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IBPS SO Prelims Full Length Mock Test 1 (PYQ) (IT)
Q1 Direction: Which of the following phrases (1), correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it
(2), and (3) given below each sentence should is, mark ‘No Improvement’ as the answer.
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to The Supreme Court on May 12, in a judgment,
make the sentence grammatically correct? said there are meritorious promises and
Choose the best option among the five given uncertainty in the processing of the Protection
alternatives that reflect the correct use of the of Women from Sexual Harassment Act, leaving
phrase in the context of the grammatically many working women no choice but to leave
correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it their jobs.
is, mark ‘No Improvement’ as the answer. 1.serious blunders and unreliability in the
People with obstructive sleep apnoea may be execution
at significant higher risk of suffering long 2.serious lapses and uncertainty in the
Covid, according to a study. implementation
1.from excessive increased risk of suffering 3.severe problems and ramifications in the
2.at significantly higher risk of suffering develop
3.at comparatively increased risk of suffering (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these
(E) None of these
Q4 Direction: Which of the following phrases (1),
Q2 Direction: Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence should
(2), and (3) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct?
make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given
Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of the
alternatives that reflect the correct use of the phrase in the context of the grammatically
phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it
correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No Improvement’ as the answer.
is, mark ‘No Improvement’ as the answer. With its decades of experience in conducting
These high temperatures play a very definitely human clinical trials, it makes eminent sense to
role in the diversification of cyclonic storms as rope down the ICMR to design and conduct
they infuse more convection. this trials.
1. A much importance for the formation 1.talk the ICMR into designing and conducting
2. An extremely crucial role in the intensification these
3. A very important role in the intensification 2.engage the ICMR for design and conduction
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 2 and 3 of this
(C) Only 1 and 2 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 3.rope in the ICMR to design and conduct these
(E) None of these (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) All 1,2 and 3
(E) None of these
(2), and (3) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to Q5 Direction: Which of the following phrases (1),
make the sentence grammatically correct? (2), and (3) given below each sentence should
Choose the best option among the five given replace the phrase printed in bold letters to
alternatives that reflect the correct use of the make the sentence grammatically correct?
phrase in the context of the grammatically Choose the best option among the five given
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alternatives that reflect the correct use of the phrase in the context of the grammatically
phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it
correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No improvement’ as the answer.
is, mark ‘No improvement’ as the answer.
In a global economic landscape characterised
by growing competition between the US and
Unless the US takes substantive steps to China, especially in the realm of artificial
addressal the persisting green card backlog, it intelligence, there is a significant concern
risks losing a significant pool of skilled between executives to major US tech
professionals to its northern neighbours and companies that they are hamstrung by the
other countries. obstacles put in place by the country’s
1. Implements significant measures to deal with immigration system in recruiting top-notch
the international talent.
2. Introduces effective initiatives to suggest the 1. A significant concern among executives of
3. takes substantive steps to address the 2. An important issue among executives of
3. A substantial worry between executives of
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (A) Only 1 and 2
(E) No improvement (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) No improvement
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to
make the sentence grammatically correct? Q8 Direction: Which of the following phrases (1),
Choose the best option among the five given (2), and (3) given below each sentence should
alternatives that reflect the correct use of the replace the phrase printed in bold letters to
phrase in the context of the grammatically make the sentence grammatically correct?
correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it Choose the best option among the five given
is, mark ‘No improvement’ as the answer. alternatives that reflect the correct use of the
phrase in the context of the grammatically
Considering the strong technology ecosystem correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it
that exists in India, the country is placed well to is, mark ‘No improvement’ as the answer.
playing a crucial role in shaping the global AI
regulatory framework.
India's triumphant moon land underscore the
1. excelling in the sphere of significance of blending basic scientific
2. well placed to play a crucial role in expertise with ingenuity and pursuing ambitious
3. ready to take a significant role in objectives despite prior setbacks.
1. Landing underscores the significance of
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 2. Landing undermines the essence of
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 3. Landing highlights the importance of
(E) No improvement
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) No improvement
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to
make the sentence grammatically correct? Q9 Directions: Sentences given in each question,
Choose the best option among the five given when properly sequenced form a coherent
alternatives that reflect the correct use of the paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a

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letter. Choose the most logical order of (E)It would be like holding a business meeting in
sentences amongst the five choices given to a football field.
construct a paragraph. (F)Indeed, that would indicate a failure to take
the student body along with them.
(G)The proposal to relocate the meet to a trade
A. Judicial observations are published out of fair facility is completely inappropriate.
context just to provide good headline copy, (A) BDAFGEC (B) CBFADGE
and sometimes, there is outright misquotation. (C) ABDGECF (D) CBDAEFG
B. Perhaps more importantly, however, there is a (E) AGFECBD
more straightforward way of dealing with the
Q11 Directions: Sentences given in each question,
spectre of misreporting: to make written
when properly sequenced form a coherent
transcripts and audio or video recordings of
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
court proceedings available to the public.
letter. Choose the most logical order of
C. It is often argued that the media reports
sentences amongst the five choices given to
court proceedings inaccurately;
construct a paragraph.
D. In fact, this was precisely the reason cited by
the Allahabad High Court to justify the gag
(A)All men by nature desire to know. A man is
order, although the court did not provide any
what he knows.
examples of “misquotation”.
(B)The more you know, the less you need to
E. There are, however, laws to deal with
show.
inaccurate reporting, especially the Contempt
(C)The greater our knowledge increases the
of Courts Act, which the judiciary has never
more our ignorance make known.
shied away from invoking.
(D)There are no possessions like knowledge, and
(A) ACDEB (B) CADEB
no poverty like ignorance.
(C) ADCEB (D) CDEAB
(E)Our greatest enemy today is ignorance.
(E) CEDAB
(F)What we don’t know is killing us; or at least
Q10 Directions: Sentences given in each question, depriving us of a full and abundant life.
when properly sequenced form a coherent (A) BADCFE (B) DBCAFE
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a (C) ABCDEF (D) ABDCEF
letter. Choose the most logical order of (E) CBDEFA
Q12 Directions: Sentences given in each question,
when properly sequenced form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
(A)Besides, a campus is the natural home of the
letter. Choose the most logical order of
ISC, for scientists should not transact their
business in an ivory tower beyond the reach of
the student body.
(B)It is the crucible of future politics, and
(A)Such systems should have been the basis not
politicians should engage with student
only of higher education but of new and viable
protesters rather than seek insulation from
professions and forging an informed agreement
them.
within society.
(C)But a campus is where feelings and
(B)While there is a great demand for
arguments can and should run high.
development services, there are few empirical
(D)Indian science has been seen to be faltering
systems to measure it at the granular level that
for some time — with the significant exception
is required.
of the space effort — and it is important to
(C)How long can such a corrosive system last?
inspire the student body.

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(D)Instead, we have chosen to continue an appropriate word (s) that must fill the blank
elaborate, expensive and divisive system of two and make the sentence grammatically correct
realities, of rewards and rents for a chosen few and contextually meaningful. If none of the
and a sullen acceptance for the others. given words fill the blank correctly, choose (e),
(A) BADC (B) BCAD i.e., none of these as your answer choice.
(C) ABCD (D) DCAB
(E) CBDA
The _______________ of the new technology
Q13 Directions: The sentences given in each of the
has revolutionised the way we communicate.
following questions, when properly sequenced,
(A) implementation
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is
(B) obsolescence
labeled with a letter. From among the five
(C) adaptation
choices given below each question, choose the
(D) proliferation
most logical order of sentences that constructs
(A) only (A)
a coherent paragraph.
(B) only (B) and (C)
(C) only (C) and (D)
(A) But nowadays, the most promising sign of
(D) only (D)
the improving conditions of Indian women lies in
(E) None of these
declining inequality in education.
(B) Abigail Adams, wife of the second President Q15 Directions: In each of the following sentences,
of the U.S. and mother of the sixth President, there is a blank space. Below each sentence,
wrote to her husband, “If particular care and there are four words given. Choose the most
attention is not paid to the ladies, we are appropriate word (s) that must fill the blank
determined to foment a rebellion.” and make the sentence grammatically correct
(C) In all villages and towns, mornings and and contextually meaningful. If none of the
afternoons are brightened by the smiling faces given words fill the blank correctly, choose (e),
of girls and young women, dressed in their i.e., none of these as your answer choice.
uniforms, walking to school.
(D)What fuels these movements? Could it be The manager's _______________ leadership
that the very success of India’s economic style inspired and motivated the team to
transformation brings with it a stark realisation achieve exceptional results.
that it has not paid particular care and (A) autocratic
attention to women? (B) lenient
(E) As last year’s #MeToo movement and (C) perceptive
Sabarimala protests showed, perhaps Indian (D) indecisive
women are echoing her and are ready to (A) only (A)
foment a rebellion. (B) only (B)
(F) Almost all girls go to primary school and, (C) only (A) and (C)
according to the India Human Development (D) only (A) and (D)
Survey (IHDS) of 2011-12, 70% of girls aged 15 to (E) None of these.
18 are still studying, only five percentage points
Q16 Directions: In each of the following sentences,
less than boys.
there is a blank space. Below each sentence,
(A) BEDACF (B) EDCFBA
there are four words given. Choose the most
(C) BCEADF (D) EBADCF
appropriate word (s) that must fill the blank
(E) FDBCAE
and make the sentence grammatically correct
Q14 Directions: In each of the following sentences, and contextually meaningful. If none of the
there is a blank space. Below each sentence, given words fill the blank correctly, choose (e),

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i.e., none of these as your answer choice. imbalance persists. The approval of the
Women’s Reservation Bill by the Union Cabinet,
Despite facing numerous setbacks and for likely passage during Parliament’s ongoing
obstacles, she remained _______________ and special session, highlights a glaring truth.
persevered until she achieved her goal. Political parties have had ample opportunities
(A) determined to rectify this imbalance but chose not to. The
(B) apathetic statistics speak volumes. According to a recent
(C) fickle Inter-Parliamentary Union study, India ranks a
(D) indifferent disheartening 149th out of 193 countries in terms
(A) only (A) of female representation in the lower house of
(B) only (B) Parliament.
(C) only (A) and (C) In a country where women make up half the
(D) only (A) and (D) population, they hold a mere 14 per cent of
(E) None of these. seats in the Lok Sabha and 11 per cent in the
Rajya Sabha. These figures are inexcusable and
Q17 Directions: In each of the following sentences,
paint a gloomy picture of gender inequality in
there is a blank space. Below each sentence,
our political landscape. One might wonder why,
in a democratic system, where the power to
appropriate word (s) that must fill the blank
change rests with the people, such a disparity
and make the sentence grammatically correct
persists. The answer lies in the choices made by
and contextually meaningful. If none of the
political parties themselves. Over the years,
given words fill the blank correctly, choose (e),
parties have failed to take the initiative to
i.e., none of these as your answer choice.
correct the imbalance voluntarily. They could
have easily fielded women candidates in a third
The educational institution's commitment to
of the constituencies they contested in Lok
fostering creativity and innovation has
Sabha and state assembly elections. It was a
produced _______________ graduates who
simple step that could have made a profound
excel in their respective fields.
impact on women’s representation in politics.
(A) mediocre
However, they chose not to, merely offering lip
(B) unambitious
service to the cause of gender equality.
(C) exemplary
The Women’s Reservation Bill, which seeks to
(D) stagnant
reserve one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha
(A) only (A)
and state assemblies for women, now stands as
(B) only (C)
a legislative remedy for this imbalance. While
(C) only (A) and (B)
some may argue that such a measure is heavy-
(D) only (B) and (D)
handed, it is important to re- member that it
(E) None of these.
arises from a vacuum in voluntary action. It is
Directions (18-25) Read the following passage the result of decades of unfulfilled promises and
and answer the given questions. persistent gender bias within political parties.
Directions: Read the question passage The reluctance of political parties to address
thoroughly and answer the questions that this imbalance voluntarily has been nothing
follow. short of disappointing. Women’s representation
in the Lok Sabha has grown at a snail’s pace
since Independence, from a mere 4.4 per cent
For decades, India has prided itself on being in 1952 to just 12.15 per cent after the 2014 Lok
the world’s largest democracy, a nation that Sabha elections. (A) The progress has been
embraces diversity and equality. Yet, within the lethargic and it’s a stark reminder that
hallowed halls of political power, a stark gender democracy________________________________________________.

