Đề số 26

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ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 10 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023

(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
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Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................................................................


Số báo danh: ...................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. looked B. visited C. watched D. passed
Question 2: A. come B. month C. some D. comb
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. digest B. country C. flora D. fortune
Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. fantastic D. submarine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: The nuclear plant provides a fifth of the nation's ______ supplies.
A. labour B. vegetable C. water D. energy
Question 6: ________ the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.
A. saw B. To see C. Having seen D. Being seen
Question 7: A joke can be very revealing about what someone's ______ thinking.
A. real B. reality C. realize D. really
Question 8: They ______ the proposal and decided to give it their approval.
A. talked out B. talked over C. pulled out D. pulled over
Question 9: If you cook a good meal for the family, I'll ______ the washing-up.
A. do B. catch C. touch D. hit
Question 10: The children were vaccinated against the major childhood ______.
A. activities B. memories C. diseases D. mistakes
Question 11: The crisis hasn’t led to price rises in basic foodstuffs, ______?
A. hasn’t it B. has it C. hadn’t it D. had it
Question 12: The examinees __________ the result of the examination next week.
A. will tell B. will be told C. will have told D. will be telling
Question 13: I really don't know what all the fuss is ______ .
A. with B. at C. about D. on
Question 14: The more I know him, ______ I like him.
A. the less B. less C. the least D. least
Question 15: Mrs. Annie looks so graceful because she has ________ hair.
A. black beautiful long B. beautiful long black
C. long black beautiful D. long beautiful black
Question 16: The shop near her house had closed before she ______ there last night.
A. got B. has got C. gets D. will get
Question 17: Students are not allowed to handle these chemicals ______ they are under the
supervision of a teacher.
A. because of B. because C. except D. unless
Question 18: The smell of that bacon cooking is making my mouth ______.
A. wet B. water C. dry D. swallow
Question 19: You're not going out ______.
A. because you had finished this B. when you finished this
C. as soon as you were finishing this D. until you've finished this
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Children with single parents at my school were very much in the minority.
A. unhappy B. personal C. unmarried D. appropriate
Question 21: We must invest our time and energy in the development of our craft.
A. proposal B. power C. penalty D. ambition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I'm tired of all these cloak-and-dagger meetings - let's discuss the issues openly.
A. closely B. highly C. anxiously D. secretly
Question 23: I only thought about it the day before the game and had my heart in my mouth
from then on.
A. was very composed B. was extremely nervous
C. was very tired D. was extremely panic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: John is complaining about Mark’s using his car without asking.
John: “Why on earth did you use my car without asking me first?”
Mark: “__________”
A. I’m terribly sorry for that. B. I don’t think so.
C. Why should I? D. No problem at all.
Question 25: Nam is giving wishes to his teacher at Christmas.
Nam: “Wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!”
Nam’s teacher: “__________”
A. Thank you! B. Wish you too!
C. You can wish me again! D. The same to you!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
An internal “body clock” regulates your sleep cycle, controlling when you feel tired and
ready for bed or refreshed and alert. This clock operates on a 24-hour cycle known as the
circadian rhythm. After waking up from sleep, you’ll become increasingly tired throughout the
day. These feelings will (26) ________ in the evening leading up to bedtime.
This sleep drive – also known as sleep-wake homeostasis – may be linked to adenosine, an
organic compound produced in the brain. Adenosine levels increase throughout the day as you
become (27) ________ tired, and then the body breaks down this compound during sleep.
Light also influences the circadian rhythm. The brain contains a special region of nerve
cells known as the hypothalamus, (28) ________ a cluster of cells in the hypothalamus called the
suprachiasmatic nucleus, which processes (29) ________ when the eyes are exposed to natural
or artificial light. These signals help the brain determine whether it is day or night.
As natural light disappears in the evening, the body will release melatonin, a hormone that
induces drowsiness. When the sun rises in the morning, the body will release the hormone
known as cortisol (30) ________ promotes energy and alertness.
Question 26: A. peak B. wrap C. fold D. lay
Question 27: A. every B. each C. many D. more
Question 28: A. because B. so C. and D. although
Question 29: A. missions B. signals C. options D. projects
Question 30: A. where B. who C. when D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Schengen Agreement is a treaty between European nations which eventually led to the
creation of a common travel area in which there are few internal border checks. The agreement
gets its name from the town of Schengen in Luxembourg, where it was signed by representatives
of five of the ten member states of the then European Economic Community (EEC). The
agreement proposed measures intended to gradually abolish border checks at the signatories'
common borders, including hugely reducing vehicle checks, freedom for citizens to cross
borders, and the harmonization of visa policies.
In 1990, the original agreement was supplemented by the Schengen Convention which
proposed the complete abolition of systematic internal border controls and a common visa
policy. This led to the creation of the Schengen Area in 1995. It operates very much like a single
state for international travel purposes, with external border controls imposed on travellers
entering and exiting the area, but with no internal border controls.
Originally, the Schengen treaties and the rules adopted under them were officially
independent from the EEC and its successor, the European Union (EU). In 1999, they were
incorporated into European Union law by the Treaty of Amsterdam, which codified Schengen
into EU law while providing opt-outs for Ireland and the U.K., with the latter since leaving the
EU. EU member states that don’t have an opt-out which have not already joined the Schengen
Area are legally obliged to do so when they meet technical requirements. Although it is linked to
