) 1,239 m
2. Namita drew a figure with 4 square corners. Which could be the figure she drew ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) None of these
5. Raj has 60 cakes. A quarter of these cakes are distributed. How many cakes are left with him?
(A) 45 (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 25
SCIENCE
6. The time it takes for Earth to rotate on its axis is one
(A) Day (B) Month (C) Season (D) Year
7. When the layer of air that surrounds the Earth presses down, this is
(A) Heat (B) Temperature
(C) Air pressure (D) Precipitation
15. The tiny part of a seed that can grow into a plant is the –
(A) Pistil (B) Spore (C) Fruit (D) Embryo
SOF
1. There are eightysix thousand four hundred seconds in a day. How else could this number be written?
(A) 80,064 (B) 80,640
(C) 86,400 (D) 86,404
2. Leena and her mother made a quilt. They used 56 squares and made 8 rows. How many squares are
in each row?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
3. Jyoti walked 3 km each day. How many kilometre had she walked after 14 days?
(A) 42 (B) 32 (C) 14 (D) 11
4. Ram, Rahul, and Rohit shared a bag of marbles. The bag contained 272 marbles. How many marbles
were left over after the friends shared them equally?
(A) 90 (B) 91 (C) 6 (D) 2
6. Start at 23.
Count by 10 two times.
Add 1.
What number are you at?
(A) 33 (B) 44 (C) 55 (D) 45
4
Class 4
7. If ´4=
– = 330, then
What is + ?
(A) 110 (B) 440 (C) 550 (D) 990
8. Justin solved the problem below. Which expression could be used to check his answer?
454
3 1364 : Remainder = 2
11. What is the best unit to use for measuring the amount of soda in a drink can?
(A) Millilitre (B) Gallon (C) Tablespoon (D) Cup
13. Danny and Julie have new sticker books. Danny will put 4 stickers
Day Danny Julie
in his book every day and Julie will put 6 stickers in her book
1 4 6
every day.
2 8 12
How many stickers will Danny have when Julie has 30 in her
book? 3 12 18
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30
14. When a number is put into the machine below, a different number
Input 8
comes out.
If 2 goes in, 6 comes out. If 4 goes in, 12 comes out. If 5 goes
in, 15 comes out.
If 8 goes in, what number should come out? Number
Machine
(A) 32 (B) 24 ? Output
(C) 16 (D) 12
15. There are 3 rows of strawberry plants. Each row has 6 plants. How many strawberry plants in all?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 24
5
Class 4
E SOF
3. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and mark
it in your answer sheet.
(A) Tina is watching television. (B) I lose my pen yesterday.
(C) I like playing football.
Direction (Q. No. 6 to 8) : Fill in the blanks. Choose the right answer.
6. Ann always ........... a lot of mistakes when she speaks English.
(A) Make (B) Makes (C) Made
7. ………………. of the girls in the class did not want to play football.
(A) Little (B) Much (C) Some
READING
Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Red woods are among the world’s tallest trees. They grow 200 to 300 feet high. The wood, when
cut remains remarkably free from decay caused by weather and insects. So it is used to build houses
and even outdoor furniture.
10. (A) No tree is taller than the red wood tree.
(B) Red wood trees grow very tall.
(C) Trees grow tall all over the world.
6
Class 4
Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Many people believe that a house is not a home without a pet. Pets provide companionship and can
be a boon to people, especially children. Pets will be there for you through thick and thin. Moreover,
caring for a pet teaches you important lessons about taking responsibility, sharing your time and
caring for another living creature.
15. Sentence 1 is given. Sentence 2 is not. Choose the right option for sentence 2.
Sentence 1 : A biography is written by a person about the life and activities of another person.
Sentence 2 : …………………………………………………………………………………
(A) Whereas an autobiography is written by a person about his own life.
(B) Gandhiji wrote an autobiography called My Experiments with Truth.
(C) People write autobiographies about their own lives.
