Junior Science NCO

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Olympiad: Homi Bhabha Centre For Science Education

(eBook) Olympiad Previous Years Paper's


Subject: Junior Science (NCO)
Content Table
NCO Sample Paper For Class 1

NCO Sample Paper For Class 2

NCO Sample Paper For Class 3

NCO Sample Paper For Class 4

NCO Sample Paper For Class 5

NCO Sample Paper For Class 6

NCO Sample Paper For Class 7

NCO Sample Paper For Class 8

NCO Sample Paper For Class 9

NCO Sample Paper For Class 10

NCO Sample Paper For Class 11

NCO Sample Paper For Class 12


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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 12
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections: 10
questions in section I, 10 in section II and 30 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers, Linear Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry,
SOF Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic
Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics & Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks,
Shares and Debentures, Average and Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants,
Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and nonverbal reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Programming in C++, Database Concepts, SQL, Boolean
Algebra, Networking & Topologies, Network Security Concepts, Cyber ethics, Viruses and Antiviruses,
Open Source Terminologies.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 20 questions
in section I and 30 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mathematics) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers, Linear Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry,
Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic
Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics & Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks,
Shares and Debentures, Average and Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants,
Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus, Verbal and Nonverbal Reasoning.
OR
Section – I (Biology) : Reproduction, Genetics and Evolution, Biology in Human Welfare, Bio-
technology, Ecology.
Section – II (Physics & Chemistry) : Physics: Electricity and Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction,
AC, E.M. Waves, Optics, Modern Physics, Solids & Semiconductor Devices, Communication Systems.
Chemistry: Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General
Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements (Group 15 to 18), d- & f-
Block Elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and
Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in
Everyday Life.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections, 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section I : Logical Reasoning, Section II : Mathematical Reasoning & Section III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
SOF Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms, Complex Numbers, Linear
Inequations, Quadratic Equations, Sequences and Series, Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular
Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Permutations and
Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Exponential and Logarithmic Series, Mathematical Logic, Statistics
& Probability, Three Dimensional Geometry, Vectors, Stocks, Shares and Debentures, Average and
Partition Values, Index Numbers, Matrices and Determinants, Limits, Differential Calculus, Integral
Calculus, Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning.

IN ASSOCIATION WITH

OPEN SYLLABUS
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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
3(log x )2 +log ( x )- 5
2 2
1. The equation x4 = 2 has 4
(A) Atleast one real solution (B) Exactly four real solutions
(C) Exactly two irrational solutions (D) Complex roots
1 1 1
2. The roots of the equation x 3 + ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are p, q and r. The equation with roots are , ,
p q r is
(A) x 4 + ax 2 + b = 0 (B) bx 4 + ax 2 + 1 = 0
(C) (x2 + ax + b)2 = 0 (D) None of these
1

3.
p
Find Lim tan + x
x ®0 4 { ( )} x

(A) e (B) e 2 (C) e 3 (D) e – 1


1
4. The domain of definition of the function f ( x ) = , where [ . ] stands for greatest integer function, is
[x] - 1 - 5
(A) [6, ¥) (B) ( - ¥,7) È (7, ¥ ) (C) ( -¥,7] È [7, ¥ ) (D) None of these

5. If the function f (x) increases in the interval (a, b) then the function f( x ) = [f ( x )]2
(A) Increases in (a, b) (B) Decreases in (a, b)
(C) We cannot say that f(x) increases or decreases in (a, b)
(D) All of these
x
ò log t dt
a
6. Lim x
is equal to
cos p dt
x ®1
a ò 2t
(A) p / 2 (B) 0 (C) 2 / p (D) Does not exist
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
7. In a group of persons working in a software company, 6 persons can operate on DOS, 15 can operate on
windows operating system and 6 can operate on Linux. In that group none can operate on any other
operating system. If 2 persons in the group can work on two operating systems and one person can work
on all the three, then how many persons are there in the group?
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
8. Four persons Alok, Bhupesh, Chandu and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and
Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chandu and Dinesh between them but Alok has more
money than Bhupesh, and Chandu has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more
than Dinesh. Who has the most money?
(A) Alok (B) Bhupesh (C) Chandu (D) Dinesh
9. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that
order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What
is the integer assigned to N ?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
10. Which one of the following four logical diagrams represents correctly the relationship between musicians,
instrumentalists and violinists?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3. When there is storm,
Y is blocked. When there are floods X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked. At
a time when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used ?
(A) Z and 2 (B) Only Z (C) Only 3 (D) Only Y

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12. Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it should be testable and that it should be stated in
a manner that it can be refuted. Which one of the following hypothesis, fulfills these characteristics?
(A) Intelligent persons have good memory (B) Some birds are animals
(C) Some businessmen are dishonest (D) All men are mortal

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


13. Which of the following statements about C++ are true
Statement 1 : C++ was developed by Bjarne Stroustrup in early 1980s
Statement 2 : C++ provides following tokens (smallest individual unit in program) : keywords, identifiers,
literals, punctuator, operators
Statement 3 : C++ allows following literals: integer­constant (Decimal, Octal, Hexadecimal), character­
constant, floating­constant, string­literal
Statement 4 : C++ provides two types of data types: fundamental and derived data types.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) All of these
14. Match the following Properties Network
(1) A total data rate of at least several Mbps (A) LAN
(2) Span entire countries (B) WAN
(3) Very low error rates
(4) Owned by multiple organization
(A) 1A, 2B, 3A, 4B (B) 1A, 2B, 3B, 4A
(C) 1B, 2B, 3A, 4A (D) 1A, 2A, 3B, 4B
15. Assertion (A) : Antivirus programs protect a computer from computer virus.
Reason (R) : These programs work by examining all the files on a disk, looking for the tell­tale ‘signatures’
of virus code
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason of A
(C) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) A is false but R is true

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MATHEMATICS
1. A large watermelon weighs 20 kg with 98% of its weight being water. It is left to stand in the sun and some
of the water evaporates so that now only 95% of its weight is water. What is its reduced weight?
(A) 17 kg (B) 19.4 kg (C) 10 kg (D) 8 kg

2. Four bags were to be weighed but the scale could weigh only weights in excess of 100 kg. If the bags were
weighed in pairs and the weights were found to be 103, 105, 106, 107 and 109, then the weight of the
lightest bag is
(A) 50 kg (B) 51 kg (C) 49 kg (D) 52 kg
3. A plane flies from A to B and back again with a constant engine speed. Turn­around time may be neglected. Will
the travel time be more with a wind of constant speed blowing in the direction from A to B than in still air?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Depends on the engine (D) Insufficient data
4. Given four points in space which are not in a plane, the number of planes which are equidistant from all the
four points is
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

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OR
BIOLOGY
1. Gametophytic self incompatibility differs from sporophytic self incompatibility in that
(A) It allows germination of pollens
(B) It occurs due to incompatibility of stigma
(C) It occurs due to incompatibility of sporophytic tissues
(D) It occurs due to incompatibility of pollens.
2. XO­chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
(A) Turner’s syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) None of these.
3. The best definition of an ecosystem is
(A) The inter­relationship between producers, consumers and decomposers of an environment
(B) A stable co­existence of dominant species in an environment
(C) A natural unit including plants, animals and non­living constituent of the environment
(D) A number of population of organisms of different species
4. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is
(A) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(B) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(C) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(D) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics.
PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
5. A metal x is prepared by the electrolysis of fused chlorides. It reacts with hydrogen to form a colourless
solid from which hydrogen is released on treatment with water. The metal is
(A) Al (B) Ca (C) Cu (D) Zn
6. Mortar is a mixture of
(A) Ca(OH)2, Silica and Water (B) CaCO3 and SiO2
(C) CaO and Silica (D) CaCO3, SiO2 and Water
7. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refractive index m, the angle of incidence is found to be
twice the angle of refraction. Then the angle of incidence is
(A) cos–1 (m/2) (B) 2cos–1 (m/2) (C) 2sin–1 m (D) 2sin–1(m/2)
8. What causes the tail of the comet?
(A) Centrifugal force pushes away the gases (B) Lighter gases are left behind during the orbital motion
(C) Tail of comet always exists but becomes visible near the sun.
(D) The radiation pressure from the sun causes the tail
9. A ray of light in a liquid of refractive index 1.4, approaches the boundary surface between the liquid and air
at an angle of incidence whose sine is 0.8. Which of the following statements is correct about the behavior
of the light ?
(A) It is impossible to predict the behavior of the light ray on the basis of the information supplied
(B) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be less than 0.8
(C) The ray will be internally reflected
(D) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be greater than 0.8
V =30V V 2=20V
10. For the circuit shown in figure, which of the following statements is true? S1 1 S3 S2
+ – + –
(A) With S1 closed, V1 = 15 V, V2 = 20 V
(B) With S3 closed, V1 = V2 = 25 V C1=2pF C2=3pF

(C) With S1 and S2 closed, V1 = V2 = 0


(D) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V.

CH 3 CH 3
11. The IUPAC name of CH – CH 2 – C – CH 2 – CH is
CH 3 CH 3
O
(A) 2,4­dimethylhexanone­3 (B) 2,6­dimethylheptanone­4
(C) 2,6­dimethylhexanone­4 (D) 2,6­dimethylheptanone­5

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SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. The “Golden Rectangle” of the ancient Greeks was considered to have the most pleasing proportion of any
rectangle. The ratio of width (w) to height (h) of the rectangle is expressed in the following proportion and
is shown in the drawing below. w

w 2 h
=
h 5 -1

Jason is planning to paint a rectangular mural using the proportions of the “Golden Rectangle.” If the mural
is 15 meters wide, how high should it be?
(A) 1.6 meters (B) 9.3 meters (C) 16.5 meters (D) 24.2 meters

2. The given table shows the boiling points in degrees Celsius for BOILING POINTS OF SOME ELEMENTS

some different elements.Which of the following elements have Element Boiling Point (in °C)
boiling points that are lower than –190°C ? Chlorine – 34.6
(A) Chlorine and Oxygen Helium – 269.0
Hydrogen – 252.9
(B) Oxygen and nitrogen
Nitrogen – 195.8
(C) Chlorine, helium, and hydrogen
Oxygen – 183.0
(D) Helium, hydrogen, and nitrogen
t
æ 1 ö 300 ,
3. A certain radioactive element decays over time according to the equation y = A è ø where A = the
2
number of grams present initially and t = time in years. If 1000 grams were present initially, how many
grams will remain after 900 years?
(A) 500 grams (B) 250 grams (C) 125 grams (D) 62.5 grams
4
4. Which is the first incorrect step in simplifying log4 ?
64
Step 1: log4 4 = log4 4 - log4 64 Step 2 : = 1 – 16 Step 3 : = – 15
64
(A) Step 1 (B) Step 2 (C) Step 3 (D) Each step is correct

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. Which expression represents f(g(x)) if f (x) = x2 – 1 and g(x) = x + 3?
(A) x3 + 3x2 – x – 3 (B) x2 + 6x + 8 (C) x2 + x + 2 (D) x2 + 8

6. From a deck of card two are drawn. The probability that both are of same suit is
1 1 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 13 17 17

x 2 - 16
7. On a recent test, Jyoti wrote the equation = x + 4. Which of the following statements is correct
x-4
about the equation she wrote?
(A) The equation is always true (B) The equation is always true, except when x = 4
(C) The equation is never true (D) The equation is sometimes true when x = 4

8. If x is a real number, which best describes the values of x for which the inequality x > 0 is true?
(A) All x > 0 (B) All x ³ 0 (C) All values of x (D) No values of x
9. If the equation y = 2x is graphed, which of the following values of x would produce a point closest to the x­axis?
(A) 1/4 (B) 3/4 (C) 5/3 (D) 8/3

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2 2
æ xö æ yö
10. The graph of è ø - ç ÷ = 1 is a hyperbola. Which set of equations represents the asymptotes of the
2 è 3ø
hyperbola’s graph ?
3 3 3 2
(A) y = x, y = - x (B) y = x, y = - x
2 2 2 3
1 1 1 1
(C) y = x, y = - x (D) y = x, y = - x
2 2 3 3
Y
11. What system of inequalities best represents the graph shown? 5
4
3
(A) y > – 2 and y > x + 1 (B) y > – 2 and y < x + 1 2
1
x
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 00 2 3 4 5
–1
(C) y < – 2 and y > x + 1 (D) y < – 2 and y < x + 1 –2
–3
–4
–5

p/3
sin x k
12. If ò dx = then value of k equals
p/6
cos x + sin x 4
(A) p/12 (B) p/3 (C) p/2 (D) p/7
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Mrs. Ballad decided to apply wallpaper on one wall of her living room.
A diagram of the rectangular wall with its window is shown.
8 ft 4 ft window
A roll of wallpaper covers approximately 30 square feet. What is the
minimum number of rolls she will have to buy in order to cover the 8 ft
entire wall excluding the window? 24 ft
(A) 2 rolls (B) 5 rolls (C) 6 rolls (D) 7 rolls
14. A box contains 7 large red marbles, 5 large yellow marbles, 3 small red marbles, and 5 small yellow
marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is yellow, given that it is one of the
large marbles?
(A) 5/12 (B) 7/20 (C) 5/8 (D) 1/5
15. A restaurant manager bought 20 packages of bagels. Some packages contained 6 bagels each, and the
rest contained 12 bagels each. There were 168 bagels in all. How many packages of 12 bagels did the
manager buy?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 12

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE\

A. Write one word that can be used in all three sentences.


1.
a. You can stay with us if you like, we’ve got a _____ room in our house.
b. It’s very difficult to get _____ parts for this old washing machine.
c. I like my school but the hours are so long it doesn’t allow me much ____ time.
(A) spare (B) extra (C) new (D) also
B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Choose from A, B, C
or D.
2. With the coming of the motor car at the end of the last century, a new era in personal transport was
born. The early motorist certainly _____ his problems.
(A) Is (B) want (C) had (D) has
3. Perhaps the biggest one being _______ his vehicle would start or not.
(A) whether (B) what (C) when (D) that

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4. More traffic and faster vehicles mean that, __________ safe and reliable a car may be, its driver has
to have more driving skill than ever before.
(A) though (B) however (C) also (D) always
5. Today’s drivers cannot neglect their own direct and personal_________ for the accidents that happen
on the road every year.
(A) responsibility (B) risks (C) dangers (D) well being
6. A good driver has many things in his make­up. Some of ________, such as experience and skill, will
come only in time.
(A) them (B) that (C) this (D) it
7. But others­just as important­must _____ part of him from the start.
(A) Get (B) form (C) being (D) of
8. These qualities are a ___________ of responsibility for the safety of others.
(A) seeing (B) sense (C) felt (D) being
9. And a determination to ________ on the job of driving, patience and courtesy.
(A) Aim (B) focus (C) think (D) succeed
10. Together, these become what is generally known ________ the driver’s attitude.
(A) All (B) of (C) as (D) has
READING

C. For each sentence match one half of the sentence with the second half of the sentence from
A­D.
11. Hardly had he put the phone down.....
12. At no time in my life.......
13. Under no circumstances.....
14. Little did I realise ........
(A) that the teachers were watching me.
(B) when he heard the sound of the fire engines.
(C) have I taken something that didn’t belong to me.
(D) would I not protect a friend who was accused unfairly.

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


D. Read the extracts given and answer the question given. Choose the answer from A, B,
C or D.
Summer jobs for students
Employers are more and more interested in taking on students during their holiday periods. Students can
do the easier tasks and free up time for their permanent employees to concentrate on the more demanding
ones. Although there is little financial reward for students, it is a great chance to explore their interests
and add to their CVs. However, few students know what jobs may be available.
Schools sometimes advertise summer jobs on their notice­boards and in newspapers, and there are also
well known international organisations which can help. Students can also search the web, find an interesting
company and email the manager to ask what temporary jobs exist. This may sound time consuming but
then students get to work in the company of their choice, so it is what I recommend.
15. The writer says the best way to find a summer job is
(A) to ask their schools for help (B) to read the job advertisements in the press
(C) to join an organised student programme (D) to contact possible employers directly

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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET
1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER
8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT W RONG
way to darken way to darken
P ×
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MA RK YOUR AN SWERS WITH H B PENC IL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/B LACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International M athematics International English
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) MATHEMATICS Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A)
7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A)
10.(A) 11. (C) 12. (A) BIOLOGY, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B)
13.(D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D)
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (D) 11. (B)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 11
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections : 10
questions in section I, 10 in section II and 30 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series
SOF (A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and
Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial
Theorem, Statistics, Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and Non-verbal Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : History, Generation and Types of Computers, Working with OS,
Input, Output & Memory Devices, Data Representation, Basics of IT, Internet Services and Protocols,
Introduction to XML, Networking, Viruses and Antiviruses, Introduction to C++ till Data Structures.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 20 questions
in section I and 30 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mathematics) : Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms,
Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series
SOF
(A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry, Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and
Family of Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial
Theorem, Statistics, Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry, Verbal and
Non-Verbal Reasoning.
OR
Section – I (Biology) : Diversity in the Living World, Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals,
Cell : Structure and Functions, Plant Physiology, Human Physiology.
Section – II (Physics & Chemistry) : Physics: Units & Measurements, Mechanics, Properties of
Matter, Heat & Thermodynamics, Oscillations, Waves.
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, Thermodynamics,
Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Groups 13 and
14), Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections, 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section I : Logical Reasoning, Section II : Mathematical Reasoning & Section III : Everyday
Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Sets, Relations and Functions, Mathematical Induction, Logarithms, Complex Numbers & Quadratic
SOF
Equations, Linear Inequations, Differentiation, Sequences and Series (A.P. & G.P. Misc.), Trigonometry,
Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates, Straight Lines and Family of Straight Lines, Circles,
Conic Section, Trigonometry, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial Theorem, Statistics,
Mathematical Logic, Limits, Probability, Introduction to 3-D Geometry, Problems Based on Figures,
Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical
Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.

