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Based on NEET 2024 Exam Pattern

Max. Score: 720 TEST NO. 1
SYLLABUS
Physics : Units and Measurement, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals, Biomolecules

*Each Question Carries

Subject(s) Section(s) No. of Questions Type of Question(s)
04 (Four) Marks
Section A 35 140
Physics
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Chemistry
Section B 15 40
MCQ (Multiple Choice
Section A 35 140
Botany Question)
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Zoology
Section B 15 40
Total Marks 720

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multiple correct/best option marked will be given four marks (+4).
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• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ignored all candidates
will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by
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 2 Mock Test - 01

8. A constant force acts on a body of mass

Physics 0.9 kg at rest for 10s. If the body moves a
distance of 250m, the magnitude of the force is
Section-A (1) 4.0N (2) 3N
1. Which of the following quantities is (3) 4.5N (4) 3.5N
dimensionless? R
(1) Gravitational constant 9. The dimension of where R is resistance
L
(2) Power of a convex lens
and L is Inductance is:
(3) Planck's constant
(1) T–2 (2) T
(4) None of these
(3) T–1 (4) T2
2. A player kicks a football of mass 0.5 kg and
10. The dimensions of pressure is same as of
the football begins to move with a velocity of
10 m/s. If the contact between the leg and the (1) Energy per unit volume
(2) Energy
1
football lasts for sec, then the force acted (3) Force per unit volume
50
(4) Force
on the football should be
(1) 2500 N (2) 1250 N 11. If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm
(3) 250 N (4) 625 N in the 6th second, then what is the
acceleration?
3. Kinetic energy of a particle moving along
(1) 0.027 m/s2 (2) 0.03 m/s2
elliptical trajectory is given by K =  S2, where (3) 0.20 m/s 2
(4) 0.218 m/s2
S is the distance travelled by the particle. The
dimensions of  are: 12. The Initial velocity of a particle is u (t = 0) and
the acceleration f is given by ‘at’. Which of the
(1) [] = [M1T–2] (2) [] = [M2T–2]
following relation is valid?
(3) [] = [M2T–1] (4) [] = [M–1T2]
t2
(1) v = u + a (2) v = u
4. The equation of motion of a projectile is 2
3 2 (3) v = u + at2 (4) v = u + at
y = 12x − x . Given that g =10 ms–2, what
4
13. For a body moving in a circular path, a
is the range of the projectile?
condition for no skidding if µ is the coefficient
(1) 30.6 m (2) 12.4 m
of friction, is
(3) 16 m (4) 36.0 m
mv 2 mv 2
5. If the velocity of a body depends on time (1)  mg (2)  mg
r r
according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1t2, then
body is undergoing v mv 2
(3) = g (4) = mg
(1) Uniform retardation r r
(2) Uniform acceleration
14. Time taken by an object falling from rest to
(3) Zero acceleration
cover height of h1 and h2 is respectively t1 and
(4) Non-Uniform acceleration
t2 from top of the tower, then the ratio of t1 : t2
6. If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in from point of projection of ball will be:
terms of significant figures is (1) h1 : 2h2 (2) h1 : h2
(1) 38.394 (2) 38.39 (3) 2h1 : h2 (4) h1 : h2
(3) 38.3937 (4) 38.4
7. When a particle is thrown horizontally from 15. A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring
height h, the resultant velocity of the projectile balance mounted vertically in a lift. If the lift
at any time t is given by descends with an acceleration equal to the
1 2 acceleration due to gravity ‘g’, the reading on
(1) gt (2) u2 − g2 t 2 the spring balance will be
2
(1) 2 kg (2) (4  g) kg
(3) u2 + g2 t 2 (4) gt (3) (2  g) kg (4) Zero
Mock Test - 01 3