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(C) Indifferent (D) Ambivalent

Opposition to the Women’s Reservation Bill, (E) Supportive
brought forward 27 years ago, centred on
Q22 What is the primary argument against
concerns of fairness and the democratic right
the Women’s Reservation Bill as
to compete based on merit rather than gender.
mentioned in the passage?
(B) About discriminating against men (A)/ in
(A) It promotes fairness and merit-based
the context of the systemic exclusion and (B)/
competition.
the injustices women have historically faced.
(B) It discriminates against women.
(C)/ Gender-based seat reservation is not
(C) It lacks support from the majority of
(D)/However, this argument is untenable when
politicians.
viewed (E)/. It’s about rectifying a deeply
(D) It is a heavy-handed approach.
entrenched societal bias. It is crucial to
(E) None of the options are correct
recognise that when women are represented in
elected bodies, they bring different Q23 What can be a suitable title for the
perspectives and priorities to the table. passage?
Countries with higher female representation (A) Gender Disparity in Politics
have shown a remarkable ability to enact (B) The Success of Women's Reservation
policies that promote social inclusion, gender Bill
equality, and overall societal development. (C) The Decline of Female Representation
(D) India's Political Landscape
Q18 What is the main purpose of the Women’s
Reservation Bill as mentioned in the
passage? Q24 What impact does the passage suggest
(A) To discriminate against men in politics increased female representation in
(B) To reserve all political seats for women elected bodies can have?
(C) To address the gender imbalance in (A) It can lead to the exclusion of men
political representation from politics.
(D) To eliminate all competition among (B) It can promote social inclusion, gender
politicians equality, and societal development.
(E) None of the options are correct (C) It can eliminate competition among
politicians.
Q19 What can be a suitable filler for the
(D) It can increase gender bias in
sentence marked as (A) in the passage?
decision-making.
(A) "inherently flawed and biased"
(B) "promotes gender equality effectively"
(C) "strives for equal representation" Q25 About discriminating against men (A)/ in
(D) "values diversity in political leadership" the context of the systemic exclusion and
(E) "has not given women the voice they (B)/ the injustices women have historically
deserve" faced.(C)/ Gender-based seat
reservation is not (D)/However, this
Q20 What is the tone of the author in the
argument is untenable when viewed (E)/.
passage?
Arrange parts in the sentence marked in
(A) Informative (B) Concerned
italics to form a meaningful sentence
(C) Optimistic (D) Analytical
which makes sense.
(E) Indifferent
(A) ACDBE (B) BACDE
Q21 How would you describe the author's (C) DCBEA (D) CDEBA
attitude towards the Women's (E) EBCDA
Reservation Bill in the passage?
Q26
(A) Enthusiastic (B) Sceptical

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Direction: In the following question, three

sentences are given revolving around the 1. CFCs are potent greenhouse gases that trap
same theme or idea. Decide which of the heat up to 10,000 times more efficiently than
sentences are grammatically and meaningfully carbon dioxide, the biggest cause of global
correct and mark the answer accordingly. warming drives climate change.
2. After the Montreal Protocol entered into force,
1. As the world emerges from the pandemic
global concentrations of CFCs declined
and the travel bug is revived, the world
steadily.
stands at an opportune crossroads with the
3. The protocol curbs the release of ozone-
chance to make tourism more resilient and
depleting substances that could disperse but
inclusive than before.
does not ban their use in the product of other
2. A capital-intensive and multi-sector industry,
chemicals as raw materials or by-products.
tourism and travel is an important
(A) Only 3 (B) Both 1 and 3
economical multiplier under-recognised in its
(C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2
ability to support all segments of the
(E) Only 1
economy.
3. The Ministry of Tourism launched the Visit Q29 Direction: In the following question, three
India Year 2023 initiative to advertise India sentences are given revolving around the
as an all-year-round destination. same theme or idea. Decide which of the
(A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 3 sentences are grammatically and meaningfully
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 correct and mark the answer accordingly.
(E) Only 2
1. The seasonal rains in March caused a slight
Q27 Direction: In the following question, three
loss in output in Punjab and Haryana, but the
sentences are given revolving around the
low temperatures following the rains helped the
same theme or idea. Decide which of the
crops in other unaffected areas.
sentences are grammatically and meaningfully
2. Harvesting of the cereal, which usually
correct and mark the answer accordingly.
commences by April 1, started late this year due
1. According to a study, air pollution, heat, high to the unseasonal rains in March when farmers
levels of carbon dioxide, and ambient noise decided to let the moisture in the crop dry up in
may all adversely affect our ability to get a the fields.
good night's sleep. 3. The wheat stocks had fall to 8.3 MT on April 1,
2. The sleep of inadequate duration or as the government's procurement had plunged
efficiency due to frequent disruption affects to a record low due to a drop in production and
work productivity and quality of life. increased private buying this year.
3. The research, published in the journal Sleep (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3
Health, is one of the first to measure multiple (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) Only 2
environmental variables in the bedroom and (E) Both 2 and 3
analyse their associates with sleep efficiency.
Q30 Directions: In the following question, three
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Only 3
same theme or idea. Decide which of the
(E) Both 1 and 3
sentences are grammatically and meaningfully
Q28 Direction: In the following question, three correct and mark the answer accordingly.
same theme or idea. Decide which of the 1. The government has announced new rules for
sentences are grammatically and meaningfully the distribution of COVID-19 vaccines, with
correct and mark the answer accordingly. priority given to healthcare workers and
vulnerable populations after the pandemic.

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2. After being closed for nearly a year due to a promising revival of India's tourism and
the pandemic, the popular tourist attraction will hospitality industry.
be reopening its doors next week. Auto Components Thrive: The increasing
3. Profits of the companies making covid 19 demand from end-user industries, especially in
vaccines have seen insignificant increases this the passenger vehicle and commercial vehicle
quarter after the government announced the segments, has significantly contributed to the
distribution rules. upgrades of auto component manufacturers
(A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 and automobile dealers. This surge reflects the
(C) Only 2 (D) Both 2 and 3 buoyant automotive sector, which continues to
(E) All 1, 2 and 3 be a key driver of economic growth.
Realty's Resilience: The realty sector has shown
Directions (31-37) Read the following passage
resilience with healthy sales and collections in
and answer the given questions.
the residential segment, along with improved
Directions: Read the following passage
leasing activity in the commercial and retail
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
segments. These factors have contributed to a
reduction in leverage levels for several real
In a promising development for India's
estate entities, supporting their credit
corporate landscape, the credit quality of
upgrades. Realty's performance is indicative of
businesses across the country exhibited
renewed confidence in the Indian real estate
significant strength and resilience during the
market.
first half of the financial year 2024 (H1 FY2024). A
Power Sector Reforms: In the power sector,
recent report by ICRA, a leading credit rating
several entities were upgraded following the
agency, revealed that India Inc.'s credit profiles
realization of their long-pending receivables
have been bolstered by robust domestic
from power distribution companies. These dues
consumption and investments in various
were cleared under the Late Payment
sectors. The ICRA report, released on Tuesday,
Surcharge (LPS) scheme, highlighting the
______________________________________ in
positive impact of policy reforms on India's
the credit quality of both investment-grade
power sector.
and non-investment-grade categories.
Roads Sector Driven by Risk Mitigation: Several
Although the pace of this improvement
Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) in the roads
moderated in comparison with the previous two
sector experienced upgrades in H1 FY2024,
fiscal years, it marks a positive trajectory for
largely due to entity-specific factors focused
India's economic recovery.
on mitigating project execution risks. The
Six key sectors played a pivotal role in driving
achievement of final or provisional dates of
the credit quality improvements observed in H1
completion for projects, coupled with the
FY2024: hospitality, auto components, power,
receipt of initial semi-annual payments without
realty, roads, and financials. Together, these
significant deductions, underscored the sector's
sectors accounted for nearly half of the total
progress.
instances of credit upgrades during this period.
Financial Sector's Strong Fundamentals: The
Hospitality Sector Rebounds: The hospitality
financial sector witnessed improvements in
sector has been on a remarkable rebound
credit profiles due to steady credit growth,
trajectory, rebounding from the significant
stable asset quality indicators, and equity
adverse impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic
capital mobilization. This trend was particularly
experienced in 2020 and 2021. Critical
prominent in the microfinance segment,
operating metrics such as occupancy rates and
highlighting the sector's robust fundamentals.
average room rates have seen a sharp
There are broader economic implications. The
recovery, prompting several upgrades over the
strengthening of India Inc's credit quality is a
past 18 months. The sector's resilience signifies
positive signal for the broader Indian economy.

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A healthier credit environment can catalyze challenges. The credit quality improvements
further investments, job creation, and economic observed across various sectors in H1 FY2024
growth. Here are some of the broader provide a solid foundation for India's economic
economic implications: recovery and future growth prospects. As India
Investment Climate: Improved credit quality is continues to navigate the evolving global
likely to boost investor confidence, encouraging landscape, these improvements are a
both domestic and foreign investments. testament to the nation's ability to overcome
Businesses with stronger credit profiles may find adversity and emerge stronger.
it easier to secure funding for expansion and
capital expenditure projects.
Q31 What were the key drivers of credit quality
Job Creation: As businesses thrive and expand,
improvements in India Inc. during H1
they are more likely to hire new employees. A
FY2024, according to the ICRA report?
robust job market can stimulate consumer
(A) Foreign investments and exports
spending and drive economic growth.
(B) Government stimulus packages
Economic Recovery: India's post-pandemic
(C) Robust domestic consumption and
recovery has been a central focus, and the
investments in specific sectors
credit quality surge in H1 FY2024 contributes to
(D) Decreased competition in the market
this narrative. It indicates that businesses have
(E) Expansion of India's manufacturing
been able to adapt and recover from the
sector
pandemic's impact, laying the foundation for
sustained economic growth. Q32 Which sector experienced a significant
Sectoral Resilience: The sectoral diversity in rebound in H1 FY2024, with sharp
credit quality improvements suggests that recoveries in occupancy rates and
multiple segments of the Indian economy are average room rates, leading to several
regaining strength. This resilience can help credit upgrades?
buffer against economic shocks in the future. (A) Auto components
Credit Access: Businesses with improved credit (B) Realty
profiles are better positioned to access credit (C) Power
at favorable terms, enabling them to invest in (D) Hospitality
innovation and expansion, ultimately driving (E) Roads
economic development.
While the credit quality improvements are Q33 According to the passage, what led to
encouraging, it's essential to recognize that credit upgrades in the power sector
economic challenges persist. India faces during H1 FY2024?
hurdles such as inflationary pressures, supply (A) Increased electricity consumption
chain disruptions, and global economic (B) Implementation of renewable energy
uncertainties that could impact the trajectory projects
of credit quality improvement. Looking ahead, (C) Clearing of long-pending receivables
sustained efforts to address these challenges, under the Late Payment Surcharge
coupled with continued policy support, will be (LPS) scheme
crucial for India Inc's credit quality to maintain (D) Government subsidies for power
its upward trajectory. Additionally, the emphasis distribution companies
on sustainability, digital transformation, and (E) Improved power generation
innovation will play a pivotal role in shaping the technologies
long-term competitiveness of Indian businesses.
Q34 According to the passage, what are the
In conclusion, the ICRA report's findings paint
broader economic implications of India
an optimistic picture of India Inc's resilience and
Inc's improved credit quality in H1 FY2024?
adaptability in the face of economic
(A) Decreased investment climate

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(B) Reduced job creation introduction of this new terminology could

(C) Slower economic recovery inadvertently create ambiguity which could end
(D) Enhanced sectoral resilience up hurting the ____________(B) of the inflation
(E) Limited credit access for businesses targeting framework. The RBI is legally
mandated to achieve a 4 percent CPI
Q35 What is the primary theme of the
(consumer price index) inflation target, with a
passage discussing India Inc's credit
band of ( +/−)2 percent around it. For some
quality improvements in H1 FY2024?
time, this legally mandated target was not
(A) The challenges faced by India Inc
__________(C). For five consecutive quarters
during the pandemic
average inflation exceeded the upper
(B) The impact of government policies on
___________(D) of the RBI's tolerance band. CPI
the Indian economy
inflation averaged 6.6 percent between
(C) The diverse sectors contributing to
January 2022 and March 2023. Since then,
India Inc's improved credit quality
______________(E) has been cooling off, with
(D) The decline in foreign investments in
CPI during March-May 2023 averaging 4.9
India
percent. The law is clear that the RBI's policy
(E) The need for digital transformation in
actions must be ___________(F) towards
Indian businesses
achieving the 4 percent target. However, in the
Q36 Which among the following will correctly press conference on June 8 , in response to
explain the tone of the author in the questions from journalists, the RBI
passage given above? ___________(G) a new phrase to communicate
(A) Critical and skeptical its future strategy. When asked about the
(B) Optimistic and encouraging factors that may prompt the MPC to start
(C) Indifferent and disinterested cutting rates, the RBI said that its comfort zone
(D) Pessimistic and cautious was when inflation "aligns with the target", and
(E) Biased and subjective that it was looking at "inflation aligning with the
target, not with inflation at the target." In
Q37 Which of the following can fit in the blank response to questions related to monetary
given in the passage? policy stance, the RBI responded by saying that
(A) underscores the overall improvement its ____________(H) will be to see that "inflation
(B) criticized the lack of progress aligns with the target on a durable basis".
(C) ignored the changes
(D) reported a decline Q38 Which of the following given words will
(E) questioned the reliability make the sentence meaningful by filling
in the blank (A)?
Directions (38-45) Read the following passage (A) Budget (B) Strategy
and answer the given questions. (C) Threshold (D) Expectations
In the passage given below there are blanks (E) Reliance
that are to be filled with the options given
below. Find out the suitable fit for each case. Q39 Which of the following given words will
In the press conference following the recent make the sentence meaningful by filling in
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting on the blank (B)?
June 8, the Reserve Bank of India introduced a (A) Foundation (B) Credibility
new terminology, "aligning with the (inflation) (C) Profitability (D) Probability
target", to describe the objective of its future (E) Conformity
monetary policy actions. In an inflation
Q40 Which of the following given words will
targeting regime, clear communication by the
make the sentence meaningful by filling
central bank plays a key role in setting
in the blank (C)?
____________(A) of economic agents. The