IN ASSOCIATION WITH

OPEN SYLLABUS

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. The points z1, z2, z3, on the complex plane are the vertices of an equilateral triangle if and only if :
2
(A) å (z1 - z2 ) ( z2 - z3 ) = 0 (B) åz
1 = 2å z1z2
2
(C) åz 1 = 4å z1z2 (D) ( z1 + z2 + z3 )2 = 3å z1z2

2. A student is allowed to select atmost n books from a collection of (2n + 1) books. If the total number of
ways in which he can select atleast 1 book is 63, find the value of n.
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4

3. c1 is a fixed circle and c2 is a variable circle with fixed radius. The common transverse tangents to c1 and
c2 are perpendicular to each other. The locus of the centre of variable circle is
(A) Circle (B) Ellipse
(C) Hyperbola (D) Parabola

4. The value of log2 [cos2 ( a + b) + cos2 ( a - b) - cos 2a × cos 2b]


(A) Depends on a & b both (B) Depends on a but not on b
(C) Depends on b but not on a (D) Is Independent of both a & b

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING


5. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’; ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ and ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of R’?
(A) M – R + K (B) M + K – R
(C) M + K × Q (D) There is no such symbol
6. If 1 is coded as Y, 2 is coded as M, 3 as D, 4 as H, 5 as T, 6 as L, 7 as P, 8 as V and 9 as N, which of the
following is the coded form of 3972465?
(A) DNPMHLP (B) DNPMHNT (C) DNPMHLT (D) DNPMNLT

7. Which letter will be the sixth to the left of the nineteenth letter from the right end of the following alphabets?
ABC D EFG H IJ K LMN O PQ R STU VW XYZ
(A) N (B) M (C) Y (D) F
8. Bablu ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty­ninth from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in the examination. How many
boys were there in that class?
(A) 44 (B) 50 (C) 55 (D) 40

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


9. Which of the following is not correct
(A) E­commerce includes all business activities involved in the development, facilitation and implementation
of business communications and transaction through electronic media
(B) The Intranet is a restricted version of the Internet within a group of users
(C) The Extranet is a closed online network connecting two or more organisations
(D) None of the above.
10. A debugging tool is a program which
(A) Removes bugs from a user program (B) Removes viruses from the computer
(C) Helps the user find bugs in his/her program (D) Displays errors in a user program
11. Computers can be protected from virus by using
(A) Software (B) Hardware
(C) Software and hardware (D) Cannot be protected at all

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12. Y2K problem mainly arose in computer programmes written in
(A) COBOL (B) BASIC (C) FORTRAN (D) PASCAL
13. In the context of information technology, the term security refers to
(A) Confidentiality only (B) Authentication only
(C) Integrity only (D) All of these
14. Which of the following are super computers developed by Indian Scientists?
1. PARAM 2. ANURAG 3. GIST 4. CDAC
Answer choices
(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 1 only (C) All except 3 (D) 1 and 4
15. Which of the following statements about DOS are true?
1. DOS is an acronym for Disk Operating System
2. Loading of DOS into the main memory is known as booting
3. Storage areas on a disk are known as directories. A directory may contain files and/or subdirectories
inside it.
4. Wildcards are special characters carrying special meaning. Two MS­DOS wild cards are ? and *
5. A filter is a command that recieves its input from the standard input device and sends its
output to standard output device. FIND, MORE and SORT are MS­DOS filters.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) All except 3 (D) All of these

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MATHEMATICS
1. A man moving on a parabolic path finds the angle of elevation of a pole, standing on the focus of path,
to be 75°. If the directrix of path is at a distance of 7 metres from him then height of pole is
(2 + 3 ) (2 - 3 )
(A) (14 + 7 3) m (B) m (C) (14 - 7 3 ) m (D) m
7 7
2. Three ladies have each brought a child for admission to a school. The head of the school wishes to
interview the six people one by one, taking care that no child is interviewed before its mother. The
number of ways of doing this is
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) 90
3. A refrigerator is offered for sale at Rs. 250.00 with successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The sale price
of the refrigerator is
(A) 35% less than Rs. 250.00 (B) 65% of Rs. 250.00
(C) 77% of Rs. 250.00 (D) 68% of Rs. 250.00

4. The number of revolutions of a wheel, with fixed centre and with an outside diameter of 6 m, required to
cause a point on the rim to go one km is
(A) 880 (B) 440/p (C) 500/3p (D) 440 p

OR

BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following statements are true for photosynthetic bacteria (PB) and chemosynthetic bacteria
(CB)?
(a) obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic molecule such as ammonium salt
(b) obtain energy from sunlight (c) contain photosynthetic pigments
(d) are autotrophs.
(A) PB ­ b, c, d ; CB ­ a, d (B) PB ­ a, c ; CB ­ b, d
(C) PB ­ b, d ; CB ­ a, b (D) PB ­ a, b, c ; CB ­ b, c, d

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2. Anaerobic respiration releases less energy than aerobic respiration because
(A) Energy from oxygen is not made available (B) Ethyl alcohol is a source of energy
(C) Carbon dioxide is released (D) Less energy is required by fermenting organisms
3. Three bean seedlings were grown in three culture solutions. After six weeks, X had yellow leaves and
short internodes, Y has red patches on the stem and Z had green leaves and stem. It can be deduced
that
(A) X lacked magnesium, Y lacked calcium and Z lacked molybdenum
(B) X lacked calcium, Y lacked nitrogen and Z lacks chlorine
(C) X lacked calcium, Y lacked nitrogen and Z had all nutrients
(D) X lacked magnesium, Y lacked nitrogen and Z had all nutrients
4. In the life cycle of a fern the meiosis occurs during the
(A) Formation of spores (B) Formation of gametes
(C) Germination of a spore (D) Development of a zygote

PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY


5. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) contains 94.11% sulphur, water (H2O) contains 11.11% hydrogen and sulphur
dioxide (SO2) contains 50% oxygen. Find the ratio of all given elements. After your calculations which
law has been verified?
(A) Law of multiple proportion (B) Law of reciprocal proportion
(C) Law of constant components (D) Law of combining volumes
6. An astronaut in the space shuttle orbiting the earth performs a trick for a television audience. She
inflates a helium filled balloon within the shuttle's controlled atmosphere and lets go of it. To the astonish­
ment of all watching, the balloon
(A) Hovers in place where it was released.
(B) Rises noticeably away from the earth.
(C) Falls noticeably towards the earth.
(D) Drifts backwards opposite to the direction of the shuttle's velocity.

7. A boy throws a table tennis ball of mass 20 g upwards with a velocity of u0 = 10 m/s at an angle q0 with
the vertical. The wind imparts a horizontal force of 0.08 N, so that the ball returns to the starting point.
Then, the angle q0 must be such that, tan q0 is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 2.5 (D) 1.2

8. A weight is attached to the free end of a sonometer wire. It gives resonance at a length 40 cm when it is
resonanced with a tuning fork of frequency 51Hz. The weight is then immersed wholly in water, the
resonant length is reduced to 30 cm. The relative density in which weight suspended is
(A) 16/9 (B) 16/7 (C) 16/5 (D) 16/3
9. A tank of water has a pinhole leak in the side, 1 m below the water line. If the tank is open to the
atmosphere (air pressure = 1.013 × 105 pa), how fast is the water leaving the pinhole ?
(A) g / 4 (B) g / 0.1 (C) 2g (D) g
10. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas expands till its temperature doubles under the process V2T =
constant. If the initial temperature is 400 K, the work done by the gas is
(A) 400 R (B) 200 R (C) – 200 R (D) Indeterminate
11. In the reaction,
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion :
(A) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (B) 2.0 mole of NO will be produced
(C) All the oxygen will be consumed (D) All the ammonia will be consumed

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SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. Tony and Sunil are participating in a jog­a­thon to raise money for charity. Tony will raise Rs. 20, plus Rs. 2 for
each lap he jogs. Sunil will raise Rs. 30, plus Rs.1.50 for each lap he jogs. The total amount of money each
will raise can be calculated using the follwing expressions where n represents the number of laps run :
Tony : 20 + 2n ; Sunil : 30 + 1.50n
After how many laps will they have raised the same amount of money?
(A) 3 (B) 6.5 (C) 14.5 (D) 20

mx + my
2. A formula for computing a value r is r = , where m, x, y, w and z are positive integers. An
wz
increase in which variable would result in a corresponding decrease in r ?
(A) m (B) x (C) y (D) z
3. The Venn diagram below shows the types of novels the literature club Literature Club Summer Reading
members read during their summer break. Adventure Romance
Which of the following is NOT supported by the information in the Venn
diagram? 36 14 43
7
(A) 21 members read both an adventure novel and a romance novel 2 3
(B) 64 members read only an adventure novel or a mystery novel 28
(C) 26 members read all three types of novels
Mystery
(D) 67 members read a romance novel

4. A guitar manufacturer uses a computer­controlled machine to make electric Hours Total Number of
guitars. The table shows the total number of guitars made after 2, 4, 8 and 16 (h ) Guitars Made
( g)
hours. If g represents the total number of guitars made after h hours, which
2 18
equation represents the pattern shown in the table?
4 42
(A) g = 12h – 6 (B) g = 12h 8 90
(C) g = 3h2 – 6 (D) g = 3h2 + 6 16 186

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. What is the solution to the system of equations shown below?
ì2 x - y + 3 z = 8
ï
íx - 6 y - z = 0
ï -6 x + 3 y - 9 z = 24
î
æ 10 ö
(A) (0, 4, 4) (B) ç 1, 4, ÷ (C) No solution (D) Infinitely many solutions
è 3ø
6. What is the nth term in the arithmetic series below?
3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 .....
(A) 4n (B) 3 + 4n (C) 2n + 1 (D) 4n – 1
7. A train is made up of a locomotive, 7 different cars, and a caboose. If the locomotive must be first, and
the caboose must be last, how many different ways can the train be ordered?
(A) 5040 (B) 181,440 (C) 362,880 (D) 823,543
p
8. If A + B = then value of (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B) equals
4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) –2 (D) –1
9. What are the coordinates of the image of point P(–3, –7) after a reflection about the line y = 2?
(A) (– 3, 9) (B) (– 3, 11) (C) (5, – 7) (D) (7, – 7)
y
10. Look at this function 3
As the value of x increases, the y­values form a repeating pattern. 2
If this pattern continues, what is the y­value when x = 26? 1
–1 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x
(A) – 2 (B) – 1
–2
(C) 1 (D) 2 –3

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11. What is the range of the function f(x) = x2 + 3 if the domain is {– 3, 0, 3}?
(A) {3, 12} (B) {– 6, 3, 12}
(C) All real numbers (D) All real numbers greater than or equal to 3

12. The sum of three consecutive odd integers is 21. If x is the least of these odd integers, which equation
must be true?
(A) 3x = 21 (B) 3x + 3 = 21 (C) 3x + 4 = 21 (D) 3x + 6 = 21
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
Giant Wheel
13. Julie works at the amusement park with the maintenance crew. She needs to replace
a string of burned­out lights along the arc shown between seat 1 and seat 6. The arc
makes up 1/4 of the Giant Wheel. Seat 6
The 20 seats of the wheel are equally spaced, and the supports from the centre of 15 feet

the wheel to each seat are 15 feet in length. How long, to the nearest foot, does the
string of replacement lights need to be? Seat 1
(A) 24 feet (B) 30 feet (C) 47 feet (D) 90 feet
14. The typical wingspan of the little blue heron is 4 inches more than half the typical wingspan of the great
blue heron. If g represents the typical wingspan of the great blue heron, which expression represents the
typical wingspan of the little blue heron?
æ1 ö 1 1
(A) 4 çè g ÷ø (B) g+4 (C) 2g + 4 (D) (g + 4)
2 2 2
15. This diagram shows the angle of inclination of the triangular faces of the Great
Pyramid in Egypt.
When it was built, the length of each side of the square base was 230 meters. h
Which equation represents the height, h, of the Great Pyramid when it was built? 52°
(A) h = 115 sin 52° (B) h = 115 tan 52°
115 115
(C) h = (D) h = 230 m
sin52° tan52°

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


Choose the correct option.
1. The project manager wanted to know the _____ of the project I was working on.
(A) Hunky­dory (B) Spic and span (C) Nook and cranny (D) Nitty­gritty
2. A teetotaller is one who
(A) Sells total tea (B) Is an accountant in a tea shop
(C) Is a T­shirt manufacturer (D) Does not drink alcoholic drinks
3. The famished beggar ______ the food.
(A) nibbled (B) gobbled (C) pecked (D) drank
4. The meeting ______ due to the heavy rains.
(A) postponed (B) was postponed (C) is postpone (D) is postponing
5. Identify the error and mark the part.
Michael Phelp is / the fastest swimmer / while Bolt is / the fast runner
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. My father always ______ my mother’s decision.
(A) stand up (B) stands by (C) calls off (D) takes after
7. Choose one word that would fit in both the blanks.
(i) During the cyclone the ______ of the tree fell off.
(ii) The new bank has opened three ______ in rural areas.
(A) leaves (B) offices (C) branches (D) routes
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Choose the best answer, A, B, C or D, to complete sentence.
8. In the year 2013,_____ automatic payment systems instead of cash.
(A) We’ll be using (B) we’re using (C) We use (D) we must be used
For each pair of words, find two words with the same sound but different spelling. Choose from
A, B,C or D.
9. I cannot ___ to see any animal suffering. The giant pulled the roof off the house with his ____ hands.
(A) bare,beer (B) bare, bear (C) bear, bare (D) bear,beer
Complete the sentence using the right form of the verb . Choose from A,B,C or D.
10. I didn’t know where ____ the book, so I left it on your desk.
(A) sending (B) send (C) to send (D) sent
READING
11. Study the pie­chart and answer the questions.

11. Which European country has the least no. of teens on Facebook?
(A) India (B) USA (C) Japan (D) Germany
12. Which country follows India closely?
(A) Japan (B) USA (C) Germany (D) None of them
13. Japan and Germany put together have more teens on the Facebook than India.
(A) True (B) False (C) Cannot say (D) Partly true

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


Which is the right word in each of these sentences? Choose from A, B, C or D.
14. What does your middle _____ stand for ?
(A) letter (B) name (C) initial (D) not given
15. His first book was published under a ________.
(A) pseudonym (B) homonym (C) synonym (D) title

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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT W RONG
way to darken way to darken
P ×
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MA RK YOUR AN SWERS WITH H B PENC IL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/B LACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) MATHEMATICS Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B)
4. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C)
BIOLOGY, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (B)
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D)
13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C)
10. (C) 11. (C)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 10
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two
Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry, Introduction
SOF
to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related to Circles,
Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Verbal and Non-verbal Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Basics of IT, Operating System, Word Processing Tool, Networking,
Multimedia, MS-Power Point, HTML, Internet, MS-Excel, Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices,
Memory & Storage Devices.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections: 15 questions
in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two
Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry, Introduction
SOF to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related to Circles,
Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability, Direction Sense Test, Mathematical operations,
Number Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Coding-Decoding, Distance, Speed, Time and General
Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Science) : Chemical Reactions and Equations, Acids, Bases and Salts, Metals and
Non-metals, Carbon and its Compounds, Periodic Classification of Elements, Life Processes, Reproduction
in Organisms, Heredity and Evolution, Light-Reflection and Refraction, Human Eye and Colourful
World, Electricity, Magnetic Effects of Electric Current, Sources of Energy, Our Environment and its
Management.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections: 20 questions
in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Direction Sense Test, Mathematical Operations, Number
SOF
Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Coding-Decoding, Distance, Speed, Time and General Reasoning
Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic Progressions, Triangles, Coordinate Geometry,
Introduction to Trigonometry, Some Applications of Trigonometry, Circles, Constructions, Areas Related
to Circles, Surface Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.

The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Concord, Question forms, Tenses, Conditionals,
Modals, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones, Words related to weather,
Countries, Language and people, Global problems, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like Encyclopedias,
Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format, Message format
and others , Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in longer texts
like editorials, Essays, etc., Make inferences from advanced texts
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like Giving/accepting compliments, Agreeing, Disagreeing, Requesting, Seeking
information, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is double that of
a red ball then the number of blue balls in the bag is
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7
2. Which of the following equations have the same graph?
x2 - 9
I. y = x + 3 II. y = III. ( x - 3)y = x 2 - 9
x -3
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(C) II and III only (D) All of these.

æ x 1ö
3. The value of the real number x satisfying log9 x - log9 ç + ÷ = 1 is
è 10 9 ø
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 10

2
4. The sum of first 24 terms of the sequence whose nth term is an = 3 + n, is
3
(A) 275 (B) 272 (C) 280 (D) 270.

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING

5. In a group of five people, K, L and M are ambitious, M, N and R are honest, L, M and N are intelligent and
K, M and R are industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
(A) K alone (B) L and R (C) M and N (D) N alone

6. On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are ‘sky’, ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’
and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
(A) Sky (B) Water (C) Air (D) Light.

7. Step 1 : Multiply by 2
Step 2 : Subtract 1
Step 3 : If less than 10, jump to step 1 and continue from there; otherwise proceed to step 4
Step 4 : Add 7
Step 5 : Divide by 2
Step 6 : Add 2
Step 7 : Multiply by 2
If you start with a value of 6 then calculate how many times you had to jump to step 1.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 0

8. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom,
F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers
and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
(A) G’s brother (B) F’s father (C) E’s daughter (D) A’s son

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


9. <SCRIPT>...</SCRIPT> tag can be placed within _________.
(A) Header (B) Body (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

10. The processing speed of a computer is measured in


(A) Mega byte (B) 16 bit (C) Mega hertz (D) Milli seconds

11. While working in MS­Excel cell address $A4 in a formula means it is a ________ .
(A) Mixed cell reference (B) Absolute cell reference
(C) Relative cell reference (D) Initial cell reference

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12. What is the function of an operating system?


(A) Manages computer’s resources very efficiently.
(B) Takes care of scheduling jobs or execution.
(C) Manages the flow of data and instructions. ‘
(D) All of these.

13. In MS­Word, setting up page margins is done through


(A) Text formatting (B) Page formatting
(C) Text editing (D) Word­wrap

14. Name the smallest addressable set of bits of the computer memory.
(A) Byte (B) Word (C) Pixel (D) Digit

15. Which of the following is not a hardware component?


(A) Mouse (B) LAN
(C) Chip (D) Semiconductor memory.

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. In an office with 21 staff members, 1/3 are men and 2/3 are women. To obtain a staff in which 1/4 are
men, how many women should be hired?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
2. A jogger desires to run a certain course in 1/4 less time than she usually takes; by what percent must she
increase her average running speed to accomplish this goal?
1
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 33 % (D) 50%.
3
3. A salesman makes a commission of x percent on the first ` 2,000 worth of sale in any given month and
y percent on all further sales during that month. If he makes ` 700 from ` 4,000 of sales in October and
he makes ` 900 from ` 5,000 of sales in November, what is the value of x ?
(A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 15%.
4. A magician wants to ship a magic wand to the location of his next show. The rectangular box he has
available for this purpose measures 6 inches wide by 8 inches long by 10 inches high. What is the
longest cylindrical wand of negligible diameter that can be shipped in this box?
(A) 10 inches (B) 8 2 inches (C) 8 3 inches (D) 10 2 inches
5. The price of sugar increased 20 percent in 2000 and 10 percent in 2001. By approximately what percent
would the price at the end of 2001 have to be decreased to restore the price of the sugar to its pre­2000 price?
(A) 40% (B) 32% (C) 30% (D) 24%.
SCIENCE
6. Cornea is a transparent spherical structure which
(A) Reflects light (B) Scatters light (C) Refracts light (D) None of these.

7. A virtual image is formed by a concave mirror when object is placed


(A) Between focus and centre of curvature (B) Beyond C
(C) At infinity (D) Between focus and pole
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8. No heat loss occurs during flow of charge in super conductors because


(A) Speed of charge is slow in it (B) It is bad conductor of heat
(C) It offers zero resistance (D) It generates very small voltage
9. How do we know that fission isn't responsible for the sun’s energy ?
(A) Fission doesn't produce enough energy per gram of fuel
(B) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun would explode
(C) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun's mass would increase
(D) There isn't very much fissionable material in the sun.
10. During calcination of the ore
(A) The lower oxides are converted into higher oxides
(B) The metal gets oxidised to its highest oxide
(C) Volatile impurities are expelled (D) Sulphur present in the ore is converted into SO2
11. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding cast iron?
(A) It is hard and brittle. (B) It can be tempered.
(C) It cannot be welded. (D) It contains 4 ­ 5% of carbon
12. When the stopper of a bottle containing colourless liquid was removed, the bottle gave a smell like that
of vinegar. The liquid in the bottle could be:
(A) Hydrochloric acid solution (B) Sodium hydroxide solution
(C) Acetic acid solution (D) Saturated sodium bicarbonate solution.
13. Lathyrism due to consumption of khesari dal is characterised by
(A) Skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibres
(B) Skeletal deformities, diabetes mellitus and reproductive failure
(C) Retarded growth, precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
(D) Cardiovascular abnormalities, mental retardation and delayed puberty.
14. Which one yields more energy?
(A) Direct burning of cowdung (B) Burning of biogas derived from cowdung
(C) Burning of manure derived from cowdung (D) Burning of semidecayed cowdung
15. Mark the incorrect match.
Nutrient Deficiency Symptom
(A) Iron Anaemia Deficiency of haemoglobin in R.B.C.
(B) Vitamin B1 Beri beri Water logging of the tissue, paralysis
(C) Vitamin B4 Pellagra Pigeon chest, loss of teeth
(D) Vitamin C Scurvy Loosening of teeth, swelling and bleeding of gums

SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. There are 6 short pieces of link chain, each having 4 links. It takes
10 seconds to cut a link and 25 seconds to weld it back together.
What is the shortest possible time to make the longest chain?
(A) 175 seconds (B) 210 seconds
(C) 150 seconds (D) 60 seconds
2. What should come at the place of ‘?’ so that every column or diagonal 3
has the same sum? 19 17
16 7 18
(A) 19 (B) 12 2 1
? 5 11
(C) 13 (D) 15 4 6
10 8 9
13 14
15
Magic Hexagon

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3. A child was looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the East before turning to his right. He went
20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this
point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 metres to the North before meeting his father in
a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
(A) 80 metres (B) 100 metres (C) 140 metres (D) 260 metres
4. If + stands for ‘division’, × stands for ‘addition’, – stands for ‘multiplication’ and ¸ stands for ‘subtraction’,
then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 36 × 6 + 7 ¸ 2 – 6 = 20 (B) 36 ¸ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 = 45
(C) 36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ¸ 3 = 24 (D) 36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ¸ 3 = 74

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
B D
5. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in the following figure.

