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Professional Knowledge Quiz for IBPS SO IT Officer 2017

Q1. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a


(a) One-to-one relationship
(b) One-to-many relationship
(c) Many-to-many relationship
(d) Many-to-one relationship
(e) none of the above

Q2.The Oracle RDBMS uses the ____ statement to declare a new transaction start and its properties.
(a) BEGIN
(b) SET TRANSACTION
(c) BEGIN TRANSACTION
(d) COMMIT
(e) none of the above

Q3. ____ means that the data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a second
transaction until the first one is completed.
(a) Consistency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Durability
(d) Isolation
(e) None of the above

Q4.__________ states that only valid data will be written to the database.
(a) Consistency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Durability
(d) Isolation
(e) none of the above

Q5.The database system must take special actions to ensure that transactions operate properly without
interference from concurrently executing database statements. This property is referred to as
(a) Atomicity
(b) Durability
(c) Isolation
(d) All of the mentioned
(e) consistency

Q6. A system is in a ______ state if there exists a set of transactions such that every transaction in the
set is waiting for another transaction in the set.
(a) Idle
(b) Waiting
(c) Deadlock
(d) Ready
(e) none of the above
Q7. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock?
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock recovery
(c) Deadlock detection
(d) All of the mentioned
(e) Deadlock breakup.

Q8. SQL can be used to:


(a) Create database structures only.
(b) Query database data only.
(c) Modify database data only.
(d) All of the above can be done by SQL
(e) none of the above

Q9. Which of the following is not a DBMS?


(a) MYSQL
(b) SQL SERVER
(c) ORACLE DB
(d) MS ACCESS
(e) none of the above

Q10. SNAPSHOT is used by DBA for?


(a) Synonym
(b) Tablespace
(c) System server
(d) Dynamic data replication
(e) none of the above
Solutions
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. One entity department is related to several employees
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Commit is used to store all the transactions
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Even though multiple transactions may execute concurrently, the system guarantees that, for every pair
of transactions Ti and Tj , it appears to Ti that either Tj finished execution before Ti started or Tj started
execution after Ti finished.
S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. If, for some reason, a transaction is executed that violates the database’s consistency rules, the entire
transaction will be rolled back and the database will be restored to a state consistent with those rules.
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. When one data item is waiting for another data item in a transaction then system is in deadlock.
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Even though multiple transactions may execute concurrently, the system guarantees that, for every pair
of transactions Ti and Tj , it appears to Ti that either Tj finished execution before Ti started or Tj started
execution after Ti finished.
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. When one data item is waiting for another data item in a transaction then system is in deadlock.
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. Deadlock prevention is also called as deadlock recovery.Prevention is commonly used if the probability
that the system would enter a deadlock state is relatively high; otherwise, detection and recovery are more
efficient.
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. SQL (Structured Query Language) is a standard interactive and programming language for getting
information from and updating a database. Although SQL is both an ANSI and an ISO standard, many
database products support SQL with proprietary extensions to the standard language.
S9. Ans.(e)
Sol. SQL SERVER and MS ACCESS is Microsoft DBMS to take on rivals Oracle.
S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. Snapshot gets the instance of the database at that time.
Q1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
(a) Analysis
(b) Design
(c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
(d) Development and Documentation
(e) None of the above

Q2. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
(a) Maintenance and Evaluation
(b) Design
(c) Analysis
(d) Development and Documentation
(e) none of the above

Q3. Who designs and implement database structures?


(a) Programmers
(b) Project managers
(c) Technical writers
(d) Database administrators
(e) none of the above

Q4. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will
use to perform that task.
(a) Project design
(b) Installation
(c) Systems analysis
(d) Programming

Q5. Debugging is:


(a) creating program code.
(b) finding and correcting errors in the program code.
(c) identifying the task to be computerized.
(d) creating the algorithm.
(e) none of the above

Q6. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module:


(a) can be written more compactly.
(b) focuses on just one thing.
(c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
(d) is connected to other modules and the outside world.

Q7. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module:


(a) can be written more compactly.
(b) focuses on just one thing.
(c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
(d) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
(e) none of the above

Q8. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems?
(a) Forward engineering
(b) Reverse Engineering
(c) Reengineering.
(d) b and c
(e) none of the above

Q9. W3C stands for


(a) World Wide Web Consortium
(b) World Wide Web Collaboration
(c) World Wide Web Community
(d) None of the mentioned
(e) whole world wide

Q10. What category of web-based system would you assign to discussion groups?
(a) Collaborative work
(b) Online communities
(c) Web portals
(d) Workflow-oriented

Solutions
S1. Ans.(C)
Sol. There are six phases in every Software development life cycle model.
Requirement gathering and analysis is the first step.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. An important task is documenting the internal design of software for the purpose of future maintenance
and enhancement.
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. a person responsible for the environmental aspects of a database.
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. Computer programming is a process that leads from an original formulation of a computing problem to
executable computer programs.
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Debugging is the process of finding and resolving of defects that prevent correct operation of computer
software or a system.
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. In software engineering, coupling is the degree of interdependence between software modules; a measure
of how closely connected two routines or modules are.
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. Coupling is usually contrasted with cohesion.
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. In computing, a legacy system is an old method, technology, computer system, or application program,
"of, relating to, or being a previous or outdated computer system."
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international community where Member organizations, a
full-time staff, and the public work together.
S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. An online community is a group of people with common interests who use the Internet (web sites, email,
instant messaging, etc) to communicate.
Q1. All Android phones and iPhones have access to a SQL (pronounced ‘sequel’) database
called_______
(a) SQLite
(b) MySQL
(c) PostgreSQL
(d) Microsoft SQL

Q2. ______is the a relatively new programming language designed by Microsoft for a wide range of
enterprise applications that run on the .NET Framework.
(a) RUBY on RAILS
(b) PYTHON
(c) JAVA
(d) C#(pronounced C-sharp)

Q3. _______is a scripting language, running on the server, which can be used to create web pages
written in HTML.
(a) PHP (Hypertext Pre-Processor)
(b) Javascript
(c) Android
(d) Adobe

Q4. Which is a valid keyword in java?


(a) interface
(b) string
(c) Float
(d) unsigned

Q5. Which of the following package stores all the standard java classes?
(a) java.lang
(b) java.io
(c) util
(d) java.packages

Q6. _____general purpose programming language, though it is best known for its use in web
programming, and _____ serves as a framework for the Ruby Language.
(a) Java,IDE
(b) C#,C++
(c) Javascript,Java
(d) Ruby,Rails

Q7. Which of these keywords are used for the block to be examined for exceptions?
(a) try
(b) catch
(c) throw
(d) all of the above
(e) check
Q8. What is use of wildcards?
(a) It is used in cases when type being operated upon is not known.
(b) It is used to make code more readable.
(c) It is used to access members of super class.
(d) It is used for type argument of generic method
(e) all of the above

Q9. Who is the Father of 'C' programming language_________.


(a) Dennis Ritchie
(b) Prof Jhon Kemeny
(c) Thomas Kurtz
(d) Bill Gates

Q10. JavaScript was developed by __________ to run inside of web pages.


(a) Microsoft
(b) Sun
(C) Oracle
(d) Netscape

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. SQLite is an in-process library that implements a self-contained, serverless, zero-configuration,
transactional SQL database engine. The code for SQLite is in the public domain and is thus free for use for
any purpose, commercial or private. SQLite is a compact library.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. An evolution of C and C++, the C# language is simple, modern, type safe and object oriented.
S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Created by Danish-Canadian programmer Rasmus Lerdorf in 1994, PHP was never actually intended to
be a new programming language. Instead, it was created to be a set of tools to help Rasmus maintain his
Personal Home Page (PHP).
S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. In the Java programming language, a keyword is one of 50 reserved words that have a predefined
meaning in the language.
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. java.lang - bundles the fundamental classes
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Ruby on Rails has many positive qualities including rapid development, you don’t need as much code,
and there are a wide variety of 3rd party libraries available.
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. An exception occurs in try block then the control of execution is passed to the catch block from try block.
The exception is caught up by the corresponding catch block.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. In generic code, the question mark (?), called the wildcard, represents an unknown type. The wildcard
can be used in a variety of situations: as the type of a parameter, field, or local variable; sometimes as a return
type.
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Dennis MacAlistair Ritchie was an American computer scientist. He created the C programming
language and, with long-time colleague Ken Thompson.
S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. JavaScript ("JS" for short) is a full-fledged dynamic programming language that, when applied to an
HTML document, can provide dynamic interactivity on websites. It was invented by Brendan Eich, co-
founder of the Mozilla project then working at NETSCAPE.

Q1.Which one of the following registers determines the instruction is to be executed next?
(a)program counter
(b)status register
(c)instruction register
(d)program status word
(e)address register

Q2.A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called


(a)stack pointer
(b)cache
(c)accumulator
(d)disk buffer

Q3.Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?


(a)physical address
(b)absolute address
(c)logical address
(d)all of the above

Q4.The page table contains?


(a)base address of each page in physical memory
(b)page offset
(c)page size
(d)frame number
(e)all of the above

Q5.Operating System maintains the page table for:


(a)each process
(b)each thread
(c)each instruction
(d)each address

Q6.Which one of the following explains the sequential file access method?
(a)random access according to the given byte number
(b)read bytes one at a time, in order
(c)read/write sequentially by record
(d)read/write randomly by record

Q7.A deadlock can be broken by :


(a)abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
(b)abort all the process in the system
(c)preempt all resources from all processes
(d)to preempt some resources from one or more of the deadlocked processes
(e)both a and d

Q8.Thrashing _______ the CPU utilization.