Banking
(A) Sustained (B) Confirmed C. dispersed

(C) Issued (D) Noticed D. sentenced
(E) Achieved (A) AD (B) BC
(C) BD (D) CD
(E) None of these
make the sentence meaningful by filling in
the blank (D)? Q47 In the given sentences, a blank is given
(A) Ceiling (B) Threshold indicating that a word is missing. Among the
(C) Bound (D) Adjustment four given options, a combination of words
(E) Band would fit the blank thereby making it
grammatically and contextually correct.
Choose that option as your response.
make the sentence meaningful by filling
in the blank (E)?
Reporting on crime can be hard, but talking to victims of _______
(A) Stagflation (B) Recession
crimes is the greater challenge.
(C) Inflation (D) Economy
A. Confirmative
(E) Funding
B. Favourable
Q43 Which of the following given words will C. heinous
make the sentence meaningful by filling D. atrocious
in the blank (F)? (A) BD (B) BC
(A) Geared (B) Framed (C) AD (D) CD
(C) Tightened (D) Availed (E) None of these
(E) Prevented
Q48 Directions: In the following question, two
Q44 Which of the following given words will sentences are given followed by three phrases.
make the sentence meaningful by filling Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can
in the blank (G)? be used in the beginning to form a single
(A) Developed (B) Complied sentence from the given two sentences,
(C) Explained (D) Assessed implying the same meaning as expressed in
(E) Introduced the statement sentences.
Q45 Which of the following given words will I.The poles of the planet were not pointed
make the sentence meaningful by filling towards Earth.
in the blank (H)? II. But since 2014, Scientists have had a better
(A) Campaign (B) Assurance view of Uranus’s pole and therefore have been
(C) Assertion (D) Attestation able to look deeper into the polar atmosphere.
(E) Endeavour (a)Over several decades, the poles of the ………..
(b)Because the last five years, the poles of the
Q46 In the given sentences, a blank is given
………
indicating that a word is missing. Among the
(c)For many decades, the poles of the ………
four given options, a combination of words
(A) Only (a) and (c)
would fit the blank thereby making it
(B) Only (a)
grammatically and contextually correct.
(C) Only (b) and (c)
Choose that option as your response.
(D) Only (c)
(E) All (a), (b), and (c)
The electrons in the neutral plasma were
not __________ by vibrations in Q49 Directions: In the following question, two
the atomic lattice either. sentences are given followed by three phrases.
A. convicted Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can
B. scattered

Banking
be used in the beginning to form a single Q51 1
7
of 1445 − 25. 998 + 20. 023% of
sentence from the given two sentences, 1650. 02 =?
implying the same meaning as expressed in (A) 510 (B) 450

the statement sentences. (C) 550 (D) 620
(E) 750
I. The loss and damage framework developed
Q52 2156. 21 + 1245 ÷ 5. 99 =? + 154. 99
at COP27, is aimed at supporting most
(A) 1980 (B) 2040
impacted countries which is viewed as an
(C) 2208 (D) 2450
integral part of climate justice, concerns remain
(E) None of these
on
−−−−
II.Whether wealthy countries would be willing to Q53 √1445 × 24. 99 −
1
of 400 =?
3
pay any liabilities or reparations (A) 817 (B) 780

(a)Fortunately, the loss and damage…….. (C) 710 (D) 920
(b)Although the loss and damage………. (E) 1080
(c)Besides the loss and damage…………
(A) Only (a) and (b) Q54 12
1
9
% of 9107. 99 − 245. 04 ÷ 3. 024
(B) Only (a) =?
(A) 880 (B) 1021

(C) 1200 (D) 1320
(D) Only (b)
(E) 1450
(E) All (a), (b), and (c)
Q55 99. 99 × 4. 024 + 3215. 021 − 124. 895
Q50 Directions: In the following question, two
× 25. 01 = ?
sentences are given followed by three phrases. (A) 440 (B) 490
Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can (C) 520 (D) 550
be used in the beginning to form a single (E) 575
sentence from the given two sentences,
implying the same meaning as expressed in Directions (56-60) Read the following passage
the statement sentences. and answer the given questions.
Directions: Find the wrong term in the following
I. The Centre may set goals, and use carrots series-
and sticks to help achieve them
Q56 20, 24.5, 33.5, 46, 65, 87.5
II.The realisation of these goals often depends
(A) 24.5 (B) 33.5
on how they are aligned with State priorities
(C) 46 (D) 65
and capabilities
(E) 87.5
(a)Though the Centre may set …….
(b)While the Centre may set …… Q57 12, 16, 36, 68, 132, 232
(c)Whereas, the Centre may set …….. (A) 12 (B) 16
(A) Only (a) and (b) (C) 36 (D) 68
(B) Only (a) (E) 132
(D) Only (c) Q58 145, 152, 162, 173, 196, 201
(E) All (a), (b), and (c) (A) 145 (B) 152
(C) 161 (D) 172
Directions (51-55) Read the following passage (E) 196
Directions: What approximate value comes in Q59 24, 25, 27, 30, 35, 39, 45
the place of the question mark (?) In the (A) 24 (B) 25
following question? (C) 35 (D) 30
(E) 39

Banking
Q60 15, 51, 95, 383, 1919, 11519 percent more/less than people traveling
(A) 15 (B) 51 on Wednesday and Friday together by
(C) 383 (D) 1919 train A?
(E) 11519 (A) 25 11
5
% (B) 19 11
1
%
(C) 20 27 % (D) 18 23 %
(E) None of these
Direction: Study the given line graph carefully Q65 Find the total no. of people traveling from
and answer the following questions. train B?
The line graph below shows the total number of (A) 3500 (B) 3300
people traveling from Delhi to Lucknow in 2 (C) 3400 (D) 4400
different Trains from Monday to Friday. (E) 3600

Direction: Study the following information and
answer the given questions.
In the below table, the number of shoes
manufactured and the percentage of shoes
sold by two companies Nike and Adidas in five
different months January, February, March,
April, and May is given.
Q61 What is the average no. of people
traveling in Train A?
(A) 654 (B) 600
(C) 700 (D) 720
(E) 714
Q62 What is the ratio of people traveled on

Wednesday and Friday together by train Q66 What is the difference between the
B to the people travelled on Monday and number of shoes manufactured by Nike
Tuesday together by train A? and Adidas in March together and the
(A) 49: 43 (B) 77 : 78 number of shoes manufactured by Nike
(C) 77: 71 (D) 55: 49 and Adidas in May?
(E) 30: 17 (A) 230 (B) 300
(C) 350 (D) 400
Q63 If no. of people traveling on Saturday by
(E) 325
train A from the previous day is increased
by and people travelling on
100
6
% Q67 What is the ratio of 20% of the total
Saturday by train B decreased by 11.11% number of shoes sold by Adidas in
from the previous day, then find the ratio February and 40% of the total number of
of people traveling on Saturday by train shoes sold by Nike in April?
A to people travelling on Saturday by (A) 7: 18 (B) 27: 80
train B. (C) 8: 15 (D) 9: 20
(A) 7: 8 (B) 3: 4 (E) None of these
(C) 5: 8 (D) 3: 7
Q68 The number of shoes sold by Nike in
(E) None of these
January is what percent of the number of
Q64 People traveling on Tuesday and shoes manufactured by Adidas in
Thursday together by train B is how much February?

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(A) 45% (B) 50%

(C) 56% (D) 80%
(E) None of these
Q69 What is the ratio of the number of shoes

sold by Nike in January and March
together to the number of shoes
manufactured by Adidas in May and
Q71 If 40% and 20% of the total number of
January together?
appeared candidates for MNC R and T for
(A) 49: 127 (B) 51: 98
executive posts respectively get the
(C) 57: 107 (D) 7: 17
desired post, then the total number of
(E) 77: 170
candidates that get the desired post in
Q70 If the total number of shoes both MNCs is what percentage of the
manufactured by Nike in June is 750 and total number of candidates appeared in
the ratio of the number of shoes sold by MNC S for interview of executive post?
Nike in April to June is 8:9, the number of (A) 84% (B) 80%
shoes sold by Nike in June is what (C) 74% (D) 60%
percent of the number of shoes (E) 90%
manufactured by Nike in June?
Q72 If 20% of the total appeared candidates
(A) 80% (B) 60%
in the interview for the executive post in
(C) 50% (D) 72%
MNC P and of the total appeared
2
th
(E) 77% 9
candidates in the interview for the

Directions (71-75) Read the following passage executive post in MNC S, get the desired
and answer the given questions. post, find the ratio between the number
Directions: The pie chart given below shows the of candidates who get the desired post in
total number of candidates who had applied MNC P to the number of candidates who
for executive posts in five different MNCs. The get the desired post in MNC S.
table shows the percentage of applications (A) 5: 6 (B) 6: 11
rejected and the percentage of candidates (C) 5: 10 (D) 9: 10
who appeared for MNC interviews out of the (E) 9: 11
total number of applications accepted. Read
Q73 25% of the total number of candidates
the data carefully and answer the questions
who appeared in the interview for MNC Q
that follow.
got the desired post and out of the total
number of candidates who got the
desired post, the ratio between the
number of girls to that of boys is 4: 5. If
out of the total number of candidates
applied for executive post for MNC Q, two
fifth are girls, then what percentage of
total number of applied girls get the
desired post?
(A) 3 13 % (B) 6 13 %
(C) 13 3 %
1
(D) 9 12 %
(E) 8 13 %
Q74 Find the difference between the total

number of candidates who appeared in

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interviews for executive posts in MNC P men work per day 12 hours and boys work per
and S. day 4 hours?
(A) 0 (B) 100 (A) 1 days (B) 2 days
(C) 90 (D) 9 (C) 3 days (D) 4 days
(E) 8 (E) None of these
Q75 If 20% of the total number of appeared Q80 A class has 26 students. If the top scorer's score
candidates in the interview for the is not considered, the average score of the
executive post for MNC P, then find the remaining class falls by 1 mark. Instead, if the
desired post for MNC P? lowest scorer's score is not considered, the
(A) 120 (B) 100 average score of the remaining student
(C) 140 (D) 150 increases by 2 marks. If the top scorer's score
(E) 180 and the lowest scorer's score are in the ratio of
17: 2, what is the score of the top scorer?
Q76 Mahesh invested Rs ‘a’ in a bank offering 10%
(A) 80 (B) 75
compound interest for three years. Dinesh
(C) 85 (D) 90
invested Rs 2000 more than Mahesh in another
(E) 95
bank offering 11% simple interest for three years.
Find the value of ‘a’ if the interest earned by Q81 A lady bought 90 liters mixture of milk and
Dinesh is Rs 625 more than the interest earned water in which the ratio of milk and water is 2:3.
by Mahesh. How much water be evaporated so that the
(A) Rs 33000 (B) Rs 25000 percentage of water becomes 25%?
(C) Rs 27000 (D) Rs 35000 (A) 42 liters (B) 45 liters
(E) None of these (C) 60 liters (D) 50 liters
(E) None of these
Q77 Ranjeet drove from home to his office at 75
miles per hour and reached the office in 6 hours. Q82 The number of boys appearing for an Entrance
While returning home he drove one-third way test is 80% of the number of girls. If 45% of the
along the same route at a speed of 30 miles girls and 40% of the boys get admission, the
per hour and the remaining distance he percentage of candidates who do not get
covered in 2 hours. Find the average speed of admission is:
returning. (A) 50.50% (B) 57.22%
(A) 108.56 miles/hr (C) 62.50 (D) 72.56
(B) 128.57 miles/hr (E) None of these
(C) 124.27 miles/hr
Q83 In an election between two candidates A and
(D) 90.75 miles/hr
B, 80% of the voters cast their votes, out of
(E) None of these
which 25% of the votes were declared invalid. If
Q78 Umesh and Ramesh together can do a piece of candidate A got 56% of the valid votes and won
work in 36 days and Ramesh alone can do the by 360 votes, then find the total number of
25% of the work in 12 days. What fraction of voters.
work done by Umesh alone in 20 days? (A) 4500 (B) 5000
(A) 7
24
(B) 7
36
(C) 6000 (D) 5400
(C) 1
(D) 5
(E) None of these
12 36
(E) None of these