7
Class 4
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B)
10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B)
13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
8
Class 4
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 3
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals and Number Names, Addition, Subtraction, Fractional
Numbers, Multiplication as Repeated Addition, Division as Repeated Subtraction, Time, Temperature,
SOF Straight and Curved Lines, Calendar, Measurement of Length, Weight and Capacity, Geometrical
Shapes, Money.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : About Computers (General Information), Parts of Computer,
Uses of Computer, Start & Shut down of a Computer, Input and Output Devices, Introduction
to Internet, MS-Paint, Introduction to MS-Word.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals, Number Names and Number Sense (4 digit numbers),
SOF
Addition, Subtraction, Fractional Numbers, Multiplication, Division, Time, Straight and Curved
Lines, Calendar, Measurement of Weight and Capacity, Geometrical Shapes, Money, Patterns,
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mirror
Image, Embedded Figures.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Water, Food, House and Occupation,
Transport and Communication, Matter and Materials, Earth and Universe.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
SOF
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Numerals and Number Name, Number Sense (4 digit numbers), Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
Division, Fractions, Money, Length (conversions), Weight, Capacity, Time, Point, Problems Based
on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Patterns, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mirror
Images, Embedded Figures, Straight Lines and Curved Lines, Geometrical Shapes.
The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Adverbs, Prepositions, Pronouns (possessive,
demonstrative, etc.), Simple tenses, Irregular verbs, Modals (of ability and permission, etc.), Basic
questions, etc. Collocations, Spellings, Words related to animals, Household things, Clothes, Basic
emotions, Food, Animals and Pets, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like stories,
Anecdotes, etc. Understand information through pictures, Time-table format, etc., Acquire broad
understanding of and look for specific information in short texts like messages,
Invitations, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like apology, greeting, introduction, request, etc.
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
2 1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 2
2. In one trip a car can take 6 people. In how many trips can it take 30 people?
(A) 5 trips (B) 6 trips (C) 4 trips (D) 10 trips
3. Raman had 28 balloons. In party 8 balloons were burst. How many are left with him?
(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 25 (D) 18
4. In which one of the following numbers, the digits cannot be rearranged to get another three digit number?
(A) 400 (B) 425 (C) 968 (D) 129
5. If means +, • means – , means > , means <, then which of the following is not true?
7. 2 + 3 + 16 = 10 +
(A) 9 (B) 21 (C) 10 (D) 11
8. Find odd one out.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2
Class 3
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. If Rahul puts exactly 2 fish in each fishbowl, how many fish will he use to put in 20 bowls ?
(A) 40 (B) 22 (C) 42 (D) 20
2. Which is true ?
(A) 6,293 > 4,526 (B) 4,521 < 4,297 (C) 6,113 > 6,169 (D) 6,750 = 6,150
3. Which means seven thousand five hundred ninetytwo ?
(A) 7,592 (B) 5,792 (C) 5,972 (D) 7,529
4.
Reena ate 1/8 of the cake. How much of the cake did she eat ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. The chart shows the number of pages Mansi read during four days.
Day Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday
Pages Read 24 17 31 26
How many more pages did Mansi read on Wednesday than on Tuesday ?
(A) 26 (B) 16 (C) 14 (D) 24
SCIENCE
6. Solar energy comes from
(A) The sun (B) Tides (C) Oil (D) Fossils
7. Water droplets that are too heavy to float make
(A) Fog (B) Clouds (C) Rain (D) Smoke
8. Which of the following does not take the shape of the container it is in ?
(A) Pencil (B) Oil (C) Water (D) Milk
3
Class 3
SOF
1. A class collected seven hundred fourteen box tops. Which number represents seven hundred fourteen?
(A) 704 (B) 714 (C) 740 (D) 741
2. What is the standard form of 7,000 + 800 + 20 + 5?
(A) 7,285 (B) 7,825 (C) 7,852 (D) 7,528
3. The students count 149 balls in the gym. What is another way of writing the number of balls in the gym?
(A) Fourteen nine (B) One fortynine
(C) One hundred fortynine (D) One hundred fourteen nine
4. Which place value is used to prove that 5,487 is less than 5,874?
(A) Ones place (B) Tens place (C) Hundreds place (D) Thousands place
5. Tina shades in 3 spaces on a game board. Game Board
What fraction of the game board is shaded?
(A) 3/6 (B) 3/5
(C) 3/3 (D) 6/3
6. What property of addition will help you find the answer to the problem: 6 + 0 = ?
(A) Zero plus any number equals zero
(B) Zero plus any number equals that number
(C) Zero minus any number equals that number
(D) Zero minus any number equals zero
7. Sara and 3 of her friends together made a poster. They drew 8 rows of squares with 6 squares in
each row. How many squares did Sara and her friends draw on the poster?
(A) 48 (B) 42 (C) 40 (D) 17
8. How would this block model look from the top?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4
Class 3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following uses a rule most different from Meena’s pattern?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. If Pawan has baseball practice every fourth day in the month of
March, starting with March 1, what date will be his last day of
practice for the month?
