Bio-11 Mid-Exam (100 Question With Answer) On Unit 4 & 5

HARAMAYA UNIVERSITY SPECIAL NON-BOARDING SECONDARY SCHOOL
GRADE 11TH SECOND SEMESTER BIOLOGY MID-EXAMINATION
APRIL 2016/2024
MID-EXAM ONE ON ‘RH- FACTOR, GENETIC DISORDER, GENE THERAPY
BIOINFORMATICS AND HUMAN BODY SYSTEM’.
WITH ANSWER OF BEST EXPLANATION
YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM FOR 2 HOURS

NUMBER OF ITEMS: 100 ‘MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS’
By:
Tadesse Minda (M.Sc.)
GENERAL INSTRUCTION:
THIS BOKLET CONTAIN BIOLOGY MID-EXAM. IN THIS EXAMINATION, THERE
ARE A TOTAL OF 100 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. CAREFULLY SELECT
THE BEST ANSWER AND WRITE ONLY THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE
SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED. FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTION ON THE
ANSWER SHEET AND THE EXAMINATION PAPER CAREFULLY.
PLEASE ERASE ALL UNNECESSARY MARKS COMPLETELY FROM YOUR

ANSWER SHEET. YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM FOR 2 HOURS.
WHEN TIME IS CALLED, YOU MUST IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING, PUT
YOUR PEN DOWN, AND WAIT FOR FUTURE INSTRUCTIONS. ANY FORM OF
CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAMINATION WILL
INVALIDATE YOUR RESULT. PLEASE MAKE SURE THAT YOU WRITTEN ALL
THE REQUIRED INFORMATION ON THE ANSWER SHEET BEFORE YOU START
TO WORK ON THE EXAMINATION.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE OVER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

HUSNBSS SECOND SEMESTER BIOLOGY MID-EXAMINATION FOR
GRADE 11TH STUDENTS 2016/2024 ACADEMIC YEAR.
DIRECTIONS: -THIS PAPER CONTAINS BIOLOGY MID-EXAMINATION FOR GRADE

11. THE EXAMINATION CONTAINS 100 ITEMS AND THERE IS ONLY ONE BEST ANSWER
FOR EACH ITEM. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE SUGGESTED OPTIONS AND
WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET
1. Which of the following represents the correct order of events during the menstrual cycle?
A. FSH rise, ovulation, LH surge, luteal phase, menstruation
B. Luteal phase, menstruation, FSH rise, ovulation, follicular phase
C. Follicular phase, luteal phase, FSH rise, ovulation, menstruation
D. Menstruation, FSH rise, LH surge, ovulation, luteal phase.
2. Darartu is a 27-year-old white woman who has been attempting pregnancy for 15
months. She is monitoring her ovulation with LH testing. Her test today indicated that
she will ovulate tomorrow. In what phase will the ovulated germ cell be arrested?
A. Prophase of the first mitotic division
B. Anaphase of the first meiotic division
C. Metaphase of the second meiotic division
D. Zygotic phase
Explanation
✓ At ovulation the oocyte is arrested in the metaphase of the second meiotic division.
✓ Mitosis of primitive oogonia occurs during the fetal stage of female development, so
the prophase of the first mitotic division occurred before Darartu. was born.
✓ After the mitotic divisions the newly formed oocytes arrest in the meiotic prophase
until they are stimulated to mature for ovulation or undergo atresia.
✓ If an oocyte is stimulated to mature for ovulation, it will pass through the anaphase
of the first meiotic division before it ends in the metaphase of the second meiotic
division.
✓ In short, the oocyte passes through the prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
of the first meiotic division before going through the second meiotic division to end
up with four haploid oocytes.
✓ A zygote is formed after fertilization of an oocyte by a sperm cell and describes the
diploid cell once the sperm and oocyte (both haploid cells) have undergone fusion.
By. Tadesse M. HUSNBSS Page | 1

3. Chaltu is a 25-year-old woman who has been attempting to conceive for 1 year. She
presented to an infertility doctor, as her efforts have been unsuccessful. She reported that
she has been timing intercourse based on the change in her vaginal discharge. She noted
that midcycle, her discharge becomes thin and watery. High levels of which hormone
account for this change along with softening of the cervical stroma?
A. Progesterone C. Estrogen
B. Prolactin D. Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation
✓ High levels of estrogen soften the cervical stroma and make cervical secretions thin
and watery. These changes make the cervix receptive to sperm and enhance sperm
passage into the uterine cavity.
✓ Progesterone has the opposite effects and make the female genital, particularly the
endocervix, a hostile environment for spermatozoa (this is a secondary mechanism
by which many oral contraceptives work).
✓ High levels of prolactin suppress both FSH and GnRH levels and thus inhibit
ovulation. This is an important part of the mechanism by which breastfeeding acts as
a contraceptive method; breastfeeding stimulates elevated maternal prolactin levels.
✓ Antidiuretic hormone is important to overall water balance in the human body and is
active in the collecting ducts of kidneys but does not alter the cervical stroma.
4. The human musculoskeletal system comprises:
A. Muscles keep bones in place and enable movements.
B. Joints and cartilages connect bones to bones and allow them for rubbing.
C. Ligaments connect muscles to bones.
D. Tendons are fibrous connective tissues that attach bone to bone.
5. Select the one which explain the basic composition of bones?
A. Osteoblasts involve in new bone formation.
B. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that help to mature bones of newborns. All of them
C. Osteoclasts break down bones and help them to form into correct shapes. are Correct
D. Osteoprogenitor are important in repair of fracture.
6. How many bones do both the human hands contain, including the wrist?
A. 54 bones C. 56 bones
B. 58 bones D. 48 bones