Q84 The marked price is 40% more than the selling
Q79 10 men can do a piece of work in 5 days price of an article A and the profit earned on
working 6 hours a day. If the efficiency of a man selling is 25%. If the difference between profit
and a boy is 3:1, then in how many days same and the difference between cost price and
work done by 6 men and 21 boys together when

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marked price is Rs. 400, then find the profit on Q89 A path of width 4 m has been made inside
article A? along the boundary of a rectangular field. The
(A) 200 (B) 150 length of the field is 48 m and the area of the
(C) 180 (D) 240 field is 1440 m2. How many tiles of dimension 80
(E) 300 × 56 cm2 will be required to pave the path?
(A) 1100 (B) 1180
Q85 Pawan sold a book at 44% profit. If the same
(C) 1250 (D) 1340
book was sold at 22% loss then Pawan would
(E) 1400
have earned Rs. 396 less. What was the marked
price of the book if Pawan marked the book Q90 A box contains 4 blue pens, and 5 green pens,
45% above the cost price? and 6 red pens. Two pens are drawn at random
(A) Rs. 640 (B) Rs. 770 from the box. What is the probability that the
(C) Rs. 870 (D) Rs. 920 ball drawn is either red or green?
(E) None of these (A) 5
9
(B) 3
11
(C) 4
(D) 5
Q86 The length of two trains (A and B) is 270 m and 9 21
(E) 7
720 m, respectively. If they are going in the 11
same direction, train B takes 55 seconds to pass Directions (91-93) Read the following passage
train A completely and if they are going in and answer the given questions.
opposite directions, they pass each other Direction: In the following question two
completely in 9 seconds. Find the speed of train Quantity are given in variables Quantity I and
A? Quantity II. You have to solve this Quantity and
(A) 48 m/s (B) 51 m/s determine the relation between Quantity I and
(C) 55 m/s (D) 60 m/s Quantity II
(E) None of these
Q91 Quantity I: Area of circle in (cm2) having a
Q87 P and Q enter into a partnership and invested circumference of 132 cm.
Rs. 42000 and Rs. 54000 respectively. If they Quantity II: Area of square in (cm2) having
split half of the profit equally for their efforts side 25 cm.
and the remaining balance in the ratio of their (A) Quantity I > Quantity II
investments, then Q got Rs. 510 more than P. (B) Quantity II > Quantity I
What was the profit made in the partnership ? (C) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(A) Rs 6480 (B) Rs 7280 (D) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(C) Rs 8160 (D) Rs 5496 (E) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
(E) None of these can be established
Q88 Ravi and Ramya got married 9 years ago when Q92 Quantity I: A boat crosses the river 500m
the age of Ramya was 20% less than Ravi. 4 long runs the speeds of 30m/s upstream
years from now, the age of Ramya will be only 50 m/s on downstream, then the speed
10% less than Ravi. Now, they have six children of the stream is
including a single, twins and triplets; the ratio of Quantity II: A boat crosses the river
their ages is 2 : 3 : 4, respectively. What can be 500m long run the speeds of 30m/s
the maximum possible value for the present upstream 50 m/s on downstream, then
age of his family? the speed of the boat in still water is
(A) 80.6 years (A) Quantity I > Quantity II
(B) 83.4 years (B) Quantity II > Quantity I
(C) 88.8 years (C) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(D) 86.6 years (D) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(E) 81.4 years (E) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
can be established

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Q93 Quantity I: In how many ways can a Q95 Pranav sold a mobile cover to Ritesh at
committee of 4 boys and 4 girls be 25% profit. If Ritesh purchased cover from
selected from 9 boys and 9 girls Pranav in Rs. 250, then find the profit
respectively? percentage of Nitin if Pranav bought this
Quantity II: In how many ways can a mobile cover from Nitin.
committee of 6 boys and 5 girls be I. Nitin sold the cover for Rs. 50 more than
selected from 9 boys and 9 girls its cost price to Pranav.
respectively? II. If Nitin sold the article to Ritesh at the
(A) Quantity I > Quantity II same price as Pranav sold it to Ritesh,
(B) Quantity II > Quantity I then he made an overall profit of 16 3 %.
2
(C) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II (A) if statement I alone is sufficient to

(D) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II answer the question, but statement II
(E) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation alone is not sufficient.
can be established (B) if the statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question, but the
statement I alone is not sufficient.
(C) if both statements I and II together
Direction: Each question below is followed by
are needed to answer the question
two statements I and II. You have to determine
(D) if either the statement I alone or
whether the data given in the statement is
statement II alone is sufficient to
sufficient for answering the question. You should
answer the question
use the data and your knowledge of
(E) if you cannot get the answer from
Mathematics to choose the best possible
statements I and II together but need
answer.
even more data.
Q94 The ratio between the length and
Directions (96-100) Read the following
breadth of a rectangular park ‘A’ is 7: 6.
passage and answer the given questions.
Find the area of a square field ‘B’.
Directions: Study the following data carefully
I. The length of the rectangular park ‘A’ is
and answer the questions given below.
50% more than the radius of a circle
Three friends Aman, Baman, and Chaman are
whose area is 2464 m2.
studying in the same class. Each of them takes
II. The perimeter of rectangular park ‘A’ is
five subjects English, Hindi, Science, History and
28 m more than the perimeter of square
Art. The college conducted the half yearly
field ‘B’.
examination and the college decided the
(A) if statement I alone is sufficient to
maximum marks for each subject is 150. The
answer the question, but statement II
average marks obtained by Aman in all
alone is not sufficient.
subjects is 100. The percentage of marks
(B) if the statement II alone is sufficient to
obtained by Aman in English, Hindi, Science and
answer the question, but the
History are 60%, 80%, 90% and 50% respectively.
statement I alone is not sufficient.
Baman scored average marks in all subjects 95.
(C) if both statements I and II together
The marks obtained by Baman in Hindi, Science,
are needed to answer the question
History and Art are 115, 125, 80, and 70
(D) if either the statement I alone or
respectively. The marks obtain in science by
statement II alone is sufficient to
Chaman is 80. The average marks obtained by
answer the question
Chaman in the first three subjects English, Hindi,
(E) if you cannot get the answer from
and Sciences is 60 and the last three subjects
statements I and II together but need
Science, history and Art is 110.
even more data.
Q96

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What is the ratio of marks obtained by (B) Only conclusion II follows

Aman in Art to the marks obtained by (C) Either conclusion I or II follows
Baman in English? (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(A) 15: 17 (B) 16: 17 (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) 8: 9 (D) 11: 12
Q102 Read both of the following conclusions and
(E) None of these
then decide which of the given conclusions
Q97 If Chaman scored in history 40 marks logically follows the given statements
more than the marks scored by Baman in disregarding the commonly known facts.
History, then find the percentage of marks Statements:
obtained by Chaman in History. Only a few arms are orbis.
(A) 60% (B) 80% Some armours are orbis.
(C) 90% (D) 100% No arm is an armour.
(E) None of these Conclusions:
I. All orbis can never be arms.
Q98 If Chaman scored in history 40 marks
II. Some armours are definitely not orbis.
more than the marks scored by Baman in
(A) Only conclusion I follows
History then what is the ratio of marks
(B) Only conclusion II follows
obtained by Baman in Hindi to the marks
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
obtained by Chaman in Art?
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(A) 23: 26 (B) 21 : 23
(E) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) 22: 27 (D) 12: 17
(E) 10: 13 Q103 Read both of the following conclusions and
Q99 If Marks obtained by Chaman in Hindi is
logically follows the given statements
60, then what is the ratio of marks
disregarding the commonly known facts.
obtained by Chaman and Aman in
Statements:
English?
All nails are jaws.
(A) 4: 7 (B) 3: 5
No jaw is a item.
(C) 2: 7 (D) 4: 9
All items are knees.
(E) None of these
Conclusions:
Q100 What is the average marks obtained by I. Some knees are items
Aman, Baman, and Chaman in Science? II. No item is nail.
(A) 120.15 (B) 124.25 (A) Only conclusion I follows
(C) 128.56 (D) 113.33 (B) Only conclusion II follows
(E) 141.23 (C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Q101 Read both of the following conclusions and (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
logically follows the given statements Q104 Read both of the following conclusions and
disregarding the commonly known facts. then decide which of the given conclusions
Statements: logically follows the given statements
Only a few potions are edible. disregarding the commonly known facts.
Some bubbles are edible. Statements:
All bubbles are gum. Some D are H.
Conclusions: All H are J.
I. Some gum is edible. Only few D are J.
II. No gum is edible. Conclusions:
(A) Only conclusion I follows

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I. All D are H is a possibility If all the people are arranged in the

II. Some J are not D increasing alphabetical order from
(A) If only conclusion I follows. Monday to Sunday, then how many
(B) If only conclusion II follows. people remain same as before.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows. (A) Two (B) One
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (C) None (D) Three
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow. (E) None of these
Directions (105-109) Read the following Q109 Four of the five options are related to
passage and answer the given questions. each other in some manner. Find the
Study the following information carefully and odd one out.
answer the questions given below. (A) L-P
J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a (B) O-K
week starting from Monday to Sunday but not (C) J-M
necessarily in the same order. No two people (D) N-J
attend the same class on the same day. (E) P-M
Number of people attend the class after J is

same as the number of people attend the class
before J. L attend the class before K. Three
Study the following data carefully and answer
people attend the class between N and M, who
the questions accordingly.
attend the class after Friday. Number of people
Riddhi starts walking from her home to the
attend the class between L and P is same as
tuition classes. She walks 4m from her home in
the number of people attend the class between
the south direction and reaches the stationary
K and O. M attend the class immediately after
shop. She buys a notebook, takes a left turn
O. K does not attend the class on Wednesday.
and walk for 6m in the same direction to reach
Two people attend the class between L and J,
an ice-cream shop. She buys an ice-cream and
who attend the class after L. P does not attend
takes a right turn. She walks 8m in the same
the class on Tuesday. K and L are not adjacent
direction till MG Road and takes a right turn.
to each other.
She walks for 10m in the same direction to reach
her tuition.
Q105 Who attend the class on Friday?
Q110 What is the shortest distance between
(A) N (B) K
stationary shop and MG Road?
(C) P (D) O
(A) 8m
(E) None of these
(B) 10m
Q106 How many persons attend the class (C) 15m
between O and K? (D) 18m
(A) Three (B) Two (E) None of these
(C) One (D) None

Q111 What is the direction of tuition with
(E) None of these
respect to Ice-cream shop?
Q107 Who attends the class immediately above J ? (A) Noth
(A) P (B) South east
(B) O (C) South West
(C) N (D) West
(D) M (E) North west
(E) None of these

Q112 What is the direction of tuition with
Q108 respect to Ice-cream shop?