16. Two bullets are fired with horizontal velocities 23. A = 2iˆ + ˆj,B = 3jˆ − kˆ and C = 6iˆ − 2kˆ . Value
of 50 m/s and 100 m/s from two guns from a
height of 19.6 m above the ground. Which of A − 2B + 3C would be
bullet will strike first to the ground? (1) 20iˆ + 5jˆ + 4kˆ (2) 20iˆ − 5jˆ − 4kˆ
(1) Second (2) Simultaneously (3) 4iˆ + 5jˆ + 20kˆ (4) 5iˆ + 4jˆ + 10kˆ
(3) First (4) None of these
24. A particle, initially at rest, starts moving in a
17. A sphere is suspended by a thread of length
straight line with an acceleration
. What minimum horizontal velocity has to be a = 6t + 4 m/s2. The distance covered by it in
imparted to the sphere for it to reach the 3 s is
height of the suspension (1) 15m (2) 60m
(1) g (2) 2g (3) 45m (4) 30m
25. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius ‘a’
(3) g (4) 2g
with a uniform speed v. C is the centre of the
18. In a projectile motion, the velocity circle and AB is a diameter. When passing
(1) Is never perpendicular to the through B the angular velocity of P about A
gravitational acceleration and C are in the ratio
(2) Is perpendicular to the gravitational (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
acceleration for one instant only (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
(3) Is always perpendicular to the 26. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 40° with
gravitational acceleration the horizontal and its range is R1. Another
(4) Is perpendicular to the gravitational projectile is thrown at an angle 40° with the
acceleration for two instants vertical and its range is R2. What is the relation
19. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled between R1 and R2?
along a smooth horizontal surface. The (1) R1 = R2 (2) R1 = 4 R2/5
(3) R2 = 2R1 (4) R1 = 2 R2
masses of the blocks and tension in one string
are given. The pulling force F is: 27. ML3T–3A–2 is dimension of
F (1) Conductivity (2) Resistance
60º 6N (3) Resistivity (4) None of these
8kg 6kg 4kg 2kg
28. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N ends of a string which passes over a pulley
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N attached to the top of an inclined plane. The
20. Two quantities A and B have different angle of inclination of the plane in . Take
dimensions. Which mathematical operation g=10 ms–2. If M1 = 10 kg, M2 = 5 kg,  = 30o,
given below is physically meaningful? what is the acceleration of mass M2
(1) A/B (2) A – B (1) 10ms–2 (2) 5ms–2
(3) A + B (4) A = B 2
(3) ms −2 (4) Zero
3
21. The unit vector along ˆi + ˆj is:
29. Assertion: Linear momentum of a body
(1) k̂ (2) ˆi + ˆj changes even when it is moving uniformly in a
ˆi + ˆj ˆi + ˆj circle.
(3) (4) Reason: In uniform circular motion, velocity
2 2
remains constant.
22. From the top of a tower 19.6m high, a ball is (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
thrown horizontally. If the line joining the point reason is a correct explanation for
of projection to the point where it hits the assertion.
ground makes an angle of 45° with the (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
horizontal, then the initial velocity of the ball is reason is not a correct explanation for
(take g= 9.8m/s2). assertion
(1) 2.8ms–1 (2) 14.7ms–1 (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
–1
(3) 4.9ms (4) 9.8ms–1 (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
 4 Mock Test - 01

30. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A (1) (A) → (iv); (B) → (ii); (C) → (i); (D) → (iii)
( )
is 2i + 3j m / s , its velocity (in m/s) at point B (2) (A) → (i); (B) → (ii); (C) → (iv); (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (iii); (B) → (i); (C) → (iv); (D) → (ii)
is
(4) (A) → (ii); (B) → (iv); (C) → (i); (D) → (iii)
35. A vehicle of 100 kg is moving with a velocity
1
of 5 m/sec. To stop it in sec, the required
10
force in opposite direction is
(1) 5000 N (2) 500 N
(1) −4i + 3 j (2) 2i − 3j (3) 50 N (4) 1000 N
(3) 4i + 3j (4) −2i − 3j Section-B

31. It is difficult to move a cycle with brakes on 36. If  is the angle between two vectors, then the
because resultant vector is maximum, when value of 
(1) sliding friction is more than rolling friction is
(2) sliding friction opposes motion on road (1) 0° (2) 180°
(3) rolling friction is more than sliding friction (3) 90° (4) Same in all cases
(4) rolling friction opposes motion on road
37. If 0.4i + 0.7j + ckˆ is a unit vector, then the
32. For the given situation as shown in the figure,
the value of  to keep the system in value of c is
equilibrium will be (1) 0.69 (2) 0.15
(2) 1.45 (4) 0.35
38. A ball is thrown at different angles with the
same speed u and from the same points and
it has same range in both the cases. If y1 and
y2 be the heights attained in the two cases,
then y1 + y2 =
(1) 0° (2) 45°
u2 2u2
(3) 30° (4) 90° (1) (2)
g g
33. Which of the following graph cannot possibly
represent one-dimensional motion of a u2 u2
(3) (4)
particle? 2g 4g

39. If the force on a rocket moving with a velocity

of 300 m/s is 210 N, then the rate of
(1) (2) combustion of the fuel is
(1) 0.7 kg/s (2) 1.4 kg/s
(3) 0.07 kg/s (4) 10.7 kg/s
40. A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the
tension in the rope
(3) (4) All of these (1) must be equal to the force applied by the
monkey on the rope
(2) must be less than the force applied by the
34. Column I Column II monkey on the rope.
(A) Joule (i) MLT–2 (3) must be greater than the force applied by
(B) Newton (ii) ML–1T–2 the monkey on the rope.
(C) Hertz (iii) ML2T–2 (4) may be equal to, less than or greater the
(D) Pascal (iv) M0L0T–1 force applied by the monkey on the rope.
Mock Test - 01 5

41. The force-time (F – t) curve of a particle
executing linear motion is as shown in the
figure. The momentum acquired by the
particle in time interval from zero to 8 second
45. A rough vertical board has an acceleration ‘a’
so that a 2 kg block pressing against it does
not fall. The coefficient of friction between the
block and the board should be
a

+2
Force (N)

2 4 6 8 2 kg

–2
Time (s)

(1) > g/a (2) < g/a

will be (3) = g/a (4) > a/g
(1) –2 N-s (2) +4 N-s
46. A stone of mass of 16 kg is attached to a string
(3) 6 N-s (4) Zero
144m long and is whirled in a horizontal circle.
42. The tension in the string revolving in a vertical The maximum tension the string can
circle with a mass m at the end which is at the withstand is 16Newton. The maximum
lowest point is (v is velocity at lowest point) velocity of revolution that can be given to the
stone without breaking it, will be
mv 2 mv 2
(1) (2) − mg (1) 20 ms–1 (2) 16 ms–1
r r –1
(3) 14 ms (4) 12 ms–1
mv 2
(3) mg (4) + mg 47. The x – t graph shown in figure represents
r
Displacement