7. The appendicular skeleton consists of what parts?

A. Head, sternum, ribs and vertebrae
B. Hands, feet, legs, hips and arms
C. Feet, head, legs, ribs and arms
D. Hips, head, toes and fingers
8. Which one of the following is correct about the human Skeletal Muscle
A. They allow the body to perform a wide range of movements and functions such as
involuntary controlled systems on works.
B. Involuntary striated muscle.
C. Non-striated and unconsciously controlled muscles that control the flow of
substances within the lumens.
D. They allow the body to perform a wide range of movements and functions such as
voluntary controlled systems on works.
9. Which one of the following muscles found in the walls of hollow organs: the stomach,
intestine, bladder, uterus and walls of passageways of the blood and lymph vessels,
respiratory tracts, urinary and reproductive systems, in the eyes and the ciliary muscles?
A. Skeletal muscle C. Cardia muscle
B. Smooth muscle D. Musculoskeletal muscle
10. What mechanism of action in skeletal muscle exist when calcium floods into the muscle
cells bound with troponin allowing actin and myosin to bind, in which the actin and
myosin cross bridges bind and contract, using ATP as energy that all cells use to fuel
activity?
A. Muscle activation C. Muscle relaxation failure
B. Muscle contraction D. Recharging
11. Which one of the following types of muscle contractions are correctly paired accordingly
with their own function?
There are three types of muscle contractions:
A. Concentric: does not change the length of muscle ✓ Isometric: does not change the length
B. Isometric: shortening the muscle. ✓ Concentric: shortening the muscle
✓ Eccentric: lengthening the muscle
C. Eccentric: lengthening the muscle fibers. fibers
D. Isometric: lengthening the muscle fibers.
12. Based on their shapes, there are four different types of bones are there in the human body
among these the squat and cubed shapes is:
A. Flat bone C. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone D. Irregular bone

13. Which of the following describes the correct progression of the endometrium through
the menstrual cycle?
A. Secretory phase, ovulation, proliferative phase, decidualization, menstruation
B. Proliferative phase, ovulation, secretory phase, decidualization, menstruation
C. Menstruation, secretory phase, decidualization, proliferative phase, ovulation
D. Secretory phase, menstruation, ovulation, proliferative phase, decidualization
14. A 28-year-old woman is evaluated for premature ovarian failure. She asks you about the
ovaries and egg production. You tell her that in human females the greatest number of
oocytes is found in the ovary at:
A. Birth C. Puberty
B. Menopause D. During ovulation
15. Which of the following is the typical first visible sign of male puberty?
A. Facial hair C. Pubic hair
B. Enlargement of the testes D. Lengthening of the penis
16. Rank the following methods of contraception in order from lowest failure rate to highest.
A. Tubal ligation = IUD, OCPs, Depo-Provera, spermicides, condoms
B. Tubal ligation = IUD, Depo-Provera, OCPs, spermicides, condoms
C. Tubal ligation = IUD, Depo-Provera, OCPs, condoms, spermicides
D. Tubal ligation = IUD, OCPs, Depo-Provera, condoms, spermicides
17. Which of the following statements correctly describes one of the three physiologic
differences between male and female orgasms?
A. The male is capable of rapidly successive orgasms
B. The female is capable of rapidly successive orgasms
C. The duration of the female orgasm is shorter than that of the male orgasm
D. The female experiences emission and ejaculation, but to a lesser extent than the male
Explanation
✓ The three physiologic differences between male and female orgasms are the following:
• Emission and ejaculation do not occur in the female.
• If sexual stimulation occurs before a woman drops below plateau phase levels of
arousal, the female is capable of rapidly successive orgasms.
• The female orgasm may last for a relatively long period of time compared with the male.