°
40
(A) 75° (B) 40°
O
65° x
(C) 65° (D) 90° A C

6. What is the complete solution to the equation |3 – 6x| = 15?


(A) x = 2; x = 3 (B) x = – 2; x = 3 (C) x = 2; x = – 3 (D) x = – 2; x = – 3
7. In the figure given here, AB > BC. A

If we assume that mÐA = mÐC, it follows that AB = BC. This contradicts the given
statement that AB > BC. What conclusion can be drawn from this contradiction?
(A) mÐA = mÐB (B) mÐA ¹ mÐB
(C) mÐA = mÐC (D) mÐA ¹ mÐC C B

8. Which polynomial represents (3x2 + x – 4)(2x – 5)?


(A) 6x3 – 13x2 – 13x – 20 (B) 6x3 – 13x2 – 13x + 20
3 2
(C) 6x + 13x + 3x – 20 (D) 6x3 + 13x2 + 3x + 20

9. 2 x + 7 2 x 4 + 21x 3 + 35 x 2 – 37 x + 46 =
4 4
(A) x 3 + 7 x 2 – 7 x + 6 – (B) 2 x 3 +14 x 2 – 14 x +12 –
2x + 7 2x + 7
4 4
(C) x 3 – 7 x 2 + 7 x – 6 + (D) x 3 + 7 x 2 – 7 x + 6 +
2x + 7 2x + 7
10. There are two numbers with the following properties.
1) The second number is 3 more than the first number.
2) The product of the two numbers is 9 more than their sum.
Which of the following represents possible values of these two numbers?
(A) – 6, – 3 (B) – 4, – 1 (C) – 1, 4 (D) – 3, 6

11. If i = –1, what is the value of i 4?


(A) i (B) – i (C) 1 (D) – 1
12. A copper sphere of diameter 18 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4 mm. Find the length of the wire.
(A) 240 m (B) 242 m (C) 243 m (D) 245 m
EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Three ducks and two ducklings weigh 32 kg. Four ducks and three ducklings weigh 44 kg. All ducks
weigh the same and all ducklings weigh the same. What is the weight of two ducks and one duckling?
(A) 20 kg (B) 40 kg (C) 60 kg (D) 64 kg
14. A rectangular sheet of wood has four small squares removed from the corners. It A3

is then cut to make a box that is 5 cm by 4 cm with a volume of 60 cm 3. (Four


pieces of size A4 are removed.) Find the original area of the sheet of wood.
5 cm A1 A2
(A) 200 cm sq. (B) 110 cm sq.
4 cm
(C) 96 cm sq. (D) 100 cm sq. A4

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15. A cereal company decided to increase the height of its boxes by 30 percent
and reduce the width in order to maintain the same volume.
h
Initially, length = 20 cm, height = 40 cm, width = 30 cm
What will the new width be if the length stays the same?
(A) 52 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 23.08 cm (D) 23 cm w

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


Direction (Q. No. 1 and 2) : Choose the most suitable word/phrase for each blank.
1. We have to let the law _____________ and wait for the court verdict in this matter.
(A) Take it course (B) Make its course (C) Take a course (D) Take its course
2. This colour has gone _______________ fashion.
(A) Out from (B) From (C) Out of (D) Off
3. Choose the correct spelling.
(A) Pseudonym (B) Pseuodnym (C) Pseudoname (D) Seudonum
4. Select the correct phrase.
(A) Take it and leave it (B) Take it or give it
(C) Take it or leave it (D) Leave it or take it
Direction (Q. No. 5 and 6) : Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by choosing one of the
four options given below the sentence.
5. Mr. Prasanna is _____________________ and he works for a well­known computer firm.
(A) Dark tall man with an MBA from a Gujarat
(B) A tall dark man from Gujarat with an MBA
(C) An tall dark man from Gujarat with a MBA
(D) With an MBA from Gujarat a tall dark man
6. The Director was so _______________ his team that he was at a loss for words.
(A) Angry with (B) Angry by (C) Angry about (D) Angry on
7. Read the sentences given below; decide if there is an error in one of the underlined parts,
marked as A, B and C. If yes, mark that letter. If no error, mark D.
He said that he would not be able /to come with all of us /because of his uncle’s visit /No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction (Q. No. 8 to 10) : Read the passage given below and then answer the questions that
follow.
Once upon a time, everybody “did” science, for their own amusement and excitement. All of us, as
children, are scientists too—testing substances on our tongues, discovering gravity, peering under
rocks, seeing patterns in the stars, wondering what makes the night scary and the sky blue.
Partly because the educational system has taught science only in a reductionist, left­brain style and
partly because of society’s demands for practical applications of technology, the romance of science
fades quickly for most youngsters. Those who love nature but dislike dissecting small animals soon
learn to avoid high­school biology. Students who enroll in psychology courses, hoping to learn something
about how people think and feel, find themselves learning more about rats and statistics than they
ever wanted to know.
8. According to the author, all children are scientists because
(A) They are amused and excited by science.
(B) They are curious about some things.
(C) They are taught science in school. (D) Enjoy peeping into things, tasting and wondering.

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9. Children do not enjoy science in school because


(A) They are made to study technology. (B) They are forced to dissect animals.
(C) It is taught in a boring manner. (D) It is not taught in a romantic style.
10. According to the author a psychology course should focus on
(A) The study of rats. (B) Problems in statistics.
(C) An analysis of nature. (D) Understanding human beings.
SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
SpokDirection (Q. No. 11 and 12) : Find one sentence to complete the paragraph. en and Written
11. Namrata: Hey, come on, let’s go and have some ice­cream before the test.
Sujana: Sorry, I can’t. I have a bad cold.
Namrata: ____________________________________
(A) Have a biscuit. (B) Come on, ice cream is good for a cold.
(C) What’s wrong with you? (D) Come on, you can study later.
12. Kartik: We’re going trekking to the Narmada valley. Please come.
Nisha: I wish I could come. ________________________.
(A) The trip sounds fantastic and I am sure will be great fun.
(B) The Narmada is a river that must be seen.
(C) But my grandparents will be visiting us and I have to be home.
(D) It will be lovely to be with all of you for so many days.
Direction (Q. No. 13 to 15) : You need to select the two sentences that will complete the
paragraph. Look at the choices given below and select the best option.
13. Sentence 1 : What is meat for the body at one age is poison at another.
Sentence 2 : ________________________________________
Sentence 3 : ________________________________________
Sentence 4 : After 50, the toxicity of these metals comes into play and can damage cells, leading
to diseases.
P. For example, iron and copper are nutrionally essential minerals.
Q. Iron deficiency can lead to anaemia and copper maintains hair colour and is a part of several
hormones.
R. But larger amounts of their intake are good only for younger people.
(A) QR (B) PR (C) PQ (D) QP
14. Sentence 1 : If there is a neem or jamun tree in your backyard, check it regularly and just note down
when they flower and fruit.
Sentence 2 : ________________________________
Sentence 3 : ________________________________
Sentence 4 : The data base is important as India has several climatic zones and biodiversity.
P. The National Centre for Biological Sciences plans to rope in people for creating an online database
on the life cycle of plant species across the country.
Q. You may soon realize that you are not just whiling time, but collecting data for scientific research.
R. There is no information, however, that shows when a species flowers and fruits in a particular
location.
(A) PR (B) QP (C) PQ (D) QR
15. Sentence 1 : Satnam Singh detests wheat chapattis.
Sentence 2 : ________________________________
Sentence 3 : ________________________________
Sentence 4 : He actually suffers from a disease known as celiac or wheat allergy.
P. The four year old hails from a small village in Punjab, from Ambala.
Q. If force fed, he shouts and cries loudly.
R. The boy is not throwing a temper tantrum, or suffering from anorexia.
(A) PR (B) QP (C) PQ (D) QR

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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER
8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT W RONG
way to darken way to darken
P ×
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MA RK YOUR AN SWERS WITH H B PENC IL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/B LACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (A)
10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (D) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 9
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles, Quadrilaterals,
Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface Areas and
SOF
Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Algorithms and Flowcharts in Programming, Visual Basic,
Animations, HTML, Internet and Viruses, MS-Word, MS-Excel, MS-Power Point, Hardware, Software,
Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices, Flash, Networking.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
SOF Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Linear Equations
in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles, Quadrilaterals,
Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface Areas and
Volumes, Statistics, Probability, Logical (Verbal and Non-verbal) and Analytical Reasoning.
Section – II (Science) : Motion, Force and Laws of Motion, Gravitation, Work and Energy, Sound,
Matter in Our Surroundings, Is Matter Around Us Pure, Atoms and Molecules, Structure of Atom,
Cell - The Fundamental Unit of Life, Tissues, Diversity in Living Organisms, Why Do We Fall Ill,
Natural Resources, Improvement in Food Resources.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Mathematical Operations, Series Completion, Arithmetical
Reasoning, Problems on Cubes and Dice, Number Ranking & Time Sequence Test, Inserting Missing
SOF Character and General Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry,
Linear Equations in Two Variables, Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles,
Quadrilaterals, Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles, Circles, Constructions, Heron’s Formula, Surface
Areas and Volumes, Statistics, Probability.
Section – III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Concord, Question forms, Tenses, Conditionals,
Modals, Reported speech. Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones, Words
related to social cause, Travel, Workplace, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like flyers,
Classifieds, Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format,
Message format and others. Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information
in longer texts like editorials, Essays, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like Giving advice, Stating preferences, Discussing probability, Making an offer, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Two clocks are set at the same time, one is seen to gain 40 seconds and other to lose 50 seconds
in 24 hours. In how much time will they show a difference of 15 minutes?
(A) 90 days (B) 10 days (C) 90 hours (D) 10 hours.

2. Students of the psychology class in a college were getting ready to challenge and out­wit their new
lecturer on her first day of teaching but became dumb­founded when she asked them to find the
product of (x – a) (x – b) (x – c) (x – d).......(x – y)(x – z). What do you think is the answer?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) xn – (a) (b) (c) .......(z).
Q
3. In the given figure if PQR is an isosceles triangle and PSR is an equilateral triangle
and X = 26° then the value of Y ( in degrees) will be X
S
(A) 17° (B) 27° Y

(C) 37° (D) 47° P R

4. Each side of a rhombus is 5 cm and one of the diagonals is 8 cm. Calculate the length of another
diagonal and the area of the rhombus.
(A) 8 cm, 32 cm 2 (B) 6 cm, 24 cm 2 (C) 4 cm, 16 cm 2 (D) 7 cm, 28 cm 2 .
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
5. Step 1 : Add 4
Step 2 : Subtract 1
Step 3 : If less than 15, jump to step 1 and continue from there; otherwise proceed to step 4
Step 4 : Add 3
Step 5 : If greater than 18, subtract 2
If you start with a value of 1 and then apply the above instructions, what is the end result?
(A) 11 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19.
6. On planet X, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are light, air, earth, sky and water
respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
(A) Sky (B) Water (C) Air (D) Light.
7. Consider the given Venn diagram.
The numbers in the Venn diagram indicate the number of persons reading the 3 12 14
2
newspapers. The diagram is drawn after surveying 50 persons. 8 5
In a population of 10,000 how many can be expected to read at least two newspapers? 6
(A) 5000 (B) 6250 (C) 6000 (D) 5400.
8. Hari, Pinto, Oliver, Chris, and Tony drew different geometric figures: a circle,a pentagon, a trapezoid,
a hexagon, and an octagon. No persons's name begins with the same first letter as that person's
drawing. Chris, Pinto, and Tony drew figures with more than 4 sides. Chris drawing has the most
sides. Oliver's drawing has exactly one pair of parallel lines. What did Chris draw?
(A) Circle (B) Octagon (C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

9. In Visual Basic, Hour() function returns ____.


(A) An Integer specifying a whole number
(B) A whole number between 0 and 23
(C) The hour of the day (D) All of these
10. Which of the statements about HTML is incorrect ?
(A) Attribute names are not case sensitive (B) LINK defines the color of the unvisited link
(C) The line break element is a container element
(D) The default colouring of VLINK attribute is purple

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11. What does a disc fragmentor do?


(A) It is a utility program that facilitates compression of files so that they occupy less storage space
(B) It is a utility program that minimizes the time taken by the hard disk optical reader to read up ‘split’
files. It does so by rearranging the files and free space on your computer so that files are stored
in contiguous memory.
(C) It is a utility program that facilitates the backing up of the disk
(D) It is a utility program used for creating and editing text file.
12. What does OCR stand for?
(A) Optical Character Reader (B) Optical Character Recognition
(C) Operational Character Reader (D) Only Character Reader.
13. Match the following
1. Scanner A. Input Device
2. OCR B. Output Device
3. Light pen
4. Plotter
5. Printer
(A) 1A, 2B, 3A, 4B, 5A (B) 1A, 2A, 3A, 4B, 5B
(C) 1A, 2A, 3B, 4B, 5B (D) 1A, 2B, 3A, 4B, 5B .
14. The smallest unit of memory is
(A) 16 bytes (B) 8 bits (C) 1 kilobyte (D) 1 GB.

15. Which of the following symbols will be used to end the flowchart?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A person is standing on a staircase. He walks down 4 steps, up 3 steps, down 6 steps, up 2 steps,
up 9 steps, and down 2 steps. Where is he standing in relation to the step on which he started?
(A) 2 steps above (B) 1 step above (C) The same place (D) 1 step below.

2. The heights (in cm) of 9 students of a class are as follows:


155, 160, 145, 149, 150, 147, 152, 144, 148
Find the median of this data.
(A) 145 cm (B) 150 cm (C) 160 cm (D) 149 cm
3. A certain liquid fertilizer contains 10 percent mineral X by volume. If a farmer wishes to treat a crop with
3/4 of a litre of mineral X per acre, how many acres can be treated with 300 litres of the liquid fertilizer?
(A) 40 (B) 24 (C) 18 (D) 16.

4. Chandra spent 2/5 of her income of January for rent, and 3/4 of the remainder on other expenses.
If she put the remaining ` 180 in her savings account, how much was her income in January?
(A) ` 1,000 (B) ` 1,200 (C) ` 1,400 (D) ` 1,600.

5. The hollow sphere in which the circus motorcyclist performs his stunts has a diameter of 7 m. Find the
area available to the motorcyclist for riding.
(A) 154 m 2 (B) 160 m 2 (C) 272 m 2 (D) 616 m 2 .

SCIENCE
6. Elements having the same number of valence electrons in their atoms have
(A) Similar atomic sizes (B) Similar combining capacities
(C) Similar metallic character (D) Similar chemical properties.

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7. Suppose you are pushing a loaded shopping cart. Which of the following is true ?
(A) If action force always equals reaction force, you cannot move the cart because the cart pushes
you backward just as hard as you push forward on the cart
(B) You push the cart slightly harder than the cart pushes you backward, so the cart moves forward
(C) You push before the cart has time to react, so the cart moves forward
(D) You are in contact with the earth through your high­friction shoes, while the cart is free to roll on
its round wheels, so the cart moves.

8. The speed c of surface waves of wavelength l travelling in deep water is given by the equation
lg
c= where g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which one of the following options would give
2p
a straight line graph, given that f is the frequency of the waves ?
(A) f against l–1 (B) f against l (C) f against l2 (D) f 2 against l–1 .

9. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the equilibrium position is at x = 0 and the amplitude
at x = A. The kinetic energy of the particle will be equal to the potential energy
(A) At x = 0 (B) At x = A (C) At x = A/2
(D) When x is greater than A/2 but less than A.

10. What happens to the inertia of an object when its velocity is doubled ?
(A) The object’s inertia becomes 2 times greater
(B) The object’s inertia becomes 2 times greater
(C) The object’s inertia becomes 4 times greater
(D) The object’s inertia is unchanged.

11. Filtration as a method of separation can be used for mixtures that are
(A) homogeneous and liquid­in­gas mixtures
(B) heterogeneous and liquid­in­liquid mixtures
(C) homogeneous and solid­in­liquid mixtures
(D) heterogeneous and solid­in­liquid mixtures.

12. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of


(A) Free molecules of NaCl (B) Free electrons

(C) Free Na+ and Cl ions (D) Free atoms of sodium and chlorine.

13. The given figure shows the anatomical structure of certain plant tissues.
If you are to label the parts marked 1, 2, 3 & 4 you would choose

(A) 1 ­ Tracheid, 2 ­ Tyloses, 3 ­ Parenchyma 1

(B) 1 ­ Parenchyma, 2 ­ Tracheid, 3 ­ Tyloses, 2


(C) 1 ­ Pit, 2 ­ Tracheid, 3 ­ Tyloses,
3
(D) None of these

14. Species X are chlorophyllous plants which are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition & may be
green, yellow, orange & red colour etc. Species X belongs to Y which are non­vascular plants and
whose plant body is not differentiated into true roots, stems & leaves and have unicellular and
nonjacketed sex organs. In the above passage species Y is
(A) Bryophyta (B) Thallophyta (C) Pteridophyta (D) Gymnosperms.
15. Refer the figure and identify from the marked alphabets (a, b, c,
d) which is responsible for the following functions. Endoplasmic
reticulum
(I) Means of localization of the chromosomes within the cell
a
(II) Selective barrier, allowing certain substances in or out of the Perinuclear space
nucleus b
c
(III) Means of sequestering many of the mRNA processing Heterochromatin
activities from the cytosol and separating nuclear and Chromatin net
d
cytoplasmic constituents Chromocentre

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) a and d.

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SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. Apples, cherries and grapes are arranged on a platter in the following fashion:
?
opposite sectors contain fruit which is of equal value. To equal the value of
two bunches of grapes, how much fruit must be placed in the empty sector?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. If L denotes ¸ , M denotes ×, P denotes + and Q denotes –, then which of the following statements is true?
3 173
(A) 32 P 8 L 16 Q 4 = – (B) 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 = 13
2
38
(C) 11 M 34 L 17 Q 8 L 3 = (D) 9 P 9 L 9 Q 9 M 9 = – 71
3
2 1 4 3 6
2 3 4 7
3. Find the missing number :
584 694 ?

2 5 2 3
2
2 1
1
2

(A) 937 (B) 824 (C) 769 (D) 678

4. Complete the pattern. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, (.....)


(A) 42 (B) 51 (C) 81 (D) 91

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
5. In the accompanying diagram, parallel lines l and m t
are cut by transversal t. 1 l
Which statement about angles 1 and 2 must be true? 2 m
(A) Ð1 @ Ð 2 (B) Ð1 is the complement of Ð 2
(C) Ð1 is the supplement of Ð 2 (D) Ð1 and Ð2 are right angles
N 21 O
6. What values of a and b make quadrilateral MNOP a parallelogram?
(A) a = 1, b = 5 (B) a = 5, b = 1 3 a – 2b 13
11 34 34 11
(C) a = ,b= (D) a = ,b=
7 7 7 7 M 4a + b P

C
7. For the quadrilateral shown below, what is m Ð a + m Ð c? c
B 95°
(A) 53° (B) 137°
32° D
(C) 180° (D) 233° a
A

8. If a cylindrical barrel measures 22 cm in diameter, how many cm will it roll in 8 revolutions along a
smooth surface?
(A) 121p cm (B) 168p cm (C) 176p cm (D) 228p cm
9. A right circular cone has radius 5 cm and height 8 cm.
What is the lateral surface area of the cone?
(A) 40p sq cm (B) 445p sq cm 8 cm

5 cm
(C) 5p 39 sq cm (D) 5p 89 sq cm

10. Figure ABCD is a kite. B


17 cm
10 cm
What is the area of figure ABCD, in square centimetres? 8 cm
A C
6 cm 15 cm
(A) 120 (B) 154 8 cm
10 cm
17 cm
(C) 168 (D) 336 D

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5 cm
11. The four sides of this figure will be folded up and taped to make an open box.
What will be the volume of the box?
(A) 50 cm 3 (B) 75 cm 3
3
(C) 100 cm (D) 125 cm 3

12. What is value of x? B x

(A) 35° (B) 60°


(C) 85° (D) 95° 60° 25°
A C

EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. One snail started from the dot. What side will it be on when it has crawled Side A
Side E
13/20 of the distance around the regular pentagon of equal sides?
(A) A (B) C
Side D
(C) D (D) E Side B

Side C

14. A rectangular kitchen table is three times as long as it is wide. If it was 3 m shorter and
3 m wider it would be a square. What are the dimensions of the rectangular table?
(A) 9 × 3 (B) 4 × 2
(C) 12 × 6 (D) 16 × 4
70 cm
15. Two carpenters decided to design desks for students at the Junior High
School. The dimensions of the desk are as shown. How much wood (in
30 cm
cm 2) would they need for 30 desks?
(A) 2700 cm 2 (B) 80000 cm 2
2 20 cm 20 cm
(C) 21000 cm (D) 81000 cm 2

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


Direction (Q. No. 1 and 2) : Choose one suitable word/phrase for each blank. Make sure that you
choose the correct form of the word/phrase.
1. I am happy you are helping me with the assignment. This kind of work is not really my __________,
(A) Cup and sauce (B) Cup of tea (C) Cup of coffee (D) Tea cup

2. The discussion was by no means _______________. It went on for more than four hours!
(A) Cut and dried (B) Chopped and dried
(C) Cut and shredded (D) Dried and cut

3. Choose the correct spelling of the word.


(A) Believe (B) Beleive (C) Believ (D) Beleev

4. Choose the correct phrase.


(A) Down and up (B) Down and out (C) Down and town (D) Out and down

Direction (Q. No. 5 and 6) : Fill in the blanks using the correct word/phrase.
5. A class full of very good students means ________ failures for the teachers to worry about.
(A) Lesser (B) Less (C) Fewer (D) Less than

6. He seems to know a lot about you! How long have you ____________him?
(A) Known (B) Knew (C) Been knowing (D) Know

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7. Spot the error in the sentence.