43. The acceleration of the system shown in the

figure is given by the expression (coefficient of
t1
friction between m1 and surface is )
Time (t)
(1) Constant velocity
(2) Velocity of the body is continuously
changing
(3) Instantaneous velocity
(4) The body travels with constant speed upto
time t1 and then stops
(m2 − m1 )g
(1) a = 48. The displacement x of a particle along a
(m1 + m2 )
straight line at time t is given by x=a0+a1t+a2t2.
(m1 + m2 )g
(2) a = The acceleration of the particle is
(m1 + m2 ) (1) 2a2 (2) a1
(m2 + m1 )g (3) 2a0 (4) a2
(3) a =
(m1 + m2 )
49. Two vectors P = 2iˆ + bjˆ + 2kˆ and
(m − m2 )
(4) a = 1 Q = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ will be parallel if
(m1 + m2 )g
(1) b = 0 (2) b = 1
44. A car takes a turn on a slippery road at a safe (3) b = 2 (4) b= – 4
speed of 9.8 m/s. If the coefficient of friction is
50. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50m
0.2 the minimum radius of the arc in which the with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal
car takes a turn is force is
(1) 20 m (2) 49 m (1) 500 N (2) 1000 N
(3) 80 m (4) 34 m (3) 1500 N (4) 2000 N
 6 Mock Test - 01

60. A ‘d’ orbital can accommodate upto:

Chemistry (1) 10 electrons (2) 5 electrons
Section-A (3) 2 electrons (4) 6 electrons

51. The number of gram molecules of oxygen in 61. Which of the following electronic configuration
6. 02 × 1024 CO molecules is: is not possible?
(1) 1 gm molecule (1) 2p3 (2) 2d5
1
(2) 0.5 gm molecule (3) 4s (4) 5f8
(3) 5 gm molecule 62. Which of the electronic level would allow the
(4) 10 gm molecule hydrogen to absorb a photon but not emit a
photon?
52. 10ml of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion
(1) 3s (2) 2p
gives 40ml of CO2 (g) and 50ml of H2O
(3) 2s (4) 1s
(vapours). The hydrocarbon is:
(1) C4H5 (2) C8H10 63. The circumference of second orbit of H–atom,
(3) C4H8 (4) C4H10 if the wavelength of electron is 5 × 10 –9 m:
(1) 50 × 10–9 m (2) 10–8 m
53. The ratio of the number of molecules
(3) 10–10 m (4) 10–18 m
contained in 1g of H2S and 1g of CH4 is:
(1) 17 : 8 (2) 8 : 17 64. The correct answer of 2.2120 × 0.011 should
(3) 1: 1 (4) 1: 17 be reported as:
(1) 0.024332 (2) 0.0243
54. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.024
wavelength is:
(1) U.V. (2) Radiowaves 65. Calculate the number of gram-atoms in a
(3) X-rays (4) Infrared sample of lead (atomic wt. 207) weighing
100 grams:
55. If r1 is the radius of the first Bohr orbit of (1) 0.0483 (2) 0.24
hydrogen atom, then the radii of second, third (3) 4.8 (4) 0.48
and fourth orbits in term of r1 are:
66. 320 is:
(1) r12,r13 ,r14 (2) 4r1, 9r1, 16r1
(1) 3pz (2) 3dxy
(3) 8r1, 27r1, 64r1 (4) 2r1, 6r1, 8r1 (3) 3d 2 (4) 3d 2
x -y2 z
56. The ionisation energy of H-atom (in the
ground state) is ‘x’ kJ. 67. Electronic configuration has violated:
The energy required for an electron to jump
from 2nd to 3rd orbit will be: (1) Hund’s rule
(1) x/6 (2) 5x (2) Pauli’s principle
(3) 7.2x (4) 5x/36 (3) Aufbau principle

57. The electronic configuration of 29Cu is: (4) (n + ) rule

(1) [Ar] 4s1 3d5 (2) [Ar] 4s1 3d10
68. The electrons identified by quantum numbers
(3) [Ar] 4s0 3d4 (4) [Ar] 4s0 3d9
‘n’ and ‘’
58. Number of spectral lines in Balmer series
(a) n = 4,  = 1 (b) n = 4,  = 0
when an electron returns from 7th orbit to 1st
orbit of hydrogen atom are: (c) n = 3,  = 2 (d) n = 3,  = 1
(1) 21 (2) 6 can be placed in order of increasing energy
(3) 8 (4) 5 as:
59. Which shell would be the first to have ‘g’ (1) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
subshell? (2) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(1) L (2) M (3) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) N (4) O (4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
Mock Test - 01 7