(a)increases
(b)keeps constant
(c)decreases
(d)stops

Q9.What is the mounting of file system?


(a)crating of a filesystem
(b)deleting a filesystem
(c)attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
(d)removing portion of the file system into a directory structure
(e)none of the above

Q10.File system fragmentation occurs when:


(a)unused space or single file are not contiguous
(b)used space is not contiguous
(c)unused space is non-contiguous
(d)multiple files are non-contiguous
(e)none of the above

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol.A program counter is a register in a computer processor that contains the address (location) of the
instruction being executed at the current time. As each instruction gets fetched, the program counter increases
its stored value by 1
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Cache is random access memory (RAM) that a computer microprocessor can access more quickly than it
can access regular RAM
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. a logical address is the address at which an item (memory cell, storage element, network host) appears to
reside from the perspective of an executing application program
S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. Each page table entry contains information about a single page. The most important part of this
information is a frame number — where the page is located in physical memory.
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. A page table base register (PTBR) holds the base address for the page table of the current process.
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. access to a computer data file that requires the user to read through the file from the beginning in the
order in which it is stored.
S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. A deadlock is a situation in which two computer programs sharing the same resource are effectively
preventing each other from accessing the resource, resulting in both programs ceasing to function.
S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Thrashing is a condition in which excessive paging operations are taking place. A system that is thrashing
can be perceived as either a very slow system or one that has come to a halt.
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Mounting a filesystem simply means making the particular filesystem accessible at a certain point in the
directory tree. When mounting a filesystem it does not matter if the filesystem is a hard disk partition, CD-
ROM, floppy, or USB storage device.
S10.Ans.(a)
Sol. In computer storage, fragmentation is a phenomenon in which storage space is used inefficiently,
reducing capacity or performance and often both.
Q1.Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
(a)Waterfall Model
(b)Prototyping Model
(c)RAD Model
(d)Big bang model

Q2.What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?


(a)Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required.
(b)Increases re-usability of components.
(c)Encourages customer/client feedback.
(d)Assists client in taking quick reviews
(e)Both a & c.

Q3.What are some of the major advantages of Spiral Model?


(a)Risk factors are considerably reduced
(b)Excellent for large and complex projects
(c)Allows for additional functionality later
(d)Suitable for highly risky projects with varied business needs
(e)All of the above.

Q4.What are some of the major disadvantages of Spiral model?


(a)Costly model in software development
(b)Failure in risk analysis phase may damage the whole project
(C)Not appropriate for low-risk projects
(d)Might get continued and never finish
(e)All of the above

Q5.Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
(a)Waterfall & RAD
(b)Prototyping & Spiral
(c)Prototyping & RAD
(d)Waterfall & Spiral

Q6.Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.


(a)FORTRAN
(b)COBOL
(c)Unix shell
(d)C++

Q7.What are cons of Waterfall model?


(a)Only matches precise needs
(b)Not applicable for maintenance projects
(c)Does not allow editing in the testing phase
(d)No option to know possible outcome of a project

Q8.Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as


(a)alpha testing
(b)beta testing
(c)regression testing
(d)gamma testing
(e)none of the mentioned

Q9.What is Cyclomatic complexity?


(a)Black box testing
(b)White box testing
(c)Yellow box testing
(d)Green box testing

Q10. What are the various Testing Levels?


(a)Unit Testing
(b)System Testing
(c)Integration Testing
(d)acceptance Testing
(e)all of the above

Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Aimed at providing quick results, Rapid Application Development is meant to give excellent
development processes with the assistance of other development approaches
S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. All other are advantages of using RAD paradigm.
S3. Ans.(e)
Sol. Being a highly sophisticated design, it is meant to reduce the early risks in the project.
S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. The accomplishment of any Spiral Lifecycle model is based on consistent, observant, and conversant
management of the project.
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Prototyping Model starts with a requirements analysis phase including techniques like FAST, QFD,
Brainstorming. In case of Spiral model the first phase involves activities related to customer communication
like determining objectives.
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. A Unix shell is a command-line interpreter or shell that provides a traditional Unix-like command line
user interface
S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. Considered as the traditional method of explaining the software development process in software
engineering, waterfall model happens to clarify the process into a linear flow with a specified sequence to let
the users understand that further level is made progressive on completion of the previous one.
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Beta testing is performed by Clients or End Users who are not employees of the organization
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module. Cyclomatic
complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module.
S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. There are generally four recognized levels of tests: unit/component testing, integration testing, system
testing, and acceptance testing.
Q1.A banking system consist of user accounts, money transfers, withdrawal, deposits, etc. These all
represent tables or entities that can be manipulated with SQL. What is full form of SQL?
(a)Shortcut query language
(b)Structured query language
(c)Simple query language
(d)Sorted query language

Q2.A relational database consists of a collection of:


(a)Tables
(b)Fields
(c)Records
(d)Keys

Q3.OLAP stands for:


(a)Online analytical processing
(b)Online analysis processing
(c)Online transaction processing
(d)Online aggregate processing

Q4.Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation ,deleting relations and
relating schemas ?
(a)DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
(b)DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
(c)Query
(d)Relational Schema

Q5.Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and to
insert tuples into, delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the database ?
(a)DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
(b)DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
(c)Query
(d)Relational Schema

Q6.To remove a relation from an SQL database, we use the ______ command.
(a)Delete
(b)Purge
(c)Remove
(d)Drop table

Q7.What term is used to refer to a specific record in your music database; for instance; information
stored about a specific album?
(a)Relation
(b)Instance
(c)Table
(d)Column

Q8.An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is termed a __________ .
(a)Strong entity set
(b)Variant set
(c)Weak entity set
(d)Variable set

Q9.Which of the following gives a logical structure of the database graphically ?


(a)Entity-relationship diagram
(b)Entity diagram
(c)Database diagram
(d)Architectural representation

Q10.A window into a portion of a database is


(a)Schema
(b)View
(c)Query
(d)Data dictionary

Q11. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by


(a)Ellipse
(b)Dashed ellipse
(c)Rectangle
(d)Triangle
(e)Diamond

Q12. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
(a)First
(b)Second
(c)Third
(d)Fourth
(e)Fifth

Q13. Tables in second normal form (2NF):


(a)Eliminate all hidden dependencies
(b)Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
(c)Have a composite key
(d)Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
(e)All of the above

Q14. Which form has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
(a)2NF
(b)3NF
(c)4NF
(d)5NF
(e)1NF

Q15.Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:


(a)1NF
(b)2NF
(c)3NF
(d)4NF
(e)5NF

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Structured Query Language. SQL is used to communicate with a database. According to ANSI
(American National Standards Institute), it is the standard language for relational database management
systems.
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from
which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database
tables.
S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. OLAP is an acronym for Online Analytical Processing. OLAP performs multidimensional analysis of
business data and provides the capability for complex calculations, trend analysis, and sophisticated data
modeling.
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Data Definition Language (DDL) is a standard for commands that define the different structures in a
database. DDL statements create, modify, and remove database objects such as tables, indexes, and users.
Common DDL statements are CREATE, ALTER, and DROP.
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. A data manipulation language (DML) is a family of syntax elements similar to a computer programming
language used for selecting, inserting, deleting and updating data in a database. Performing read-only queries
of data is sometimes also considered a component of DML.
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Drop table deletes the whole structure of the relation .purge removes the table which cannot be obtained
again.
S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. The environment of database is said to be instance. A database instance or an ‘instance’ is made up of the
background processes needed by the database.
S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. An entity set that has a primary key is termed a strong entity set.
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. An entity relationship model, also called an entity-relationship (ER) diagram, is a graphical
representation of entities and their relationships to each other, typically used in computing in regard to the
organization of data within databases or information systems.
S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. View is a logical portion of a database which is needed by some users.
S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. Ellipse represents attributes,rectangle represents entity.
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. The first normal form is used to eliminate the duplicate information.
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. The relation in second normal form is also in first normal form and no partial dependencies on any
column in primary key.
S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. A Table is in 4NF if and only if, for every one of its non-trivial multivalued dependencies X
\twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a superkey—that is, X is either a candidate key or a superset thereof.
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. The table is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R is non-transitively dependent (i.e. directly
dependent) on every super key of R.
Q1. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?
(a)Database design
(b)Backing up the database
(c)Performance monitoring
(d)User coordination
(e)All of the above

Q2. In SQL, which command is used to make permanent changes made by statements since the
beginning of a transaction?
(a)ZIP
(b)PACK
(c)COMMIT
(d)SAVE

Q3.The data dictionary tells the DBMS


(a)What files are in the Database
(b)What attribute are possessed by the data
(c)What these files contain
(d)All of the above

Q4.The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A Tuple is equivalent to a:


(a)Record
(b)Field
(c)File
(d)Data base
(e)Data item

Q5.A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a


(a)Hierarchical schema
(b)Network schema
(c)Relational schema
(d)All of the above

Q6.Which of the following hardware components is the most important to the operation of a database
management system?
(a)high-resolution video display
(b)printer
(c)high speed, large-capacity disk
(d)plotter
(e)mouse

Q7.In a _____ a parent record type can be linked to one or more "child" record types, but a child
record type can have only one parent.
(a)Network database
(b)Relational database
(c)Distributed database
(d)Hierarchical database
Q8.Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
(a)query language and utilities
(b)data manipulation language and query language
(c)data dictionary and transaction log
(d)data dictionary and query languag

Q9.A large computer information system maintains many different computer files. Which amongst
them is called a perpetual file?
(a)Specialized file
(b)Log file
(c)Master file
(d)Update file

Q10.Updating a database means


(a)revising the file structure
(b)reorganizing the database
(c)modifying or adding record occurrences
(d)All of the above

Q11. In SQL, which command is used to add new rows to a table?