(A) March 28
(B) March 29
(C) March 30
(D) March 31
14. The rule for sorting is “has four or more corners.” Which group has been sorted correctly?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. Thirdgrade students went to a theatre in 8 buses. Each bus took 45 students. How many students went
to the theatre?
(A) 320 (B) 360 (C) 380 (D) 3240
5
Class 3
E SOF
1. Look at the pictures. Find the correct word for the picture.
8. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and
mark it in your answer sheet.
(A) I go for a walk. (B) My father’s name are Prasad.
(C) My name is Kishan.
READING
Direction (Q. No. 9 to 12) : Read the letter and answer the questions.
Letter to Rudolf, Santa’s Reindeer
Dear Rudolf
My name is Meethu. I am a baby parrot! I live with my friend in the great city of Mumbai in the state
of Maharashtra. Of course, that’s in India, but I’ll bet you knew that! Rudolf, some things that I might
like for Christmas this year, two bags full of my favourite seedmix, lots of green chillies and another
6
Class 3
baby parrot to play with. And please don’t forget to put in a good word for my friend with Santa! He
is very nice. He doesn’t keep me in a cage.
Lots of Love
Meethu
Now, choose the correct answer.
9. Meethu lives in
(A) Hyderabad (B) Mumbai (C) A cage
7
Class 3
2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B)
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B)
13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
8
Class 3
CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 2
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals and Number Names, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication
as Repeated Addition, Temperature, Time, Calendar, Measurement of Length and Weight, Geometrical
Shapes, Money.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Introduction to Computers (General Information), Parts
of Computer, Uses of Computer, Learning to use Keyboard and Mouse, Introduction to MS-Paint.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals, Number Name and Number Sense (3 digit numbers),
Addition, Subtraction, Time, Calendar, Measurement of Weight, Length and Temperature, Geometrical
Shapes, Money, Problems Based on Figures, Series Completion, Patterns, Find Odd Numeral Out.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Family, Food, Clothes, House and House
Makers, Occasions and Festivals, Occupation, Good Habits and Safety Rules, Transport and
Communication, Earth and Universe.
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
SOF
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Numerals and Number Name, Number Sense (3 digit numbers), Money, Measurement of Length
(conversions), Weight, Time and Temperature, Calendar, Point, Line and Plane Figures, Problems
Based on Figures, Patterns, Series Completion, Find Odd Numeral Out, Geometrical Shapes.
The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Which set of numbers will give the greatest answer?
P Q R S
3+3 8+2 3+6 5–4
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. This is the key which is used to give space after words, alphabets or numbers. If pressed once, it gives
the space of one character. It is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2
Class 2
Downloaded From : http://cbseportal.com/ Courtesy : olympiad
Downloaded From : http://cbseportal.com/
10. CPU is called the brain of the computer. What does CPU stands for ?
(A) Control Processing Unit (B) Calculations Processing Unit
(C) Central Processing Unit (D) Computer Processing Unit
11. A blinking symbol on the screen that shows where the next character will appear is
(A) Delete key (B) Arrow key (C) Cursor (D) Return key
12. The computer monitor is which type of device ?
(A) Output (B) Input (C) Processor (D) Software
13. There are __________ shift keys on a keyboard.
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
14. A keyboard is which kind of device ?
(A) Block (B) Input (C) Output (D) Word processing
15. A light weight & compact machine, capable of doing everything which a desktop computer can do, is
called _______________.
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Look at the number sentence below.
27 + = 37
What number is missing from the number sentence?
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 17 (D) 64
2. Dolly made the number pattern below.
3, 6, 9, ? , ? , 18
What two numbers are missing from the pattern?
(A) 10, 11 (B) 12, 15 (C) 13, 15 (D) 19, 20
3. The table below shows how many minutes Raghav practiced playing the piano last weekend.
Raghav's Piano Practice
Day Time
(in minutes)
Friday 25
Saturday 30
Sunday 29
How many minutes did Raghav practice playing the piano in all?
(A) 74 Minutes (B) 79 Minutes (C) 84 Minutes (D) 85 Minutes
4. Ram’s cat had 8 kittens as shown below. Ann kept 4 of Ram’s kittens. How many kittens did Ram have
now?