69. From the following observations, predict the 76. One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 gm at
type of orbital: STP. The gas may possibly be:
Observation 1: xy plane act as nodal plane (1) C2H2 (2) CO
Observation 2: One angular node is present (3) O2 (4) NH3
in the orbital
77. The correct order of electronegativity is:
Observation 3: 2 vs r curve is obtained for
(1) F > O > N > Cl
the orbital is:
(2) F > O > Cl > N
(3) Mg < Be < C < B
(4) B < C < O < N
78. If Aufbau rule is not obeyed and capacity of
each orbital is increased to three electrons
(1) 4pz (2) 3dxy then element with atomic number 46 would
(3) 3pz (4) 3s belong to:
70. How many nodal planes are present in (1) s–Block (2) p–Block
3 d 2? (3) d–Block (4) f–Block
z
(1) 2 (2) 1 79. Which is not neutral oxide?
(3) Zero (4) 3 (1) NO2 (2) N2O
71. Choose the correct relation on the basis of (3) CO (4) NO
Bohr’s theory: 80. Match the correct options in Column–I and
2 Column–II?
Z
(1) Velocity of electron 
n Column–I Column–II
(i) PbO, PbO2 (p) Amphoteric oxide
Z2
(2) Frequency of revolution  (ii) SiO2, CO2 (q) Basic oxide
n3
(iii) Cr2O3, SnO2 (r) Acidic oxide
n2 (iv) N2O, NO (s) Neutral oxide
(3) Radius of orbit 
Z2 (1) I-q; ii-r; iii-s; iv-p
Z3 (2) i-p; ii-r; iii-p; iv-s
(4) Force on electron  (3) i-p; ii-r; iii-q; iv-s
n3
(4) i-q; ii-r; iii-p; iv-s
72. The angular momentum of electrons in p–
81. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order
orbital is equal to:
of increasing masses and choose the correct
(1) 6 (2) 2 answer.(Atomic masses: N=14,O=16, Cu=63)
(3) 2 (4) 0 I. 1 molecule of oxygen
73. A neutral atom ‘X’ has total 16 electrons. If one II. 1 atom of Nitrogen
fourth of its electrons are removed then III. 1×10–10× (gm molecular weight of oxygen)
vapour density of its oxide can become: IV. 1 × 10–10 × (gm atomic weight of copper)
(1) 20 (2) 24 (1) II < I < III < IV (2) IV < III < II < I
(3) 32 (4) 64 (3) II < III < I < IV (4) III < IV < I < II
74. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, 82. Most electronegative element is:
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mol of oxygen (1) Fluorine (2) Chlorine
atoms? (3) Bromine (4) Iodine
(1) 3.125 × 10–2 (2) 1.25 × 10–2
83. An element X has electronic configuration of
(3) 2.5 × 10–2 (4) 0.02
2, 8, 8, 2. The incorrect statement(s) about
75. Sum of number of protons, electrons and this element is/are:
12
neutrons in 12 gm of 6 C is: (i) It belongs to 10th group of the periodic
(1) 18 (2) 12.044 × 1023 table.
(3) 1.084 × 1025 (4) 10.84 × 1023 (ii) It has 20 neutrons.
 8 Mock Test - 01

(iii) Its ionisation energy is higher than the (1) F > Cl > Br > I (2) Cl > F > Br > I
element placed left to this in the same (3) O > S > Se > Te (4) S > O > Se > Te
period but lower than the element placed
90. The correct order of ionic radii is:
just above it.
(1) Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+ (2) O2– > O– > O+
(1) Only (i)
(3) I– > I > I+ (4) All of these
(2) Both (i) & (ii)
(3) Both (ii) & (iii) 91. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing
(4) Both (i) & (iii) 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The
molecular weight of cortisone is 360.4. What
84. The first four ionization energy values of an
is the percentage of carbon in cortisone?
element are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The
(1) 59.9% (2) 75%
number of valence electrons in the element is:
(3) 69.98% (4) None of these
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 3 92. Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe is: (Given
atomic mass of Fe = 56 g/mol)
85. The periodic table group having maximum
(1) twice that of 70 g nitrogen
number of elements is:
(2) half that of 20 g hydrogen
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) both are correct
(3) 13 (4) 3
(4) none is correct
Section-B
93. For the reaction X+2Y→Z,5 moles of X and 9
86. Eka Manganese is: moles of Y will produce:
(1) Gallium (2) Scandium (1) 5 moles of Z (2) 8 moles of Z
(3) Technetium (4) Germanium (3) 4 moles of Z (4) 4.5 moles of Z
87. Modern periodic law is: 94. Choose the wrong statement:
(1) The physical and chemical properties of (1) 1 mole means 6.023 × l023 particles
the elements are periodic function of their (2) Molar mass is mass of one molecule
atomic numbers (3) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a
(2) The physical and chemical properties of substance
the elements depend upon the energy of (4) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed
the electrons in grams
(3) The physical and chemical properties of
95. Which of the following reactions led to the
the elements are periodic function of their
discovery of neutrons?
atomic mass
(1) 6C14 + 1P1 → 7N14 + 0n1
(4) The physical and chemical properties of
(2) 4Be9 + 2He4 → 6C12 + 0n1
the elements are periodic function of their
density (3) 5B11 + 1D2 → 6C11 + 0n1
(4) 4Be8 + 2He4 → 6C11 + 0n1
88. If you are given Avogadro’s number of atoms
of a gas ‘X’. If half of the atoms are converted 96. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals
into X+(g) by energy H. The I.E. of ‘X’ per mole is:
is: (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
2ΔH
(1) 2H (2)
NA 97. The mass of an electron is m; its charge e and
it is accelerated from rest through a potential
ΔH
(3) H (4) difference V. The velocity of electron will be
NA
calculated by formula:
89. Which one of the following arrangements V eV
(1) (2)
represents the correct order of electron gain m m
enthaply (with negative sign) of the given
2eV
atomic species: (3) (4) None of these
m
Mock Test - 01 9