Becoming a monitor / often means / to lose friends. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. Complete the conversation with the correct word.
Ravi: I think it’s really exciting to go to new places.
Teacher: What ____________ keep in mind if you are going to a new place.
(A) Do you have to (B) Can you (C) Have you to (D) Must you have to
9. Change the given direct sentence to indirect.
“Drive carefully!” Ram said to me.
(A) Ram said to me drive carefully. (B) Ram ordered me drive carefully.
(C) Ram told me to drive carefully. (D) None of the above.
READING
Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Read the passage and answer the following questions.
The fly was finally hers. It had taken Mini hours to trap it, but now, exhausted, it buzzed and crashed
hopelessly around inside a pickle jar. Kneeling on a chair, she took a chapatti and spread it with a thick
layer of butter, wiping the knife clean against the edge of the dish, the way her mother used to and
savored her victory. She was again in control.
10. The event of trapping the fly is compared with _____________________________.
(A) The taste of chapati and butter (B) A war followed by celebrations
(C) A celebration by the victor (D) The defeat of the oppressed
11. Which of the following expressions would you use to describe Mini’s emotions after trapping the fly?
(A) On cloud ten (B) Under a cloud
(C) On cloud nine (D) Every dark cloud has a silver lining
SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Find one sentence to complete the dialogue.
12. Teacher to student : I thought you had been doing your homework regularly? Why are you still so irregular
with your work?
(A) I will let your parents know that you have failed this year.
(B) I’m afraid, at this rate, I’ll have to give you a ‘D’ grade.
(C) I’m expecting you to earn a ‘D’ grade. (D) I think you will do well this year.
13. Manasa : Vinu, it’s the Maths class now! l forgot my book.
(A) Could you share your book with me today.
(B) Look here! Give me that book of yours!
(C) Can I buy a Maths book?
(D) Could I borrow your Maths notebook, please!
Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : You need to select the two sentences that will complete the paragraph.
Look at the choices given below and select the best option.
14. Sentence 1 : The blackbucks are mainly grazers and prefer to eat green fodder.
Sentence 2 : ________________________________________
Sentence 3 : ________________________________________
Sentence 4 : Unfortunately most of their habitats are being converted to agricultural fields and this is
forcing them to feed on crops.
P. This has restricted their distribution to areas that are close to cultivation.
Q. They also need to drink water twice a day so they do not live far from the source of water.
R. This gives rise to man­animal conflict and hundreds of them are being killed.
(A) PQ (B) QP (C) PR (D) RP
15. Sentence 1 : The Pageant’s Handbook of First Aid is a must for every home.
Sentence 2 : ________________________________________
Sentence 3 : ________________________________________
Sentence 4 : Then seal and send this post­paid cover back to us.
P. All you have to do is write the names of 14 friends who enjoy reading.
Q. And you can get it free, with no contest or prize to be won.
R. And we will rush you the booklet free of cost.
(A) PQ (B) QP (C) PR (D) QR

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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A)
7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A)
10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 8
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Rational Numbers, Operation on Rational Numbers, Decimal
Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents, Direct and Inverse Variations, Percentage and Its
Application, Algebraic Expression, Factorization of Algebraic Expressions, Linear Equation in One
SOF Variable, More About Triangles, Congruent Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Area of Rectangular
Paths, Surface Area and Volumes, Statistics, Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problem Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral
Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning, Mirror
Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Internet & Viruses, HTML, Flash, MS-Access, Networking,
MS-Word, MS-Power Point, MS-Excel, Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory &
Storage Devices.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Rational Numbers, Operation on Rational Numbers, Decimal
SOF
Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents and Powers, Direct and Inverse Variations, Comparing
Quantities, Algebraic Expression, Factorization of Algebraic Expressions, Linear Equation in One
Variable, More About Triangles, Congruent Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Mensuration, Statistics,
Arithmetic Ability, Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots, Problem Based on Figures,
Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical
Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – II (Science) : Crop Production and Management, Microorganisms, Synthetic Fibres
and Plastics, Metals and Non-metals, Coal and Petroleum, Combustion and Flame, Conservation
of Plants and Animals, Cell, Reproduction in Animals, Force and Pressure, Friction, Sound, Chemical
Effects of Electric Current, Some Natural Phenomena, Light, Stars and Solar System, Pollution of
Air and Water.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
SYLLABUS
SOF Section – I (Logical Reasoning) : Mathematical Operations, Series Completion, Direction
Sense Test, Analytical Reasoning, Problems on Cubes and Dice, Number Ranking & Time Sequence
Test and General Reasoning Based on Prescribed Syllabus.
Section – II (Mathematical Reasoning) : Squares and Square Roots, Cubes and Cube Roots,
Exponents and Radicals, Comparing Quantities, Algebraic Identities, Polynomials, Equations in
One Variable, Parallel Lines, Special Types of Quadrilaterals and Their Constructions, Mensuration,
Arithmetic Ability, Data Handling.
Section – III (Everyday Mathematics) : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the
syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.

The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositional phrases, Participle phrases, Tenses,
Question tags, Conditionals, Reported speech. Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms,
Homonyms and homophones, Words related to leisure, Household items/issues, Social causes,
Outdoor locations and activities, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
reports, Blurb, Dictionaries, etc., Understand information presented in instruction manual format,
Message format and others. Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information
in longer texts like editorials, Essays, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requesting, Giving information, Expressing surprise, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
A
1. In the star shape shown in figure, the sum of the angles marked at the corners
P
A, B, C, D, E is B E

(A) 90º (B) 135º Q

(C) 180º (D) 140º C D

2. The age of a man is same as his wife’s age with the digits reversed. Then sum of their ages is 99 and
the man is 9 years older than his wife. How old is the man?
(A) 50 (B) 49 (C) 54 (D) 44

3. In the adjoining figure, AOB and COD are the diameters of a circle.
If ÐADO = 55o then ÐOCB is
(A) 27 1 °2
(B) 62 21 °
(C) 55° (D) 35°

4. A cylinder and a cone have the same height and the same radius of the base. The ratio between the
volumes of the cylinder and the cone is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING
5. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
(A) PRYG (B) ORTG (C) NPUH (D) ORYH

6. The number of times in a day the hour­hand and the minute­hand of a clock are at right angles is
(A) 44 (B) 48 (C) 24 (D) 12.

7. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket
players and students?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a
round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, D and E are not on neighbouring
chairs. The person sitting opposite B is
(A) A (B) D (C) E (D) F

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


9. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) <hr> (B) <HR>
(C) <B> Bold Text </B> (D) All of these
10. Computers use the seven digit code called ASCII. What does ASCII stand for?
(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(B) Association of Software Coding and Information Institute
(C) American Standard Computing and Information Institute
(D) American Scientists Convention for Information Interchange.

11. How many sheets are there in Excel Workbook by default?


(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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12. In flash, is called

(A) Fill color (B) Paint bucket (C) Ink bottle (D) Lasso

13. Modern Computers do not work with decimal numbers. Instead they process binary numbers, groups
of 0’s and 1’s because
(A) Electronic devices are most reliable when designed for two state (binary) operation
(B) Binary circuits are simple
(C) Memory is only possible for binary numbers
(D) With decimal numbers, the circuits are complex and costly

14. What are the columns in a Microsoft Access table called?


(A) Rows (B) Records (C) Fields (D) Columns

15. Debug is a term denoting


(A) Error correction process (B) Writing of instructions in developing a new program
(C) Fault detection in equipment (D) Determining useful life

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A contest began at noon one day and ended 1000 minutes later. At what time did the contest end?
(A) 10:00 p.m. (B) Midnight (C) 2:30 a.m. (D) 4:40 a.m.

2. Which of the following sets of whole numbers has the largest average?
(A) Multiples of 2 between 1 and 101 (B) Multiples of 3 between 1 and 101
(C) Multiples of 4 between 1 and 101 (D) Multiples of 5 between 1 and 101.

3. Beena used a calculator to find the product 0.075 × 2.56. She forgot to enter the decimal points. The
calculator showed 19200. If Beena had entered the decimal points correctly, the answer would have been
(A) 0.0192 (B) 0.192 (C) 1.92 (D) 19.2

4. Two cyclists, k km apart, and starting at the same time, would be together in r hours if they travelled in
the same direction, but would pass each other in t hours if they travelled in opposite directions. The ratio
of the speed of the faster cyclist to that of the slower is
r +t r r +t r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r -t r -t r t

5. The shaded area formed by the two intersecting perpendicular 3

rectangles, in square units is 3


(A) 23 (B) 38 2
8
(C) 44 (D) 46

10

SCIENCE
6. A Brief History of Time is the title of a book written by
(A) Albert Einstein (B) Stephen Hawking
(C) Hendrick Lorentz (D) Isaac Newton

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7. Which of the following can produce a virtual image ?


(A) Plane mirror (B) Concave lens (C) Convex lens (D) All of these
8. When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth
(A) Both cloth and the rod acquire positive charge
(B) Rod becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative charge
(C) Rod becomes negatively charged while the cloth has a positive charge
(D) Both cloth and the rod acquire negative charge.
9. A body immersed in a fluid experiencs an upward thrust which depends on
(A) The weight of the fluid displaced by it (B) The volume of the body
(C) The mass of the body (D) All of these.
10. When Cu is exposed to moist air for a long time, which of the following is formed?
(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) CuCO 3 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Cu2O
11. Which of the following statements is true with respect to diamond ?
(A) The carbon atoms are connected to each other by metallic bonds.
(B) In the diamond crystal, the carbon atoms are very loosely packed.
(C) Each carbon atom in the crystal is surrounded by four others at the corners of a regular tetrahedron.
(D) It is a very soft substance.

12. Which of the following is an acute infection of the small intestine caused by a bacterium?
(A) Cholera (B) Tuberculosis (C) Polio (D) Night blindness

13. Some basic steps are needed in agricultural practice. Which of the following given as A, B, C, D is the
right sequence?
(1) Preparation of the soil (2) Harvesting (3) Irrigation
(4) Broadcasting (5) Tilling (6) Weeding
(7) Manuring.
(A) 1, 5, 4, 7, 3, 6, 2 (B) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7 (C) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 7 (D) 1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 7, 3

14. The process shown in the given figure is


(A) Cleavage
(B) Fertilization
(C) Assimilation
(D) Budding.

15. Which of the following is not true?


(A) Burning of coal relases SO2. (B) Acid rain is harmful to crops.
(C) CNG is a clean fuel. (D) Incomplete combustion of coal relases O2.

SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. What is the number you started with? ?

(A) 5
(B) 45 Multiply by 0.10
(C) 56
Divide by 3
(D) 25
462

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2. One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
24, 27, 31, 33, 36
(A) 24 (B) 27 (C) 31 (D) 33

3. A is 40 m South­west of B. C is 40 m South­East of B. Then C is in which direction of A?


(A) East (B) West (C) North­east (D) South

4. Count the number of cubes in the figure given here.

(A) 14 (B) 15

(C) 12 (D) 20

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
X
5. What is the length of YZ ?
(A) 9 cm (B) 15 cm 17 cm
8 cm
(C) 19 cm (D) 25 cm
Y Z

6. What is the volume of the rectangular solid shown below?


(A) 10 cubic cm (B) 25 cubic cm
(C) 30 cubic cm (D) 62 cubic cm 3 cm
2 cm

5 cm

7. What is the area of trapezoid QRST in square units? T 8 Q


(A) 22 (B) 27 5
4
(C) 38 (D) 48
S 11 R

8. Which property is used in the equation given below?


12(x + 4) = 12x + 48
(A) Associative Property of Addition (B) Commutative Property of Addition
(C) Distributive Property (D) Reflexive Property

9. Which of the following equations illustrates the inverse property of multiplication?


1
(A) 5 × = 1 (B) 5 × 1 = 5 (C) 5 × 0 = 0 (D) 5 × 5 = 25
5

10. A right triangle’s hypotenuse has length 5 units. If one leg has length 2 units, what is the length of the
other leg?
(A) 3 (B) 21 (C) 29 (D) 7
11. The sum of a number (n) and 14 is 72. Which equation shows this relationship?
(A) 14 + n = 72 (B) 72n = 14 (C) 14 – n = 72 (D) 72 + n = 14

12. Find the value of x


9x + 7 é æ x - 2 öù
- êx - ç ÷ ú = 36
2 ë è 7 øû
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 5 (D) 4.

EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Dennis the Menace is thinking of two numbers. Their greatest common factor is 6. Their least common
multiple is 36. One of the numbers is 12. What is the other number?
(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 6 (D) 24
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14. Farmer Ramu put a square fence around his vegetable garden to keep the deer from eating his corn.
One side was 10 m in length. If the posts were placed 2 m apart, how many posts did he use?
(A) 16 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15

15. Anita passed around a basket of strawberries to the girls at her party. Before the party she ate 5
strawberries and gave a friend 3. Eight girls arrived at the party. The first girl took a strawberry, the
second girl took 3 strawberries, the third girl took 5 strawberries and so on. After the last girl took her
strawberries, the basket was empty. How many strawberries were there in the basket at the beginning?
(A) 72 (B) 60 (C) 65 (D) 45

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


1. Choose the odd pair.
(A) Annoy : Irritate (B) Comprehend : Understand
(C) Spectator : Onlooker (D) Reserve : Supply

2. The thief walked away with the diamond crown on display. No one stopped him because he was
……………………………. the director of the museum.
(A) Contacting (B) Impersonating (C) Implanting (D) Contradicting
3. The transmission of the President’s speech remained ____ interrupted.
(A) Mis (B) Dis (C) Un (D) Non

4. Given below are pairs of sentences, marked ‘P’ and ‘Q’. In each case, one or both sentences
could be right or wrong. Use the following code to indicate your answer.
If both P and Q are right, tick A (+ +)
If P is right and Q is wrong, tick B (+ –)
If P is wrong and Q is right, tick C (– +)
If both P and Q are wrong, tick D (– –)
P : The old abandoned building was being burnt to the ground last night.
Q : The police suspect that the fire was caused due to short circuit.
(A) (+ +) (B) (+ –) (C) (– +) (D) (– –)

Directions (Q. No. 5 & 6) : Find the incorrect part and mark it in your answer sheet.
5. The papers are increasing/ full of stories /of mindless violence./No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. The Taj Residency/ is not as expensive than/ the Four Seasons Hotel./ No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. Maya and Anand ……………………………………… for five years.


(A) Has been married (B) Have been married
(C) Are married (D) Is married

READING
Direction (Q. No. 8 to 10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The greatest threat to life on Earth today comes from global warming. This is caused due to multiple
factors including human activity. It happens when greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, water vapour,
nitrous oxide, and methane) trap heat and light from the sun in the earth’s atmosphere, which increases
the overall temperature on Earth. This impacts people, animals, and plants. Many who cannot take the
change, die. Global warming is affecting many parts of the world, particularly sea coasts. People living
on islands and in coastal areas are therefore at risk as the polar ice caps and sea levels rise.

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8. Select the statement that is false, according to the passage.


(A) Life on Earth is threatened only by global warming.
(B) Global warming threatens human beings who live on islands.
(C) When the overall temperature on Earth rises the sea level will also increase.
(D) Creatures which cannot adapt to higher temperatures will become extinct.
9. “Many cannot take the change.” Here “change” refers to changes in
(A) Lifestyle (B) Food habits (C) Temperature (D) Health issues
10. People living in coastal areas are affected by
(A) Green house gases (B) Human actions
(C) Rise in sea levels (D) Rise in temperature

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


Direction (Q. No. 11 to 13) : Sentences 1 and 3 are given. Sentence 2 is missing. Find the right sentence
for sentence 2.
11. Sona : Hema, I notice your tennis serve is much better these days.
Hema: ………………………………………………………………
Sona: Your efforts have not been wasted. There is a remarkable improvement in your game.
(A) Yes, I think I’ve finally mastered the technique, though it took months of practice.
(B) Serving well is an art that can be mastered.
(C) I saw a doctor because I was suffering from tennis elbow.
(D) In tennis one has to focus on one’s serving action.
12. Mala : I was looking for a birthday present for my nephew but I didn’t have much luck. Do you have any
bright ideas?
Jhansi : …………………………………………………..
Mala : I did think about it, but I felt I should take some trouble and choose something useful.
(A) Some music, maybe? (B) One need not buy a present for everyone.
(C) You could just give him some money.
(D) Buying a present is something that only the young enjoy.
13. Sentence 1 : A trained memory is an immense asset, particularly in public life.
Sentence 2 : ……………………………………………………………
Sentence 3 : Many of these systems, still used today were perfected by the Greeks.
(A) The basic principle is to concentrate the mind on whatever you want to memorize.
(B) Ancient Greeks encouraged students to cultivate their memory.
(C) Memory training systems are not very difficult to master.
(D) A good memory is an advantage.
Direction (Q.No. 14 and 15) : Sentences 1 and 4 are given. Sentence 2 and 3 are missing. Select two
sentences that will complete the paragraph.
14. Sentence 1 : Today’s world is full of gizmos and gadgets unimaginable to people thirty years ago.
Sentence 2 : …………………………………………………
Sentence 3 : …………………………………………………
Sentence 4 : However, keeping abreast of technology seems a difficult job by itself considering the
pace at which new gadgets appear on the market.
(A) The markets cater to this section and keep bringing out products that cater to their taste.
(B) Students and the youth like to keep abreast of technology.
(C) Who would have imagined a world of cell phones and ipods?
(A) AC (B) BA (C) BC (D) CA
15. Sentence 1 : Disposal of household waste is a daunting task for local authorities.
Sentence 2 : ……………………………………………………………
Sentence 3 : …………………………………………………………..
Sentence 4 : One way to reduce waste therefore is to segregate degradable and non biodegradable
waste at its source.
(A) Efforts should be made to recycle household waste.
(B) They cannot just dump waste in landfills.
(C) This is because household waste contains many materials and substances which are extremely
harmful to the environment.
(A) BC (B) AB (C) CB (D) AC
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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C)
7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C)
13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 7
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Natural Numbers and Whole Numbers, Integers, Factors and
Multiples, Ratios, Proportion and Unitary Method, Percentage and Its Applications, Algebraic
Expressions, Linear Equations in One Variable, Basic Geometrical Concepts, Line Segments, Angles,
SOF Triangles, Pairs of Lines and Transversal, Construction, Perimeter and Area, Rational Numbers,
Decimal Representation of Rational Numbers, Exponents.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning,Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense Test, Cubes and Dice.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Fundamentals of Computer, Evolution of Computers,
Hardware, Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices,Using Windows, MS-
Word, MS-Power Point, MS-Excel, Programming in QBasic, Internet & Viruses.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Integers, Fractions and Decimals, Data Handling, Simple Equations,
SOF Lines and Angles, The Triangle and its Properties, Congruence of Triangles, Comparing Quantities,
Rational Numbers, Practical Geometry, Perimeter, Area and Volume, Algebraic Expressions, Exponents
and Powers, Symmetry, Visualising Solid Shapes, Logical Reasoning, Conversions, Simple Probability.
Section – II (Science) : Heat, Motion and Time, Electric Current and its Effect, Winds, Storms
and Cyclones, Light, Acids, Bases and Salts, Physical and Chemical Changes, Weather, Climate
and Adaptations of Animals, Fibres to Fabrics, Nutrition in Plants and Animals, Respiration in
Organisms, Transportation in Plants and Animals, Reproduction in Plants, Natural Resources and
Their Conservation.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Integers, Properties of Integers, Fractions, Multiplication and Division of Fractions, Representation
SOF
of Rational Numbers on Number Line, Operations of Rational Numbers, Multiplication and Division
of Decimals, Conversion of Units, Powers and Exponents, Algebraic Expressions, Simple Linear
Equations, Concept of Percentage, Profit and Loss, Simple Interest, Understanding Shapes, Properties
of Triangle, Symmetry, Congruence of Triangles, Perimeter, Area, Volume, Circles, Data Handling,
Arithmetical Ability.
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense, Number
Ranking and Alphabetical Test.