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(A) Noth (B) South east (A) V (B) U

(C) South West (D) West (C) P (D) Q
(E) North west (E) None of these
Q113 Study the following data carefully and answer Q115 Who among the following sits second to
the questions accordingly. the left of the one who has a black
If a four-letter meaningful word can be formed colour box?
by using the first, fourth, fifth, and sixth letters (A) The one who has yellow colour box
from the word “EVERYDAY”, then what is the last (B) U
letter from the left end of the newly formed (C) Q
word? Mark X as your answer, if more than one (D) V
word is formed. Mark Z, if no meaningful word (E) Both A and C
can be formed.
Q116 Four of the following five are alike in a
(A) T (B) I
certain way and thus form a group. Find
(C) X (D) Z
the one which doesn’t belong to the
(E) M
group.
Directions (114-118) Read the following passage (A) T - Red (B) P - White
and answer the given questions. (C) Q- Yellow (D) V - Green
Study the following data carefully and answer (E) R - violet
Q117 How many persons sit between Q and
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
the one who has a red colour box?
in the linear row such that all are facing the
(A) 2 (B) 3
north direction but not necessarily in the same
(C) 4 (D) 1
order. All persons have gift boxes of different
(E) None
colours viz., Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, White,
Black, Pink, and Violet but not necessarily in the Q118 Who among the following person is an
same order. immediate neighbour of W?
The one who has a yellow colour gift box sits (A) S (B) V
two places away from the one who has a violet (C) Q (D) T
colour box. W has a violet colour box and sits (E) None
on any one of the extreme ends of the row. V
sits immediate left of Q. Only one person sits Directions (119-123) Read the following
between T and S, who has a black colour box. R passage and answer the given questions.
sits at the end of the row and has a blue colour Study the following directions and answer the
box. U has the pink colour box and sits in the questions given below.
middle of S and T. T has the red colour box and In a certain code language:
sits on the right of U. The one who has a green “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg”
colour box sits adjacent to W. P is an “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
immediate neighbour of S. At least 3 persons sit “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”
between the one who has a violet colour box “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”
and the one who has a black colour box. Q
Q119 What is the code for "dull" in the given code language?
does not have a green colour box. P does not
(A) xt (B) rl
have a yellow colour box and is not an
(C) pm (D) tp
immediate neighbour of R. S is not an
(E) None of these
immediate neighbour of R.
Q120 What is the code for 'room wonder' in the given code language?
Q114 Who among the following has a white
(A) qp po (B) dv pm
colour box?
(C) nm dv (D) pm kf

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(E) None of these neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance

from the left of V to N is 5m more than the
Q121 What is the code for 'moon' in the given code language?
distance from the left of N to P. Neither P nor T
(A) rl (B) dv
sits adjacent to R and O.
(C) kg (D) tp
(E) None of these
Who among the following person sits
Q122 The code for 'xt' stands for?
immediate right of V?
(A) Am (A) T
(B) of (B) The one who sits immediate right of T
(C) Sun (C) S
(D) Either (a) or (c) (D) The one who sits second to the left of O
(E) None of these (E) None of these
Q123 What is the code for 'space' in the given code language?
Q126 Study the following data carefully and answer
(A) qp the questions accordingly.
(B) nm
(C) rl Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U,
(D) po V, and W are sitting around a square table with
(E) Either (b) or (d) a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each
corner and two persons sit at each side of the
Q124 How many such pairs of letters are in the word table with equal distances between each other.
“COUNTER” which has as many letters between All are facing the centre. All the information is
them as there are in the English alphabetical not necessarily in the same order. M sits 10m
series (both forward and backward)? away from W who sits at the corner of the
(A) One (B) Two table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance
(C) Five (D) Four between Q and O is 5m. The distance between
(E) None of these M and O is the same as the distance between
M and T. The distance between T and U is 5m
more than the distance between W and
Q(counted right of W). The one who sits
opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits
Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U,
second to the left of the one who sits
V, and W are sitting around a square table with
immediately left of U. The distance between R
a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each
and T is the same as between T and S. V
neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance
table with equal distances between each other.
from the left of V to N is 5m more than the
All are facing the centre. All the information is
distance from the left of N to P. Neither P nor T
not necessarily in the same order. M sits 10m
sits adjacent to R and O.
away from W who sits at the corner of the
Who among the following person sits exactly
table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance
between P and V when counted from the left of
between Q and O is 5m. The distance between
P?
M and O is the same as the distance between
(A) The one who sits second to the left of L
(B) O
more than the distance between W and
(C) The one who sits immediate right of U
Q(counted right of W). The one who sits
(D) Q
opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits
(E) None of these
immediately left of U. The distance between R Q127 Study the following data carefully and answer
and T is the same as between T and S. V the questions accordingly.

Banking

Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, immediately left of U. The distance between R
V, and W are sitting around a square table with and T is the same as between T and S. V
a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance
corner and two persons sit at each side of the from the left of V to N is five meters more than
table with equal distances between each other. the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P
All are facing the centre. All the information is nor T sits adjacent to R and O.
away from W who sits at the corner of the In which of the following statements 1st person
table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance does not sit exactly between the 2nd and 3rd
between Q and O is 5m. The distance between person in the final arrangement?
M and O is the same as the distance between I. MRV
M and T. The distance between T and U is 5m II. WNR
more than the distance between W and III. QOS
Q(counted right of W). The one who sits (A) Only II
opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits (B) Only I and III
second to the left of the one who sits (C) Only III
immediately left of U. The distance between R (D) All I, II, and III
and T is the same as between T and S. V (E) None of these
neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance
from the left of V to N is five meters more than
the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P
nor T sits adjacent to R and O.
Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U,
V, and W are sitting around a square table with
Which of the following statement is/are False?
a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each
(A) P and R sit opposite to each other
(B) The distance from the right of W to V is 15m
table with equal distances between each other.
(C) T sits 10m away from the right of P
All are facing the centre. All the information is
(D) V and T are immediate neighbors
(E) None of these
away from W who sits at the corner of the
Q128 Study the following data carefully and answer table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance
the questions accordingly. between Q and O is 5m. The distance between
M and O is the same as the distance between
Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, M and T. The distance between T and U is 5m
V, and W are sitting around a square table with more than the distance between W and
a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each Q(counted right of W). The one who sits
corner and two persons sit at each side of the opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits
table with equal distances between each other. second to the left of the one who sits
All are facing the centre. All the information is immediately left of U. The distance between R
not necessarily in the same order. M sits 10m and T is the same as between T and S. V
away from W who sits at the corner of the neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance
table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance from the left of V to N is five meters more than
between Q and O is 5m. The distance between the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P
M and O is the same as the distance between nor T sits adjacent to R and O.
more than the distance between W and What is the distance between W and P when
Q(counted right of W). The one who sits counted to the left of W?
opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits (A) 10m (B) 30m

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(C) 25m (D) 15m (B) Only conclusion II true

(E) 20m (C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II true
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true
Q130 In the given questions, assuming the given
(E) Both conclusion I and conclusion II true
statements to be true. Find which of the given
two conclusions number I and II is/are Q133 In the given questions, assuming the given
definitely true and give your answer statements to be true. Find which of the given
accordingly. two conclusions number I and II is/are
definitely true and give your answer
Statements: accordingly.
1 > 2 ≥ 3; 4 ≤ 5 < 6 = 3; 7 ≤ 8 ≤ 9 = 4
Conclusions: Statements:
I. 1 > 4 B < N, N = U > R, O < T ≥ R
II. 5 ≥ 7 Conclusions:
(A) Only conclusion I true I. T ≥ B
(B) Only conclusion II true II. B > T
(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II true (A) Only conclusion I true
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true (B) Only conclusion II true
(E) Both conclusion I and conclusion II true (C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II true
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true
(E) Both conclusion I and conclusion II true
two conclusions number I and II is/are Q134 Each of the questions below consists of a
definitely true and give your answer question and two statements numbered I and
accordingly. II given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are
Statements: sufficient to answer the question:
I > Z ≥ K < J ; I ≤ H = G; X < Y > G
Conclusions: Six boxes namely – X, U, V, D, K and L are kept
I. J ≥ H one above other, each box contains different
II. K < Y colour balls viz. Pink, green, blue, Violet, Maroon
(A) Only conclusion I true and White. Box U is kept third from top at a gap
(B) Only conclusion II true of one box from one that contains Violet colour
(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II true ball. Box D contains Maroon colour ball, which is
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true neither kept adjacent to box U nor adjacent to
(E) Both conclusion I and conclusion II true the one that contain Violet colour ball, is kept
just above one that contains green colour ball.
How many boxes are kept below one contains
white colour ball?
two conclusions number I and II is/are
I. Box which contains Blue and violet colour
definitely true and give your answer
balls are kept together. Box L, which neither
accordingly.
contains Blue nor contains violet colour ball, is
kept at a gap of two from box X. Box which
Statements:
contains Blue colour ball is kept at a gap of
B < R = K; Q > A ≤ Y < Z; Q < S ≤ F ≤ K
three from box K.
Conclusions:
II. L which contains Pink colour ball is kept at a
I. S ≤ R
gap of two from box X, which neither contains
II. F > A
Blue colour ball nor kept adjacent to box D.
(A) Only conclusion I true

Banking
Only two boxes are kept between box K and question

box which contains white colour ball.
Q136 Each of the questions below consists of a
(A) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient
question and two statements numbered I and
to answer the question, while the data in
II given below it. You have to decide whether
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
sufficient to answer the question:
(B) If the data in both the Statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the
How is ‘ Enjoy ‘ written in code language ?
question.
I. In same code ‘done enjoy strike’ is written as ‘
(C) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient
pl eh xz ‘ and ‘pain done enjoy is written as ‘ eh
ku pl'
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
II. In same code ‘ Strike into account’ is written
the question.
as ‘ xz na aq’ and ‘ ‘use pain enjoy’ is written as
(D) If the data either in Statement I alone or in
‘ ku kv eh ‘
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
(A) If the data in both the Statements I and II
question
together are not sufficient to answer the
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II
question
(B) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient
question
Q135 Directions:Each of the questions below consists Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
of a question and two statements numbered I the question.
and II given below it. You have to decide (C) If the data in both the Statements I and II
whether the data provided in the statements together are necessary to answer the
are sufficient to answer the question: question
(D) If the data either in Statement I alone or in
What is the position of Rahul with respect to Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
Vivek ? question
I. In a row of 27 students, Rahul is sitting 13th (E) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient
from right end of the row and Vivek is sitting 21st to answer the question, while the data in
from the left end of the row. Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
II. Rahul is sitting 8th from right end and Vivek is the question.
sitting 10th from left end in a row.
Q137 Each of the questions below consists of a
(A) If the data either in Statement I alone or in
question and two statements numbered I and
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
II given below it. You have to decide whether
question
(B) If the data in both the Statements I and II
sufficient to answer the question:
together are necessary to answer the
question.
Salary of eight people L, P, R, T, X, A, D and F
(C) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient
are given differently. How many peoples salary
is more than P?
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
I. Salary of X is more than T and D, but not as
the question.
much as R and A. Salary of R is more than P and
(D) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient
T, but not as much as L and A. Salary of only
two persons are less than T. Salary of A is
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
highest among all the people. Salary of F is
the question.
lowest among all.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II
II. Salary of P is more than D and F, but not as

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much as L and X. Salary of R is more than T and Q139 Study the following data carefully and answer
D, but not as much as P and A. F’s salary is the questions accordingly.
lowest and the A’s salary is highest . Salary of
only Three people are more than X. Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
(A) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient attending the meeting the different dates viz-
to answer the question, while the data in either 16 or 27 of four different months viz-
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer September, October, November and December
the question but not necessarily in the same order.
(B) If the data either in Statement I alone or in U attending the meeting on an odd date but
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the not in the month which has less than 31 days.
question Only two persons were attending the meeting
(C) If the data in both the Statements I and II between U and P. Only one person attending
together are necessary to answer the the meeting between S and P. P attending
question before S. At most two persons are attending the
(D) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient meeting after Q. V attending the meeting
to answer the question, while the data in immediately before W. R attending the meeting
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer an odd numbered date. Only two persons are
the question attending the meeting between R and T. V
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II attending the meeting two person after T. R is
together are not sufficient to answer the attending the meeting before T.
question
Which of the following person attending the
meeting two person after Q?
(A) W (B) P
(C) Q (D) U
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
(E) S
attending the meeting the different dates viz-
either 16 or 27 of four different months viz- Q140 Study the following data carefully and answer
September, October, November and December the questions accordingly.
but not necessarily in the same order.
U attending the meeting on an odd date but Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
not in the month which has less than 31 days. attending the meeting the different dates viz-
Only two persons were attending the meeting either 16 or 27 of four different months viz-
between U and P. Only one person attending September, October, November and December
the meeting between S and P. P attending but not necessarily in the same order.
before S. At most two persons are attending the U attending the meeting on an odd date but
meeting after Q. V attending the meeting not in the month which has less than 31 days.
immediately before W. R attending the meeting Only two persons were attending the meeting
an odd numbered date. Only two persons are between U and P. Only one person attending
attending the meeting between R and T. V the meeting between S and P. P attending
attending the meeting two person after T. R is before S. At most two persons are attending the
attending the meeting before T. meeting after Q. V attending the meeting
immediately before W. R attending the meeting
How many person are attending the meeting an odd numbered date. Only two persons are
between S and V? attending the meeting between R and T. V
(A) One (B) Four attending the meeting two person after T. R is
(C) Three (D) Five attending the meeting before T.
(E) None of these

Banking
Which of the following person attending the immediately before W. R attending the meeting
meeting immediately before V? an odd numbered date. Only two persons are
(A) S (B) U attending the meeting between R and T. V
(C) P (D) Q attending the meeting two person after T. R is
(E) None of these attending the meeting before T.