18. Which sexual pathogen is most likely to become resistant to antibiotics through plasmid-
mediated mechanisms?
A. Treponema pallidum C. Neiserria gonorrhoeae
B. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation
✓ Gonococci develop resistance to antibiotics through plasma-mediated mechanisms,
most leading to resistance to penicillin and tetracycline.
✓ Chlamydial infections rarely develop true antibiotic resistance, but they do require
prolonged treatment to eradicate the intracellular reservoir of the bacteria.
✓ HIV develops resistance to antiretroviral medications through the propensity of its
reverse transcriptase enzyme to make many mistakes during replication of the viral
genome, leading to rapid viral mutation.
✓ Though penicillin has been used for several decades against syphilis, it is still highly
sensitive to this antibiotic.
✓ However, it has developed some resistance to macrolides in certain regions, likely
due to an acquired 23S ribosomal RNA.
19. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the progestin-containing IUD?
A. The progestin disrupts endometrial maturation and creates an environment
unfavorable for implantation.
B. The risk of ectopic pregnancy is greater for women with IUDs than for those using
no form of contraception.
C. The IUD does not abort a successfully implanted pregnancy.
D. It is associated with less bleeding than the copper IUD
Note The IUD made from copper only

▪ If pregnancy has a high chance of being in the Fallopian tubes (ectopic pregnancy).
20. Oral contraception prevents pregnancy by each of these methods, EXCEPT:

A. Inhibition of ovulation.
B. Thickening of cervical mucus to prevent sperm transport.
C. Creating a local inflammatory response in the endometrium with release of excess
prostaglandins.
D. Alteration of endometrium to prevent implantation of fertilized eggs.

21. Would the first Rh-positive child born to an Rh-negative female have erythroblastosis
fetalis?
A. No, in the absence of any other diseases, the child will be born healthy.
B. Yes, the child would need to be injected with RhoGAM in order to survive.
C. Yes, the child's blood cells would be attacked by the female's antibodies.
D. Yes, the child would need an immediate blood transfusion.
Explanation
✓ If you're Rh-negative and your baby is Rh-positive, your body will react to the baby's
blood as a foreign substance. It will create antibodies (proteins) against the baby's
blood. These antibodies usually don't cause problems during a first pregnancy.
22. Spermatogenesis is divided into three phases: (i) mitotic proliferation; (ii) meiotic
division; (iii) maturation. Fill in the blanks: a primitive spermatogonial stem cell remains
dormant until _________. Primary spermatocytes then undergo _________ meiotic cell
divisions to produce ________ spermatids.
A. Puberty, 2, 4 C. Birth, 2, 4
B. Puberty, 1, 4 D. Birth, 1, 4
23. A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with the complaint of
abdominal pain. On exam she is noted to have purulent cervical drainage and cervical
motion tenderness. She is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. This infection
gained access to her abdominal cavity through which order of anatomic connections?
A. Vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tube
B. Cervix, vagina, uterus, fallopian tube
C. Vagina, uterus, cervix, fallopian tube
D. Vagina, cervix, fallopian tube, uterus
24. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Gonorrhea is more symptomatic in men than women
B. Gonorrhea is more destructive in men than women
C. The two most common pathogens found in women with positive cultures and pelvic
inflammatory disease are Neiserria gonorrhoeae and Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Approximately one in four heterosexual men with gonococcal urethritis will also be
infected with Chlamydia trachomatis.
Explanation
✓ Morbidity associated with gonococcal infection is much greater in women than it is
in men.

✓ It can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a key risk factor for a
woman to develop chronic pelvic pain, infertility and tubal pregnancies. However,
women are more often asymptomatic when infected with gonorrhea and chlamydia,
as opposed to men who are more prone to symptoms.
✓ Between 20 and 30% of these symptomatic heterosexual men are infected by both
gonorrhea and chlamydia. Of note, these two organisms are also the two most
common pathogens cultured in women with PID.
✓ (Note: answer ‘C’’ has gonorrhea and Trichomonas, rather than gonorrhea and
chlamydia as being most common pathogens in PID).
25. A 39-year-old man is noted to have azoospermia on semen analysis. On further
questioning his history is significant for a vasectomy. The vas deferens is important for
what important function of spermatogenesis?
A. Testosterone production C. Sperm storage
B. Sperm transit D. Maintaining the blood–testis barrier
26. Which of the following accurately describes Rh factor?
A. An antibody found on the red blood cells of most people
B. An antibody found on the red blood cells of Rh-negative people
C. An antigen found on the red blood cells of most people
D. An antigen found on the red blood cells of Rh-negative people
27. If an Rh-negative female delivered an Rh-positive child, then what would happen to the
pregnant female?
A. They would never be able to have children again.
B. They would become sensitized to the Rh-positive antigen, unless they were treated
with RhoGAM.
C. They would need an immediate blood transfusion.
D. They would be diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis.
28. Cystic fibrosis is
A. Sex-linked recessive disorder C. Autosomal dominant disorder
B. Autosomal recessive disorder D. Sex-linked dominant disorder
29. Which of the following are NOT elements of counseling prior to routine prenatal genetic
testing?
A. Review of family history
B. Review of medical history
C. Review of the patient’s use of medication or controlled substances
D. Discussion of patient’s values and preferences