The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Perfect tenses, Prepositions, Modals, Adjectives,
and Adverbs, Conjunctions, Direct indirect speech, Word order, Phrasal verbs, etc.
Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, and Words related to Travel, Locations, Activities,
Homonyms and Homophones, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
stories, Brochures and advertisements. Understand information given in news reports, Brochures,
Itinerary, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short narratives,
Advertisements, Biographies, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requesting and refusing, Apologies and stating of preferences and expression
of intent, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A circular park of 20 metre diameter has a circular path just inside the boundary of width 1 metre.
The area of the path is (in sq.m)
(A) 15p (B) 17p (C) 19p (D) 25p

2. 40% of ? + 180 = 564.


(A) 960 (B) 860 (C) 950 (D) 850
3. The factorization of 25 – p2 – q2 – 2pq is
(A) (5 + p + q) (5 – p + q) (B) (5 + p + q) (5 – p – q)
(C) (5 + p + q) (5 + p – q) (D) (5 + p – q) (5 – p + q)

4. (
If x -
x )
1 = 5, 2 1
the value of x + 2 is
x
(A) 23 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 29

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING

5. Complete the series:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. Rectangle : Square : : Ellipse : ?


(A) Centre (B) Diameter (C) Circle (D) Radius

7. In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, square represents sportspersons
and circle represents coaches. Which portion of the figure represents girls who F
B
are sportspersons but not coaches? A
C
(A) A (B) B
D E
(C) C (D) D

8. Five boys A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row. A is between C and D and B is between D and E. Which
of the following pairs represents the boys standing at both the ends?
(A) C, B (B) E, C (C) E, A (D) A, C

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

9. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in presentation?
(A) Slide show menu (B) Rehearse timing button
(C) Slide transition button (D) All of these

10. Virus is a program written using one of the computer languages to cause damage to the data, the
information stored in the computer, or the hardware of the computer. The most common damage done
by virus is
(A) Erase or corrupt useful data from the hard disk
(B) Increase the file size of command file by several 1000 bytes
(C) Affect hardware components
(D) Slow down the computer.

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11. Match the following terms with what they stand for
Term Stands for
1. .Com A. Education
2. .Edu B. India
3. .In C Australia
4. .Au D. Commerce
(A) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D (B) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
(C) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B (D) 1D, 2A, 3B, 4C.

12. A browser is an interactive program that permits a user to view information from the computer. The
browser performs which of the following services?
(A) Connecting to the source computer whose address is specified
(B) Requesting new page from the source
(C) Receiving new page
(D) All of these.
13. Modern Computers compared to earlier computers are
(A) Faster and larger (B) Less reliable
(C) Larger and stronger (D) Faster and smaller.

14. In MS­Powerpoint, which key do you press to check spelling?


(A) F3 (B) F5 (C) F7 (D) F9

15. What will the given command do?


LET C = A + B
(A) The string variable C receives the value of A + B.
(B) The numerical variable C is assigned the value of A + B.
(C) The string variable C is assigned the expression A + B.
(D) An error message is displayed.

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1
1. Jennifer wants to run 3 km. The track she runs on is of a km in length. How many times does
4
Jennifer have to run the length of the track to run a total of 3 km?
3 1
(A) (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 12
4 4
2. The bottom, side, and front areas of a rectangular box are known. The product of these areas is
equal to
(A) The volume of the box (B) The square root of the volume
(C) Twice the volume (D) The square of the volume
3. P can do a piece of work in 9 days. Q is 50% more efficient than P. The number of days it takes
Q to do the same piece of work is
1 1
(A) 13 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 3
2 2

B2
4. ×7B
6396
In the product shown above, B is a digit. The value of B is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

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5. A piece of paper containing six joined squares labelled as shown in the diagram is folded along the
edges of the squares to form a cube. The label of the face opposite the face labeled X is

Y
U V W
X
Z

(A) Z (B) U (C) V (D) Y


SCIENCE
6. A body moves with uniform velocity. Which of the graphs shown here is a graph of distance against
time for this motion?

Distance

Distance
Distance

Distance

(A) (B) (C) (D)


Time Time Time Time

7. Which of the following is a non­metal?


(A) Mercury (B) Magnesium (C) Manganese (D) None of these.

8. Which of the following statements about the Jurassic period are correct?
1. Many large dinosaurs lived during this period.
2. Evidence of first birds have been found in fossils of this period.
3. It saw the emergence of many forms of primates.
4. This period related to what the Earth was 140 million years ago.
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3

9. The increase in area of the solid on heating is called


(A) Superficial expansion (B) Linear expansion
(C) Cubical expansion (D) Quadra expansion

10. The temperature at which no more energy can be removed from matter is called
(A) Absolute zero (B) Boiling point (C) 32º F (D) 32°C

11. A lightning conductor is a


(A) Piece of metallic wire with spikes through which current can flow
(B) Substance that can be charged by clouds
(C) Carbon rod (D) Plastic rod.

12. Which one of the following is true for all chemical reactions?
(A) There is a change in volume (B) Heat is evolved
(C) Chemical bonds are broken or formed (D) There is a change in mass

13. The movement of oxygenated blood from the left auricle to left ventricle and then to aorta to all parts
of the body is called
(A) Extracellular circulation (B) Pulmonary circulation
(C) Systemic circulation (D) Intracellular circulation

14. The process of crossing two varieties with different characters to obtain new variety is called
(A) Introduction (B) Selection (C) Hybridization (D) Conservation
15. Which metal is present in the human body in greater percentage ?
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) Potassium (D) Iron

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SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
1. Which will come next in the series?
az, by, cx, ?
(A) ef (B) gh (C) ij (D) dw
5
2. Insert the missing character. 4 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
64 8
(C) 3 (D) 4
? 2
25

3. Which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word.
STROKE
(A) (B) EKORTS (C) ROKETS (D)

4. Count the number of triangles in the following figure.


(A) 8 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) 14

MATHEMATICAL REASONING

5. Which of the following is best described in the given figure?


(A) Acute angles (B) Obtuse angles
(C) Parallel lines (D) Perpendicular lines

6. Nina made a triangle by cutting the corner of a sheet of paper.


One angle is 45°. What is the measure of the third angle
of Nina’s triangle?
45°
(A) 30° (B) 45°
?
(C) 55° (D) 60°

3 1
7. 4 –2 =
4 2
1 3 1 3
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2
4 4 4 4

8. This rectangular prism has a length of 14 cm, 14 cm


a height of 8 cm, and a width of 3 cm.
8 cm
What is the volume?
(A) 25 cu cm (B) 42 cu cm 3 cm
(C) 112 cu cm (D) 336 cu cm

9. Which expression represents the product of n and 25?


(A) 25n (B) 25 – n (C) 25 + n (D) 25 ¸ n

10. What is the prime factorization of 45?


(A) 23 × 5 (B) 32 × 5 (C) 52 × 3 (D) 52 × 9

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11. 11.3 × 2.7 =


(A) 29.31 (B) 29.51 (C) 30.31 (D) 30.51

7 5
12. Which of the following shows the next step using the least common denominator to simplify – ?
8 6
æ 7 3ö æ 5 4ö æ 7 4ö æ 5 3 ö
(A) è 8 ´ 3 ø – è 6 ´ 4 ø (B) è 8 ´ 4 ø – è 6 ´ 3 ø
æ 7 5ö æ 5 7 ö æ 7 7ö æ 5 5 ö
(C) è 8 ´ 5 ø – è 6 ´ 7 ø (D) è 8 ´ 7 ø – è 6 ´ 5 ø

EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
3
13. Ram can throw a ball 50 metres high. Shyam can throw the same ball 48 1 metres high. How
5 3
much farther can Ram throw the ball than Shyam?

2 4 3 4
(A) 2 m (B) 2 m (C) 2 m (D) 2 m
15 15 5 5

14. In a parking lot, 1 out of every 8 cars is blue. What percent of the cars in this lot are blue?
(A) 1.25% (B) 7% (C) 9% (D) 12.5%

15. A duck flew at 18 km per hour for 3 hours, then at 15 km per hour for 2 hours. How far did the
duck fly in all?
(A) 69 km (B) 75 km (C) 81 km (D) 84 km

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


Direction (Q. No. 1 and 2) : Choose one suitable word for each blank.
1. Someone who interprets is __________.
(A) An interpretist (B) An interpreter (C) An interprecian (D) An interpretor
2. Many diamond mines are ___________ in South Africa.
(A) Situation (B) Situate (C) Situated (D) Situating
3. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Disappear (B) Dissolve (C) Dissatisfy (D) Disallow

4. Find the correct phrase.


(A) Slow and study (B) Slow and steady (C) Slow and fast (D) Slow and heady
5. All children did well in the marathon but Rahul was ________.
(A) The faster (B) Fast (C) Fastest (D) The fastest
6. Find the incorrect part and mark it in your answer sheet.
“The prisoner/ never told me, Sir,” / Watson complains. No Error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. Complete the conversation with the correct word.
Ravi: Did you invite her to the party?
Rahul: Well! Being invited is one thing ________ inviting oneself is another.
(A) However (B) Whereas (C) Compared to (D) Besides

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8. In which sentence is the word ‘to’ correctly used?


(A) This watermelon is to heavy. (B) Hold it with to hands.
(C) It’s very slippery to. (D) Well, hand it to me.
READING
Direction (Q. No. 9 to 11) : Read the passage and answer the following questions.
“There is always someone worse off than you.”
Once upon a time, the rabbits of Jim Corbett were so terrorized by the other animals, they did not
know where to go. As soon as they saw a single animal approach them, off they used to run. One
day, they saw a troop of wild horses stampeding about and in quite a panic all the rabbits scuttled
off to a lake close by, determined to drown themselves rather than live in a continual state of fear.
But just as they got near the bank of the lake, a troop of frogs frightened in their turn by the approach
of the rabbits, scuttled off and jumped into the water. “Truly”, said one of the rabbits, “things are not
so bad as they seem.” There is always someone worse off than you.
9. Rabbits wanted to drown themselves because
(A) They were scared of the horses. (B) They did not like living under fear.
(C) They were chasing the frogs. (D) They had nowhere to go.
10. Rabbits ran away from other animals because _______________________.
(A) They wanted to drown themselves. (B) They were shy.
(C) They were scared of being stepped on. (D) They were arrogant.

11. Which of the following words would you use to describe the feeling of the rabbits on seeing the troop
of wild horses?
(A) Frightened (B) Unfriendly (C) Worried (D) Hostile

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Find one sentence to complete the dialogue.
12. Dimpy : Shahid is always bullying me. Do you think I should complain to the teacher?
Radha :_________________________________.
(A) Don’t. Talk to Shahid first. (B) I think you should tell Shahid.
(C) Write him a letter. (D) Don’t let him yell at you.
13. Manasa : I hear that you are going to a new school.
Minu : Oh, you heard about it! ________________.
(A) I should have told you earlier. (B) I’m sure you are happy.
(C) I’m happy I did not tell you earlier. (D) Why are you asking?

Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Find one sentence to complete the paragraph.
14. Sentence 1. God wanted the people he had created to have a happy life.
Sentence 2. ___________________________________________________
Sentence 3. Water, air and sunlight were, therefore, given in abundance.
(A) That’s why he decided to bless the earth with riches.
(B) People had to live with water, air, and sun.
(C) Earth could have them in abundance.
(D) Therefore, he created the earth.

15. Sentence 1. From ancient times Indians have worshipped plants and trees.
Sentence 2. ____________________________________________________­
Sentence 3. While modern man often works to ‘conquer’ Nature, ancient Indians worshipped her.
(A) They regarded all flora and fauna as sacred.
(B) These plants give us food and oxygen.
(C) They lend beauty to our surroundings.
(D) These plants sacrifice themselves to serve us.

7
Class 7

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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER
8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT W RONG
way to darken way to darken
P ×
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MA RK YOUR AN SWERS WITH H B PENC IL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/B LACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C)
10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B)
13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)

8
Class 7

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 6
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Roman Numerals, Numbers and Numeration, Prime and Composite
Numbers, HCF and LCM, Addition and Subtraction, Multiplication and Division, Fractional Numbers,
SOF Decimal Fractions, Basic Geometrical Shapes, Angles, Triangles, Circles, Measurement of Length,
Mass and Capacity, Time, Money, Profit and Loss, Temperature, Area and Perimeter, Volume, Pictorial
Representation of Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : History and Generation of Computers, Types of Computers,
MS-Windows, MS-Word, MS-Power Point, Internet & E-mail, Introduction to QBasic, Hardware,
Software, Input & Output Devices, Memory & Storage Devices.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS

SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Roman Numerals, Number Sense, HCF and LCM, Addition and
Subtraction, Multiplication and Division, Fractional Numbers, Decimal Fractions, Geometrical Shapes,
Angles, Arithmetical Ability, Measurements, Area and Perimeter of Rectangle, Square, Circle, Triangle,
Volume, Pictorial Representation of Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion,
Percentage, Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-
Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense,
Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Motion and Measurement of Distances, Light, Shadows and Reflections,
Electricity & Circuits, Fun with Magnets, Air & Water, Sorting and Separation of Materials into
Groups, Changes Around Us, Living Organisms & Their Surroundings, Food, Health & Hygiene,
Fibres to Fabrics.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Roman Numerals, Number Sense, HCF and LCM, Addition and Subtraction, Multiplication and
Division, Fractional Numbers, Decimal Fractions, Geometrical Shapes, Angles, Arithmetical Ability,
Area and Perimeter of Rectangle, Square, Circle, Triangle, Volume, Pictorial Representation of
Data, Integers, Factors and Multiples, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Measurements.
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Direction Sense, Number
Ranking and Alphabetical Test.

The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositions, Continuous tenses, Adjectives
and Adverbs, Agreement, etc., Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, and Words related
to everyday problems, Relationships, Health and Medicine, Travel, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like News
headlines, Brochures, Formal letters, etc. ., Understand information given in News reports, Brochures,
Itenary, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in Short narratives,
Timetables, News stories, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like agreement and disagreement, Requests, Refusals apologies, etc. and also distinguish
differences in the use of conjunctions.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Find the number that should replace the box.
12 : 21 :: 8 :
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20

2. The product of two numbers is 3000. If the H.C.F. of the number is 10, then L.C.M. will be
(A) 30 (B) 300 (C) 305 (D) 5

3. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes were distributed among students. The percentage
of mangoes left in the basket is
(A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 50% (D) 75%

4. For the following figure, which of the following is false?

3
2 1
4

(A) Ð1 = Ð2 (B) Ð4 = Ð3
(C) Ð3 + Ð1 = 180° (D) Ð1 = Ð4

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING


5. 11111 – 1111 + 111 – 11 + 1 is
(A) 12345 (B) 10101 (C) 9901 (D) 102

6. 6 + 0 ¸ 6 × 2 + 1 equals
(A) 18 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 0

7. If + 50 = and – 50 = ,
what is the correct relation between and ?
(A) 50 + = (B) 50 – = (C) 100 + = (D) 100 – =

8. I think of a number, add 10 to it and divide the answer by 2. Let the resulting number be . Starting
with , how can I get my original number back ?
(A) Multiply by 2 and then subtract 10 from the result
(B) Divide by 2 and then add 10 to the result
(C) Multiply by 2 and then add 10 to the result
(D) Add 2 to and then divide the resulting number by 10
COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
9. The following steps results in
(1) Choose the insert picture clipart
(2) Select the picture
(3) Click insert clip
(A) Insertion of a picture to the file from clipart
(B) Insertion of the clipart from a file to another similar file
(C) Insertion of the picture from file to clipart file
(D) All of the above

10. The software program that acts as an interface between the user and the www is
(A) E­mail (B) Internet
(C) Protocol (D) Web browser.
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Class 6

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11. PARAM is a
(A) Super computer (B) Mini computer
(C) Main computer (D) Micro computer

12. Which of the following is a volatile memory ?


(A) ROM (B) RAM (C) EPROM (D) PROM

13. By clicking which button one can return the window to its previous size ?
(A) Maximize button (B) Minimize button
(C) Restore button (D) Close button .

14. To switch between the running applications


(A) Press F1 (B) Press ALT + F4
(C) Press TAB (D) Press and hold down ALT and press TAB.

15. Cut, copy and paste are the part of which of the menu ?
(A) VIEW (B) FAVORITES (C) FORMAT (D) EDIT

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Find L.C.M. of following numbers.
12, 24, 48, 108
(A) 504 (B) 432 (C) 405 (D) 440
2. Gita has 558 flags to pack into boxes. Each box will hold 62 flags. How many boxes will Gita need
to hold all the flags ?
(A) 34,596 (B) 0.9 (C) 9 (D) 620
X
3.
18 36

Which best describes the location of point X ?