EU law, several non-EU countries are included in the area, having signed up to the agreement.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Town of Schengen in Luxembourg
B. Abolition of Systematic Internal Border Controls
C. The EEC and Its Successor
D. What is the Schengen Agreement?
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Schengen Agreement was signed by the
representatives because ______.
A. the harmonization of visa policies couldn’t be achieved
B. they want to gradually abolish border checks
C. they want to reducing the number of vehicles
D. the number of citizens crossing borders must be controlled
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. visa policy B. agreement
C. Schengen Convention D. abolition
Question 34: The word “obliged” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enforced B. interested C. sacred D. united
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a
characteristic of the Schengen treaties?
A. The Schengen treaties were independent from the EEC.
B. The Schengen Area included Ireland and the U.K as well.
C. They were incorporated into European Union law.
D. Some member are legally obliged to joined the Schengen Area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In addition to light, the sun radiates heat and a steady stream of charged particles known as
the solar wind. The wind blows about 280 miles (450 kilometres) a second throughout the solar
system, extending the sun's magnetic field out more than 10 billion miles. Beyond that distance,
the solar wind gives way to the colder, dense material that drifts in between stars, forming a
boundary called the heliopause. So far, just two spacecraft—Voyager 1 and Voyager 2—have
crossed this cosmic threshold, which defines the start of interstellar space.
Every so often, a patch of particles will burst from the sun in a solar flare, which can
disrupt satellite communications and knock out power on Earth. Flares usually stem from the
activity of sunspots, cool regions of the photosphere that form and dissipate as the sun's internal
magnetic field shifts. Solar flares and sunspots obey a regular cycle, rising and falling in number
every 11 years as the poles of the sun's magnetic field flip back and forth.
Sometimes, the sun will also launch huge bubbles of magnetized particles from its corona,
in events called coronal mass ejections (CMEs). Some CMEs can grow as large as the sun itself
and fling as much as a billion tons of material in a given direction. As they rush from the sun,
CMEs can send huge shockwaves through the solar wind. If a CME collided with Earth, its
particles could pack enough power to fry electronics in orbit and on Earth's surface.
Like many energy sources, the sun will not last forever. It has already used up nearly half
of the hydrogen in its core. The sun will continue to burn through the hydrogen for another five
billion years or so, and then helium will become its primary fuel. At that point, the sun will
expand to about a hundred times its current size, swallowing Mercury and Venus—and maybe
Earth. It will burn as a red giant star for another billion years and then collapse into a white
dwarf star.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Solar Wind and Flares B. Material That Drifts in Between Stars
C. Huge Shockwaves Through the Solar Wind D. Hydrogen in Sun’s Core
Question 37: The word “dense” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quiet B. mature C. hopeful D. thick
Question 38: In paragraph 2, Solar flares and sunspots ______.
A. burst from the sun in a solar flare B. change when sun's magnetic field changes
C. share the same characteristics D. form and dissipate cool regions of the
photosphere
Question 39: The word “ejections” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sessions B. versions C. emissions D. passions
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. billion tons B. CMEs C. shockwaves D. particles
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The speed of the solar wind can reach 450 kilometres a second.
B. Flares are usually created by the activity of sunspots.
C. CMEs can grow larger than the sun itself.
D. Like many energy sources, the sun will die one day.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. The sun will exist as long as Mercury and Venus.
B. The sun will expand to about a thousand times its current size.
C. It’s impossible for the sun to collapse into a white dwarf star.
D. The sun will die when it runs out of the hydrogen in its core.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: When I last see Carrie, she was thinking of buying a house, but now she’s changed
her mind.
A. When B. see C. buying D. mind
Question 44: Do you think this jacket looks a bit funny with this trousers?
A. think B. jacket C. a bit D. this
Question 45: The organizers failed to do the necessary arrangements for dealing with so many people.
A. The organizers B. to do C. necessary D. for dealing with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I have not met her and her husband for three years.
A. I last met her and her husband three years ago.
B. I have met her and her husband for three years.
C. I did not meet her and her husband three years ago.
D. I met her and her husband for three years.
Question 47: “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” Harry told Mary.
A. Harry asked Mary to forget his birthday.
B. Harry admitted having forgetting Mary’s birthday.
C. Harry apologized Mary for having forgotten her birthday.
D. Harry denied to have forget Mary’s birthday.
Question 48: It’s not good for you to be aggressive to customers.
A. You need to be aggressive to customers. B. You shouldn’t be aggressive to customers.
C. You may not be aggressive to customers. D. You must be aggressive to customers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She is busy with her work. She really wants to go out with them for dinner.
A. She wishes weren’t busy with her work and could go out with them for dinner.
B. She is busy with her work, so she wants to go out with them for dinner.
C. As soon as she isn’t busy with her work, she will go out with them for dinner.
D. Even if she is busy with her work, she still wants to go out with them for dinner.
Question 50: My father supported me much in my career. I did really well in my business.
A. So well did I do in my business that my father supported me much in my career.
B. Hardly had I done so well in my business when my father supported me much in my career.
C. Only after I had done so well in my business did my father support me much in my career.
D. Had it not been for my father’s support, I couldn’t have done so well in my business.
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ĐÁP ÁN
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.A 10.C
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.D 20.C
21.B 22.D 23.A 24.A 25.D 26.A 27.D 28.C 29.B 30.D
31.D 32.B 33.C 34.A 35.B 36.A 37.D 38.B 39.C 40.B
41.C 42.D 43.B 44.D 45.B 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.A 50.D

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