30. Which of the following is NOT a reason to consider genetic counseling?

A. Family history of genetic disorders
B. A mother who recently had chemotherapy
C. Test results showing possible issues
D. A mother who had several children
31. If the father in a family has a disease while the mother is normal, the daughters only are
inherited by this disease and not the sons. Name this type of disease?
A. Autosomal recessive C. Autosomal dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive D. Sex-linked dominant
32. What will be the condition of the progeny if the father is normal, while the mother has
one gene for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the X
chromosomes?
A. Only daughters are haemophilic and colour blind
B. Both sons and daughters will be haemophilic and colour blind
C. 50 per cent haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
D. 50 per cent haemophilic colour blind daughters and 50% colour blind daughters
33. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. What are the chances that the
child would have the disease if any one of the parents (either mother or father) is a carrier
of the faulty cystic fibrosis gene (Cc)?
A. 100 per cent C. 50 per cent
B. 25 per cent D. 0 per cent
34. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. What are the
chances that any of the offspring do not express the disease phenotype if both parents
are genotype (Aa)?
A. 100 per cent C. 75 per cent
B. 50 per cent D. 25 per cent
35. Which of the following is a trait of X-linked recessive?
A. Albinism C. Haemophilia
B. Huntington’s disease D. Cystic fibrosis
36. Of the following which one is in the correct order for the production of hormones during
the monthly cycle?
A. LH, estrogen, FSH, progesterone C. Estrogen, progesterone, LH, FSH
B. FSH, estrogen, LH, progesterone D. FSH, LH, estrogen, progesterone

Explanation
✓ During the monthly cycle, the production of hormones follows a specific order.
✓ First, the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released, which stimulates the
development of follicles in the ovaries.
✓ As the follicles grow, they produce estrogen.
✓ The increased levels of estrogen then trigger the release of luteinizing hormone (LH),
which causes ovulation.
✓ After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which
produces progesterone.
✓ Therefore, the correct order for the production of hormones during the monthly cycle
is FSH, estrogen, LH, and progesterone.
37. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?
A. In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle you would expect menstruation to last
approximately 3-5 days.
B. During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
C. During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the
basal layer remaining intact.
D. Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy
38. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?
A. During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the
basal layer remaining intact
B. Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy
C. During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed
D. During menstruation the basal layer of the endometrium is shed, with the functional
layer remaining intact
Explanation
✓ During menstruation, only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with
the basal layer remaining intact.
▪ This is because the functional layer is the part of the endometrium that
thickens to support a potential pregnancy, and if pregnancy does not
occur, it is shed along with blood during menstruation.
▪ The basal layer, on the other hand, remains intact to regenerate the
functional layer in the next menstrual cycle.

▪ Absence of menstruation does not always indicate an active pregnancy, as

there can be other reasons for missed periods such as hormonal imbalances
or medical conditions.
39. In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle when would you expect the LH surge to occur?
A. Days 8 to 10 C. Days 11 to 13
B. Days 14 to 16 D. Days 17 to 19
Explanation
✓ The LH surge typically occurs around days 11 to 13 of a normal 28-day menstrual
cycle. This surge in luteinizing hormone triggers ovulation, which is the release of
an egg from the ovary.
✓ Ovulation usually occurs within 24 to 36 hours after the LH surge. Therefore, days
11 to 13 are the most likely time for a woman to be fertile and have the highest chance
of getting pregnant.
Diagram of menstrual cycle

40. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
Explanation
✓ The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle occurs from days 5 to 14. During this
phase, the endometrium of the uterus thickens and prepares for implantation of a
fertilized egg. The ovarian follicles also begin to develop and mature, leading to the
release of an egg during ovulation. This phase is characterized by the increase in
estrogen levels, which stimulate the growth and repair of the uterine lining.
41. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
Explanation
✓ The secretory phase occurs during days 14 to 28 of the uterine cycle.
✓ This is the phase after ovulation, when the corpus luteum forms in the ovary and
begins to secrete progesterone.
✓ Progesterone prepares the uterus for possible implantation of a fertilized egg by
causing the uterine lining to thicken and become more vascularized.
✓ If fertilization does not occur, progesterone levels decrease, leading to the shedding
of the uterine lining during menstruation.
42. During the menstrual cycle, progesterone levels are at their highest during the:
A. Follicular phase (first part of the cycle) C. Menstruation (end of cycle)
B. Luteal phase (second half of the cycle) D. Ovulation (mid-cycle)
Explanation
✓ During the menstrual cycle, progesterone levels are at their highest during the luteal
phase. This is the second half of the cycle, occurring after ovulation.
✓ Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum, which forms from the ruptured
follicle after the release of the egg.
✓ The main function of progesterone is to prepare the uterus for implantation of a
fertilized egg and to support early pregnancy.
✓ If fertilization does not occur, progesterone levels drop, leading to the shedding of
the uterine lining and the start of a new menstrual cycle.