(A) 58 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 54

4. What is the area of a rectangle that measures 5 meters wide and 6 meters long ?
(A) 11 m 2 (B) 22 m 2 (C) 30 m 2 (D) 16 m 2

5. If n represents a number, which of these means the same as the expression n + 6 ?


(A) Six more than a number (B) Six divided by a number
(C) Six less than a number (D) Six times a number

SCIENCE

6. The body system that gives you support and allows movement is the
(A) Skeletal system (B) Circulatory system
(C) Respiratory system (D) Excretory system

7. Which food group BEST provides the necessary nutrients for healthy teeth and bones ?
(A) Milk and dairy products (B) Fruits and vegetables
(C) Bread and cereal (D) Meat

3
Class 6

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8. The Sun is a
(A) Comet (B) Star (C) Huge planet (D) Satellite

9. The Earth is surrounded by an insulating blanket of gases which protects it from the light and heat
of the Sun. This insulating layer is called the
(A) Hydrosphere (B) Lithosphere (C) Atmosphere (D) Biosphere

10. Which part of the body receives messages transmitted by nerve cells located throughout the body ?
(A) Heart (B) Lungs (C) Brain (D) Liver

11. Which of the following has an organic origin ?


(A) Sand (B) Bakelite (C) Nylon (D) Coal

12. Which is usually NOT a reason why foods are processed ?


(A) More nutritious (B) Easier to package
(C) Last longer on the shelf (D) Easier to transport to the store

13. What force pulls things toward the center of Earth ?


(A) Friction (B) Gravity (C) Magnetism (D) Electricity

14. Who discovered the circulation of blood ?


(A) Edward Jenner (B) William Harvey
(C) Hargobind Khorana (D) Louis Pasteur

15. If you dissolved a lot of salt in some water in a large flat dish and put the dish in bright sunlight
on a hot day, what would be left in the dish after a long time ?
(A) Dry salt (B) Water with no salt
(C) The same salty water as before (D) Nothing

SOF

LOGICAL REASONING
Class President Results
1. The following are the results from the class election.
If 150 students voted, about how many votes did Ram receive? Ram
Jiwan
(A) 25 (B) 38 Dev

(C) 50 (D) 75

2. The weekly milk order for the New Guest house includes 40 litres of low­fat milk and 15 litres of
chocolate milk. What is the ratio of the number of low­fat milk to chocolate milk in the New Guest
house’s weekly milk order?
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 5 : 3 (D) 8 : 3
3. Joy wants to save ` 50 to buy a pair of roller blades. Amount saved
He plans to save ` 2 in the first month, Month during month Total savings
1 `2 `2
` 4 in the second month,
2 `4 `6
` 6 in the third month, and ` 8 in the fourth month. `6 ` 12
3
If Joy continues this savings pattern, 4 `8 ` 20
how many months will it take Joy to save ` 50 ?
(A) 5 months (B) 7 months
(C) 9 months (D) 13 months

4
Class 6

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4. = , = , = 50
Using the diagram above, which of the following statements is true?
(A) < (B) > (C) < (D) <

5. According to this diagram, how many students have more Favourite Book Types
than one favourite type of book? × ×
× ××
Fantasy × × ×
× Biography
× × ×× × ×
(A) 3 (B) 5 × × ××
× ×
× × ××
Mystery
(C) 7 (D) 8
x = 1 student

MATHEMATICAL REASONING
6. In Parul’s garden, there are 25 rows of vegetables. She has five more rows of peppers than tomatoes
and two fewer rows of cucumbers than tomatoes. If y represents the number of rows of tomatoes in
the garden, which number sentence can be used to find how many rows of each vegetable were
planted?
(A) y + (y + 5) + (y + 2) + y = 25 (B) (y + 5) + y = 25
(C) (y + 5) + (y – 2) = 25 (D) (y + 5) + (y – 2) + y = 25

7. What percent of these shapes are triangles?


(A) 0.25% (B) 3% (C) 12%
(D) 25%

8. Which of the following statements is true?


(A) 2 > –2 (B) 2 < –4 (C) –2 < –4 (D) –4 > 4
9. The five­day forecast for the South Pole lists the low temperatures (in Fahrenheit) as –24°, –28°,
–29°, –25°, and –30°. Which choice shows the temperatures in order from lowest to highest?
(A) –24°, –25°, –28°, –29°, –30° (B) –30°, –28°, –29°, –25°, –24°
(C) –30°, –29°, –28°, –25°, –24° (D) –30°, –29°, –28°, –24°, –25°

10. Which of the following fractions is closest to 0 ?


5 2 5 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 3 6 4

11. What is the value of the following expression? 3 + 3 × 3(4 + 3)


(A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 45 (D) 66
12. Mohit is selling candy bars. He has chocolate bars, nut bars, and mint bars. If a customer buys
two bars, and the bars are not of the same type, how many different combinations are possible?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS
13. Vinita can type 28 words per minute. At this rate, how many words can Vinita type in 5.5 minutes?
(A) 154 (B) 157 (C) 159 (D) 162

14. At a school, there are 704 desks to place into 22 classrooms. If the same number of desks is
placed in each classroom, how many desks will be in each room?
(A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 42 (D) 44
15. The students in a wood working class were building birdhouses. It takes four pieces of wood (each
3
piece of foot long) to build a birdhouse. At most, how many birdhouses can be made from 4
4
feet of wood?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

5
Class 6

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E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE

1. Complete the word using the letters from the given below options.
The magician had clever___ concealed several rabbits in his hat.
(A) Fully (B) Ness (C) Ly (D) Ity

2. Choose the correct expression.


(A) Bird in hand (B) Bird in the pocket (C) Bird and hand (D) Hand me the bird

3. Choose the odd phrase.


(A) Take off (B) Take on (C) Take up (D) Take it

4. The ………………………………….. is fine today. Let’s go for a picnic.


(A) Weather (B) Wheather (C) Whether (D) Wether

5. Choose the odd pair.


(A) Cooking : Utensils (B) Painting : Canvas
(C) Sailing : Anchor (D) Mountaineering : Paddle

6. Spot the error.


This history test is so difficult / as I think / I’m going to fail. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. Spot the incorrect sentence.


(A) Have you ever been to Burma? (B) Was anybody injured in the accident?
(C) How long have you been knowing him? (D) When was the telephone invented?

8. ……………. Priya nor Seema have gone to see the movie.


(A) Each (B) Neither (C) Both (D) Rather
READING
Direction (Q. No. 9 and 10) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Noodles were originally made using grains from millet, unlike the modern variety, which is made of
wheat flour. Many cultures across the world claim to have invented it, but in 2005 the remains of
the world’s oldest noodles were unearthed in China. The yellow strands measuring 50 cm were
found in a pot in Lajia along the Yellow River. It is believed that the pot got buried in an earth quake
4000 years ago.
9. The modern day noodles are made of
(A) Millet (B) Grains (C) Millet and wheat flour (D) Wheat flour

10. We know that noodles were made thousands of years ago in China because the
(A) Chinese claim that they invented noodles.
(B) Oldest noodles have been discovered in China.
(C) Historians say so.
(D) Chinese still eat noodles.

Direction (Q. No. 11 and 12) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
The surface of the Earth is not evenly flat. Mountains and plateaus cover large areas giving variety
to the earth’s surface. Mountains are spectacular features that rise several hundred metres above
the surrounding land. When a hill is above 600 metres, it is generally called a mountain. If a chain
of mountains exists, it is referred to as a mountain range. The Himalayas which form the northern
boundary of India is one of the most spectacular mountain ranges in the world.

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Class 6

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11. The word “evenly” in this context means


(A) Equal (B) Plain (C) Level (D) Still

12. Choose the right sentence.


(A) Mountains and hills are the same.
(B) Mountains are big hills.
(C) Hills which are not very high are called mountains.
(D) A mountain is always a part of a mountain range.

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Direction (Q. No. 13 to 15) : Complete the paragraph. Choose the most suitable sentence.
13. Asha: Why are you in such a hurry to go home today?
Tara: ———————————
Asha: I am sure you are eager to see her.
(A) I will go when I like.
(B) Going to my home is not difficult because my sister will come with me.
(C) My aunt is coming home from London after two years.
(D) I am always in a hurry to go home.

14. Asif: Arun, where were you yesterday? I had come home and I found it locked.
Arun: ———————————
Asif: I hope you found her hale and hearty.
(A) I like going out for long walks with my dog.
(B) I’d gone to visit my grandmother along with my parents.
(C) We could have gone cycling along orchard road.
(D) My house was locked throughout this summer.

15. Sentence 1 : The Amazon river is the largest river in the world with a total river flow greater than
the next ten largest rivers combined.
Sentence 2 : —————————————
Sentence 3 : Because of its vast dimensions, it is sometimes called The River Sea.
(A) However, in terms of length it is slightly shorter than the Nile.
(B) The Amazon river is surrounded by thick rain forest.
(C) Hundreds of people use the Amazon river to transport goods.
(D) The Amazon river is in South America.

7
Class 6

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SAM PLE ANSW ER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER
8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT W RONG
way to darken way to darken
P ×
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MA RK YOUR AN SWERS WITH H B PENC IL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/B LACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D)
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C)
7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D)
10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (A)
10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)

8
Class 6

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 5
The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
15 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Regional and Roman Numerals, Numbers up to one Lakh,
Multiples and Factors, Fractional Numbers, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Estimation,
SOF Geometrical Shapes, Measurement, Time, Money, Perimeter, Area, Angle, Pictorial Representation
of Data, Prime and Composite Numbers, HCF and LCM.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Input and Output Devices, Hardware, Software, Storage
Devices, Memory Primary & Secondary Memory, MS-Paint, MS-Word, Introduction to MS-
Power Point, Introduction to Multimedia, Internet, Computer Networks, MS-Windows.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
15 questions in section I and 35 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number Sense, Regional and Roman Numerals, Numbers up
to Lakhs, Multiples and Factors, Fractional Numbers, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
SOF Division, Decimals, Geometrical Shapes and Angles, Symmetry, Measurement of Length, Time,
Money, Weight, Perimeter and Area of Square, Rectangle and Circle, Pictorial Representation
of Data, HCF and LCM, Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion,
Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Direction Sense,
Patterns, Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Animals, Plants and Food, Human Body and Health, Water, Matter,
Natural Resources and Calamities, Earth and Universe, General Science.

The actual test paper has 50 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
20 questions in section I, 20 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Number sense, Numeral and Number Name (7 and 8 digit numbers), Roman Numbers, Addition,
Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Factors and Multiples, LCM, HCF, Rules of Divisibility,
Whole, Prime and Composite Numbers, Fractions, Decimals, Geometrical Shapes & Angles,
Circles, Symmetry, Measurement of Length, Mass, Capacity, Perimeter and Area of Rectangle,
Square, Measurement of Volume, Temperature, Time and Various Operations on Time, Relationship
Between Seconds, Minutes and Hours, Money, Representation of Data in Pictorial Form, Patterns,
Formation of Numbers and Figures, Direction Sense, Number Ranking and Alphabetical Test,
Series, Odd One Out.

The actual test paper consists of 50 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I : Word and Structure Knowledge : Prepositions, Tenses, Irregular verbs, Pronouns,
Modals quantifiers, etc. , Spellings, Collocations, Phrasal verbs, Idioms, Homonyms and homophones,
Words related to feelings, Travel, Food, Health, appearance, Character, etc.
Section-II : Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like news
headlines, Messages, Letters, etc., Understand information given in News reports, Time tables,
Messages, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short texts
like messages, menu card dialogues, etc.
Section-III : Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like requests, Refusals apologies, etc. and the use of conjunctions.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Which of the following are supplementary angles?
(A) 180°, 180° (B) 100°, 80° (C) 50°, 50° (D) 40°, 50°

2. A table was sold for ` 900. If the profit of ` 100 earn on it, then the cost price of the table is
(A) ` 800 (B) ` 700 (C) ` 1000 (D) ` 1200

3. The area of the shaded region is 4m

(A) 264 m2 30 m 2m

(B) 192 m2
(C) 190 m2
(D) 36 m2. 40 m
(figure not drawn to scale)

1
4. Which of the figures shows correct fraction for ?
3
(A) × × × × × × (B) ¸ ¸ ¸ ¸ ¸ (C) O O O O O (D) O O O O O O O

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING

5. 53 = 5 + ( + + ) . Here, stands for


4
3 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 4
4 4
6. Which is the odd one out ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. Library is to book as book is to


(A) Page (B) Copy (C) Binding (D) Cover

8. If the day before yesterday is two days after Monday then what day is it today ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


9. Multimedia is used for many purposes like _________.
(A) Education (B) Advertising (C) Playing games (D) All of these

10. Find the odd term out.


(A) Scanner (B) Pointing device (C) OMR (D) Printer

11. To exit the Power Point


(A) Click the application minimize button (B) Click the document close button
(C) Double click the applications control menu icon
(D) Double click the document control menu icon
12. Computer cannot perform anything on its own. It can process only when it is instructed to do so. These
sets of instructions that are fed in by the user are termed as
(A) Hardware (B) Software (C) Flowcharts (D) Programs
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13. MS–paint is
(A) Accounting software (B) System software
(C) Application software (D) Physical component

14. The small picture representing a program is a


(A) Icon (B) File (C) Folder (D) Drive

15. While working in MS–paint, the option which is used to show the drawing in a small reference window
is
(A) Show grid (B) Zoom in (C) View bitmap (D) Show thumbnail

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. A circle is drawn, with centre point O. C

The line segment from point A to point B, through the


A B
centre of the circle, is called O
(A) An arc (B) A circumference E

(C) A radius (D) A diameter D

2. Which could be the measures of the angles of a right triangle ?


(A) 80°, 50°, 90° (B) 36°, 90°, 54° (C) 44°, 90°, 40° (D) 110°, 90°, 20°

3. A race started at 11:16 A.M. The first person to cross the finish line came in at 1:22 P.M. How long did
it take the first person to reach the finish line ?
(A) 13 hours 38 minutes (B) 2 hours 6 minutes
(C) 1 hours 6 minutes (D) 2 hours 38 minutes
4. An arrow makes an angle with the level ground, as shown in the picture.
Which is the best name for this angle ?
(A) Obtuse (B) Right
?
(C) Straight (D) Acute

5. If A = 5, which number sentence is true ?


(A) A × 4 = 20 (B) A – 3 = 8 (C) 12 + A = 7 (D) 15 ÷ A = 10

SCIENCE
6. Oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide may be grouped together because at room temperature they are
all —
(A) Colloids (B) Solids (C) Gases (D) Liquids

7. The Moon revolves around —


(A) Itself (B) The solar system (C) The Earth (D) The star

8. Which of these is a process that allows plants to convert light energy into food energy?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Excretion (C) Reproduction (D) Digestion

9. A small baby plant coming out of a seed is


(A) Grain (B) Root (C) Dispersal (D) Seedling

10. Which of these is needed to measure the mass of a rock?


(A) A balance (B) A barometer (C) A metric ruler (D) Thermometer
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11. Which of these can most easily attract magnets ?


(A) Wood (B) Notebook (C) Iron nails (D) Eraser

12. The substance that makes plants green is known as –


(A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Calcium

13. Today, which human activity is responsible for endangering the greatest number of land animal species?
(A) Accidental starting of forest fires (B) Cutting wildflowers in national parks
(C) Destruction of habitats (D) Hunting for food and sport

14. Which of these probably causes the most air pollution?


(A) Cars (B) Wind (C) Rain (D) Trees

15. People in very cold places live in


(A) Stilt house (B) Wooden house (C) Igloo (D) House of mud

SOF

1. Harry had 500 coins in a jar. He sorted the coins into 25 different stack. Each stack had the same
number of coins. How many coins were in each stack?
(A) 20 (B) 45 (C) 25 (D) 12

2. There are 914 students enrolled in Lakeview Elementary School. Frederich Elementary School has 276
fewer students enrolled. How many students are enrolled at Frederich Elementary School?
(A) 642 (B) 762 (C) 1,190 (D) 638
3. Which of the following shows a reflection (flip) of the shaded shape across the dotted line?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. Which of the following has exactly 6 vertices?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. Which figure is quadrilateral?


S T W X
(A) Figure T (B) Figure S (C) Figure X (D) Figure W

6. Which figure has an area of 8 and a perimeter of 12? Each square block is of side 1 unit.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. Tom left home at 7 : 15 a.m. to go to work. He returned home at 4 : 45 p.m. What is the total amount of
time Tom was away from home?
(A) 7 hours 30 minutes (B) 9 hours 30 minutes
(C) 3 hours 30 minutes (D) 8 hours 30 minutes

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8. A rule was used to make the pattern shown below.


51, 45, 39, 33, 27, 21 . . .
Which could be the rule used to make the pattern?
(A) Divide by 7 (B) Divide by 6 (C) Subtract 7 (D) Subtract 6

9. Which of these could be solved by using the open sentence S – 7 = ?


(A) Rita collected 7 more seashells than Henry. If S is the number of seashells that Henry collected,
how many did Rita Collect ?
(B) Bony collected 7 fewer seashells than Kamal. If S is the number of seashells Kamal collected, how
many did Bony collect ?
(C) David needs 7 seashells more to complete his collection. If S is the number of seashells he has so
far, how many will he have after he gets 7 more ?
(D) Amit filled 7 boxes with seashells. If S is the number of seashells she put in each box, how many
seashells did she use in all ?

10. An optometrist uses the symbol below as a tool during an eye exam.
Which figure would result when the symbol is flipped over the dotted line?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Simon and Julie need 72 paper flowers to complete a bulletin board. They have 19 paper flowers so far.
Which operation should be used in the box below to find how many more paper flowers they need?
72 ? 19 =
(A) Addition (B) Division (C) Multiplication (D) Subtraction

12. Shelley is ordering a skirt from a catalog. She can choose one
of two lengths: a short skirt or a long skirt. Then she can choose
one of three fabric patterns: stripes, plaid, or flowers. How many Short Stripes Plaid Flowers
Long
different combinations could Shelley order choosing a length
Skirts Fabric Patterns
and a fabric pattern?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

13. A tangram is an ancient Chinese puzzle. It is made of seven C


pieces that fit together to make a square. A B
Which of the angles marked in the tangram puzzle given is an obtuse angle? D
(A) Angle A (B) Angle B
(C) Angle C (D) Angle D

14. The picture below shows a spinner for an animal board game.
In which animal section is spinner least likely to land?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. The following table shows the distance around four DISTANCE AROUND
different planets. Planet Distance Around (in miles)
Which planet’s distance has the numeral 3 in the Jupiter 88,732
ten­thousands place? Mars 4,213
(A) Jupiter (B) Mars Mercury 3,032
(C) Mercury (D) Neptune Neptune 30,603

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E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE

1. Complete each word using the letters from the box.


I can’t wait to ___wrap my birthday presents.
(A) In (B) Im (C) Un (D) None of these

2. Choose the odd one out.


(A) Build (B) Separate (C) Construct (D) None of these

3. Complete the sentence with the correct spelling of the word.


I like to read _____to my brother.
(A) Allowed (B) Aloud (C) Alaud (D) None of these

4. Match the underlined phrase with its correct meaning in the box.
Mother tried in vain to make her finish her milk.

(A) Unable to do something (B) Using a pipe


(C) With a lot of effort (D) None of these

5. Find the odd one out.


(A) Teacher : Student (B) Shopkeeper : Customer
(C) Doctor : Librarian (D) None of these

6. You have to go ______ this door to reach the library.


(A) From (B) By (C) Through (D) None of these

Direction (Q. No. 7 and 8) : Spot the error in the sentence.

7. This doll / was my/ before I gave it to you. No error


(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. If a student is not well, / he must to stay home / and rest till he feels better. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and mark
it in your answer sheet.
(A) I will start my course on June.
(B) He wore a shirt that came well below his knees.
(C) Sangeeta was lying on the bed reading a book.
(D) None of these

10. If he is planning to participate in the marathon, he ________ practice regularly.

(A) Should (B) Shall (C) Can (D) None of these

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READING

Direction (Q. No. 11 and 12) : Read the passage and answer the following questions.
Miss Jabber Blabber
The teacher, Mr. Rao walked to the blackboard and wrote up a list of words. He pointed to the list.
“I want you to read these words to yourselves,” he said. “Then, without talking to your neighbour,
choose any word from the list and draw a picture of it in your notebook.”
Joy squealed very thrilled.
I stared at the words. Then I tapped my chin. And I scratched my head. Finally I reached out to Rahul
and tapped on his head.
“Psst, Rahul”, I whispered, “which word are you drawing?”
Joy jumped up from her seat and pointed at me.
“Sir, Sir, Jenny is talking to her neighbour.”
That’s how Joy earned her famous name, one that she never liked, “J Joy Jabber Blabber”!

11. Joy complained to the teacher because


(A) She couldn’t do her work.
(B) They were not including her in their conversation.
(C) She wanted to show the teacher that she was an obedient student.
(D) None of these

12. Which of the following words would Rahul and Jenny use to describe Joy?
(A) Irritating (B) Liar (C) Friendly (D) None of these

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Direction (Q. No. 13 to 15) : Find one sentence to complete the dialogue.
13. Mother: When did you come back from the zoo? Did you like it there?
Minu : ...........................................
(A) Yes, I did. (B) I will think about it. (C) I cannot come (D) None of these

14. Teacher 1 : You have got a list of students. How many of them are coming to the picnic?
Teacher 2 : ...................................................
(A) I don’t know. (B) I can’t see them. (C) I haven’t got any. (D) None of these

15. Sentence 1. I am celebrating my doll’s birthday tomorrow.


Sentence 2. .........................................................................
Sentence 3. You are invited.
(A) There is a party at my place at 6:00 pm.
(B) Please come with a gift.
(C) Don’t come after 6:00!
(D) None of these

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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B)
7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C)
10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 4
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number and Numeration, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
Division, Geometrical Shapes, Measurement of Time, Measurement of Length, Mass, Perimeter
SOF
and Capacity, Money, Fractional Numbers, Pictorial Representation of Data, Roman Numerals,
Numbers upto one Lakh, Multiples and Factors.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images,
Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : About Computers (General Information), Parts of
Computer, Input and Output Devices, Hardware, Software, MS-Word, Using MS-Windows,
Introduction to Internet, Computer Networks, Uses of Internet, MS-Paint.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Number and Numeration (5 digit numbers), Place-value,
Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Comparison, Geometrical Shapes, Symmetry,
SOF Measurement of Length, Weight and Capacity, Time, Money, Fractional Numbers, Pictorial
Representation of Data, Roman Numerals, Multiples and Factors, Perimeter of Various Shapes,
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding,
Direction Sense, Mathematical Reasoning, Mirror Images, Embedded Figures, Patterns, Conversions,
Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Water, Matter and Materials, Transport,
General Activities, Earth and Universe.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SOF
SYLLABUS
Numerals and Number Name (5 digit numbers), Place Value, Roman Numerals, Addition and
Subtraction, Geometry : Square, Rectangle, Circle, Closed, Open Figure, Multiplication and
Division, Factors and Multiples, Fractions, Measurement, Pictorial Representation of Data,
Money, Time, Weight and Capacity, Series and Pattern Formation of Numbers and Figures,
Conversions, Comparison, Perimeter of Various Shapes, Direction Sense, Mirror Images, Embedded
Figures, Number Ranking, Alphabetical Test, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Symmetry.