98. Magic numbers are: (1) A-(i); B-(iii); C-(iii); D-(ii)

(1) 2, 8, 8, 18, 20, 32, 32 (2) A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
(2) 2, 8, 8, 18, 19, 32, 32 (3) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(i); D-(iii)
(3) 2, 8, 9, 18, 18, 32, 32 (4) A-(iii); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(i)
(4) 2, 8, 18, 32
106. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
99. The screening effect of d-electron is: Species?
(1) equal to that of p-electrons (1) A group of individual organisms with
(2) much more than p-electrons fundamental similarities.
(3) same as that of f-electrons (2) Two different species breed together to
(4) less than p-electrons produce fertile offspring.
(3) Human beings belong to the species
100. Exothermic process among the following is:
sapiens.
(1) K(s) → K+(g) + 1e–
(4) Panthera has many specific epithet as
(2) Ca(s) → Ca2+(g) + 2e–
tigris, leo and pardus.
(3) O– + 1e– → O2–
(4) O + 1e– → O– 107. Which of the following features are not shown
by scientific names of various organism?
(1) They consists of two components
Botany (2) They have Latin origin
(3) They always have "linn" abbreviation at
Section-A the end of second component
(4) They are printed in italics
101. Which one of the following belongs to the
family Muscidae? 108. Which one of the following organisms is
(1) House fly (2) Fire fly scientifically correctly named, correctly
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach printed according to the International Rules of
Nomenclature and correctly described?
102. Which one of the following animals is correctly
(1) Musca domestica - the common house
matched with its particular taxonomic
lizard, a reptile
category?
(2) Plasmodium falciparum - a protozoan
(1) Tiger - tigris, species
pathogen causing the most serious type of
(2) Cuttlefish - mollusca, class
malaria.
(3) Humans - primata, family
(3) Felis tigris - the Indian tiger, well protected
(4) Housefly - Musca, order
in Gir forests.
103. Taxonomic categories which come lower to (4) E. coli - full name Entamoeba coli, a
the rank of class are commonly occurring bacterium in human
(1) Order, phylum, family, species intestine.
(2) Order, family, genus, species
109. The association of fungi with the roots of
(3) Division, family, order, genus
higher plants is called
(4) Order, division, genus, species
(1) Lichens
104. Which of the following is less general in
(2) Mycorrhiza
characters as compared to genus?
(3) Slime mould
(1) Species (2) Division
(4) Neurospora
(3) Class (4) Family
110. Select the correct statement.
105. Match the following columns
(1) Viroids have double stranded DNA
Column-I Column-II
(2) RNA of viroids have high molecular weight
A. Binomial (i) Carolus
than viruses
nomenclature Linnaeus
(3) Mumps and Herpes are viral diseases
B. Generic name (ii) Muscidae
(4) The name virus was given by D.J.
C. Family (iii) Panthera
lvanowsky
D. Systema naturae
 10 Mock Test - 01

111. The protein coat called capsid made of small 118. Which of the following statements is correct?
subunits called capsomeres are present in (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria gymnosperms.
(3) Fungi (4) Gymnosperms (2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous.
112. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
(1) Vegetative reproduction in algae usually
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
takes place by fragmentation or by
Cycas and Cedrus.
formation of different types of spores.
(2) Some mosses provide food for 119. Select the mismatch.
herbaceous mammals, birds and other (1) Cycas – Dioecious
animals. (2) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(3) Plantae includes algae, bryophytes, (3) Equisetum – Homosporous
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (4) Pinus – Dioecious
angiosperms
120. Which one is a wrong statement?
(4) The mode of nutrition in plants is holozoic
(1) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of
113. Coenocytic mycelium is found in Gymnosperms.
(1) Deuteromycetes (2) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and
(2) Phycomycetes fucoxanthin.
(3) Ascomycetes (3) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta,
(4) All of these Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms.
(4) Red algae has biflagellate zoospores.
114. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which ____
division occurs, leading to formation of ____ 121. What is common in all the three, Pteris,
spores. Dryopteris and Ginkgo?
(1) Mitotic, diploid (1) Presence of archegonia
(2) Reduction, haploid (2) Well developed vascular tissues
(3) Mitotic, haploid (3) Independent gametophyte
(4) Reduction, diploid (4) Independent sporophyte
115. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which 122. Coralloid roots have a symbiotic association
substance? with
(1) Phosphorus (2) Calcium (1) Photosynthetic green algae
(3) Silicon (4) Copper (2) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(3) Fungus
116. Which of the following is correct?
(4) Photosynthetic brown algae
(1) All slime moulds are haploid
(2) Protozoans lack cell wall 123. Gymnosperms have
(3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile (1) Tap root system
(4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena (2) Seeds enclosed within the fruit
(3) Rhizoids
117. Match the following
(4) Branched stems always
Column-I Column-II
(Group of bacteria) (Their shape) 124. Which of the following possess vascular
A. Coccus (i) Rod-shaped tissues but lacks seeds?
B. Bacillus (ii) Spherical (1) Mosses (2) Volvox
C. Spirillum (iii) Spiral (4) Liverworts (3) Ferns
D. Vibrium (iv) Comma-shaped
125. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise
(1) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
to
(2) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv)
(1) Prothallus (2) Protonema
(3) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iv); D-(iii)
(3) Leafy stage (4) None of these
(4) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(iii)
Mock Test - 01 11