43. Which hormone is responsible for release of dominant follicle from ovary into the
oviduct and stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary prior to ovulation
respectively?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone and Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen and Luteinizing hormone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone and Progesterone
Explanation
✓ LH, or luteinizing hormone,
▪ Is responsible for the release of the dominant follicle from the ovary
into the oviduct.
▪ LH surge triggers ovulation, which is the release of the mature egg from
the follicle. Once the egg is released, it travels through the oviduct,
where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm.
▪ FSH, estrogen, and progesterone are also involved in the menstrual
cycle and reproductive processes, but LH specifically plays a crucial
role in the release of the dominant follicle.
✓ FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone,
▪ Is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of ovarian
follicles in the ovary prior to ovulation.
▪ This hormone is released by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role
in the reproductive system.
▪ FSH helps to stimulate the maturation of the ovarian follicles, which
contain the eggs, and prepares them for ovulation.
▪ Without FSH, the follicles would not develop properly, leading to
difficulties in ovulation and fertility issues.

44. Although several hormones are produced throughout the menstrual cycle and their levels
fluctuate throughout the cycle. The levels of FSH, LH and estrogen reach their peak at
what day of the menstrual cycle? (Hint: - Based on the below menstrual cycle diagram))
Ripening of follicles Ovulation Ripening of corpus luteum
Menstruation
Ovulation
Progesterone
Estrogen
LH(Luteinizing hormone
FSH(Follicle stimulating hormone
Start of the cycle Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Day 28
A. Day 5 C. Day 8
B. Day 13 D. Day 28
45. What is the path that blood travels during menstruation?
A. Uterus, Fallopian tube, Vagina C. Uterus, Cervix, Vagina
B. Vagina, Uterus, Fallopian tube D. Cervix, Uterus, Vagina
46. Why are X-linked traits more common in males than in females?
A. All alleles on the X chromosome are dominant.
B. All alleles on the Y chromosome are recessive.
C. A recessive allele on the X chromosome will always produce the trait in a male.
D. Any allele on the Y chromosome will be codominant with the matching allele on the
X chromosome
47. A plant breeder wants to develop a disease resistant variety. What should he do first?
A. Hybridisation C. Mutation
B. Selection D. Production of crop
48. Which of the following type of animals breeding is used to develop a pure line in any
animal?
A. Inbreeding C. Outcrossing
B. Crossbreeding D. Hybridisation

49. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder in humans. A hemophiliac man and a non-
hemophiliac woman who has hemophilic son. What is their chance of having hemophilic
daughter?
A. 75% C. 0%
B. 50% D. 25%
50. A form of vitamin D-resistant rickets, known as hypophosphatemia, is inherited as an X-
linked dominant trait. If a male with hypophosphatemia marries a normal female?
A. All of their sons would inherit the disease
B. All of their daughters would inherit the disease
C. About 50% of their sons would inherit the disease
D. About 50% of their daughters would inherit the disease
51. In the pedigree below, squares represent males and circles represent females. Individuals
who express a particular trait are represented by shaded figures. Which of the following
patterns of inheritance best explains the transmission of the trait?
A. Sex-linked dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
52. Which of the following is not an aspect of animal breeding?

A. Improve desirable qualities of breeds C. Increasing the yield
B. Making diseased organisms D. Making disease resistance breeds
53. What is the basic genetic effect of inbreeding?
A. Increased homozygosity C. Decreased homozygosity
B. Increased heterozygosity D. No effect on heterozygosity
54. The desired varieties of economically useful crops are raised by
A. Vernalization C. Hybridization
B. Mutation D. Natural selection
55. Which method of crop improvement can be practiced by a farmer, if he is inexperienced
A. Clonal selection C. Mass selection
B. Pure line selection D. Hybridization

56. Which of the following marriage is not good for the offspring?
A. Rh- women and Rh+ man C. Rh- woman Rh- man
B. Rh+ women and Rh- man D. Rh+ women Rh+ man
57. Three babies are born in the hospital on the same day. Baby X has type B blood; Baby
Y has type AB blood; Baby Z has type O blood. Use the information in the following
table to determine which baby belongs to which couple. (Assume that all individuals are
homozygous dominant for the gene.)
Couple Father Blood type Mother Blood type
I Mr.1 B Ms.1 AB
II Mr.2 A Ms.2 A
III Mr.3 O Ms.3 B
A. Baby X belongs to couple III; Baby Y belongs to couple I and Baby Z belongs to couple III
B. Baby X belongs to couple III; Baby Y belongs to couple I and Baby Z belongs to couple II
C. Baby X belongs to couple II; Baby Y belongs to couple I and Baby Z belongs to couple III
D. Baby X belongs to couple II; Baby Y belongs to couple I and Baby Z belongs to couple II
58. Bioinformatics has also become useful to all of the following area Except one?
A. Improve the diagnosis and detection of diseases
B. Promote vaccine development by screening databases for pathogen genomes
C. Reduce our understanding of evolutionary processes through the analysis of
nucleotide/protein sequence mutations.
D. Provides tools to comprehensively analyze and save large amounts of biological data
that would be impossible to investigate without informatics-based approaches.
59. From the major field of bioinformatics, the one that examines the extensive role of
protein and DNA interactions on the function of cells, tissues, organs, pathway of an
enzymes, their various metabolites by using computer data models and illustrate brain
function by using computer images is;
A. Genomics and proteomics C. System biology and proteomics
B. Systems biology D. Only genomics
60. For instance, a woman may have diagnostic tests as part of her pregnancy checkups and
scans to find out if her baby has a genetic disorder or not. Therefore, which types of
genetic/diagnostic tests to be taken during pregnancy.
A. Amniocentesis and chorionic villus C. From repair mutated genes
B. Genetic testing D. Plasmid DNA uses