SCIENCE
6. Which of the given figures represents the organ that helps in breathing ?
10. Which of the following modes of transport does not have an engine and are not pulled by animals ?
(A) Cycle (B) Tonga (C) Jeep (D) Car
11. To which place of worship does Sikhs go to pray ?
(A) Temple (B) Mosque (C) Church (D) Gurudwara
13. If you face the rising Sun in the morning, the direction on your left is
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West
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SOF
2. There are 684 pupils in a school. 297 of them are boys. How many girls are there in the school?
(A) 388 (B) 387 (C) 487 (D) 587
3.
` 14 ` 50
` 10
Milk
Biscuit
What is the total cost of the food items displayed ?
(A) ` 74 (B) ` 84 (C) ` 64 (D) ` 70
4. Number of triangles in the given figure
_________
1
6. Which of the following shows part shaded ?
4
11. Anupriya had ` 90. She bought a pair of scissors for ` 60. How much amount she has now ?
(A) ` 30 (B) ` 40 (C) ` 35 (D) ` 25
12. Mrs. Tanuja bakes 20 cup cakes. If she packs 4 cup cakes in one box, how many boxes does she
need to pack all the cakes ?
(A) 7 boxes (B) 6 boxes (C) 5 boxes (D) 3 boxes
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6+3
14. There are 3 stars on a flag. There are 7 such flags. How many stars are there altogether ?
E SOF
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READING
Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Something smells good in the kitchen,
Sugary, spicy and sweet.
A pudding? A pie? What can it be?
Mom’s making a special treat.
So I peep into the kitchen
And as you all can see,
That sugary, spicy, sweet surprise
Is a Birthday Cake for me!
12. What is Mom making in the kitchen?
(A) A pudding (B) Sugar (C) A Birthday Cake
13. What kind of a surprise is it?
(A) Shocking (B) Sweet (C) Good
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2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS
National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B)
10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
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CLASS
SAMPLE PAPER 1
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There
are 2 sections: 10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There
are 3 sections: 10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in
section III.
SOF Section – I : Logical Reasoning
Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Numerals, Number Name and Number Sense (2 digit numbers), Addition,
Subtraction, Length, Weight, Time, Money, Geometrical Skills, Patterns,
Odd One Out, Series Completion, Problems Based on Figures.
SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Rohan and Mona are playing a game. Mona asked Rohan to move 2 steps away from her. If Rohan is
on 7th step, where will he be after moving?
Rohan
Mona
10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
(A) 5th step (B) 3rd step (C) 9th step (D) 10th step
` 10
(A) (B)
`3
` 12 ` 15
(C) (D)
4. Which of the following is the correct order from the tallest to shortest?
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5. Given pot has 1 red ball and rest blue balls. How many are blue colour balls?
SCIENCE
6. Look at the picture and complete the following sentence.
10. Unscramble the words given below to get the name of the home of the
animal shown in the figure.
‘ATSLBE’
(A) Ebstla (B) Tebsla
(C) Stable (D) Belsta
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13. The picture shows that our house keeps us safe from
15. Choose the correct sequence of words to complete the paragraph given below.
Summer days are _________ while winter days are __________. A strong wind blows on _________.
Monsoon days are ____________.
(A) Cold, hot, a windy day, rainy (B) Rainy, cold, a hot day, windy
(C) Hot, cold, a windy day, rainy (D) Windy, hot, a rainy day, cold
SOF
2. Latika, Monika and Sonika are sitting in a row. Latika is sitting between Monika and Sonika. Which of the
following is the correct order?
3. The can jump two steps at a time. If it is at 5th step, where will it be after 2 jumps?
(A)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(B)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(C) (D)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
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4. Four friends are celebrating their birthdays. The candles on cake shows their ages. Who is the eldest?
8. Add me to 4 and subtract me from 12. The answer is the same. Who am I?
(A) 14 (B) 10 4 12
(C) 6 (D) 4
10.
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11. Which of the following shows the object which can hold maximum water?
R
` 10 ERASE `2 `5
14. Chintu has 24 balls. He gaves 2 balls to his sister. How many balls does Chintu has now?
(A) 22 balls (B) 20 balls (C) 18 balls (D) 21 balls
E SOF
3. Identify the object in the picture and fill in the blanks to form the correct spelling.
BALL_ _N
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5. Ssrga
(A) Ragss (B) Rgass (C) Grass
6. Find the odd one out from the given set of words.
East, west, north, but, south
(A) But (B) North (C) South
READING
Direction (Q. No. 10 to 13) : For the given picture, answer the following questions.
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2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
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