126. In algae, the photosynthetic pigments are Section-B

present in
136. The ascending or descending arrangement of
(1) Pyrenoids (2) Cell wall
taxonomic categories is called as
(3) Chloroplast (4) Vacuole
(1) classification (2) systematics
127. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in (3) hierarchy (4) key.
having
137. Select the correct statement about biological
(1) seeds (2) motile sperms
names.
(3) cambium (4) vessels.
(1) They are binomial.
128. Storage bodies, pyrenoids in the chloroplast (2) They are generally in latin.
contain (3) They are universal.
(1) protein and starch (4) All of these
(2) carbohydrate and protein
138. Match the following and choose the correct
(3) polysaccharide and protein
option.
(4) starch and lipid
Column I Column II
129. Strobili cones are found in A. Family (i) tuberosum
(1) Salvinia (2) Pteris B. Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales
(3) Marchantia (4) Equisetum.
C. Order (iii) Solanum
130. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of D. Species (iv) Plantae
male gametes requires
E. Genus (v) Solanaceae
(1) birds (2) water
(3) wind (4) insects. (1) A-(v); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i); E-(iii)
(2) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(v); D-(ii); E-(i)
131. Which of the following is a flagellated (3) A-(v); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv); E-(ii)
protozoan? (4) A-(iv); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(v); E-(iii)
(1) Amoeba (2) Entamoeba
(3) Plasmodium (4) Trypanosoma 139. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units
of classification in plants indicates a
132. In which kingdom would you classify the taxonomic category of family’?
archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the (1) —Ales (2) —Onae
five kingdom system of classification is used? (3) —Aceae (4) —Ae
(1) Plantae (2) Fungi
(3) Protista (4) Monera 140. Bacteria are grouped under four categories
according to their shape. Study the given
133. Organisms living in salty areas are called as figures and select the correct option regarding
(1) Methanogens this.
(2) Halophiles
(3) Heliophytes
(4) Thermoacidophiles
134. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and
A B C D
saprophytic are the characteristics of these
(1) Cocci Bacilli Spirilla Vibrio
protists.
(2) Spirilla Bacilli Vibrio Cocci
(1) Monerans (2) Euglenoids
(3) Bacilli Spirilla Vibrio Cocci
(3) Protozoans (4) Slime moulds
(4) Bacilli Spirilla Cocci Vibrio
135. Pick up the wrong statement.
141. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and
(1) Some fungi are edible.
Methanobacterium exemplify
(2) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera.
(1) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or
(3) Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
positively supercoiled but which have a
(4) Protists have photosynthetic and
cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
 12 Mock Test - 01

(2) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and (3) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
ribosomes and LSD.
(3) archaebacteria that contains protein (4) Conidia are produced exogenously and
homologous to eukaryotic core histones ascospores endogenously.
(4) archaebacteria that lack any histones 149. Which among the following is not a
resembling those found in eukaryotes and prokaryote?
are able to live in stress like condition. (1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium
142. Maximum modes of nutrition are found in (3) Nostoc (4) Oscillatoria
(1) Monera (2) protista 150. One of the major components of cell wall of
(3) fungi (4) plantae. most fungi is
143. Select the wrong statement. (1) cellulose (2) hemicellulose
(1) Cell wall is present in members of fungi (3) chitin (4) peptidoglycan.
and plantae.
(2) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes. Zoology
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
Section-A
structures in sporozoans.
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the 151. Which of the following set of animals belong
cell in all kingdoms except monera. to phylum hemichordata?
(1) Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus
144. In which of the following features, Cycas
(2) Round worm, Tongue worm
resembles with angiosperms?
(3) Flat worm, Earthworm
(1) Presence of vessels
(4) Dentalium, Chaetopleura
(2) Double fertilisation
(3) Lacks root 152. Cylindrical bodied, worm-like exclusively
(4) Pollen tube is the carrier of male gametes marine animals belong to the phylum:
(1) Echinodermata (2) Mollusca
145. Which is wrong about pteridophytes? (3) Coelenterata (4) Hemichordata
(1) Gametophytic phase is dominant.
(2) Sporophytic is the main plant body. 153. The calcareous ossicles in echinoderms form
the
(3) Gametophyte is independent
(1) Exoskeleton (2) Visceral hump
(4) Primary roots are ephemeral, replaced by
(3) Notochord (4) Endoskeleton
adventitious roots.
154. Radula is meant for
146. Which of the following is true about
(1) Sensation
bryophytes?
(2) Feeding
(1) They are thalloid.
(3) Egg laying
(2) They possess archegonia.
(4) Protection from predators
(3) They contain chloroplast.
(4) All of these 155. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option
147. Cell wall is absent in
Column-I Column-II
(1) Mycoplasma
A. A vector of disease (i) Bombyx
(2) Nostoc
B. A gregarious pest (ii) Limulus
(3) Aspergillus
C. A living fossil (iii) Locusta
(4) Funaria.
D. An economically (iv) Culex
148. Which of the following statements is beneficial insect
incorrect? (1) A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iv)
(1) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long (2) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
thread like hyphae. (3) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)
(2) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. (4) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
Mock Test - 01 13