61. Gene therapy can be done through; -

A. Replacing a healthy copy of the gene with a disease-causing gene
B. Activating a disease-causing gene that is not functioning properly
C. Introducing a new or modified gene into the body to help treat the disease.
D. Transferring a section of DNA to somatic cells that will be passed onto the patient’s
children based on somatic gene therapy
62. Pedigree analysis can provide information about trait inheritance by examining the
presence, absence of a trait throughout the history of a family and give important clues
about the risk of disease inheritance and propagation. In general, analyzing pedigrees
can reveal the following Except?
A. Neither a trait is dominant nor recessive
B. The type of chromosome, autosomal or sex, a trait is linked to
C. The genotypes of family members
D. The probabilities of phenotypes in the future generations.
63. What are monogenetic disorders
A. Single gene disorders that are caused by defects in one particular gene due to changes
or mutations that occur in the DNA.
B. These disorders are known as digenetic disorders.
C. The pattern of inheritance depends on neither they are controlled by genes on
autosomes nor by genes on sex chromosomes.
D. Single gene disorders that are caused by defects in two particular gene due to changes
or mutations that occur in the DNA
64. It is characteristic of sex-linked recessive pedigree that they:
A. Occur more frequently in males than in females
B. Trait is common in pedigree
C. Affected father pass to their son
D. Both male and females are equally affected
65. Multifactorial disorders are complex disorders caused by changes in the combination of
multiple genes, complex interaction with environmental and lifestyle factors such as;-
A. Smoking and drinking alcohol
B. Eating healthful diet
C. Getting enough sleep and living in an area that has high levels of air pollution.
D. Multifactorial inheritance includes diabetes rather than cancer.

66. Genetic counseling is the process of checking a family with regard to; -
A. The personnel history rather than medical records.
B. Ordering genetic tests without evaluating the results of these tests
C. It helps to make informed decisions about genetic counseling than genetic testing.
D. It gives information about how genetic disorders might affect one’s family in order
to increase understanding of genetic disorders that are inherited in the family.
67. Select the correct one from the below types of joints with own function?
1. The ball and socket joint: shoulder and hip joints.
2. Hinge joints: like a door, a joint that opens and closes in one direction along one plane only.
3. Condyloid joints: elbow and knee joints
4. Pivot joints are rotary or trochoid joints in which one bone swivels in a ring.
5. Gliding joints: ulna, radius, and neck.
6. Saddle joint: enables movement back and forth, side to side, and able to rotate.
A. 1,2,4 and 6 C. 1, 2,4,5 and 6
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1,2,3,4, and 5
68. This joint consists of a bone with a rounded end that fits into a cup-like cavity on another
bone.
A. Pivot C. Ball and socket
B. Hinge D. Gliding
69. The most common types of chromosomal disorders occur due to the following Except?
A. Rearrangement of a chromosomal segment from one location to another.
B. Down syndrome or trisomy 21(2n-1).
C. Aneuploidy due to wrong number of chromosomes
D. Missing parts of a chromosome due to deletion.
70. . Gliding joint are found in the ____________
A. Ankles, toes and shoulders C. Hips, fingers and vertebrae
B. Elbow, knees, fingers and toes D. Ankles, wrists and vertebrae
71. All of the followings are the basic characteristics feature of female reproductive structure
‘Cervix’ Except?
A. Separates the vagina from the uterus
B. Holds the fetus in place during pregnancy
C. Dilates during birth to allow the fetus to leave the uterus
D. Sweep the ovum into the oviduct following ovulation