The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Adverbs, Prepositions, Pronouns (possessive,
demonstrative, etc.), Simple tenses, Irregular verbs, Modals (of ability and permission, etc.), Basic
questions, etc., Collocations, Spellings, Words related to animals, Household things, Clothes,
Basic emotions, Food, Animals and pets, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like stories,
Anecdotes, etc., Understand information through pictures, Time-table format, etc., Acquire broad
understanding of and look for specific information in short texts like messages, Invitations, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like apology, greeting, introduction, request, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. 5 is one of the factors of
(A) 36 (B) 30 (C) 42 (D) 21

2. The fraction which represents the objects cancelled in the collection

is

5 12 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 5 2 3

3. There were 3856 trees in a forest. In another forest there were 4795 trees. How many more trees
were there in the second forest?
(A) 930 (B) 939 (C) 1689 (D) 1600
10 cm
4. Perimeter of the figure given here is 2 cm
8 cm
(A) 40 cm (B) 50 cm 10 cm
8 cm
(C) 45 cm (D) 55 cm
2 cm

LOGICAL & ANALYTICAL REASONING


5. What is the next number in the pattern below?
125, 150, 175, 200, .......
(A) 205 (B) 215 (C) 225 (D) 250

6. If ‘a’ means ‘+’ ; ‘b’ means ‘–’ ; ‘c’ means ‘¸’ and ‘d’ means ‘×’ then the expression
16a 4b 4c 4d2 =
1
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) 2
2

7. How many triangles are there in the following figure?


(A) 15 (B) 18
(C) 17 (D) 20

8. Choose the correct mirror image of the word FIXING


(A) GNIXIF (B) (C) (D)

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

9. Without this we cannot interact with a computer. What is this?


(A) Scanner (B) Input device (C) Output device (D) Printer

10. This key is used to move cursor to the beginning of the line or the screen depending on the
software used. Identify the key.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. 1024 bytes equals


(A) 1 Kilo byte (KB) (B) 1 Mega byte (MB)
(C) 1 Giga byte (D) 1 Character

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12. Who among the following is known as father of computers ?


(A) Charles Babbage (B) John Napier
(C) Blaise Pascal (D) Lady Ada Augusta Lovelace

13. While working with MS­Paint which option is used to add name to your drawing ?
(A) Text tool (B) Pencil (C) Edit (D) Brush

14. Which of the following is a correct internet address?


(A) ww.yahoo.com (B) www.cartoonnetwork.co
(C) www.hotmail.com (D) www.indiatime.comm

15. Which of the following is termed as nervous system of a computer?


(A) CPU (B) ALU (C) CU (D) MU

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Hill 1 is 5,729 metre high. Hill 2 is 4,049 metre high. How much higher is Hill 1 than Hill 2 ?
(A) 1,720 m (B) 680 m (C) 1,680 m (D) 1,239 m

2. Namita drew a figure with 4 square corners. Which could be the figure she drew ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. Which could be one of the faces of a cylinder ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. The number of squares in the figure is

(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) None of these

5. Raj has 60 cakes. A quarter of these cakes are distributed. How many cakes are left with him?
(A) 45 (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 25

SCIENCE
6. The time it takes for Earth to rotate on its axis is one
(A) Day (B) Month (C) Season (D) Year

7. When the layer of air that surrounds the Earth presses down, this is
(A) Heat (B) Temperature
(C) Air pressure (D) Precipitation

8. The energy an object gets from its motion is –


(A) Electrical energy (B) Chemical energy
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Potential energy
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9. The pull or push is


(A) Gravity (B) Friction (C) Force (D) Inertia
10. The time it takes the Earth to orbit the Sun is one
(A) Year (B) Season (C) Month (D) Day

11. A force that pulls two objects together is –


(A) Speed (B) Friction
(C) Force of attraction (D) Inertia

12. Plants use sunlight to make sugar in the process of –


(A) Oxidation (B) Reproduction
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Fertilization

13. Energy that results from chemical changes is –


(A) Friction (B) Mechanical energy
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Chemical energy

14. Rubber, glass and plastic are good –


(A) Conductors (B) Generators
(C) Insulators (D) Electromagnets

15. The tiny part of a seed that can grow into a plant is the –
(A) Pistil (B) Spore (C) Fruit (D) Embryo

SOF

1. There are eighty­six thousand four hundred seconds in a day. How else could this number be written?
(A) 80,064 (B) 80,640
(C) 86,400 (D) 86,404
2. Leena and her mother made a quilt. They used 56 squares and made 8 rows. How many squares are
in each row?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
3. Jyoti walked 3 km each day. How many kilometre had she walked after 14 days?
(A) 42 (B) 32 (C) 14 (D) 11
4. Ram, Rahul, and Rohit shared a bag of marbles. The bag contained 272 marbles. How many marbles
were left over after the friends shared them equally?
(A) 90 (B) 91 (C) 6 (D) 2

5. How many vertices does this pyramid have?


(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8

6. Start at 23.
Count by 10 two times.
Add 1.
What number are you at?
(A) 33 (B) 44 (C) 55 (D) 45
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7. If ´4=

– = 330, then
What is + ?
(A) 110 (B) 440 (C) 550 (D) 990

8. Justin solved the problem below. Which expression could be used to check his answer?
454
3 1364 : Remainder = 2

(A) (454 × 3) + 2 (B) (454 × 2) + 3


(C) (454 + 3) × 2 (D) (454 + 2) × 3

9. Which set of numbers is in order from greatest to least?


(A) 147, 163, 234, 275 (B) 275, 234, 163, 147
(C) 275, 163, 234, 147 (D) 163, 275, 234, 147

10. Aunt Ruby’s clock is shown here.


If her niece is going to pick her up in 30 minutes, 12:40
what time will be shown on the clock?
(A) 12 : 10 (B) 12 : 70 (C) 1 : 10 (D) 1 : 60

11. What is the best unit to use for measuring the amount of soda in a drink can?
(A) Millilitre (B) Gallon (C) Tablespoon (D) Cup

12. What is the rule for this number pattern?


1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, . . .
(A) Add 0, then add 1, then add 2, and so on
(B) Multiply by 1, then multiply by 2, then multiply by 3, and so on
(C) Multiply by 1, then add 1
(D) Multiply by two, then subtract 1

13. Danny and Julie have new sticker books. Danny will put 4 stickers
Day Danny Julie
in his book every day and Julie will put 6 stickers in her book
1 4 6
every day.
2 8 12
How many stickers will Danny have when Julie has 30 in her
book? 3 12 18
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30

14. When a number is put into the machine below, a different number
Input 8
comes out.
If 2 goes in, 6 comes out. If 4 goes in, 12 comes out. If 5 goes
in, 15 comes out.
If 8 goes in, what number should come out? Number
Machine
(A) 32 (B) 24 ? Output
(C) 16 (D) 12

15. There are 3 rows of strawberry plants. Each row has 6 plants. How many strawberry plants in all?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 24

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E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE

1. I build bridges. I am ________.


(A) A plumber (B) An engineer (C) A carpenter

2. Choose the odd one.


(A) Sandals (B) Shoes (C) Scarves

3. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and mark
it in your answer sheet.
(A) Tina is watching television. (B) I lose my pen yesterday.
(C) I like playing football.

4. Choose the odd one.


(A) Doctor : Stethoscope (B) Carpenter : Hammer
(C) Mason : Scissors

5. Complete each word using the letters from the box.


When the boy whistled, the dog __ willingly let go of the bone.
(A) Un (B) In (C) Im

Direction (Q. No. 6 to 8) : Fill in the blanks. Choose the right answer.
6. Ann always ........... a lot of mistakes when she speaks English.
(A) Make (B) Makes (C) Made

7. ………………. of the girls in the class did not want to play football.
(A) Little (B) Much (C) Some

8. I am looking forward ……. the birthday party.


(A) With (B) On (C) To

9. Complete the sentence with the correct spelling of the word.


My brother travelled to South Korea recently. He likes visiting ………………………. countries.
(A) Phoreign (B) Foreign (C) Foriegn

READING
Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Red woods are among the world’s tallest trees. They grow 200 to 300 feet high. The wood, when
cut remains remarkably free from decay caused by weather and insects. So it is used to build houses
and even outdoor furniture.
10. (A) No tree is taller than the red wood tree.
(B) Red wood trees grow very tall.
(C) Trees grow tall all over the world.

11. (A) Red wood tree can be easily destroyed by insects.


(B) Red wood trees decay easily.
(C) Red wood trees are suitable for making long lasting park benches.

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Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Many people believe that a house is not a home without a pet. Pets provide companionship and can
be a boon to people, especially children. Pets will be there for you through thick and thin. Moreover,
caring for a pet teaches you important lessons about taking responsibility, sharing your time and
caring for another living creature.

12. “Pets can be a boon to people,” because


(A) They can be good friends (B) They teach children to be responsible
(C) They will look after children

13. “Through thick and thin” means


(A) Ing through difficulties (B) When you are very happy
(C) In good and bad times

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

14. Choose the right answer.


Imran : When does the train for Baroda leave?
Official : …………………………………………………………..
(A) Maybe, in a week or so.
(B) In an hour from platform number 5.
(C) Just turn around and walk to the end of the road.

15. Sentence 1 is given. Sentence 2 is not. Choose the right option for sentence 2.
Sentence 1 : A biography is written by a person about the life and activities of another person.
Sentence 2 : …………………………………………………………………………………
(A) Whereas an autobiography is written by a person about his own life.
(B) Gandhiji wrote an autobiography called My Experiments with Truth.
(C) People write autobiographies about their own lives.

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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B)
10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B)
13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 3
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.

SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals and Number Names, Addition, Subtraction, Fractional
Numbers, Multiplication as Repeated Addition, Division as Repeated Subtraction, Time, Temperature,
SOF Straight and Curved Lines, Calendar, Measurement of Length, Weight and Capacity, Geometrical
Shapes, Money.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning,
Mirror Images, Embedded Figures.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : About Computers (General Information), Parts of Computer,
Uses of Computer, Start & Shut down of a Computer, Input and Output Devices, Introduction
to Internet, MS-Paint, Introduction to MS-Word.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals, Number Names and Number Sense (4 digit numbers),
SOF
Addition, Subtraction, Fractional Numbers, Multiplication, Division, Time, Straight and Curved
Lines, Calendar, Measurement of Weight and Capacity, Geometrical Shapes, Money, Patterns,
Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mirror
Image, Embedded Figures.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Water, Food, House and Occupation,
Transport and Communication, Matter and Materials, Earth and Universe.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
SOF
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics
SYLLABUS
Numerals and Number Name, Number Sense (4 digit numbers), Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication,
Division, Fractions, Money, Length (conversions), Weight, Capacity, Time, Point, Problems Based
on Figures, Find Odd Numeral Out, Patterns, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mirror
Images, Embedded Figures, Straight Lines and Curved Lines, Geometrical Shapes.

The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time Allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.
SYLLABUS
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge : Adverbs, Prepositions, Pronouns (possessive,
demonstrative, etc.), Simple tenses, Irregular verbs, Modals (of ability and permission, etc.), Basic
questions, etc. Collocations, Spellings, Words related to animals, Household things, Clothes, Basic
emotions, Food, Animals and Pets, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like stories,
Anecdotes, etc. Understand information through pictures, Time-table format, etc., Acquire broad
understanding of and look for specific information in short texts like messages,
Invitations, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like apology, greeting, introduction, request, etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY

1. The fraction of unshaded part is

2 1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 2
2. In one trip a car can take 6 people. In how many trips can it take 30 people?
(A) 5 trips (B) 6 trips (C) 4 trips (D) 10 trips
3. Raman had 28 balloons. In party 8 balloons were burst. How many are left with him?
(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 25 (D) 18
4. In which one of the following numbers, the digits cannot be rearranged to get another three digit number?
(A) 400 (B) 425 (C) 968 (D) 129

LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING

5. If means +, • means – , means > , means <, then which of the following is not true?

(A) 2 5 4 (B) 5 • 3 7 (C) 10 5 5 (D) 4 • 2 7


6. Find the odd one out.
(A) Sunday (B) January (C) Wednesday (D) Friday

7. 2 + 3 + 16 = 10 +
(A) 9 (B) 21 (C) 10 (D) 11
8. Find odd one out.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


9. Brain of computer is
(A) CPU (B) UPC (C) PCU (D) Monitor

10. represents which part of computer ?

(A) Keyboard (B) Mouse (C) CD (D) CPU


11. Which of the statements about a computer is not correct?
(A) You can watch movies on it (B) You can solve your sums on it
(C) You can play games on it (D) You can cook food with it

12. The key that erases characters towards the left is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. Find the odd term out.


(A) Keyboard (B) Floppy disk (C) Monitor (D) MS­Word

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14. is also called

(A) VDU (B) CPU (C) ALU (D) CU


15. MS­Paint is a window program that is used for
(A) Calculations (B) Writing letters
(C) Drawing purposes (D) Preparing presentations

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY

1. If Rahul puts exactly 2 fish in each fishbowl, how many fish will he use to put in 20 bowls ?
(A) 40 (B) 22 (C) 42 (D) 20

2. Which is true ?
(A) 6,293 > 4,526 (B) 4,521 < 4,297 (C) 6,113 > 6,169 (D) 6,750 = 6,150
3. Which means seven thousand five hundred ninety­two ?
(A) 7,592 (B) 5,792 (C) 5,972 (D) 7,529

4.

Reena ate 1/8 of the cake. How much of the cake did she eat ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

5. The chart shows the number of pages Mansi read during four days.
Day Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday
Pages Read 24 17 31 26
How many more pages did Mansi read on Wednesday than on Tuesday ?
(A) 26 (B) 16 (C) 14 (D) 24

SCIENCE
6. Solar energy comes from
(A) The sun (B) Tides (C) Oil (D) Fossils
7. Water droplets that are too heavy to float make
(A) Fog (B) Clouds (C) Rain (D) Smoke

8. Which of the following does not take the shape of the container it is in ?
(A) Pencil (B) Oil (C) Water (D) Milk

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9. The bird that can never fly


(A) Duck (B) Crow (C) Bulbul (D) Kiwi
10. Ducks have
(A) Short and broad beaks (B) Broad and flat beaks
(C) Slender beaks (D) Pointed beaks
11. In which Earth layer do most grasses grow?
(A) Solid rock (B) Subsoil (C) Topsoil (D) Bedrock
12. Which of these do people build to stop flooding?
(A) Sidewalks (B) Dams (C) Bridges (D) Streets
13. The birds that lays its eggs in the nest of a crow is
(A) Cuckoo (B) Parrot (C) Wood pecker (D) Pigeon
14. Which of the following will not dissolve in water?
(A) Salt (B) Sugar (C) Sand (D) Baking soda
15. Soil helps trees because soil —
(A) Makes food for the trees (B) Moves the tree seeds to new places
(C) Gives nutrients to the trees (D) Turns the roots into new trees

SOF

1. A class collected seven hundred fourteen box tops. Which number represents seven hundred fourteen?
(A) 704 (B) 714 (C) 740 (D) 741
2. What is the standard form of 7,000 + 800 + 20 + 5?
(A) 7,285 (B) 7,825 (C) 7,852 (D) 7,528
3. The students count 149 balls in the gym. What is another way of writing the number of balls in the gym?
(A) Fourteen nine (B) One forty­nine
(C) One hundred forty­nine (D) One hundred fourteen nine
4. Which place value is used to prove that 5,487 is less than 5,874?
(A) Ones place (B) Tens place (C) Hundreds place (D) Thousands place
5. Tina shades in 3 spaces on a game board. Game Board
What fraction of the game board is shaded?
(A) 3/6 (B) 3/5
(C) 3/3 (D) 6/3
6. What property of addition will help you find the answer to the problem: 6 + 0 = ?
(A) Zero plus any number equals zero
(B) Zero plus any number equals that number
(C) Zero minus any number equals that number
(D) Zero minus any number equals zero
7. Sara and 3 of her friends together made a poster. They drew 8 rows of squares with 6 squares in
each row. How many squares did Sara and her friends draw on the poster?
(A) 48 (B) 42 (C) 40 (D) 17
8. How would this block model look from the top?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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9. Komal built a birdhouse at summer camp.


What shape is the piece of wood that was cut out to make the door of his birdhouse?
(A) Triangle (B) Diamond
(C) Circle (D) Pentagon

10. Mrs. Ryan shows her class two groups of shapes.


Then she asks, “Which rule was used to sort these shapes into groups?”
(A) Large things and small things
(B) Triangles and squares
(C) Circles and figures with 4 sides
(D) Triangles and figures with four sides

11. Joshua is weaving a pattern into a rug.


What would most likely come next?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12. Meena made this pattern with balls:

Which of the following uses a rule most different from Meena’s pattern?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. If Pawan has baseball practice every fourth day in the month of
March, starting with March 1, what date will be his last day of
practice for the month?

(A) March 28

(B) March 29

(C) March 30

(D) March 31

14. The rule for sorting is “has four or more corners.” Which group has been sorted correctly?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. Third­grade students went to a theatre in 8 buses. Each bus took 45 students. How many students went
to the theatre?
(A) 320 (B) 360 (C) 380 (D) 3240

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E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE

1. Look at the pictures. Find the correct word for the picture.

(A) Writer (B) Dancer (C) Singer

2. Find the odd pair.


(A) Cat : Kitten (B) Cow : Calf (C) Pig : Pigeon

3. Complete the sentence with the correct spelling of the word.


The bear went over the _________.
(A) Mountan (B) Mountain (C) Mountane

4. Complete the word using the letters from the box.


She saw her mother. Her eyes were shining with happ______.
Eness

5. Find the odd word.


(A) Run (B) Walk (C) Table

6. Fill in the blanks.


There are thirty tables and thirty _______ in my classroom.
(A) Chair (B) Chairs (C) A chair

7. My teacher’s name is Sheela. I like ______.


(A) Her (B) Him (C) She

8. Given below are three sentences. One of them is incorrect. Find the incorrect sentence and
mark it in your answer sheet.
(A) I go for a walk. (B) My father’s name are Prasad.
(C) My name is Kishan.

READING

Direction (Q. No. 9 to 12) : Read the letter and answer the questions.
Letter to Rudolf, Santa’s Reindeer
Dear Rudolf
My name is Meethu. I am a baby parrot! I live with my friend in the great city of Mumbai in the state
of Maharashtra. Of course, that’s in India, but I’ll bet you knew that! Rudolf, some things that I might
like for Christmas this year, two bags full of my favourite seed­mix, lots of green chillies and another

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baby parrot to play with. And please don’t forget to put in a good word for my friend with Santa! He
is very nice. He doesn’t keep me in a cage.
Lots of Love
Meethu
Now, choose the correct answer.

9. Meethu lives in
(A) Hyderabad (B) Mumbai (C) A cage

10. Meethu asks for


(A) Two things (B) Three things (C) Five things

11. Meethu asks Rudolf for things to


(A) Eat (B) Drink (C) Read

12. Why does Meethu like his owner?


(A) He doesn’t give him food. (B) He puts Meethu in a cage.
(C) He allows Meethu to fly.