(a)ALTER TABLE
(b)ADD ROW
(c)INSERT
(d)APPEND

Q12.A database management system might consist of application programs and a software package
called
(a)FORTRAN
(b)AUTOFLOW
(c)BPL
(d)TOTAL

Q13.A race condition occurs when


(a)Two concurrent activities interact to cause a processing error
(b)two users of the DBMS are interacting with different files at the same time
(c)both (a) and (b)
(d)All of the above

Q14.Data integrity control


(a)is used to set upper and lower limits on numeric data
(b)requires the use of passwords to prohibit unauthorized access to the file
(c)has the data dictionary keep the date and time of last access last back-up, and most recent modification for
all files
(d)All of the above

Q15.Database management systems are intended to:


(a)eliminate data redundancy
(b)establish relationship among different records in different files
(c)manage file access
(d)maintain data integrity
(e)all of the above

Solutions
S1.Ans.(e)
Sol. Database administrators (DBAs) use specialized software to store and organize data. The role may
include capacity planning, installation, configuration, database design, migration, performance monitoring,
security, troubleshooting, as well as backup and data recovery.
S2.Ans.(c)
Sol. Use the COMMIT statement to end your current transaction and make permanent all changes performed
in the transaction. A transaction is a sequence of SQL statements that Database treats as a single unit
S3.Ans.(d)
Sol. In database management systems, a file that defines the basic organization of a database. A data
dictionary contains a list of all files in the database, the number of records in each file, and the names and
types of each field.
S4.Ans.(a)
Sol. A tuple is a finite ordered list of elements, (in a relational database) an ordered set of data constituting a
record.
S5.Ans.(a)
Sol. A hierarchical database model is a data model in which the data is organized into a tree-like structure
S6.Ans.(c)
Sol. Database is stored in high capacity disc.
S7.Ans.(d)
Sol. A hierarchical database model is top to bottom model.
S8.Ans.(c)
Sol. In the field of databases in computer science, a transaction log (also transactionjournal, database log,
binary log or audit trail) is a history of actions executed by a database management system used to guarantee
ACID properties over crashes or hardware failures
S9.Ans.(c)
Sol. A collection of records pertaining to one of the main subjects of an information system, such as
customers, employees, products and vendor
S10.Ans.(c)
Sol. Create a select query. Open the database that contains the records you want to update. On the Create tab,
in the Other group, click Query Design. Select the table or tables that contain the records you want to update
and click Add, and then click Close. Double-click the fields that you want to update
S11.Ans.(c)
Sol. INSERT INTO TABLE_NAME (column1, column2, column3,...columnN)] VALUES (value1, value2,
value3,...valueN);
S12.Ans.(c)
Sol. BPL is a developer file format used by Borland
S13.Ans.(a)
Sol. A race condition is an undesirable situation that occurs when a device or system attempts to perform two
or more operations at the same time, but because of the nature of the device or system, the operations must be
done in the proper sequence to be done correctly.
S14.Ans.(c)
Sol. Data integrity is a fundamental component of information security
S15.Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the above are objective of DBMS
Q1. _________ perform resolution of externally defined symbols.
(a)Loader
(b)Compiler
(c)Linker
(d)Interpreter
(e)All of the above

Q2. In a two-pass assembler, the pseudo-code EQU is to be evaluated during?


(a)Pass 1
(b)Pass 2
(c)Pass 3
(d)Not evaluated by the assembler
(e)None of the above

Q3. The clock rate of the processor can be improved by:


(a)Improving the IC technology of the logic circuits
(b)Reducing the amount of processing done in one step
(c)By using overclocking method
(d)All of the above
(e)None of the above

Q4. The translator for low level programming language is called ________.
(a)Loader
(b)Assembler
(c)Compiler
(d)Linker
(e)None of the above

Q5. The unit which acts as an intermediate agent between memory and backing store to reduce process
time is _____ .
(a)TLB’s
(b)Registers
(c)Page tables
(d)Cache
(e)None of the above

Q6. A high-speed transmission line that carries WAN traffic is called a:


(a)X.25 line
(b)P2PN.
(c)Backbone
(d)POP
(e)None of these

Q7.The BOOT sector files of the system are stored in _____ .


(a)Hard Disk
(b)ROM
(c)RAM
(d)Fast solid state chips in the motherboard
(e)None of the above

Q8.The Load instruction does the following operation/s,


(a)Loads the contents of a disc onto a memory location
(b)Loads the contents of a location onto the accumulators
(c)Load the contents of the PCB onto the register
(d)Both a and c

Q9.Which of the following technique/s used to effectively utilize main memory?


(a)Address bindin
(b)Dynamic linking
(c)Dynamic loading
(d)Both b and c

Q10.The transfer of large chunks of data with the involvement of the processor is done by _______ .
(a)DMA controller
(b)Arbitrator
(c)User system programs
(d)Dispatcher

Q11.The technique used to store programs larger than the memory is ______ .
(a)Overlays
(b)Extension registers
(c)Buffers
(d)Both b and c

Q12.When Performing a looping operation, the instruction gets stored in the ______ .
(a)Registers
(b)Cache
(c)System Heap
(d)System stack

Q13.For a given FINITE number of instructions to be executed, which architecture of the processor
provides for a faster execution?
(a)ISA
(b)ANSA
(c)Super-scalar
(d)INSAT

Q14.The ultimate goal of a compiler is to,


(a)Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task.
(b)Reduce the size of the object code.
(c)Be versatile.
(d)Be able to detect even the smallest of errors

Q15.An optimizing Compiler does,


(a)Better compilation of the given piece of code.
(b)Takes advantage of the type of processor and reduces its process time.
(c)Does better memory management.
(d)Both a and c

Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. a linker is a computer program that takes one or more object files generated by a compiler and combines
them into one, executable program.
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. A two pass assembler tries to compute the value of each expression as it encounters it, in two passes
called "first" and "second" passes. During first pass, if there are undefined symbols (presumed to be forward
references) in the expression, the assembler simply substitutes a dummy value (often zero); in any case, it
computes a value for the expression.
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. The clock rate(frequency of the processor) is the hardware dependent quantity it is fixed for a given
processor.
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. A compiler is a computer program (or a set of programs) that transforms source code written in a
programming language (the source language) into another computer language (the target language), with the
latter often having a binary form known as object code.
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. The cache’s help in data transfers by storing most recently used memory pages.
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. X.25 is an ITU-T standard protocol suite for packet switched wide area network (WAN) communication.
S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. The files which are required for the starting up of a system are stored on the ROM.
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. The load instruction is basically used to load the contents of a memory location onto a register.
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. In this method only when the routine is required is loaded and hence saves memory.
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. This mode of transfer involves the transfer of a large block of data from the memory.
S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. In this, only a part of the program getting executed is stored on the memory and later swapped in for the
other part.
S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. When a looping or branching operation is carried out the offset value is stored in the cache along with the
data.
S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. In super-scalar architecture, the instructions are set in groups and they’re decoded and executed together
reducing the amount of time required to process them
S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. A compiler is a computer program (or a set of programs) that transforms source code written in a
programming language (the source language) into another computer language (the target language), with the
latter often having a binary form known as object code.
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. An optimizing compiler is a compiler designed for the specific purpose of increasing the operation speed
of the processor by reducing the time taken to compile the program instructions.
-:NORMALIZATION:-
What is meant by Normalization in RDBMS?
Normalization is a systematic approach of decomposing tables to eliminate data redundancy and undesirable
characteristics like Insertion, Update and Deletion Anamolies.

Update anomalies − If data items are scattered and are not linked to each other properly, then it could lead to
strange situations. For example, when we try to update one data item having its copies scattered over several
places, a few instances get updated properly while a few others are left with old values. Such instances leave
the database in an inconsistent state.

Deletion anomalies – When you tried to delete a record, but parts of it was not deleted because of
unawareness, the data is also saved somewhere else.

Insert anomalies – When you tried to insert data in a record that does not exist at all.
Normalization is a method to remove all these anomalies and bring the database to a consistent state.

What are different types of Normal Forms?


1) 1st NF (1st normal form)
2) 2nd NF (2nd normal form)
3) 3rd NF (3rd normal form)
4) BCNF (BOYCE CODD NF)
5) 4th NF
6) 5th NF

1 NF (First Normal Form):


For First Normal form following rules must be followed:
 Every column in the table must be unique
 Separate tables must be created for each set of related data
 Each table must be identified with a unique column or concatenated columns called the primary key
 No rows may be duplicated
 no columns may be duplicated
 no row/column intersections contain a null value
 no row/column intersections contain multivalued fields

2NF (Second Normal Form):


Second normal form states that it should meet all the rules for 1NF and there must be no partial dependences
of any of the columns on the primary key.

A database is in second normal form if it satisfies the following conditions:


 It is in first normal form.
 All non-key attributes are fully functional dependent on the primary key.

Consider a table with following attributes:

CREATE TABLE LIBRARY(


ST_ID INT NOT NULL,
ST_NAME VARCHAR (30) NOT NULL,
BOOK_ID INT NOT NULL,
BOOK_NAME VARCHAR (20) NOT NULL,
AUTHOR_NAME CHAR (30) NOT NULL,
ISSUE_DATE DATETIME NOT NULL,
RETURN_DATE DATETIME NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (ST_ID, BOOK_ID)
);

This table is in first normal form, in that it obeys all the rules of first normal form. In this table, the
primary key consists of ST_ID and BOOK_ID.