72. Which of the following major parts of axial skeleton and its functions are NOT correctly paired?
A. Thoracic rib cage protects the heart and lungs.
B. Thorax sternum bind and handle the abdomen.
C. Vertebral column holds up human body
D. Hyoid control your auditory
73. Which male reproductive structures carry sperm from the epididymis to its junction with the
urethra and secretes fructose into the semen, which provides energy for the sperm respectively?
A. Urethra and seminal vesicle C. Seminal vesicle and vas deferens
B. Vas deferens and Seminal vesicle D. Vas deferens and urethra
74. How the positive and negative feedback mechanism helps to control the menstrual cycle?
A. Positive leads to ovulation while negative leads to menstruation.
B. Positive leads to menstruation while negative leads to ovulation.
C. In negative feedbacks, the mechanism of biochemical pathway turns on in order to
allow the fertilization of egg.
D. In positive feedback mechanism the corpus luteum dies, progesterone levels drop and
the uterine lining breaks down and the woman is having a period or menstruation.
75. The followings are signs and symptoms of pregnancy:
A. Existence of menstrual phases.
B. Tender breasts and morning sickness such as nausea, vomiting.
C. Reduction of hunger and frequent urination.
D. Flow of unfertilized egg.
76. Functions of the skeletal system include
A. Support and protection C. Movement.
B. Blood cell formation (hematopoiesis). D. All of the above.
77. Which of the following is performed in selective breeding? Organisms with
A. Strong characteristics from the same breed are allowed to mate to get the desired
trait.
B. Strong and weak characteristics from the different breeds are allowed to mate to get
the desired trait.
C. Strong and weak characteristics from the same breed are allowed to mate to get the
desired feature.
D. Strong characteristics from different breeds are allowed to mate to produce the
desired feature.

78. Based on their mechanisms of action non-barrier contraceptives methods includes all of
the following Except?
A. Chemical barriers or spermicides C. Diaphragm and cervical cap.
B. Emergency oral contraceptive pill D. Contraceptive ring.
79. The Axial skeleton consists of
A. The bones of the vertebral column and thoracic ribcage
B. The bones that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton.
C. The bones of the legs, hands and sternum.
D. The bones of the arms and vertebral column.
80. From the following human skeleton system which one is represented by number 42 and
43 respectively?
A. Humerus and fibula
B. Humerus and tibia
C. Tibia and humerus
D. Fibula and humerus
81. Put the following muscle contraction and relaxation steps in order.
1. Acetylcholine travels across the synaptic gap
2. Actin and myosin form linkages
3. Calcium ions diffuse into the skeletal fiber and bind to troponin
4. Actin and myosin linkages are broken
5. Calcium ions diffuse out of the skeletal muscle
6. Acetylcholine is released from the distal end of the motor neuron
7. Cholinesterase decomposes acetylcholine
8. Acetylcholine stimulates the skeletal fiber
9. Muscle relaxes
10. Muscle fiber shortens (contracts)
A. 6 →1 →8→ 3→ 2 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
B. 6 →2 →3→ 8→ 1 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
C. 8 →1 →6→ 3→ 2 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
D. 6 →1 →8→ 2→ 3 →10→ 5→ 7→ 4→ 9

82. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord,
going from superior to inferior:
A. Thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
B. Cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
C. Cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
D. Cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
83. The rise in FSH stimulates the growth of the follicle in the ovary, produces the increasing
amounts of estradiol and reduces the release of gonadotrophin hormone as;
A. Negative feedback. C. Either positive or negative feedback
B. Positive feedback D. Both positive and negative feedback
84. In the regulation of menstrual cycle positive feedback leads to_________ and negative
feedback leads to__________respectively.
A. Menstrual phase and formation of endometrium
B. Menstruation and ovulation
C. Ovulation and menstruation
D. Ovulation and formation of follicular phase
85. What is the role of Luteinizing hormone (LH) as a gonadotrophic hormone for regulating
the function of the testes in men?
A. It stimulates cells in the testes to produce androgen to support sperm production.
B. It carries out different roles in the two halves of the menstrual cycle.
C. It stimulates cells in the testes to produce testosterone to support sperm production.
D. It stimulates cells in the epididymis to produce testosterone to support sperm
production.
86. Which one of the following female reproductive structures and their function are NOT
properly correct?
A. Ovaries to produce the hormones estrogen and progesterone
B. Oviducts carry the ovum from the ovary to the uterus
C. Fimbria sweep the ovum into the oviduct following ovulation
D. Womb to holds the fetus in place during pregnancy
87. Which one of the following female reproductive organs enclose and protect the other
external reproductive organs. During puberty, hair growth occurs on the skin of it, which
also contain sweat and oil-secreting glands.
A. Labia minora C. Labia majora
B. Bartholin’s gland D. Small lips