13. Find a sentence matching the picture.

(A) The girl is posting a letter. A crow is looking at her.


(B) The girl is looking at the crow. The crow is posting a letter.
(C) The girl is buying vegetables. There is a post­box.

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


14. Find one sentence to complete the dialogue.
Geetha: Hello! I am Geetha ! What is your name?
Lina : (A) Hello! I am Lina.
(B) Hello! I am going home.
(C) Let us go home.
15. Find one sentence to complete the paragraph.
Ram didn’t want to swim in the sea.
He sat on the beach and watched Rahul and Mahesh.
(A) Mummy gave Ram an ice cream but he didn’t want it.
(B) They played in the water.
(C) But Paul didn’t want to.
.

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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B)
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B)
13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)

8
Class 3

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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 2
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
5 questions in section I, 10 in section II and 20 in section III.

SYLLABUS

SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals and Number Names, Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication
as Repeated Addition, Temperature, Time, Calendar, Measurement of Length and Weight, Geometrical
Shapes, Money.
Section – II (Logical and Analytical Reasoning) : Problems Based on Figures, Find Odd
Numeral Out, Series Completion, Coding-Decoding, Mathematical Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning.
Section – III (Computers and IT) : Introduction to Computers (General Information), Parts
of Computer, Uses of Computer, Learning to use Keyboard and Mouse, Introduction to MS-Paint.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 2 sections:
10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.

SYLLABUS
SOF
Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals, Number Name and Number Sense (3 digit numbers),
Addition, Subtraction, Time, Calendar, Measurement of Weight, Length and Temperature, Geometrical
Shapes, Money, Problems Based on Figures, Series Completion, Patterns, Find Odd Numeral Out.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Body, Family, Food, Clothes, House and House
Makers, Occasions and Festivals, Occupation, Good Habits and Safety Rules, Transport and
Communication, Earth and Universe.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections:
10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in section III.
SOF
Section – I : Logical Reasoning, Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning &
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics

SYLLABUS

Numerals and Number Name, Number Sense (3 digit numbers), Money, Measurement of Length
(conversions), Weight, Time and Temperature, Calendar, Point, Line and Plane Figures, Problems
Based on Figures, Patterns, Series Completion, Find Odd Numeral Out, Geometrical Shapes.

The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There are 3 sections.

SYLLABUS

Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge


Nouns, Articles, Pronouns, Simple tenses, Prepositions, etc.
Collocations, Spellings, Words related to animals, Clothes, Body parts, Basic emotions, Food,
Animals, Animal sounds, etc.
Section-II: Reading : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like stories,
short dialogues, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short
texts like messages, invitations, etc.
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression : Ability to understand situation-based variations
in functions like thanking, greeting, asking for permission, introducing (oneself), etc.

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SOF
National Cyber Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Which set of numbers will give the greatest answer?
P Q R S
3+3 8+2 3+6 5–4

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S


2. 7 groups of _________ makes 49.
(A) 9 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3
3. I am thinking of a number. When I double the number and add 9 to the result, the answer is 29. What is
the number I am thinking of ?
(A) 38 (B) 29 (C) 18 (D) 10
4. In science class, Samir recorded the following amounts of rainfall AMOUNT OF RAINFALL RECORDED
for one 4­day period.
Day of Week Amount of Rainfall
On what day of the week did Samir record the least amount of
rainfall? Monday 0.12 mm
Tuesday 0.02 mm
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday Wednesday 0.21 mm
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday Thursday 0.11 mm

5. Mr. Narayan is lining up his students in this order:


girl, girl, boy, boy, girl, girl, boy, boy, girl, girl, boy, ? ?
If he continues the same pattern, what are the next two students in line?
(A) Boy, boy (B) Boy, girl (C) Girl, boy (D) Girl, girl
6. Which of the following is the greatest number?
(A) 345 (B) 354 (C) 376 (D) 367
COMPUTERS & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
7. CD­ROM stands for
(A) Central processing unit (B) CD­remote open mouse
(C) CD­resize or minimize (D) CD­read only memory
8. The device which is used to store information

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

9. This is the key which is used to give space after words, alphabets or numbers. If pressed once, it gives
the space of one character. It is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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Class 2
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10. CPU is called the brain of the computer. What does CPU stands for ?
(A) Control Processing Unit (B) Calculations Processing Unit
(C) Central Processing Unit (D) Computer Processing Unit
11. A blinking symbol on the screen that shows where the next character will appear is
(A) Delete key (B) Arrow key (C) Cursor (D) Return key
12. The computer monitor is which type of device ?
(A) Output (B) Input (C) Processor (D) Software
13. There are __________ shift keys on a keyboard.
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
14. A keyboard is which kind of device ?
(A) Block (B) Input (C) Output (D) Word processing
15. A light weight & compact machine, capable of doing everything which a desktop computer can do, is
called _______________.

(A) CD­ROM (B) Scanner (C) Printer (D) Laptop

SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Look at the number sentence below.
27 + = 37
What number is missing from the number sentence?
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 17 (D) 64
2. Dolly made the number pattern below.
3, 6, 9, ? , ? , 18
What two numbers are missing from the pattern?
(A) 10, 11 (B) 12, 15 (C) 13, 15 (D) 19, 20

3. The table below shows how many minutes Raghav practiced playing the piano last weekend.
Raghav's Piano Practice
Day Time
(in minutes)
Friday 25
Saturday 30
Sunday 29
How many minutes did Raghav practice playing the piano in all?
(A) 74 Minutes (B) 79 Minutes (C) 84 Minutes (D) 85 Minutes

4. Ram’s cat had 8 kittens as shown below. Ann kept 4 of Ram’s kittens. How many kittens did Ram have
now?

(A) 1 Kitten (B) 2 Kittens (C) 4 Kittens (D) 6 Kittens


3
Class 2
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5. Which clock shows 3 : 20?


11 12 1 11 12 1 11 12 1 11 12 1
(A) 10 2 (B) 10 2 (C) 10 2 (D) 10 2
9 3 9 3 9 3 9 3
8 4 8 4 8 4 8 4
7 6 5 7 6 5 7 6 5 7 6 5

SCIENCE
6. Which of the given figures represents the organ that helps in breathing ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. My father’s nephew or niece is my


(A) Cousin (B) Uncle (C) Aunt (D) Brother­in­law

8. The person in the given figure is a/an


(A) Doctor
(B) Soldier
(C) Diver
(D) Astronaut

9. The given figure shows a microscope. Which subject is it related to ?


(A) Maths (B) Geography
(C) History (D) Science

10. Which of the following modes of transport does not have an engine and are not pulled by animals ?
(A) Cycle (B) Tonga (C) Jeep (D) Car
11. To which place of worship does Sikhs go to pray ?
(A) Temple (B) Mosque (C) Church (D) Gurudwara

12. Which of the following yields fibre ?

(A) Barley (B) Tea (C) Cotton (D) Mustard

13. If you face the rising Sun in the morning, the direction on your left is
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West

14. The given figure represents which of the following seasons ?


(A) Spring (B) Summer
(C) Monsoon (D) Winter

15. Which of the following figures represent crescent moon ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Class 2
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SOF

1. Largest two digit number is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. There are 684 pupils in a school. 297 of them are boys. How many girls are there in the school?
(A) 388 (B) 387 (C) 487 (D) 587

3.
` 14 ` 50

` 10
Milk

Biscuit
What is the total cost of the food items displayed ?
(A) ` 74 (B) ` 84 (C) ` 64 (D) ` 70
4. Number of triangles in the given figure

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 0


5. What will come next in the sequence ?

_________

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1
6. Which of the following shows part shaded ?
4

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. In 3278, 2 is in which place ?


(A) Ones (B) Hundreds (C) Tens (D) Thousands
8. 5 Hundreds, 1 ones and 5 tens will make
(A) 551 (B) 510 (C) 155 (D) 515
9. There are 15 beetles. Ring the beetles into group of 3. How many groups will be formed ?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3
10. When arranged in order from smallest to biggest, which number will be at last position in the sequence?
21, 12, 79, 63, 36, 47
(A) 79 (B) 36 (C) 47 (D) 12

11. Anupriya had ` 90. She bought a pair of scissors for ` 60. How much amount she has now ?
(A) ` 30 (B) ` 40 (C) ` 35 (D) ` 25
12. Mrs. Tanuja bakes 20 cup cakes. If she packs 4 cup cakes in one box, how many boxes does she
need to pack all the cakes ?
(A) 7 boxes (B) 6 boxes (C) 5 boxes (D) 3 boxes
5
Class 2
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13. The kite flying in the sky belongs to which girl ?

6+3

(A) 24 (B) 9 (C) 28 (D) 14

14. There are 3 stars on a flag. There are 7 such flags. How many stars are there altogether ?

(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 28 (D) 27


15. Which of the following digit in 928 is at hundreds place ?
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 9 (D) 8

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


1. Find the odd word.
(A) Airport (B) Lake (C) Airplane
2. Choose the right spelling.
(A) Elephant (B) Elaphent (C) Elefant
3. Choose the right word.

The children are …………………………………


(A) Dancing (B) Singing (C) Playing
Direction (Q. No. 4 and 5) : Fill in the blanks with the right word.
4. The earth is …………………………… like a ball.
(A) Round (B) Square (C) Triangle
5. I am brown and furry. I am a …………………………………
(A) Duck (B) Bear (C) Lion
Direction (Q. No. 6 to 9) : Fill in the blanks.
6. He is ......... tall boy.
(A) An (B) A (C) The

6
Class 2
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7. Rita is my friend. ..... is very jolly.


(A) It (B) They (C) She
8. This …………. John. He studies in Model School.
(A) Is (B) Was (C) Are
9. The …………………… are going to the park.
(A) Child (B) Children (C) Childrens

READING

Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Choose the right sentence.


10. (A) The children are playing with a ball. (B) The children are flying kites.
(C) The children are playing with balloons.
11. (A) Ravi has two balloons. (B) Rakhi has one balloon.
(C) Salim has one balloon.

Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Something smells good in the kitchen,
Sugary, spicy and sweet.
A pudding? A pie? What can it be?
Mom’s making a special treat.
So I peep into the kitchen
And as you all can see,
That sugary, spicy, sweet surprise
Is a Birthday Cake for me!
12. What is Mom making in the kitchen?
(A) A pudding (B) Sugar (C) A Birthday Cake
13. What kind of a surprise is it?
(A) Shocking (B) Sweet (C) Good

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Choose the right answer.
14. Tom : Jerry! Please have some cheese.
Jerry: ……………………………………………………
(A) I am not a teacher, Tom. (B) Thank You, Tom.
(C) The train is late, Tom.

15. Seetha lived in a house with a large garden.


…………………………………………………………………
(A) There were a lot of books on the table. (B) The school will start tomorrow.
(C) The garden had many rose plants in it.

7
Class 2
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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

ANSWERS

National Cyber Olympiad National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) Olympiad Olympiad
4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B)
10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)

8
Class 2
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CLASS

SAMPLE PAPER 1
The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There
are 2 sections: 10 questions in section I and 25 in section II.
SYLLABUS

SOF Section – I (Mental Ability) : Numerals, Number Name and Number


Sense (2 digit numbers), Addition, Subtraction, Length, Weight, Time,
Money, Geometrical Skills, Patterns, Odd One Out, Series Completion,
Problems Based on Figures.
Section – II (Science) : Plants, Animals, Human Beings and Their Needs,
Good Habits and Safety Rules, Air and Water, Weather and the Sky.

The actual test paper has 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes. There
are 3 sections: 10 questions in section I, 15 in section II and 10 in
section III.
SOF Section – I : Logical Reasoning
Section – II : Mathematical Reasoning
Section – III : Everyday Mathematics

SYLLABUS
Numerals, Number Name and Number Sense (2 digit numbers), Addition,
Subtraction, Length, Weight, Time, Money, Geometrical Skills, Patterns,
Odd One Out, Series Completion, Problems Based on Figures.

The actual test paper consists of 35 questions. Time allowed : 60 minutes.


There are 3 sections:
Section-I: Word and Structure Knowledge
Section-II: Reading
Section-III: Spoken and Written Expression
SYLLABUS
Jumbled Words, Words and Their Meanings, Words and Their Opposites,
Identify the Word From the Picture, Making a Word, Feminine and Masculine,
One and Many, Word Pairs, Odd One Out, Animals and Their Babies, Nouns,
Verbs, Articles

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SOF
National Science Olympiad
MENTAL ABILITY
1. Rohan and Mona are playing a game. Mona asked Rohan to move 2 steps away from her. If Rohan is
on 7th step, where will he be after moving?
Rohan
Mona

10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

(A) 5th step (B) 3rd step (C) 9th step (D) 10th step

2. Rahul has . Which of the following he can buy?

` 10
(A) (B)
`3

` 12 ` 15
(C) (D)

3. Which abacus shows one number less than 17?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


T O T O T O T O

4. Which of the following is the correct order from the tallest to shortest?

Ella Mona Sona Sohan


(A) Sohan, Ella, Mona, Sona (B) Sona, Sohan, Ella, Mona
(C) Ella, Mona, Sona, Sohan (D) Mona, Sona, Sohan, Ella

2
Class 1
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5. Given pot has 1 red ball and rest blue balls. How many are blue colour balls?

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

SCIENCE
6. Look at the picture and complete the following sentence.

Always cross the road on __________ crossing.


(A) Horse (B) Zebra (C) Footpath (D) Traffic

7. Which of the following match is correct?


(A) Stop ­ Green light (B) Wait ­ Yellow light (C) Go ­ Red light (D) All of these

8. is the seed of _______

(A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Rajma (D) Corn

9. I am green and small. I can make you cry. I am a


(A) Pea (B) Chilli (C) Ladyfinger (D) Spinach

10. Unscramble the words given below to get the name of the home of the
animal shown in the figure.
‘ATSLBE’
(A) Ebstla (B) Tebsla
(C) Stable (D) Belsta

11. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) lives in water (B) cannot fly

(C) has eight legs (D) is the largest living animal

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Class 1
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12. Which part of our body helps us to hear a bell?


(A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Ear (D) Tongue

13. The picture shows that our house keeps us safe from

(A) The heat of the Sun


(B) Rain
(C) Cold

(D) Strong winds

14. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?


(A) We cannot feel air but we can see it. (B) Moving air is called wind.
(C) Air takes up space. (D) All of these

15. Choose the correct sequence of words to complete the paragraph given below.
Summer days are _________ while winter days are __________. A strong wind blows on _________.
Monsoon days are ____________.
(A) Cold, hot, a windy day, rainy (B) Rainy, cold, a hot day, windy
(C) Hot, cold, a windy day, rainy (D) Windy, hot, a rainy day, cold

SOF

1. Which of the following shows correct descending order?


10 10 15 20
12 9 16 19
(A) 13 (B) 8 (C) 17 (D) 17
15 7 18 25

2. Latika, Monika and Sonika are sitting in a row. Latika is sitting between Monika and Sonika. Which of the
following is the correct order?

(A) Latika Sonika Monika (B) Latika Monika Sonika

(C) Sonika Latika Monika (D) Sonika Monika Latika

3. The can jump two steps at a time. If it is at 5th step, where will it be after 2 jumps?

(A)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

(B)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(C) (D)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

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Class 1
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4. Four friends are celebrating their birthdays. The candles on cake shows their ages. Who is the eldest?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Ankit Parul Ruchi Anu

5. The shape of is looking like a

(A) Cone (B) Cylinder (C) Sphere (D) Cube

6. Given two baskets shows the number of apples.

Yellow basket Red basket


Which is correct statement?
(A) Yellow basket has more apples than red basket.
(B) Red basket has more apples than yellow basket.
(C) Both red and yellow baskets have equal apples.
(D) Red basket has less apples than yellow basket.

7. Which figure is in the centre?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. Add me to 4 and subtract me from 12. The answer is the same. Who am I?

(A) 14 (B) 10 4 12
(C) 6 (D) 4

9. Look at the picture given below.

Which of the following number sentence shows above picture?


(A) 2 + 2 + 2 (B) 2 + 2 + 4 + 4 (C) 2 + 2 (D) 2 + 2 + 2 + 2

10.

Which of the following shows the total value of above coins?


(A) ` 5 (B) ` 2 (C) ` 10 (D) ` 20

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Class 1
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11. Which of the following shows the object which can hold maximum water?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

12. Sonali bought the following items.

R
` 10 ERASE `2 `5

How much money did she spend?


(A) ` 27 (B) ` 15 (C) ` 12 (D) ` 17

13. Which subtraction gives 42 as the answer?


(A) 99 – 42 (B) 98 – 56 (C) 84 – 40 (D) 82 – 30

14. Chintu has 24 balls. He gaves 2 balls to his sister. How many balls does Chintu has now?
(A) 22 balls (B) 20 balls (C) 18 balls (D) 21 balls

15. To get 8, Ria has to add 4 _________ times.


(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 2

E SOF

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE


1. Find the odd word.
(A) Railway station (B) River (C) Train
2. Identify the picture.

(A) Bubble (B) Rainbow (C) Sun

3. Identify the object in the picture and fill in the blanks to form the correct spelling.

BALL_ _N

(A) BALL U U N (B) BALL O O N (C) BALL U O N

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Class 1
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Direction (Q. No. 4 and 5) : Form a meaningful word.


4. Plca
(A) Palc (B) Clap (C) Plac

5. Ssrga
(A) Ragss (B) Rgass (C) Grass
6. Find the odd one out from the given set of words.
East, west, north, but, south
(A) But (B) North (C) South

7. The young one of cat is


(A) Pup (B) Kitten (C) Cub

8. ‘Monika sleeps on sofa’. Identify the verb.


(A) Monica (B) Sleeps (C) Sofa

9. The …………………… are going to the school.


(A) Child (B) Children (C) Childrens

READING

Direction (Q. No. 10 to 13) : For the given picture, answer the following questions.

10. My name is Maria. I am a _________.


(A) Maid (B) Teacher (C) Nurse

11. I am usually found in ________.


(A) Hospitals (B) Police stations (C) Zoos

12. I take care of the _________.


(A) Animals (B) Patients (C) Teachers

13. I give _______ to my patients.


(A) Medicines (B) Food (C) Home work

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION


Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Choose the right answer.
14. Tom : Jerry! Don’t make a noise.
Jerry: ……………………………………………………
(A) I am not a teacher, Tom. (B) Thank You, Tom.
(C) Sorry, Tom.
15. Ali lived in a house with a large garden.
…………………………………………………………………
(A) There were a lot of books on the table. (B) The school will start tomorrow.
(C) The garden had many rose plants in it.

7
Class 1
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SAMPLE ANSWER SHEET


1. NAME : If your name is SACHIT A IYER, then you should write as follows :
S A C H I T A I Y E R

2. FATHER'S NAME : If your father's name is SATISH KUMAR SHARMA, then you should write as follows :
S A T I S H K U M A R S H A R M A

SCHOOL CODE 3. SCHOOL CODE


M H 0 5 4 7 Write your school code 4. CLASS 5. ROLL NO.
A A 0 0 0 i.e. if your school code If you are in Class If your roll no. is 587,
B B 1 1 1 1 is MH0547 darken as 10, then you should then you should write
C C 2 2 2 2 follows : darken as follows : and darken the circles
D D 3 3 3 3 as follows :
E E 4 4 4
CLASS ROLL NO.
F F 5 5 5
1 0 5 8 7
G G 6 6 6 6
H 7 7 7
Darken 0 0 0 0
the circle Darken 1 1 1 1
I I 8 8 8 8 the circle
2 2 2 2 2
J J 9 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 3
K K
4 4 4 4 4
L L
5 5 5 5
M
6 6 6 6 6
N N
7 7 7 7
O O 6. GENDER 8 8 8 8
P P If you are a boy,
9 9 9 9 9
Q Q then darken
R R Male circle
S S
T T GENDER
U U CORRECT WRONG
way to darken way to darken
V V MALE FEMALE
the circle the circle P ×
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
7. If your choice for Answer 1 is C, then you should darken the circle as follows : 1.

MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH HB PENCIL/BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

National Science Olympiad International Mathematics International English Olympiad


Olympiad
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B)
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A)
4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A)
4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C)
7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B)
7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D)
10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B)
10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (D)
13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)

8
Class 1
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