However, the table is not in second normal form because there are partial dependencies of primary keys and
columns. ST_NAME is dependent on ST_ID, and there's no real link between a Student's name and what
book he issued. Book name and author are also dependent on BOOK_ID, but they are not dependent on
ST_ID, because there's no link between a ST_ID and an AUTHOR_NAME or their ISSUE_DATE.

To make this table comply with second normal form, you need to separate the columns into three tables.

First, create a table to store the STUDENT details as follows:

CREATE TABLE STUDENT(


ST_ID INT NOT NULL,
ST_NAME VARCHAR (20) NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (ST_ID)
);

Next, create a table to store details of each BOOK:

CREATE TABLE BOOKS(


BOOK_ID INT NOT NULL,
AUTHOR_NAME CHAR (20) NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (BOOK_ID)
);

Finally, create a third table storing just ST_ID and BOOK_ID to keep track of all the books issue to a
student:

CREATE TABLE LIBRARY_ISSUE(


ST_ID INT NOT NULL,
BOOK_ID INT NOT NULL,
ISSUE_DATE DATETIME NOT NULL,
RETURN_DATE DATETIME NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (ST_ID, BOOK_ID)
);

3NF (Third Normal Form)


First and foremost thing is that a table has to be in 2NF to be in 3NF. Next the rule is: remove to a new table
any non-key attributes that are more dependent on other non-key attributes than the table key. Ignore tables
with zero or only one non-key attribute (these go straight to 3NF with no conversion).
The process is as follows:

If a non-key attribute is more dependent on another non-key attribute than the table key:

 Move the dependent attribute, together with a copy of the non-key attribute upon which it is
dependent, to a new table.
 Make the non-key attribute, upon which it is dependent, the key in the new table. Underline the key in
this new table.
 Leave the non-key attribute, upon which it is dependent, in the original table and mark it a foreign key
.

Thus a table is in third normal form if:


 A table is in 2nd normal form.
 It contains only columns that are non-transitively dependent on the primary key.
Q1. What is the range of data type short in Java?
(a) -128 to 127
(b) -32768 to 32767
(c) -2147483648 to 2147483647
(d) -32768 to 2147483647

Q2. What is the range of data type byte in Java?


(a) -128 to 127
(b) -32768 to 32767
(c) -2147483648 to 2147483647
(e) -32768 to 2147483647

Q3. Which one of these literals can be contained in a data type float variable?
(a) 1.7e-308
(b) 3.4e-038
(c) 1.7e+308
(d) 3.4e-050

Q4. An expression involving byte, int, and literal numbers is promoted to Which one of these?
(a) int
(b) long
(c) byte
(d) float
(e)double

Q5. Which one of these operators is used to allocate memory to array variable in Java?
(a) malloc
(b) alloc
(c) new
(d) new malloc
(e) create

Q6. Which one of these is an incorrect Statement?


(a) It is necessary to use new operator to initialize an array.
(b) Array can be initialized using comma separated expressions surrounded by curly braces.
(c) Array can be initialized when they are declared.
(d) Array stores a fixed-size sequential collection of elements of the same type

Q7. What is the numerical range of a char in Java?


(a) -128 to 127
(b) 0 to 256
(c) 0 to 32767
(d) 0 to 65535

Q8. Which one of these coding types is used for data type characters in Java?
(a) ASCII
(b) ISO-LATIN-1
(c) UNICODE
(d)EBCDIC

Q9. Which one of these values can a Boolean variable contain?


(a) True & False
(b) 0 & 1
(c) Any integer value
(d) true

Q10. Which one of these occupy first 0 to 127 in Unicode character set used for characters in Java?
(a) ASCII
(b) ISO-LATIN-1
(c) None of the mentioned
(d) ASCII and ISO-LATIN1
(e)EBCDIC

Q11. Which of the following can be operands of arithmetic operators?


(a) Numeric
(b) Boolean
(c) Characters
(d) Both Numeric & Characters

Q12. Which one of these statements are incorrect?


(a) Assignment operators are more efficiently implemented by Java run-time system than their equivalent
long forms.
(b) Assignment operators run faster than their equivalent long forms.
(c) Assignment operators can be used only with numeric and character data type.
(d) += adds right operand to the left operand and assign the result to left operand.
(e) None of the above

Q13. Which one of these is not a bitwise operator?


(a) &
(b) &=
(c) |=
(d) <=
(e) All are bitwise operators.

Q14. Which one of these have highest precedence?


(a) ()
(b) ++
(c) --
(d) *
(e)>>

Q15. Which one of these selection statements test only for equality?
(a) if
(b) switch
(c) if & switch
(d)for

Solutions
S1. Ans.(B)
Sol. Short occupies 16 bits in memory. Its range is from -32768 to 32767.
S2. Ans.(A)
Sol. Byte occupies 8 bits in memory. Its range is from -128 to 127.
S3. Ans.(B)
Sol. Range of data type float is 3.4e-038 to 3.4e+308.
S4. Ans.(A)
Sol. An expression involving bytes, ints, shorts, literal numbers, the entire expression is promoted to int
before any calculation is done.
S5. Ans.(C)
Sol. Operator new allocates block of memory specified by the size of array, and gives the reference of
memory allocated to the array variable.
S6. Ans.(A)
Sol. Array can be initialized using both new and comma separated expressions surrounded by curly braces
example : int arr[5] = new int[5]; and int arr[] = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4};
S7. Ans.(D)
Sol. Char occupies 16-bit in memory, so it supports 2^16 i:e from 0 to 65535.
S8. Ans.(C)
Sol. Unicode defines fully international character set that can represent all the characters found in all human
languages. Its range is from 0 to 65536
S9. Ans.(A)
Sol. Boolean variable can contain only one of two possible values, true and false
S10. Ans.(D)
Sol. First 0 to 127 character set in Unicode are same as those of ISO-LAIN-1 and ASCII.
S11. Ans.(D)
Sol. The operand of arithmetic operators can be any of numeric or character type, But not boolean.
S12. Ans.(E)
Sol. All options are characteristic of assignment operator.
S13. Ans.(D)
Sol. In digital computer programming, a bitwise operation operates on one or more bit patterns or binary
numerals at the level of their individual bits. It is a fast, simple action directly supported by the processor, and
is used to manipulate values for comparisons and calculations.
S14. Ans.(A)
Sol. Order of precedence is a, b, c, d, e
S15. Ans.(B)
Sol. switch statements checks for equality between the controlling variable and its constant cases.
Q1. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the:
(a) system calls
(b) API
(c) library
(d) assembly instructions

Q2. Which one of the following is not true?


(a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
(b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
(c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
(d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session

Q3. By operating system, the resource management can be done via:


(a) time division multiplexing
(b) space division multiplexing
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the mentioned
(e) code division multiplexing

Q4. In operating system, each process has its own :


(a) address space and global variables
(b) open files
(c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
(d) all of the mentioned

Q5. What is the ready state of a process?


(a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
(b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
(c) when process is using the CPU
(d) none of the mentioned

Q6. A process stack does not contain which of the following?


(a) function parameters
(b) local variables
(c) return addresses
(d) PID of child process

Q7. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the:
(a) CPU registers
(b) program counter
(c) process stack
(d) pipe

Q8. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :
(a) Code
(b) Stack
(c) Heap
(d) bootstrap program
(e) Program Counter

Q9. The Process Control Block is :


(a) Process type variable
(b) Data Structure
(c) a secondary storage section
(d) a Block in memory

Q10. The objective of multi-programming is to :


(a) Have some process running at all times
(b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
(c) To minimize CPU utilization
(d) To maximize CPU utilization
(e) Both (a) and (d)

Q11. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on
a list called _____.
(a) job queue
(b) ready queue
(c) execution queue
(d) process queue
(e) priority queue

Q12. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
(a) first-come, first-served scheduling
(b) shortest job scheduling
(c) priority scheduling
(d) none of the mentioned
(e) last in last our scheduling

Q13. Time quantum is defined in:


(a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
(b) round robin scheduling algorithm
(c) priority scheduling algorithm
(d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q14. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
(a) kernel level thread
(b) user level thread
(c) process
(d) none of the mentioned
(e) kernel can schedule each thread

Q15. CPU scheduling is the basis of ____________.


(a) multiprocessor systems
(b) multiprogramming operating systems
(c) larger memory sized systems
(d) None of these
1. The UML designation for a public class member is
(1) the symbol @
(2) the symbol #
(3) the minus symbol (-)
(4) the plus symbol (+)
(5) the word public

2. A……………is an acyclic diagraph, which has only node with in-degree 0, and other nodes have
indegree 1.
(1) Dis-joint tree
(2) Direction oriented tree
(3) directed tree
(4) Diagonalised tree
(5) Undirected tree

3. Every host computer on the internet has a(n)


(1) similar IP address
(2) unique 10-digit number
(3) common name and number
(4) unique IP address
(5) unique 15-digit number

4. Built-in functions provided by SQL are?


(1) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, NAME
(2) MIN, MAX, MULT, DIV, NAME
(3) SUM, AVG, MULT, DIV, MIN
(4) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX , MULT
(5) COUNT, SUM, AVT, MAX, MIN

5. Which of the following is true regarding Common Gateway Interface (CGI)?


(1) An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in SQL.
(2) A small program that excutes within other application and is stored on the server.
(3) A small program that excutes within other application and is stored on the client.
(4) A small program that executes within other application and is stored on the client or the server.
(5) An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in any language that produces executable
file.

6. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet
10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?
(1) 0.0.0.0
(2) 0.0.0.255
(3) 0.0.0.240
(4) 0.0.0.31
(5) 0.0.15.0

7. What is the full form of DLCI?


(1) Data Link Circuit Identifier
(2) Data Link Connection Interrupt
(3) Data Link Connection Indicator
(4) Data Link Circuit Indicator
(5) Data Link Connection Identifier

8. Which of the following is used to create and delete views and relations within tables?
(1) SQL Data Identification Language
(2) SQL Data Identification and Manipulation Languages
(3) SQL Data Relational Language
(4) SQL Data Definition Language
(5) SQL Data Manipulation Language

9. What is the result of a SQL SELECT statement called?


(1) report
(2) file
(3) page
(4) table
(5) form

10. Which of the following is true for a CASE SQL statement?


(1) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a data definition in SQL or establish a loop in SQL
(2) CASE SQL statement a way to establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in SQL
(3) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a loop in SQL
(4) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a data definition in SQL
(5) Establish a loop in SQL and establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in SQL

Answers:
1.(4)
2.(3) A directed tree is an acyclic digraph, which has only one node with indegree 0, and others nodes have
indegree 1.
3.(4) An IP address is an identifier for a computer on a network. Thus, every computer on the internet have a
unique IP address.
4.(5) COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX and MIN are the built-in functions provided by SQL. DIV and MULT are
not available in SQL.
5.(5) Common Gatway Interface (CGI) is a specification for transferring information between a www server
and a CGI program. A CGI program is any program designed to accept and return data that conforms to the
CGI specification. The program could be written in any programming language including, C, Perl, JAVA or
Visual Basic.
6.(2) 0.0.0.255 matches all the packets that have the same first three octets. This is useful when you want to
match a subnet in which the subnet part comprises of the first three octets.
7.(5) The full form of DLCI Data Link Connection Identifier. A number of a private or switched virtual circuit
in a frame relay network that
tells the Frame Relay how to route the data. The DLCI field identifies which logical circuit the data travels
over.
8.(4) Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to define the datatbase structure or schema. Some of them are
CREATE, DROP, ALTER etc.
9.(4)
10.(2)
1. Which of the following is not a goal of transaction processing system?
Capture, process and store transactions
Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
Produce standard reports used for management decision making
None of the above
Answer : A transaction process system (TPS) is an information processing system for business transactions
involving the collection, modification and retrieval of all transaction data.Characteristics of a TPS include
performance, reliability and consistency. TPS is also known as transaction processing or real-time processing.

2. ‘Evolved Packet Core’ (EPC) is based on


POP core network
TCP core network
PPP core network
IP core network
None of these
Answer : the EPC is composed of four network elements: the Serving Gateway (Serving GW), the PDN
Gateway (PDN GW), the MME and the HSS.
The EPC is connected to the external networks, which can include the IP Multimedia Core Network
Subsystem (IMS).

3. The prominent ones among IG system were


Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS)
Nordic Mobile Telephone (NMT)
Total Access Communication System (TACS)
All of the above
None of the above

4. Data security threats include


hardware failure
privacy invasion
fraudulent manipulation of data
All of the above
None of these

5. How can you insert a sound file in your word document?


From Insert ® object menu option
From Insert ® sound menu option
From Insert ® file menu option
By right clicking the document and choosing ‘add sound’ option
None of the above

6. Macros are
small add-on programs that are installed afterwards if you need them
programming language that you can use to customize MS-word
large tools in word such as Mail Marge
small programs created in MS-work to automate repetitive tasks by using VBA
None of the above
Answer : A macro is a fragment of code which has been given a name. Whenever the name is used, it is
replaced by the contents of the macro. There are two kinds of macros.They differ mostly in what they look
like when they are used.

7. The cell reference for a range of cells that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column G and down row
10 is
B1– G10
B1. G10
B1, G10
B1 : G 10
B1’ , G 10

8. The chart wizard


can place a chart on a new chart sheet or on any sheet in the workbook
can only place a chart on new chart sheet
can only place a chart on a new blank worksheet
can only be used to create embedded charts
None of the above
Answer : A wizard found in the Microsoft Excel program that takes users step-by-step through the process of
creating a chart in Microsoft Excel. The Chart Wizard is accessible on the "Insert Menu", then you choose
"Chart".

9. Which of the following is not a relational database?


dBase IV
4th dimension
foxpro
reflex
None of them
Answer : A Relational database is a database structured to recognize relations between stored items of
information.

10. Append from command is used to


add records from a file
add records from a variable
add records from a stock
add records from information in an array
None of the above
Answer : The APPEND command is similar to the PATH command that tells DOS where to search for
program files (files with a .COM, .EXE, or .BAT filename extension).
The APPEND command guides the search for data files (such as text files).
Start Stop Reset.

●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●●
1. Which one of the following languages is the system programming language derived from Pascal and
intended for the defence application?
C-language
C++ language
FORTRAN
Ada
None of the above

2. Which one of the following memories is not the primary memory of a computer?
ROM
RAM
EEPROM
CD-ROM
Life style segmentation

3. What is the web crawler?


It is a computer program that browses the world wide web in an automated manner and in an orderly fashion
It is a computer program that browses the word wide web with the intention to use the free memory available
in the virtual world
It is a computer program that assists the world wised web to establish a quick search engine
It is a computer program that infects the files stored in the computer’s memory
None of the above

4. Which one of the following languages is not the scripting language?


Java script
Python
Perl
Lisp
Better technology

5. A proxy server is used for which of the following?


To provide security against unauthorised users
To process client requests for web pages
To process client requests for database access
To provides TCP/IP
The back office staff

6. Software designed for a specific purpose/application such as pay calculations, processing of


examination result etc. are known as
utility software
system software
application software
customized software
None of above

7. A data warehouse is which of the following?


Can be updated by the end users
Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
Organised around important subject areas
Contains only current data
None of the above

8. A packet filtering firewall operates at which of the following OSI layers?


At the application layer
At the transport layer
At the network layer
At the gateway layer
(2) and (3)

9. Which of the following key combination will perform the warm boot of computer?
Ctrl-Shift-Del
Ctrl-Alt-Delete
Alt-Shift-Enter
Spacebar-Shift-Enter
Ctrl-Alt-Enter

10. Viruses that fool a user into downloading and/or executing them by pretending to be useful
applications are also sometimes called
Trojan horse
keylogger
worm
cracker
None of these

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1. ‘TELNET’ is
(1) running complex programs by logging on to supercomputers belonging to other countries
(2) a telephone call made by the help of Internet
(3) a software to perfect viral attack
(4) All of the above

2. Which one of the following computer language is not the procedure-oriented language?
(1) C-language
(2) FORTRAN
(3) COBOL
(4) Simula

3. Which one of the following internet protocol version is the most deployed internet layer protocol?
(1) IPv2
(2) IPv4
(3) IPv6
(4) IPv8

4. Which one of the following malware is used in the Internet Relay chart channel or other chart system
to coordinate the activity of many infected computer?
(1) Keyloggers
(2) Adwares
(3) Dialers
(4) Botnets

5. Which one of the following rebooting commonly occurs when the system of computer is crashed?
(1) Soft rebooting
(2) Cold rebooting
(3) Hard rebooting
(4) Random rebooting

6. Which one of the following computers is the world’s first commercial computer?
(1) Ferranti Mar-I
(2) Mark-I Star
(3) UNIVAC-I
(4) IBM-704

7. The advantage of a LAN is


(1) sharing peripherals
(2) backing up your data
(3) saving all your data
(4) accessing the web
(5) automatic printing of data

8. A tree like structure of records in a database


(1) hierarchical database structure
(2) relational database structure
(3) multidimensional database structure
(4) sequential database access

9. The memory address of the first element of an array is called


(1) floor address
(2) foundation address
(3) first address
(4) base address

10. The PHP Syntax is most similar to


(1) PERL and C
(2) Java script
(3) VB script
(4) Visual Basic

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1. Which one of the following applications uses the UNIX as an operating system?
(1) Internet Servers
(2) Work stations
(3) Mobile devices
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

2. What is URL?
(1) It is software used in the defragmentation of disk of computer
(2) It is software to make the computer screen bright
(3) It is specific character straight that constitutes a reference to an internet resource
(4) It is a specific uniform alignment of the computer software to make run it faster
(5) None of the above

3. What is the Pel?


(1) It is the smallest, controllable element of a picture represented on the screen
(2) It is a high-level programming used in web browsing
(3) It is the hardware used to debug the computer when it crashed
(4) It is a netbook with high quality of wi-fi capability
(5) None of the above

4. A goal of normalization is to
(1) minimize the number of relationship
(2) minimize the number of entities
(3) minimize the number of tables
(4) minimize the number of redundancy
(5) None of the above

5. The primary purpose of an operating system is


(1) to make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
(2) to allow people to use the computer
(3) to keep systems programmers employed
(4) to make computers easier to use
(5) None of the above

6. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ copy was clicked, what would happened?
(1) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(2) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(3) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(4) (2) and (3)
(5) None of the above

7. Modules are
(1) a selection of commands used to automatic repetitive tasks
(2) programs written in visual basic
(3) object tabs
(4) a group of record
(5) None of the above

8. A transaction processing system is concerned with


(1) operational day-to-day activities.
(2) strategic decision making support
(3) a large database of specialized knowledge
(4) support for an organisation’s management needs
(5) None of the above

9. Which of the following data structure cannot store the non-homogeneous data elements?
(1) Arrays
(2) Records
(3) Pointers
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