88. Arrange the following order of Spermatogenesis that was occurs at sexual maturity,
1. The undifferentiated primordial germ cells of seminiferous tubules divide several
times by mitosis to produce large number of sperm mother cells or spermatogonia.
2. Spermatogonia are diploid and possess 46 chromosomes.
3. They then go through mitotic division and generate primary spermatocytes which
undergo meiosis to form two haploid cells known as secondary spermatocytes.
4. Each secondary spermatocyte has 23 chromosomes.
5. Second meiotic division occurs in secondary spermatocytes, resulting in production
of four equal and haploid spermatids.
6. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperm) by the process of
spermiogenesis.
7. They develop into mature spermatozoa, also known as sperm cells.
8. Maturation of the sperm cells takes place in the epididymis where it is secreted in the
form of semen during puberty.
A. 1→2→3→5→6→4→7→8 C. 8→7→6→5→4→3→2→1
B. 1→2→3→4→5→6→7→8 D. 8→7→4→6→5→3→2→1
89. Which immature male germ cells undergo successive mitotic and meiotic divisions to
produce sperms?
A. Cuboidal and primordial germ cells C. Sertoli cells
B. Germinal epithelium and seminiferous tubule cells. D. Nurse cells
90. Where is a fixed (immovable) joint located?
A. Hip C. Knee
B. Skull D. Finger
91. Cartilage is
A. Infection in the bones
B. Swelling & stiffness in a joint
C. Tough flexible cushion between two bones
D. Curvature of the spine
92. Ligaments are different from tendons in that of;
A. Strong cord that connects bone to bone
B. Strong cord that connects muscle to bone
C. Tough flexible cushion between two bones
D. Strong cord that results in the complete rupture of the muscle.

93. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about human musculoskeletal system?
A. The scientific name of your jawbone is mandible
B. Calcium and phosphorous give bones their strength and hardness.
C. Your vertebrae are irregular type of bones.
D. Involuntary cardiac and smooth muscle helps you move when you want to.
94. Which one of the following male external genital organs are made up of a sack of thick
skin that protects the testes and controls the temperature of the testes for suitable sperm
creation. It contains seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testicles (testes), and prostate gland
that constitute all the remaining components of the male reproductive system.
A. Seminiferous tubules C. Testes
B. Scrotum D. Penis
95. A bone is supplied with nutrients by
A. Yellow Bone Marrow C. Red Bone Marrow
B. Calcification D. Blood Vessels
96. The character of an ovulation is
A. The release of a mature egg cell
B. The loss of the lining of the uterus
C. The joining of male sex cell and female sex cells
D. Fertilization
97. Which one of the following contraceptive methods are represented by number ‘5’?
A. Diaphragm
B. IUD
C. Tubal ligation
D. Progesterone-only pills 5 1
4
2
3
98. What is the main role of Sertoli cells in the process of spermatogenesis?
A. They help in the nourishment of the developing sperms called nurse cells.
B. For producing the male hormone called androgen (testicular hormone).
C. To generate primary spermatocytes which undergo meiosis to form two haploid cells
D. To undergoes primary spermatocytes development that begins with meiotic division.

99. The process where of formation and development of specialized generative cells,
gametes (oocytes/sperm), from bipotential primordial germ cells is; -
A. Gametogenesis C. Spermatogenesis
B. Oogenesis D. Secondary spermatocyte
100. Which one of the following structures of vertebral column is represented by number
‘46’?
A. Lumbar vertebrae
B. Thoracic vertebrae
C. Cervical vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
THE END!!!
.

ANSWER SHEET
Name__________________________________________Section______Roll.No.___
1. 21. 41. 61. 81.

2. 22. 42. 62. 82.
3. 23. 43. 63. 83.
4. 24. 44. 64. 84.
5. 25. 45. 65. 85.
6. 26. 46. 66. 86.
7. 27. 47. 67. 87.
8. 28. 48. 68. 88.
9. 29. 49. 69. 89.
10. 30. 50. 70. 90.
11. 31. 51. 71. 91.
12. 32. 52. 72. 92.
13. 33. 53. 73. 93.
14. 34. 54. 74. 94.
15. 35. 55. 75. 95.
16. 36. 56. 76. 96.
17. 37. 57. 77. 97.
18. 38. 58. 78. 98.
19. 39. 59. 79. 99.
20. 40. 60. 80. 100.

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HARAMAYA UNIVERSITY SPECIAL NON-BOARDING SECONDARY SCHOOL

GRADE 11TH SECOND SEMESTER BIOLOGY MID-EXAMINATION

YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM FOR 2 HOURS

PLEASE ERASE ALL UNNECESSARY MARKS COMPLETELY FROM YOUR

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE OVER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

DIRECTIONS: -THIS PAPER CONTAINS BIOLOGY MID-EXAMINATION FOR GRADE

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7. The appendicular skeleton consists of what parts?

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Note The IUD made from copper only

20. Oral contraception prevents pregnancy by each of these methods, EXCEPT:

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30. Which of the following is NOT a reason to consider genetic counseling?

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▪ Absence of menstruation does not always indicate an active pregnancy, as

Diagram of menstrual cycle

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Ripening of follicles Ovulation Ripening of corpus luteum

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52. Which of the following is not an aspect of animal breeding?

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61. Gene therapy can be done through; -

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1. 21. 41. 61. 81.

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