156. The statement which does not stand true for 163. Match the following organisms with respective
most arthropods is characteristics.
(1) They have an open circulatory system (1) Pila (i) Flame cells
(2) Their body is divided into head, thorax and (2) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
abdomen (3) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(3) They are segmented and coelomate (4) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
animals Select the correct option from the following.
(4) Fertilisation is usually external in them (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
157. Ascaris has all of the following features,
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
except
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Complete digestive system
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Indirect development
(3) External fertilisation 164. Which of the following features is not present
(4) Parasitic life in the Phylum Arthropoda?
(1) Parapodia
158. High regeneration capacity is possessed by (2) Jointed appendages
(1) Aurelia (2) Pheretima (3) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Bombyx (4) Planaria (4) Metameric segmentation
159. In some animal groups, the body is found 165. Which of the following characteristics is
divided into compartments with serial mainly responsible for diversification of
repetition of at least some organs. This insects on land?
characteristic feature is called (1) Exoskeleton (2) Eyes
(1) Segmentation (2) Metamerism (3) Segmentation (4) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Metagenesis (4) Metamorphosis
166. One of the representatives of Phylum
160. Collar cells are known as___________ Arthropoda is
(1) Choanocytes (2) Interstitial cells (1) puffer fish (2) flying fish
(3) Gastrodermal cells (3) cuttle fish (4) silver fish.
(4) Nematocytes
167. Planaria belongs to
161. Select the correct statements with reference (1) Chordata (2) Platyhelminthes
to chordates. (3) Aschelminths (4) Porifera
A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and
168. Non-protein part of enzyme is known as
double nerve cord.
(1) Apoenzyme (2) Cofactor
B. Presence of closed circulatory system
(3) Inorganic catalyst
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits.
(4) Active site
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals. 169. The most abundant enzyme in the biosphere
Choose the correct answer from the options is
given below: (1) Collagen (2) RuBisCO
(1) C, D and E only (3) Trypsin (4) Insulin
(2) A, C and D only 170. Zwitterions are ionized species of
(3) B and C only (1) Acidic amino acids
(4) B, D and E only (2) Basic amino acids
162. In which of the following animals, digestive (3) Neutral amino acids
tract has additional chambers like crop and (4) All of these
gizzard? 171. In the 5 end of a DNA molecule
(1) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus (1) The fifth carbon of pyrimidine base is free
(2) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon (2) The fifth carbon of purine base is free
(3) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus (3) The fifth carbon of pentose sugar is free
(4) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus (4) Both (1) & (3)
 14 Mock Test - 01

172. In B-DNA, the rise per base pair would be (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) 4.3 Å (2) 2.4 Å true.
(3) 3.4 Å (4) 4.2 Å (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
173. A nucleoside is composed of
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(1) Sugar+ Nitrogenous base
false.
(2) Sugar + Phosphate
(3) Nitrogenous base + Phosphate 180. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch
(4) Purine + Pyrimidine in plants storage organs. Which of the
following five properties of starch (A-E) make
174. The primary precursor for the production of
it useful as a storage material?
cholesterol in our body is
(A) Easily translocated
(1) Acetic acid (2) Citric acid
(B) Chemically non-reactive
(3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Methanol
(C) Easily digested by animals
175. Lecithin is a (D) Osmotically inactive
(1) Type of wax (2) Phospholipid (E) Synthesized during photosynthesis
(3) Oil (4) Simple fatty acid The useful properties are
176. Peptidoglycan present in bacterial cell (1) (A), (C) and (E)
envelop is (2) (A) and (E)
(1) Made up of cellulose (3) (B) and (C)
(2) A heteropolymer (4) (B) and (D).
(3) An oligosaccharide 181. Carbohydrates, the most abundant
(4) A homopolymer biomolecule on earth, are produced by
177. In frog, cloaca is a small, median chamber (1) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
that is used to pass (2) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(1) faecal matter (2) urine (3) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(3) sperms (4) all of these. (4) viruses, fungi and bacteria.

178. Cellulose does not form blue colour with 182. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
Iodine because (1) Galactose (2) Gluconic acid
(1) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it. (3) β-methyl galactoside
(2) It is a disaccharide. (4) Sucrose
(3) It is a helical molecule. 183. Frogs are commonly found in which type of
(4) It does not contain complex helices and habitat?
hence cannot hold iodine molecules. (1) Arid deserts
179. Given below are two statements: (2) Snow-covered mountains
Statement I: Low temperature preserves the (3) Wetlands and ponds
enzyme in a temporarily inactive state (4) Underground burrows
whereas high temperature destroys 184. Lactose is composed of
enzymatic activity because proteins are (1) glucose + galactose
denatured by heat. (2) fructose + galactose
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely (3) glucose + fructose
resembles the substrate in its molecular (4) glucose + glucose.
structure and inhibits the activity of the
185. Frog belongs to phylum ____A____ and class
enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
___B__
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) A-Chordata, B-Amphibia
the correct answer from the options given
(2) A-Cephalochordate, B-Aves
below:
(3) A-Chordata, B-Reptiles
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(4) A-Cephalochordate, B-Reptiles
true.
Mock Test - 01 15