10. Database management systems are intended to


(1) eliminate data redundancy
(2) establish relationship among the records in different files
(3) manage file access
(4) maintain data integrity
(5) All of the above
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1. Which one is method of the Object class?
notify();
sleep();
yield();
interrupt();
is Interrupted();

2. Which one is a DCL command?


merge();
call();
select();
top();
grant();

3. X.25 standard specifies


technique for start-stop data
technique for dial access
DTE/DCE interface
data bit rate
None of the above

4. Which one is a DML command?


comment()
create()
insert()
rename()
drop()

5. Routing is done on which layer


Datalink Layer
Network Layer
Session Layer
Presentation Layer
Application Layer

6. What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values?
Inner join
Outer join
equi join
None of these
All of these

7. Process is :
program in High level language kept on disk
contents of main memory
a program in execution
a job in secondary memory
None of the above

8. Default network mask for CLASS A is


255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255
None of these

9. Black box testing sometimes called :


Data flow testing
Loop testing
Behavioral testing
Graph based testing
None of these

10. White box testing sometimes called :


Basic Path
Graph Testing
Data flow testing
Glass box testing
None of these

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1. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
sender
receiver
sender and receiver
all the connected devices to the network
None of these

2. SMTP is ________ protocol.


application layer
transport layer
network layer
session layer
none of the above

3. UDP is ________ protocol.


application layer
transport layer
network layer
session layer
None of the above

4. The size of IP address in IPv6 is


16 bits
32 bits
128 bits
512 bits
None of these

5. Dual-stack approach refers to


Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
All of the above
None of the above

6. IPv6 doesnot use ______ type of address


Broadcast
Multicast
Anycast
All of the above
None of the above

7. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which
of the following delays could be zero
Propogation delay
Transmission delay
Queuing delay
Processing delay
None of the above

8. Propagation delay depends on


Distance between the routers
Packet length
Transmission rate
all of the above
None of these

9. Transmission delay does not depend on


Packet length
Distance between the routers
Transmission rate
All of the above
None of these

10. Transmission control protocol is


connection oriented protocol
uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
recievs data from application as a single stream
All of the above
None of these

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1. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used :
To create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects
To create a database trigger
To add/rename data files, to change storage
All of the above
None of the above

2. 'AS' clause is used in SQL for


Selection operation
Rename operation
Join operation
Projection operation
none of the above

3. In SQL, the CREATE VIEW command is used :


To re-compile view
To define a view of one or more tables or views
To re-compile a table
To create a trigger
None of the above

4. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database ?
REMOVE FUNCTION
DELETE FUNCTION
DROP FUNCTION
ERASE FUNCTION
None of these

5. Which command is used to remove an index from the database in SQL?


DELETE INDEX
DROP INDEX
REMOVE INDEX
ROLLBACK INDEX
None of the above

6. In SQL, GRANT command is used to


Allow user to access database
Allow user to create database
Grant system privileges, roles and object privileges to uses and roles
Choose auditing for specific SQL commands
None of the above

7. In SQL, which command(s) is (are) used to remove rows from a table :


DELETE
REMOVE
TRUNCATE
Both (a) and (c)
None of the above

8. In SQL, which statement is used to select employee number (EMP_NO) and Department (DEPT)
from (EMPLE) table whose salary (SALARY) is 8000?
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT FROM EMPL=8000
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT FROM EMPL WHERE SALARY=8000
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT, SALARY=8000 FROM EMPL
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT, FROM TABLE EMPL WHEN SALARY-800
None of these

9. Multivalued dependencies should ________ be eliminated.


always
commonly
seldom
never
None of these

10. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in:


braces -- {...}
CAPITAL LETTERS
parenthesis -- (...)
brackets -- [...]
None of these

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IT Officer Quiz (DBMS)
1. Which is not a component of a relational database?
Entity
Attribute
Table
hierarchy
All of the above

2. Fifth Normal form is concerned with


Functional dependency
Join dependency
Multivalued dependency
Domain-key
none of the above

3. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______.
Key
Key revisited
Superset key
All of the above
None of the above

4. Which is a unary operation:


Selection operation
Primitive operation
Projection operation
Generalized selection
None of these

5. A _____ indicates an absent value that may exist but be unknown or that may not exist at all.
Empty tuple
New value
NULL value
Old value
None of the above

6. Using the ______ clause retains only one copy of such identical tuples.
Null
Unique
Not Null
Distinct
None of the above

7. The primary key must be


Unique
Not Null
Both (a) and (b)
Either a or b
None of the above
8. The normal form which satisfies multivalued dependencies and which is in BCNF is
4 NF
3 NF
2 NF
1 NF
All of the mentioned

9. Representations such as the in the dept year relation, with one column for each value of an attribute,
are called _______; they are widely used in spreadsheets and reports and in data analysis tools.
Cross-tabs
Snapshot
Both (a) and (b)
All of the above
None of these

10. The logical data structure with a one-to-many relationship is :


Network
Tree
Chain
Relational
None of these

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IT Officer Quiz (NETWORKING)

1. The topology with highest reliability is:


Bus topology
Star topology
Ring topology
Mesh topology
Bus and Ring

2. Expansion of SMTP is
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Simple Message Transfer Protocol
Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
Simple Message Transmission Protocol
none of the above

3. Error detection at the data link level is achieved by


Cyclic Redundancy Code
Hamming Code
Bit Stuffing
Equalization
None of the above

4. The Network topology that supports bi-directional links between each possible node is
Ring
Bus
Star
Mesh
None of these

5. In a broad Sense, a railway track is an example of


Simplex
Half Duplex
Full Duplex
All of these
None of the above

6. Time required for a message to travel from one device to another is known as:
Transit time
Dialogue time
Response time
Wait time
None of the above

7. FTP is ________ protocol.


application layer
Network Layer
Transport layer
Session layer
None of the above

8. TCP is ________ protocol.


Transport layer
application layer
Network Layer
Session layer
None of these

9. Sockets are used in


Physical Layer
Data link Layer
Network Layer
Transport Layer
None of these

10. A data communication system requires


Terminal device
Communication channel
Protocols
All of these
None of these

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1. The ARP is a part of the ______layer of the TCP/IP network.
Application
Network
Transport
Physical
All of the above

2. ATM cells are


53 bytes
48 bytes
56 bytes
35 bytes
none of the above

3. Count to infinite problem is used in


Distance vector routing
Flow based routing
Link State Routing
Flooding
None of the above

4. Which of the following is operating system call ?


CREATE
LINK
SYSTEM
All of these
None of these

5. _________allows you to upload web pages.


HTTP
TCP
HTML
UDP
None of the above

6. Yacc is available as a command (utility) on the—


MINIX
DOS
DOC
UNIX
None of the above

7. In WWW, when hypertext pages are mixed with other media, the result is called—
Mediamix
External viewer
Hypermedia
Helper application
None of the above

8. Which of the following is not used as a data structure?


Array
Linked list
Graph
Directory
None of these

9. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?


Fault prevention
Fault removal
Fault tolerance
All of the above
None of these

10. The CMM model is a technique to


automatically maintain the software reliability
improve the software process.
test the software
All of the above
None of these
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OPERATING SYSTEM

1. SPOOLING is an acronym for:


simultaneous peripheral operation online
simultaneous process operation online
system peripheral operation online
simultaneous peripheral operation onlining
none of the above

2. Necessary coditions for Resource Deadlock


Mutual Exclusion
Hold-and-wait
No-Preemption
Circular-wait
All of the above

3. Address Binding is :
going to an address in memory
locating an address with the help of another address
binding two addresses together to form a new address in a different memory space
a mapping from one address space to another
None of the above

4. The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.


User
CPU
CPU manager
memory manager
None of these

5. What is correct way the segmentation program address is stored ?


name, offset
start, stop
access, rights
offset, rights
None of the above

6. Thrashing can be avoided if


the pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
the speed of CPU is increased
the speed of I/O processor is increased
all of the above
None of the above

7. ............. time is expressed as turnaround time less actual execution time.


Response
CPU
Waiting
Process
8. Page stealing
is a sign of an efficient system
is taking page frames from other working sets
should be the tuning goal
is taking larger disk spaces for pages paged out
None of these

9. Which one is not a system tool?


Backup
Disk defragment
Virus scanning
All of the above
None of these

10. Memory tables are used to keep the track of


Real and Virtual Memory
I/O Devices
Resources
I/O Modules+J77
None of these

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IT Officer Quiz(Web Technology)

1. Which one of these is not a valid pseudo class in CSS3?


:middle-child
:first-child
:last-child
:nth-child(n)
all of the above

2. In Bootstrap Framework, which one of the following class will work only in mobile devices?
col-sm-12
col-xs-12
col-md-12
col-lg-12
none of these

3. How can you make an email link


<a href="mailto:xxx@y.com">
<mail href +xxx@y.com="">
<mail href="mailto:xxx@y.com">
both (b) and (c)
None of the above

4. What is the correct way of describing XML data?


XML uses a DTD to describe data
XML uses a description node to describe data
XML uses XSL to describe the data
XML uses a validator to describe the data
None of these

5. What method is used to specify a container's layout in JSP?


setLayout()
Layout()
setContainerLayout()
ContainerLayout()
setConLayout()

6. Which class in JSP provides the capability to implement a growable array of objects?
Vector class
GrowAbleArray class
Container class
Array class
DynamicArray class

7. Comments in XML document is given by:


<?----------->
<!----------!>
<!----------->
</----------->
None of the above

8. Which HTML tag would be used to display power in expression (A+B) 2 ?


<sub>
<sup>
<p>
<b>
None of these

9. Which of the following is an attribute of <Table> tag?


SRC
LINK
CELLPADDING
All of the above
None of these

10. A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?
picture
im
img
src
None of these

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1. To set a register or counter to the all-zero-state is


rerun
reset
release
remote
All of the above

2. ........is a technique of temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory of computer
system.
Swapping
Spooling
Semaphore
Schedulers
none of the above

3. .......is a technique of improving the priority of process waiting in Queue for CPU allocation.
Ageing
Starvation
Revocation
Relocation
None of the above

4. The memory address of the first element of an array is called :


floor address
foundation address
first address
base address
None of these

5. World Wide Web is being standard by


W3C
Worldwide corporation
World Wide Consortium
World Wide Web Standard
None of the above

6. Which of the following lines of code comes from a first-generation computer language?
ADD 255(3,10), 02B(4,5)
set total to sum of totalsset total to sum of totals
this Total = TotalA + TotalC
00010 1010 1101 0001 1010
None of the above

7. Merge sort uses ?


Backtracking approach
Heuristic search
Divide and conquer strategy
Greedy approach
None of the above

8. A vertex of degree one is called


padent
isolated vertex
null vertex
colored vertex
None of these

9. In b-tree the number of keys in each node is ____ than the number of its children.
same
one more
half
one less
None of these

10. What is the result of the following operationTop (Push (S, X))
null
X
s
All of the above
None of these
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IT Officer Quiz on Networking

1. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?


FDM
TDM
GDM
WDM
None of the above

2. _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable.
Coaxial; twisted-pair
Coaxial; fiber-optic
Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
none of the above

3. Which of the following field of the TCP header tells how many bytes may be sent starting at the byte
acknowledged ?
Window size
TCP header length
Acknowledgement number
Urgent pointer
None of the above

4. Which of these is not an advantage of Optical fibers


Immune to electromagnetic interference
Less signal attenuation
greater immunity to tapping
easy installation and maintenance
None of these

5. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser can access a
service using a server.
limited
distributed
vast
All of these
None of the above

6. which of the following is not a field in the Ethernet Message packet?


Pin-code
type
data
Address
None of the above

7. Telnet is ________ protocol.


application layer
Network Layer
Transport layer
Session layer
None of the above

8. Compression is part of
Presentation layer
application layer
Network Layer
Session layer
None of these

9. Select the wrong data communication system component:


Medium
Protocol
Receiver
Transits
None of these

10. An HTTP request message always contains _______.


a header and a body
header
a status line, a header, and a body
a request line and a header
None of these
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IT Officer Quiz on DBMS

1. A subset of data in a data warehouse in the form of summary data, related to a particular
department or business function:
Meta Data
Archive data
Operational Data Store
Data Marts

2. A scheme describe :
Data Elements
Record and files
Record relationship
all of the above

3. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is?


Instance
View
Scheme
All of the above

4. Tuple in relational algebra refers to:


table
relation
column
row

5. A logical schema
Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
is the entire Database
is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
all of the above

6. ................. clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.


order by
group by
select
Having

7. Which one is a DCL command?


drop
call
revoke
pop
select

8. The tables generated on compilation of data definition language are stored in?
Data dictionary
Data abstraction
Data File
Data meta
All of the mentioned

9. The distinguishable parts of a record are called :


Field
Files
Data
All of the above

10. ...........Command extracts data from a database?


open
select
get
extract
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IT Officer Quiz (DBMS)

1. Which one is not a logical database structure:


Chain
Tree
Relational
Network

2. Initial state of transaction


Committed
Failed
Aborted
Partially committed
Active

3. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of ............


Entity
Table
Attribute
Relation

4. The rule that always generate true dependencies is called


referential rule
inferential rule
closure rule
reflexive rule

5. Which one is not a basic property of transaction:


Activity
Atomicity
Isolation
Durability
Consistency

6. The normal form which is based on the transitive dependency is


third normal form
second normal form
first normal form
fourth normal form

7. BCNF is an extended form of............


1NF
2NF
3NF
4NF

8. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.


second
first
fourth
third

9. How many rules are there is E.F. Codd's Rule?


10
9
12
13
11

10. Which of the SQL statements is correct?


SELECT Username, Password FROM Users
SELECT Username AND Password FROM Users
SELECT Username, Password WHERE Username = 'user1'
SELECT Username AND Password FROM Users WHERE Username = 'user1'
None of these
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1. What is right way to Initialize array?


int n{} = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
int n{6} = { 2, 4, 12 };
int n(6) = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
int num[6] = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
All of the above

2. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by


Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm
Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm
Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm
Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm

3. A technique for direct search is


Hashing
Binary Search
Tree Search
Linear Search

4. Which of the following function is used to find the first occurrence of a given string in another
string?
strchr()
strrchr()
strnset()
strstr()

5. <b>tag makes the enclosed text bold. What is other tag to make text bold?
<sup>
<black>
<strong>
<emp>

6. The Internet was launched in 1969 when the United States funded a project that developed a
national computer network called
Web
ISP
CERN
ARPANET

7. Design phase includes?


data,architectural and procedural designs only
architectural,procedural and interface design only
data,architectural interface and procedural design
data,architectural and interface design only

8. Which of the following code creates an object?


var book = new Object();
var book = Object();
var book = new OBJECT();
var book = new Book();

9. How can you make a numbered list?


<ol>
<dl>
<ul>
<list>

10. Which of the following is an aggregate function ?


PLUS
Count
ABS
Minimum

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1. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure?


Array
Tree
Graph
Both (b) & (c)

2. A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the…………


Compiler
Loader
Operating system
Assembler

3. A function inside another function is called a function


Round
Sum
Text
Nested

4. In priority scheduling algorithm


CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
equal priority processes can not be scheduled
randomly scheduled
CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

5. The full form of RMI :


Remote Method Invocation
Remote Memory Invocation
Remote Method Installation
Remote Memory Installation
Consistency

6. Acceptance testing is also known as


Beta testing
White box testing
Grey box testing
Alpha Testing

7. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as


IF-THEN-ELSE rules
IF-THEN rules
Both a & b
None of these

8. Where does the bayes rule can be used?


Solving queries
Answering probabilistic query
Decreasing complexity
Increasing complexity
None of these

9. What is the dominant modality for communication between humans?


Hear
Smell
Speech
All of the above
10. LIFO is ______ where as FIFO is ________?
Stack, Queue
Queue, Stack
Priority Queue, Stack
Stack. Priority Queue
None of these
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IT Officer Quiz (Networking)

1. Ping sweep is a part of


Traceroute
Route
Ipconfig
Nmap
None of the above

2. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
route
Ifconfig
Ipconfig
Traceroute

3. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____ of HTTP message
Request line
Header line
Status line
Entity body

4. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?


TTL
flag
identifer
offset

5. SNMP is ________ protocol.


network layer
session layer
application layer
transport layer

6. If 4 files are transfered from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connection
between A and B is
2
3
8
5

7. DNS database contains


name server records
hostname-to-address records
hostname aliases
all of the above

8. SONET is a _______ TDM system.


synchronous
asynchronous
statistical

9. The cyclic codes are fast when these are implemented in


hardware
software
Local area network
Wide area network

10. What is data encryption standard (DES)?


stream cipher
block chiper
bit cipher
byte cipher
None of these
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IT Officer Quiz (DBMS)

1. A deadlock exists in the system if and only if the wait-for graph contains a ___________.
Direction
Bi-direction
Rotation
Cycle

2. Referential integrity controls relationships between :


attributes in a table
operations of an object
instances of a class
tables in a database

3. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
create a complete backup of the operational database only.
clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
test any changes on a test database only.
All of the above should be done.

4. What is true about 4 NF ?


if a table is in a BCNF
contains multivalued dependencies
contains no multivalued dependencies
if a table is in a BCNF and contains no multivalued dependencies

5. The overall design of a database is called?


Structure of the database
The screen of database
Scheme of the database
View of the database

6. 2 NF is based on the concept of


Multivalued dependency
Join dependency
Functional dependency
All of the above

7. What is true about Growing phase ?


transaction may obtain locks
may release any lock
transaction may obtain locks but may not release any lock
transaction may release locks but may not obtain any new locks

8. What is true about Shrinking phase ?


transaction may release locks but may not obtain any new locks
transaction may obtain locks but may not release any lock
transaction may obtain locks and may release any lock
transaction may release locks

9. In SQl, which command(s) is/are used to enable/disable a database trigger


ALTER VIEW
CREATE VIEW
DEFINE VIEW
COMPILE VIEW

10. A computer file contains several records. What does each record contains?
Bytes
Field
Words
Database
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1. Comments in HTML document is given by:


<!-- --!>
<?-- -->
</-- -->
<!-- -->

2. tag can be placed within ________


Header
Body
Link
both (a) & (b)

3. When we write something on the disk, which one of the following can not happen?
total failure
partial failure
successful completion
All of the above
None of the above

4. When the processor recieves the request from a device, it responds by sending _____
Acknowledge signal
Open grant signal
Response signal
BUS grant signal

5. The priority of a process will ______________ if the scheduler assigns it a static priority.
change
depends on the service
remain unchanged
depends on the operating system
6. The pipelining process is also called as ______.
Superscalar operation
Von neumann cycle
open operation
Assembly line operation

7. In Oracle, who owns the data dictionary?


Oracle
The DBA
SYSTEM
SYS

8. Leaves of which of the following trees are at the same level?


B-Tree
Binary tree
AVL-tree
Expression tree

9. Grammar that produce more than one Parse tree for same sentence is:
Ambiguous
Unambiguous
Complementation
Concatenation Intersection