Section-B (1) (i)-vocal sac; (ii)-Plasma; (iii)-mucous,

186. What is common between parrot, platypus
and kangaroo?
(1) Toothless jaw
(2) Functional post-anal tail
(3) Ovoparity
(4) Homoiothermy
187. Which of the following statement(s) is
incorrect?
(1) Circulatory system in arthropods is of
closed type.
(2) Parapodia in annelids help in swimming.
(3) Phylum Mollusca is the second largest
animal phylum.
(4) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
188. Coelom is cavity between alimentary canal
and body wall enclosed by
(1) ectoderm and endoderm
(2) mesoderm and ectoderm
(3) ectoderm on both sides
(4) mesoderm on both sides.
189. Which of the following statement(s) is
incorrect about the frog?
(i) Eyes are bulged out and covered by a
nictitating membrane that protects them
while in water.
(ii) On either side of the eyes a membranous
tympanum (ear) receives sound signals.
(iii) The hind limbs end in four digits and they
are larger and muscular than fore limbs
that end in five digits.
(iv) Feet have webbed digits that help in
swimming.
(v) Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(1) (i) and (v) (2) (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iv) only
190. Read the following statements (P - T) and
select the option that correctly fills (i) - (v).
P. The male frog has a special organ on the
throat called _i_.
Q. _ii_ membrane is a part of ear and serves
to receive sound waves.
R. Skin of the frog contains sac-like _iii_
glands.
S. Tongue of frog is _iv_
T. _v_ respiration takes place in lungs on
land.
(iv)-trilobed; (v)-Pulmonary
(2) (i)-vocal sac; (ii)-Tympanic; (iii)-mucous;
(iv)-bilobed; (v)-Pulmonary
(3) (i)-vocal sac; (ii)-Pleural; (iii)-mucous;
(iv)-unilobed; (v)-Pulmonary
(4) (i)-vocal sac; (ii)-Tympanic; (iii)-sweat;
(iv)-multilobed; (v)-Pulmonary
191. Which of the following statements is correct
about the respiration in frog?
(i) In frog, cutaneous, buccopharyngeal and
pulmonary respiration are found.
(ii) A pair of elongated pink coloured hollow
sac like lungs are found in thorax.
(iii) During aestivation and hibernation,
gaseous exchange takes place through
skin.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (ii) only
192. Identify the incorrect statement about frog.
(1) Parathyroid and pineal body are present.
(2) There are nine cranial nerves only.
(3) Optic lobes are situated in the midbrain.
(4) The ventricle opens into the conus
arteriosus.
193. Which of the following statements regarding
enzymes is not true?
(1) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a
reaction.
(2) Enzymes speed up the attainment of
equilibrium of the reaction.
(3) Enzymes are generally not
proteinaceoous.
(4) All of these
194. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
that
(1) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands,
at their ends share the same position
(2) the phosphate groups at the start of two
DNA strands are in opposite position
(pole)
(3) one strands turns clockwise
(4) one strand turns anti-clockwise.
195. Identify the zwitterionic form of amino acid.
H
(1) H2N—C—COOH

R
 16 Mock Test - 01

R (1) i and ii (2) ii and iii

(3) iii and iv (4) All of these
(2) H+3N—CH—COO–
R 199. Read the statements regarding frog. Which of
the statements is/are correct and incorrect?
(3) H2N—CH—COO– (i) The medulla oblongata passes out
R through foramen of Monro and continues
into spinal cord.
(4) H3N—CH—COO
(ii) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that
196. Consider the following statements. arise from testes.
I. Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly (iii) Ovaries have no functional connection
bound to enzyme protein is called with kidneys.
prosthetic group. (iv) Frogs are uricotelic.
II. A complete catalytic active enzyme with its (1) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
bound prosthetic group is called while statement (iv) is incorrect.
apoenzyme. (2) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while
Choose the correct option. statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(1) I is true, but II is false (3) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct while
(2) II is true, but I is false statements (i) and (iv) are
(3) Both I and II are true
incorrect.
(4) Both I and II are false
(4) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
197. The hindbrain in frog consists of while statement (i) is incorrect.
(1) cerebellum
200. Cellulose, the most important constituent of
(2) medulla oblongata
plant cell wall is made up of
(3) diencephalon
(1) branched chain of glucose molecules
(4) both (1) and (2).
linked by β-1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight
198. Which of the following is correct? chain and α-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site
(i) Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult of branching
echinoderms have radial symmetry. (2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(ii) Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of
linked by β-1, 4 glycosidic bond
organisation and are diploblastic
(3) branched chain of glucose molecules
(iii) In the Ctenophora, fertilisation is external
linked by α-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site
with indirect development
of branching
(iv) Aschelminths arebilaterally symmetrical,
(4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules
triploblastic and pseudocoelomate
linked by α-1, 4 glycosidic bond.
animals.