10. disadvantage of first Come First Serve :


Non-preemptive
Convoy Effect
Simplicity
Small average and worst-case waiting times

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1. Which keyword is used to specify the exception thrown by method?


catch
finally
throw
throws

2. Which of the following blocks always execute


throws
throw
Record relationship
finally

3. Which architecture is used when there is a high volume of transactions to be processed by the
server?
Multi-tier client–server architecture
Master-slave architecture
Distributed component architecture
Peer-to-peer architecture

4. The virus that affect the operating system are.............


Boot Infector
EXE Infector
System Infector
All of the above

5. Which of the following is not a dimension of scalability?


Size
Distribution
Interception
Manageability

6. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________.
Forward engineering
Reverse Engineering
Reengineering.
(a) & (b)

7. Which one is a DDL command?


revoke
call
drop
grant
select

8. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software?
cluster testing
thread-based testing
use-based testing
All of the above

9. I/O function allows to exchange data directly between an


I/O module and the processor
Process States
Registers
I/o devices

10. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or
it must be null.
referential integrity constraint
entity integrity rule
action assertion
composite attribute
None of these
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1. Handshaking is
synchronous type
asynchronous
sequential
All of these

2. Servers handle requests for other domains


directly
it is not possible
by contacting remote DNS server
Traceroute

3. The domain name system is maintained by


distributed database system
a single server
a single computer
All of the above

4. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically.
manual
automatic
semiautomatic
all of the above

5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as


pure ethernet
ethernet over SDH
ethernet over MPLS
all of the above

6. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.
application
physical
transport
data link

7. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?


FDM
ADM
WDM
TDM

8. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.


orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
time division multiplexing
space division multiplexing

9. StarBand provides
Satellite access
FTTH internet access
Cable access
Telephone access

10. Application layer is implemented in


NIC
End system
Ethernet
all of the above
None of these
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1. The CMM Level at which measurable goals for quality and productivity are established in
(1) Level 1
(2) Level 3
(3) Level 5
(4) Level 4
(5) Level 2

2. When you will visit websites spyware may be substantially downloaded. This is called a
(1) logic bomb
(2) drive-by download
(3) virus
(4) drive-in download
(5) spyot

3. Frame relay
(1) Does not use error correction routines
(2) is used by facsimile machines
(3) uses error-correction routines
(4) does not work weel on the internet
(5) is an outdated technology

4. Which of the following is not a testable Web App security element?


(1) Encryption
(2) Authentication and Encryption
(3) Firewalls
(4) Authentication
(5) Penetration

5. ………………are two Important technologies for developing the Semantic web.


(1) XML and RDF
(2) XML and HTML
(3) RDF and HTML
(4) Wi-Fi and RDF
(5) Wi-Fi and XML

6. Which type of computers uses the 8 bits code called EBCDIC?


(1) Mini computers
(2) Micro computers
(3) Mainframe computers
(4) Super computers

7. A computer mouse moves over the table surface whereas the trackball is
(1) stationary
(2) difficult to move
(3) dragged
(4) moved in small stems

8. Bit map terminal


(1) support display containing multiple window
(2) requires considerable amount of video RAM
(3) requires tremendous amount of copying and hence low performance
(4) All of the above

9. RATS stands for


(1) Regression Analysis Time Series
(2) Regression Analysis Time Sharing
(3) Real Analysis Time Series
(4) Research Analysis Time Series

10. A storage device where the access time is dependent upon the location of the data is
(1) random access
(2) serial access
(3) sequential access
(4) transaction access
(5) None of these
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1. What is the host IP of a system having the
IP address 192.0.0.10?
(a) 192
(b) 0.10
(c) 0.0.10
(d) 192.0

2. Which of the following is record based logical


model?
(a) Network Model
(b) Object oriented model
(c) E‐R Model
(d) None of these

3.The Metal Oxide Semiconductor (MOS) is a _______ transistor that depends to the flow of only one
type of carrier, which may be electrons or holes.
(a) Unipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) N-polar
(d) S-polar

4.Which of the following are loaded into main memory when the computer is booted? Internal
command instructions
a) External command instructions
b) Utility programs
c)Word Processing Instruction
d)None of these

5. Computer read which type code?


a. Binary code
b. English letter
c.Character
d.Integer

6. None planer graph with minimum number of vertices have____.


A) 9 edges, 6 vertices
B) 6 edges, 4 vertices
c) 10 edges, 5 vertices
D) 9 edges, 5 vertices

7.Which of the following is NOT a transmission technology?


A) Broadcast linking
B) Narrowcast linking
C) Point to point linking
D) All of these
8. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
(a) The name of all fields in all files.
(b) The width of all fields in all files.
(c) The data type of all fields in all files.
(d) All of the above.

9. A file manipulation command that extracts


some of the records from a file is called
(a) SELECT
(b) PROJECT
(c) JOIN
(d) PRODUCT

10.The physical location of a record is determined


by a mathematical formula that transforms a file
key into a record location is:
(a) B‐Tree File
(b) Hashed File
(c) Indexed File
(d) Sequential file.

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1. Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by
(A) Linker
(B) Loader
(C) Compiler
(D) Editor
Ans: (A)

2. Relocatable programs
(A) cannot be used with fixed partitions
(B) can be loaded almost anywhere in memory
(C) do not need a linker
(D) can be loaded only at one specific location
Ans: (B)

3. Page stealing
(A) is a sign of efficient system
(B) is taking page frames other working sets
(C) should be the tuning goal
(D) is taking larger disk spaces for pages paged out
Ans: (B)

4. The total time to prepare a disk drive mechanism for a block of data to be read from is its
(A) latency
(B) latency plus transmission time
(C) latency plus seek time
(D) latency plus seek time plus transmission time
Ans: (C)

5. To avoid race condition, the maximum number of processes that may be simultaneously inside the
critical section is
(A) zero
(B) one
(C) two
(D) more than two
Ans: (B)

6.The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


(A) segmentation
(B) swapping
(C) pure demand paging
(D) multiple fixed contiguous partitions
Ans: (A)

7. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the


(A) processes tend to the I/O-bound
(B) size of pages is reduced
(C) processes tend to be CPU-bound
(D) locality of reference is applicable to the process
Ans: (D)

8. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?


(A) FIFO
(B) LRU
(C) LFU
(D) NRU
Ans: (A)

9. Which of the following are language processors?


(A) Assembler
(B) Compiler
(C) Interpreter
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

10. Virtual memory can be implemented with


(A) Segmentation
(B) Paging
(C) None
(D) all of the above
Ans: (D)
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1. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?
(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 2550.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0

2. What is loopback address?


(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 127.0.0.0

3. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a


(A) Bus network
(B) Ring network
(C) Star network
(D) None of these

4. A networking device that receives a signal on an electromagnetic or an optical transmission medium,


amplifies the signal,and then retransmits it along the medium is called
(A) Router
(B) Hub
(C) transmitter
(D) Repeater

5. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?


(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0

6. UTP stands for


(A) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(B) Unshielded Twisted Port
(C) Uniformly Twisted Pair
(D) None

7. Which of the following organization defines standards for modems?


(A) IEEE
(B) CCITT
(C) BELL
(D) None

Ans. (B)
CCITT (Consultative Committee for International Telephony
and Telegraphy)The CCITT, now known as the ITU-T (for Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the
International Telecommunications Union), is the primary international body for
fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and systems.

8. Which topology requires a hub?


(A) Ring
(B) Star
(C) Bus
(D) None

9. Which OSI layer divides a file into segments that are an efficient size
for routing?
(A) Transport Layer
(B) Network Layer
(C) Data link Layer
(D) None

10. FDDI stands for


(A) Fiber Data Distribution Interface
(B) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
(C) Fixed Data Distribution Interface
(D) None of these
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1. Which layer is the closest to transmission medium?


(A) Transport layer
(B) Physical layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (B) Physical layer

2. Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?


(A) TCP/IP
(B) Spanning Tree Protocol
(C) SMTP
(D) None
Ans - (B) Spanning Tree Protocol

3. What kind of scheme is the http protocol?


(A) get/put
(B) request/response
(C) store/forward
(D) queuing
Ans - (B) request/response

4. Which layer of OSI determines the interface of the system with the user?
(A) Session layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (B) Application layer

5. Which of the following is an example of client-server model?


(A) FTP
(B) DNS
(C) TELNET
(D) All of the above
Ans - (D) All of the above

6. At which layer TCP/IP defines two protocols: Transmission Control Protocol(TCP) and User
Datagram Protocol(UDP)?
(A) Transport layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (A) Transport layer

7. Which of the following uses the greatest number of layers in the OSI model?
(A) Bridge
(B) Repeater
(C) Router
(D) Gateway
Ans - (D) Gateway

8. Which Protocol use link state routing?


(A) OSPF
(B) IGRP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Ans - (A) Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF and IS-IS, create a
topology of the network and place themselves at the root of the tree.Link-state protocols implement an
algorithm called the shortest path first (SPF, also known as Dijkstra's Algorithm) to determine the path to a
remote destination.

9. Which PPP Protocol provides authentication and dynamic addressing?


(A) LCP
(B) NCP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Ans - (A) Link Control Protocol (LCP)
PPP - Point-to-Point Protocol

10. Which of the following layer is the network support layer?


(A) Physical layer
(B) Data link layer
(C) Network layer
(D) All of the above
Ans - (D) All of the above

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