In a certain way, If W related to Q, T related to S
then who among the following person is related
to R?
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
(A) U (B) V
attending the meeting the different dates viz-
(C) P (D) Q
either 16 or 27 of four different months viz-
(E) None of these
September, October, November and December
but not necessarily in the same order. Q143 In each question a statement is given, followed
U attending the meeting on an odd date but by two assumptions, numbered I and II. An
not in the month which has less than 31 days. assumption is supposed or taken for granted.
Only two persons were attending the meeting You have to consider the statement and
between U and P. Only one person attending assumptions and decide which of the
the meeting between S and P. P attending assumptions is implicit in the statement.
before S. At most two persons are attending the
meeting after Q. V attending the meeting Statement: The IMF has advised China to
immediately before W. R attending the meeting address its high corporate debt levels that have
an odd numbered date. Only two persons are resulted from the easy monetary policy put in
attending the meeting between R and T. V place during the coronavirus pandemic.
attending the meeting two person after T. R is Assumptions:
attending the meeting before T. I. An easy monetary policy can help a country
to overcome an economic crisis caused due to
Four of the following five are alike in a certain a pandemic.
way and hence form a group. Which of the II. An easy monetary policy makes it easier for
following one does not belong to that group? businesses to get loans.
(A) P (B) S (A) Only I is implicit
(C) T (D) V (B) Only II is implicit
(E) W (C) Both (I) and (II) are implicit
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) are implicit
(E) Either (I) or (II) are implicit
Q144 In each question a statement is given, followed
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are by two assumptions, numbered I and II. An
attending the meeting the different dates viz- assumption is supposed or taken for granted.
either 16 or 27 of four different months viz- You have to consider the statement and
September, October, November and December assumptions and decide which of the
but not necessarily in the same order. assumptions is implicit in the statement.
U attending the meeting on an odd date but
not in the month which has less than 31 days. Statement: When China, one of the world’s
Only two persons were attending the meeting largest steel producing nations, seems to be
between U and P. Only one person attending facing a real estate crisis, it is bound to upset or
the meeting between S and P. P attending even topple the prospects of steelmakers
before S. At most two persons are attending the worldwide.
meeting after Q. V attending the meeting Assumptions:

Banking
I. The real estate sector of China consumes a Statement: Should the Indian securities market
significant proportion of steel produced regulator SEBI allow the European securities
globally. market regulator to inspect Indian clearing
II. The real estate sector accounts for a corporations under a new pact?
considerable portion of China’s GDP growth. Arguments:
(A) Only I is implicit I. No, because inspection by overseas market
(B) Only II is implicit regulators may result in the Indian regulator
(C) Both I and II are implicit ceding regulatory ground to an authority that is
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit exercising extraterritorial jurisdiction over Indian
(E) Either I or II is implicit companies.
II. No, because this could set a precedent for
Q145 In making decisions about important
other countries to follow suit and demand the
questions, it is desirable to be able to
right to inspect Indian companies.
distinguish between strong arguments and
(A) Only I is strong
weak arguments in so far as they relate to the
(B) Only ll is strong
question. Strong arguments are those which
(C) Either l and ll are strong
are both important and directly related to the
(D) Neither l nor ll are Strong
question. Weak arguments are those which are
(E) Both l and ll are strong
of minor importance and also may not be
directly related to the question or may be Q147 Directions:In each of the following questions, a
related to a trivial aspect of the question. statement is followed by two conclusions. You
have to assume everything in the statement to
Statement: be true and then decide which of the two
My son really doesn't want to wear boy clothes. given conclusions logically followed beyond a
He prefers to wear girl clothes. The fashion reasonable doubt.
world has divided children into pink and blue.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken Statement: Eating protein makes up around
the argument? half of the animal byproducts (hair, skin, horns,
(A) There is a growing demand for different etc.). 45 per cent of these proteins can be
clothing for babies and toddlers too. isolated using a technique created by American
(B) People are differentiated on the idea that Chemist. To digest the soy protein, they
you have very masculine and very feminine employed an enzyme created in Japan.
things. Conclusions:
(C) There is a whole community out there of I. Enzyme development has not been successful
parents and kids who are struggling with in Americans.
pink and blue. II. The composition of animal byproduct
(D) The preference for neutral clothing is proteins is identical to that of soy protein.
unstirred irrespective of gender, age and (A) Only I
category. (B) Only II
(E) I'm really keen on the gender binary and the (C) Both follow
gender roles. (D) Either I or II
(E) Neither I nor II
Q146 Each question given below consists of a
statement, followed by two arguments Q148 Study the following data carefully and answer
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the questions accordingly.
the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which
is a 'weak' argument. Eight members - Tony, Srikant, Raman, Love,
Chitra, Preeti, Koyal and Juhi consists of a
family of three generations such that there are

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two married couples and four males. grandmother of both Chitra and Srikant. Raman
Love's brother is the father of both Chitra and has only two sons. Srikant is a male member.
Srikant and both are unmarried. Juhi is the
maternal aunt of Chitra. Raman is the father- How many daughters does Tony have?
in-law of Koyal who is a female. Preeti is the (A) One (B) Two
paternal grandmother of both Chitra and (C) Three (D) Four
Srikant. Raman has only two sons. Srikant is a (E) None
male member.
How is Chitra related to Tony?
(A) Son (B) Daughter
Eight members - Tony, Srikant, Raman, Love,
(C) Father (D) Mother
Chitra, Preeti, Koyal and Juhi consists of a
(E) Wife
family of three generations such that there are
Q149 Study the following data carefully and answer two married couples and four males.Love's
the questions accordingly. brother is the father of both Chitra and Srikant
and both are unmarried. Juhi is the maternal
Eight members - Tony, Srikant, Raman, Love, aunt of Chitra. Raman is the father-in-law of
Chitra, Preeti, Koyal and Juhi consists of a Koyal who is a female. Preeti is the paternal
family of three generations such that there are grandmother of both Chitra and Srikant. Raman
two married couples and four males.Love's has only two sons. Srikant is a male member.
brother is the father of both Chitra and Srikant
and both are unmarried. Juhi is the maternal Who is the unmarried child of Preeti?
aunt of Chitra. Raman is the father-in-law of (A) Love (B) Tony
Koyal who is a female. Preeti is the paternal (C) Koyal (D) Chitra
(E) None of these

Banking
Answer Key
Q1 (C) Q34 (D)
Q2 (B) Q35 (C)
Q3 (A) Q36 (B)
Q4 (C) Q37 (A)
Q5 (B) Q38 (D)
Q6 (C) Q39 (B)
Q7 (A) Q40 (E)
Q8 (B) Q41 (B)
Q9 (B) Q42 (C)
Q10 (B) Q43 (A)
Q11 (D) Q44 (E)
Q12 (A) Q45 (E)
Q13 (A) Q46 (B)
Q14 (D) Q47 (D)
Q15 (C) Q48 (A)
Q16 (A) Q49 (D)
Q17 (B) Q50 (E)
Q18 (C) Q51 (A)
Q19 (E) Q52 (C)
Q20 (B) Q53 (A)
Q21 (E) Q54 (B)
Q22 (A) Q55 (B)
Q23 (A) Q56 (C)
Q24 (B) Q57 (C)
Q25 (E) Q58 (E)
Q26 (B) Q59 (C)
Q27 (C) Q60 (B)
Q28 (D) Q61 (A)
Q29 (D) Q62 (C)
Q30 (B) Q63 (A)
Q31 (C) Q64 (A)
Q32 (D) Q65 (C)
Q33 (C) Q66 (A)

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Q67 (B) Q102 (A)
Q68 (C) Q103 (E)
Q69 (E) Q104 (D)
Q70 (D) Q105 (D)
Q71 (A) Q106 (C)
Q72 (D) Q107 (A)
Q73 (A) Q108 (C)
Q74 (A) Q109 (E)
Q75 (E) Q110 (B)
Q76 (D) Q111 (C)
Q77 (B) Q112 (C)
Q78 (D) Q113 (C)
Q79 (C) Q114 (C)
Q80 (C) Q115 (E)
Q81 (A) Q116 (E)
Q82 (B) Q117 (B)
Q83 (B) Q118 (B)
Q84 (A) Q119 (B)
Q85 (C) Q120 (D)
Q86 (C) Q121 (C)
Q87 (C) Q122 (D)
Q88 (E) Q123 (E)
Q89 (C) Q124 (A)
Q90 (D) Q125 (D)
Q91 (A) Q126 (E)
Q92 (B) Q127 (D)
Q93 (A) Q128 (C)
Q94 (C) Q129 (E)
Q95 (D) Q130 (E)
Q96 (B) Q131 (B)
Q97 (B) Q132 (E)
Q98 (A) Q133 (C)
Q99 (D) Q134 (C)
Q100 (D) Q135 (C)
Q101 (A) Q136 (C)

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Q137 (C) Q144 (A)
Q138 (C) Q145 (D)
Q139 (A) Q146 (E)
Q140 (D) Q147 (E)
Q141 (E) Q148 (B)
Q142 (A) Q149 (A)
Q143 (C) Q150 (A)

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Hints & Solutions

Q1 Text Solution: something that deserves reward or praise.
The highlighted phrase is incorrect. Before the Sentence 1 and sentence 2 both are
adjective ‘higher’ we need an adverb. But the grammatically correct and meaningful. Both 1
word ‘significant’ is an adjective. and 2 can replace the highlighted phrase.
Statement 1 cannot replace the bold phrase Sentence 3 is incorrect. Here ‘ramifications’,
because it is not correct. The word excessive is which means ‘complex or unwelcome
an adjective and the word increased is also an consequence of an action or event’ does not
adjective here. We need an adverb before make any sense. Also, the word ‘develop’ makes
‘increased’. no sense. Here we need a noun instead of a
In sentence 2, we have an adverb to qualify the verb.
adjective ‘higher’. Similarly in sentence 3, we The correct sentences after improvement:-
have an adverb ‘comparatively’ to qualify the 1.The Supreme Court on May 12, in a judgment,
adjective ‘increased’. said there are serious blunders and
Both 2 and 3 can replace the highlighted unreliability in the execution of the Protection
phrase. of Women from Sexual Harassment Act, leaving
The correct sentences after improvement:- many working women no choice but to leave
2.People with obstructive sleep apnoea may be their jobs.
at significantly higher risk of suffering long 2.The Supreme Court on May 12, in a judgment,
Covid, according to a study. said there are serious lapses and uncertainty in
3.People with obstructive sleep apnoea may be the implementation of the Protection of
at comparatively increased risk of suffering Women from Sexual Harassment Act, leaving
long Covid, according to a study. many working women no choice but to leave
Thus, (c) is the right answer. their jobs.
Q2 Text Solution: Thus, (a) is the right answer.
The given sentence contains a bold phrase that Q4 Text Solution:

is grammatically incorrect. The word ‘definitely’ The highlighted phrase is incorrect. There is no
is an adverb and it does not make any sense phrase as ‘rope down’. The correct phrase is
when used before the noun;’role’. ‘rope in’, which means to ‘engage’ or ‘talk into’.
In sentence 1, the use of ‘importance’ is Also, the use of ‘this’ before a plural word is
grammatically wrong here. Here we need an incorrect.
adjective and not a noun. Sentence 2 is incorrect because the use of ‘this’
In both sentences 2 and 3, the use of words is is wrong here. Also, the nouns ‘design’ and
correct and both these phrases are ‘conduction’ do not make any sense here.
grammatically correct. Both 1 and 3 can replace the highlighted
The correct sentences after improvement:- phrase. The phrase ‘talk someone into’ is the
2.These high temperatures play an extremely same in meaning as ‘rope in’. The former takes
crucial role in the intensification of cyclonic ‘V+ing’ after it. Both these phrases mean the
storms as they infuse more convection. same, that is, ‘persuade someone to take part
3.These high temperatures play a very in an activity despite their reluctance’.
important role in the intensification of cyclonic The correct sentences after improvement:-
storms as they infuse more convection. 1.With its decades of experience in conducting
Thus, (b) is the right answer. human clinical trials, it makes eminent sense to
Q3 Text Solution: talk the ICMR into designing and conducting
The phrase given in bold is incorrect. The word these trials.
‘meritorious’ cannot fit here as it refers to

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3.With its decades of experience in conducting Q8 Text Solution:

human clinical trials, it makes eminent sense to The sentence states that India's successful
rope in the ICMR to design and conduct these moon landing is a perfect example of the value
trials. of fusing scientific expertise with inventiveness
Thus, (c) is the right answer. and accomplishing challenging objectives
Q5 Text Solution: despite early mistakes.
The sentence states that if the US doesn't In the highlighted phrase, the subject “moon
handle the ongoing green card backlog, it risks land” is incorrect. The correct subject to use
losing qualified workers to its northern here is “moon landing”. Also, the use of the
neighbours and other nations. plural verb “underscore” for the singular subject
The usage of the word “addressal” is incorrect in “moon landing” is incorrect.
the highlighted phrase. It needs to be replaced Among the phrases, only phrases 1 and 3 can
with the verb “address”. So, only 1 and 3 can replace the highlighted phrase.
replace the highlighted phrase. Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
Phrase 2 can’t replace the highlighted phrase Q9 Text Solution:

because the use of the word “suggest” CADEB is the correct sequence. There can be
modifies the intended meaning of the no argument regarding the Choice for the 1st
sentence. sentence as it is introducing the issue. In C it is
Hence, option (B) is the correct answer. mentioned that court proceedings are
Q6 Text Solution: inaccurate and in sentence A it is only
The above sentence mentions that India is a elaborated therefore it is the next sentence of
great choice to help shape the global AI the sequence. The argument is justified in
regulatory framework due to its thriving statement D, therefore it is just continuing the
technology sector. paragraph and must be the next statement. E is
The position of the word “well” is incorrect in the one of the way to deal with the things and
highlighted phrase. Also, the gerund “playing” is therefore it must come next.
incorrect to use in the context of this sentence. Q10 Text Solution:

Here, “to” must be followed by {V1} i.e. the The sentences in the sequence of CBFADGE
infinitive form of the verb “play”. form a coherent paragraph which is about the
So, phrases 2 and 3 can replace the highlighted Indian Science Congress (ISC). Considering the
phrase of the sentence. given options, statement (C) makes the most
Phrase 1 is inappropriate as it changes the logical start to the paragraph. Sentences (B)
intended meaning of the sentence. and (F) are complementary and there is a
Hence, option (C) is the correct answer. similar case with the sentences (G) and (E).
Q7 Text Solution: Sentence (A) should follow (F) to make a better
The sentence discusses the increasing chain of logical statements. Hence (b) is the
competition between the US and China in the most suitable option.
global economy, particularly in artificial Q11 Text Solution:

intelligence, leading to concerns among US The sentence (A) should begin the paragraph
tech companies about the challenges posed as it starts with the theme of the paragraph. It
by the country's immigration system in recruiting should subsequently be followed by the
top talent. statements (B), (D) and (C). The sentence (F)
The usage of the preposition “between” for so concludes the paragraph. Thus, sentences in
many “tech companies” is incorrect to use. the sequence of ABDCEF form a coherent
Thus, phrases 1 and 2 can replace the paragraph which is about the importance of
highlighted phrase in context of the sentence. knowledge and the desire of all men to attain
Hence, option (A) is the correct answer. the same. Hence (d) is the correct choice.

Banking
Q12 Text Solution: leadership where the manager has full control
If we go by the options, statement (B) should and makes decisions without much input from
begin the paragraph. There is a clear the team. The word "perceptive" implies being
connection between the sentences (B) and (A) insightful and understanding, which can inspire
[“empirical systems” in the sentence (B) and and motivate the team. Option (B) (lenient) and
“such systems” in the sentence (A)]. The (D) (indecisive) do not align with the idea of
sentence (C) concludes the paragraph in a inspiring and motivating the team. Therefore,
proper way. Thus, sentences in the sequence of Option (c) is the correct answer.
BADC form a coherent paragraph which is Q16 Text Solution:
about demand for development services in the The sentence describes a person who faces
educational institutions. Hence (a) is the correct setbacks and obstacles but continues to
choice. persevere until they achieve their goal. The
Q13 Text Solution: word "determined" fits the context perfectly,
The passage starts with a statement by Abigail meaning having a firm resolution or strong will.
Adams in light of women centric development Options (B), (C), and (D) do not convey the idea
and further draws attention to recent of persistence or determination. Therefore, the
movements in India including #MeToo and correct answer is Option (a).
Sabrimala protests. The writer further tries to Q17 Text Solution:
analyse the reasons for these movements and The question highlights the educational
mentions the declining inequality in education. institution's commitment to fostering creativity
He adds the usual scenes witnessed within and innovation, suggesting exceptional
towns and villages where mornings are outcomes in terms of graduates' achievements.
brightened with the women and girls dressed in Option (b) exemplary best represents this idea,
uniforms, walking to schools. Therefore, the indicating graduates who serve as outstanding
correct sequence formed after rearrangement examples, role models, or benchmarks of
will be: success. Hence, option (b) is the correct
BEDACF answer.
Q14 Text Solution: Q18. Text Solution:
The sentence talks about the impact of new The correct option is (c) because the main
technology revolutionising communication. The purpose of the Women’s Reservation Bill is to
word "Implementation" means putting address the gender imbalance in political
something into effect, which is not the most representation by reserving one-third of all
appropriate word in this context. seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for
"Obsolescence" means the state of being women. The other options are incorrect as they
outdated or no longer in use, which does not fit misrepresent the bill's intent.
the context of revolutionising communication. Option (a) To discriminate against men in
"Adaptation" means the process of adjusting to politics - This is incorrect because the bill's
new circumstances, which is not the most purpose is not to discriminate against men but
appropriate word in this context. "Proliferation" to address gender imbalance.
means rapid increase or growth, which fits the Option (b) To reserve all political seats for
context of technology revolutionising women - This is incorrect as the bill aims to
communication. reserve one-third, not all, political seats for
Therefore, Option (d) is the correct answer. women.
Q15 Text Solution: Option (d) To eliminate all competition among
The sentence describes the manager's politicians - This is incorrect because the bill
leadership style and its impact on the team. does not aim to eliminate competition but
The word "autocratic" suggests a style of rather promote gender balance.

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Q19. Text Solution: The correct option is (b) concerned. The

The original sentence should be “The progress author's tone in the passage is concerned, as
has been lethargic and it’s a stark reminder they express worry and criticism regarding the
that democracy has not given women the voice gender imbalance in politics and the need for
they deserve “. It discusses the slow progress in action to address it.
achieving gender equality in Indian democracy Option (a) Informative - This option is incorrect
and highlights the stark underrepresentation of because while the passage does contain
women in political leadership. It conveys a information, the primary tone of the passage
sense of disappointment and frustration with goes beyond mere information-sharing. The
the current state of affairs, implying that author expresses a critical perspective on the
democracy has not fulfilled its potential to gender imbalance in politics and the need for
provide equal representation and a voice for the Women's Reservation Bill, indicating a tone
women in politics. that goes beyond pure informativeness.
The phrase "has not given women the voice Option (c) Optimistic - This option is incorrect
they deserve" encapsulates this sentiment by because the passage does not convey an
suggesting that democracy has fallen short in overall sense of optimism. While it discusses a
empowering and representing women legislative remedy (the Women's Reservation
effectively. It emphasizes the disparity between Bill), it does so in the context of a longstanding
the promise of democracy and the actual level gender imbalance and political inaction, which
of women's participation in political decision- are presented in a critical manner.
making, making it a suitable and accurate filler Option (d) Analytical - This option is incorrect
for the sentence. because while the passage may contain some
Option (a) " inherently flawed and biased" - This analytical elements in discussing the issue of
option suggests that democracy itself is gender imbalance and the proposed solution,
fundamentally flawed and biased, which is not the overall tone is more concerned and critical
the intended message in the given context . rather than purely analytical.
The sentence is focusing on the lack of women's Option (e) Indifferent - This option is incorrect
representation in democracy, not criticizing because the passage clearly conveys a sense
democracy as a system. of concern and criticism about the gender
Option (b) "promotes gender equality imbalance in politics. It is not indifferent; rather,
effectively" - This option contradicts the it takes a stance on the issue and advocates for
message of the given context of the paragraph change through the Women's Reservation Bill.
consisting this statement, which highlights the Q21. Text Solution:
slow progress in achieving gender equality in The correct answer is (e) "Supportive."
politics. It doesn't align with the statement's Throughout the passage, the author expresses
tone of criticism. support for the Women's Reservation Bill as a
Option (c) "strives for equal representation" - necessary legislative remedy to address the
While this option is a positive statement, it gender imbalance in politics. The author
doesn't capture the essence of the given criticizes the lack of voluntary action by political
context, which emphasizes the slow progress parties and emphasizes the importance of the
and lack of women's voices in democracy. bill, indicating a tone of advocacy and support
Option (d) "values diversity in political for its implementation. This support is evident in
leadership" - This option, like option (c), statements such as "The Women’s Reservation
presents a positive view of democracy, but it Bill...now stands as a legislative remedy for this
doesn't address the issue raised in the imbalance" and "It is the result of decades of
paragraph, which is the underrepresentation of unfulfilled promises and persistent gender bias
women in political leadership. within political parties."
Q20. Text Solution:

Banking
Option (a) Enthusiastic - This option is incorrect gender imbalance in Indian politics and the
because the author's tone in the passage is not proposed Women's Reservation Bill as a
enthusiastic but rather critical of the gender solution. The other options do not capture the
imbalance in politics. While the author supports main focus of the passage or provide
the Women's Reservation Bill, the overall tone is misleading information.
more concerned and critical than enthusiastic. Option (b) The Success of Women's Reservation
Option (b) Sceptical - This option is incorrect Bill - This option is incorrect because the
because the author is not sceptical about the passage primarily discusses the need for the
Women's Reservation Bill. The author argues in Women's Reservation Bill and the ongoing
favor of the bill as a solution to address gender gender disparity in Indian politics. While the bill
imbalance and criticizes the inaction of political is mentioned as a legislative remedy, the
parties. Scepticism would imply doubt or passage does not provide evidence of its
reservation, which is not the author's stance. success or implementation. The title suggests
Option (c) Indifferent - This option is incorrect an optimistic perspective that is not fully
because the author's tone is not indifferent. The supported by the passage's content. Option (c)
passage conveys a sense of concern and The Decline of Female Representation - This
urgency regarding the gender imbalance in option is incorrect because the passage does
politics and the need for action through the not focus on a decline in female representation.
Women's Reservation Bill. Option (d) Ambivalent Instead, it highlights the persistently low level of
- This option is incorrect because ambivalence female representation in Indian politics over the
suggests mixed feelings or uncertainty. The years and the need for intervention through the
author's tone is not ambivalent but rather clear Women's Reservation Bill. The title implies a
in advocating for the Women's Reservation Bill different narrative than what the passage
as a necessary remedy for gender inequality in presents. Option (d) India's Political Landscape
politics. - This option is incorrect because it is too broad
Q22. Text Solution: and does not capture the specific focus of the
The correct option is (a) because the primary passage, which is on the gender imbalance in
argument against the Women’s Reservation Bill, Indian politics and the proposed solution. The
as mentioned in the passage, is that it title does not provide enough context about
promotes fairness and merit-based the passage's content and could refer to a wide
competition rather than gender-based range of political topics beyond gender
reservation. The other options are incorrect as disparity
they do not represent the argument presented Q24. Text Solution:

in the passage. The correct option is (b) because the passage
Option (b) It discriminates against women - This suggests that increased female representation
is incorrect as the argument is about promoting in elected bodies can promote social inclusion,
fairness, not discrimination. gender equality, and overall societal
Option (c) It lacks support from the majority of development.
politicians - This is incorrect as the argument is Option (a) It can lead to the exclusion of men
not about political support. from politics - This option is incorrect because
Option (d) It is a heavy-handed approach - the passage does not suggest that increased
This is correct; the passage mentions concerns female representation in elected bodies leads
about the bill being heavy-handed in to the exclusion of men from politics. The
promoting gender-based reservation. passage advocates for gender balance and
Q23. Text Solution: equality in politics, not exclusion. Option (c) It
The correct option is (a) Gender Disparity in can eliminate competition among politicians -
Politics. This title accurately reflects the central This option is incorrect because the passage
theme of the passage, which discusses the does not indicate that increased female

Banking
representation eliminates competition among made in the passage. It lacks the introductory
politicians. While it discusses the Women's element necessary for coherence.
Reservation Bill as a measure to address Option (c) DCBEA - This option starts with part
gender imbalance, it does not suggest that D, "Gender-based seat reservation is not,"
competition among politicians will cease. which is an incomplete and confusing
Option (d) It can increase gender bias in beginning for the sentence. It doesn't provide
decision-making - This option is incorrect the context or the counterargument needed to
because the passage actually suggests the understand the argument's progression.
opposite. It implies that increased female Option (d) CDEBA - This sequence starts with
representation can lead to more diverse part C, "the injustices women have historically
perspectives and priorities, which can help faced," which also lacks an introductory
reduce gender bias in decision-making. element to set up the counterargument. It
Q25. Text Solution: jumps into the discussion without the necessary
The sentence in the passage is structured as context and logic.
follows. These options are incorrect because they do
"E - However, this argument is untenable when not maintain a logical and coherent flow of
viewed in the context of the systemic exclusion thought in the sentence, which is crucial for
and the injustices women have historically effective communication.
faced. Q26 Text Solution:

B - Gender-based seat reservation is not The correct option is (b). Both sentences 1 and 3
C - about discriminating against men are grammatically and contextually correct. In
D - in the context of the systemic exclusion and the 2nd sentence, there is a minor grammatical
A - the injustices women have historically error. The adjective "economical" is incorrect in
faced." this context. It should be "economic" to properly
In this sequence, the sentence begins with modify the "multiplier."
"However" (E), indicating a contrast or Economical means giving good value or service
counterpoint to a previous argument. It then in relation to the amount of money, time, or
establishes the context (B) that gender-based effort spent.
seat reservation is not about discriminating So, the corrected sentence would be:
against men (C) but rather about addressing A capital-intensive and multi-sector industry,
the systemic exclusion and historical injustices tourism and travel is an important economic
faced by women (A). multiplier under-recognized in its ability to
So, option (e) "EBCDA" correctly forms a support all segments of the economy.
meaningful and coherent sentence by Q27 Text Solution:
presenting the counterargument (E) first and The correct option is (c).
then explaining the context and the main point Both sentences 1 and 2 are grammatically and
(BCDA) that follows. contextually correct. In the 3rd sentence, the
Option (a) ACDBE - This sequence starts with word "associates" is incorrect in this context. It
part A, "About discriminating against men," should be "association" because the sentence
which doesn't make sense as an opening is referring to the relationship between
because it lacks context. The logical flow of the environmental variables and sleep efficiency,
sentence is disrupted because it doesn't which is a singular noun.
provide the necessary background for the So, the corrected sentence would be:
argument against discriminating against men. The research, published in the journal Sleep
Option (b) BACDE - This arrangement begins Health, is one of the first to measure multiple
with part B, "in the context of the systemic environmental variables in the bedroom and
exclusion," which is premature and doesn't analyse their association with sleep efficiency.
establish the initial point or argument being

Banking
Q28 Text Solution: Option (a) is not correct because the passage
The correct option is (d). Both sentences 1 and 2 does not mention foreign investments and
are grammatically and contextually correct. In exports as key drivers of credit quality
the 3rd sentence, the word “product” is wrong in improvements.
this context. It should be “production” because Option (b) is not correct because while
the word "production" refers to the act of government stimulus packages can have an
making or manufacturing something, and the impact on the economy, the passage
sentence describes the use of these substances specifically attributes credit quality
in the manufacturing process. improvements to domestic consumption and
So, the corrected sentence would be: sector-specific investments.
“The protocol curbs the release of ozone- Option (d) is not correct because there is no
depleting substances that could disperse, but mention of decreased competition in the
does not ban their use in the production of passage as a driver of credit quality
other chemicals as raw materials or by- improvements.
products”. Option (e) is not correct because the passage
Q29 Text Solution: does not discuss the expansion of India's
Option # (d) is correct as the 2nd sentence is manufacturing sector as a key driver of credit
grammatically and contextually correct. In the quality improvements.
first sentence, the word “seasonal” is wrong; in Q32. Text Solution:

this context, it should be “unseasonal” because The passage mentions that the hospitality
it implies that the rains occurred during a time sector experienced a significant rebound in H1
when they were not supposed to and hence FY2024, with sharp recoveries in occupancy
caused a slight loss in the output of the crop rates and average room rates, leading to
production in Punjab and Haryana. The 3rd several credit upgrades. Therefore, option (d) is
sentence is grammatically wrong as the verb the correct answer.
“fall” should be in the past participle form Option (a) is not correct because the passage
“fallen”. discusses auto components separately and
Q30 Text Solution: does not mention a rebound in occupancy
The option (b) is the right answer. Both 1 and 2 rates and room rates in this context.
are grammatically and contextually correct. In Option (b) is not correct because while realty
3, we need to replace the word INSIGNIFICANT did show resilience, the passage does not
with the word SIGNIFICANT because mention a rebound in occupancy rates and
"insignificant" implies that the distribution rules room rates as the reason for credit upgrades in
had a negative impact on the profits of the this sector.
companies making Covid-19 vaccines, which is Option (c) is not correct because the power
not the case. In reality, the distribution rules sector is discussed in a different context,
would have likely increased demand for the related to policy reforms, and not in terms of a
vaccines and thus increased the profits of these rebound in occupancy rates and room rates.
companies. Therefore, "significant" is a more Option (e) is not correct because the passage
appropriate word to use in this context. mentions the roads sector but does not
attribute credit upgrades to a rebound in
Q31. Text Solution:
occupancy rates and room rates in this sector.
The ICRA report highlights that the key drivers
of credit quality improvements in India Inc Q33. Text Solution:
during H1 FY2024 were robust domestic According to the passage, credit upgrades in
consumption and investments in specific the power sector during H1 FY2024 were led by
sectors. This is clearly mentioned in the the realization of long-pending receivables
passage, making option (c) the correct answer. from power distribution companies, which were
cleared under the Late Payment Surcharge

Banking
(LPS) scheme. Therefore, option (c) is the correct Inc's improved credit quality in H1 FY2024. It
answer. highlights how various sectors, including
Option (a) is not correct because the passage hospitality, auto components, power, realty,
does not mention increased electricity roads, and financials, played a pivotal role in
consumption as a specific reason for credit driving credit quality improvements. Therefore,
upgrades. option (c) is the correct answer.
Option (b) is not correct because the passage Q36. Text Solution:
does not discuss the implementation of The tone of the author in the passage is best
renewable energy projects as a driver of credit described as "optimistic and encouraging."
upgrades in the power sector. Throughout the passage, the author highlights
Option (d) is not correct because the passage positive developments, such as the
does not mention government subsidies for strengthening of India Inc.'s credit quality, the
power distribution companies as a reason for resilience of various sectors, and the broader
credit upgrades. economic implications of these improvements.
Option (e) is not correct because the passage The author's language is generally positive and
does not attribute credit upgrades in the power forward-looking, suggesting optimism about
sector to improved power generation India's economic recovery and growth
technologies. prospects. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
Q34. Text Solution: answer.
According to the passage, the broader Option (a) is not correct because the author's
economic implications of India Inc's improved tone is not critical or skeptical but rather
credit quality in H1 FY2024 include enhanced positive and supportive of the developments
sectoral resilience. The passage mentions that discussed in the passage.
the sectoral diversity in credit quality Option (c) is not correct because the author's
improvements suggests that multiple segments tone is not indifferent or disinterested; it is
of the Indian economy are regaining strength. actively engaged in conveying the positive
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. aspects of the topic.
Option (a) is not correct because the passage Option (d) is not correct because the author's
discusses an improved investment climate as a tone is not pessimistic or cautious; it is
result of improved credit quality, not a optimistic about the economic recovery and
decreased investment climate. growth prospects.
Option (b) is not correct because the passage Option (e) is not correct because the author's
highlights job creation as a potential positive tone is not biased or subjective but rather
outcome of improved credit quality, not objective and based on the information
reduced job creation. presented in the passage.
Option (c) is not correct because the passage Q37. Text Solution:
suggests that improved credit quality The correct option to fill in the blank to
contributes to a faster economic recovery, not a complete the sentence is (a) "underscores the
slower one. overall improvement." In the passage, it is
Option (e) is not correct because the passage mentioned that the ICRA report reveals the
mentions that businesses with improved credit overall improvement in the credit quality of both
profiles are better positioned to access credit, investment-grade and non-investment-grade
indicating enhanced credit access, not limited categories. Therefore, option (a) accurately
access. represents the content of the passage.
Q38. Text Solution:

Q35. Text Solution: Solution (4)
The primary theme of the passage is to discuss The RBI in general plays the key role in setting
the diverse sectors that contributed to India

Banking
the inflation target and meeting the Q41. Text Solution:

"expectations" of the economic agents. Solution (2)
Therefore, 'expectations' is the correct word to In the context of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
fill the blank A. Hence the correct option choice and monetary policy, the term "threshold" refers
is (4). RBI does not play the role in setting to a specific level or limit set for a particular
budget, strategy, reliance or threshold for the economic indicator. This indicator is usually
economic agents. All other words are related to some important aspect of the
contextually and grammatically incorrect. economy, such as inflation or economic growth.
(a) Budget: Financial plan. When the RBI talks about a threshold, it means
(b) Strategy: Goal-oriented plan. that they have identified a certain value for
(c) Threshold: Limiting point. that economic indicator, and they are closely
(d) Expectations: Anticipated outcomes. monitoring it. If the indicator's value crosses or
(e) Reliance: Dependence or trust. goes beyond that threshold, it may trigger
Q39. Text Solution: certain actions or measures by the RBI.
Solution (2) All other words are grammatically and
Here 'credibility' is the correct word to be used contextually incorrect in the context of the
as the context of the sentence states that the passage. Hence, the correct option choice is
new terminology issued by the RBI will create (b).
'vagueness' in the inflation target framework. All (a) Ceiling: The upper limit or maximum.
other words given in the options cannot be (b) Threshold: The minimum level or point at
used in this context with the term 'inflation'. which something begins or occurs.
Hence, the correct option choice is (2). (c) Bound: To limit or restrict; a limit or boundary.
(a) Foundation: Base or groundwork. (d) Adjustment: A modification or change made
(b) Credibility: Trustworthiness or reliability. to improve or align with specific criteria.
(c) Profitability: Ability to generate profit or (e) Band: A range or grouping of values or levels.
financial gain. Q42. Text Solution:
(d) Probability: Likelihood or chance of Solution (3)
something happening. The context of the sentence states that
(e) Conformity: Act of complying or adhering to between January 2022 and March 2023, CPI
rules or norms. inflation was 6.6 percent on average. Since
Q40. Text Solution: then, inflation has decreased; the CPI for the
Solution (5) period of March to May 2023 averaged 4.9
The correct word is 'achieved' as we generally percent. Therefore 'inflation' is the correct word
use the word 'achieve' with the word target. It is to fill the blank E. All other given words are
stated that for some time the legally mandated contextually incorrect. Hence, the correct
target for achieving 4\% CPI (consumer price option choice is (c).
index) inflation target with band of (+/ − 2) (a) Stagflation: Stagnant economy with
was not achieved. All other words are incorrect inflation.
to use with the word 'target'. Hence, the correct (b) Recession: Economic downturn, reduced
option choice is (e). activity.
(a) Sustained: Maintained or continued over a (c) Inflation: Rising prices, devalued currency.
period of time. (d) Economy: Production, consumption,
(b) Confirmed: Verified or validated as true or tradesystem.
accurate. (e) Funding: Providing financial resources,
(c) Issued: Officially released or distributed. capital.
(d) Noticed: Observed or perceived. Q43. Text Solution:
(e) Achieved: Successfully accomplished or
attained.

Banking
Solution (1) Q46 Text Solution:

'Geared' is the correct word to fill the blank 'F'. Scattered - spread over a large area or
To achieve the inflation target, RBI must frame happening several times during a period of
the policy accordingly and must model the time. Dispersed - to separate and go in
policy actions to achieve the inflation target. different directions; to make
Therefore, 'geared' is the correct word to fill the somebody/something do this. convicted /
blank (F). All other given words are contextually condemned- criticizing someone or something
incorrect. Hence, the correct option choice is (1). strongly. As per the statement,
(a) Geared: To organize or to tailor neutral plasma were
(b) Framed: Structured or presented not dispersed by vibrations, ‘scattered’ and
systematically. ‘dispersed’ would fit in the blank; hence, option
(c) Tightened: Made more secure or restricted. (b) is the right answer.
(d) Availed: Made use of or utilized.
Q47 Text Solution:
(e) Prevented: Stopped from happening or
Heinous - very bad and shocking. Atrocious -
avoided.
extremely bad or unpleasant. Confirmative /
Q44. Text Solution: Favourable – to agree. The statement tells us
Solution (5) about unpleasant crimes, ‘heinous’ and
The RBI unveiled a new word to convey its ‘atrocious’ would fit in the blank; hence, option
future plan during the press conference on June (d) is the right answer.
8 in response to queries from the media.
Q48 Text Solution:
Therefore, 'introduced' will be the suitable
Both (a) and (c) starters can be used to form a
choice. All other given words are contextually
single sentence from the two sentences given
incorrect. Hence, the correct option choice is
below, implying the same meaning as
(e).
expressed in the statement sentences. However,
(a) Developed: Improved or advanced
it is not possible to construct a contextually
significantly.
correct sentence using the second starter.
(b) Complied: Followed rules or instructions.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
(c) Explained: Described or clarified something.
The sentences thus formed are:
(d) Assessed: Evaluated or appraised the
(a)Over several decades, the poles of the
situation.
planet were not pointed towards Earth but
(e) Introduced: Presented or brought in
since 2014, scientists have had a better view of
something new.
Uranus’s pole and therefore have been able to
Q45. Text Solution: look deeper into the polar atmosphere.
Solution (4) (a)For many decades, the poles of the planet
The context of the sentence revolves around were not pointed towards Earth but since 2014,
the RBI's (Reserve Bank of India) response to scientists have had a better view of Uranus’s
questions about its monetary policy stance. The pole and therefore have been able to look
RBI stated that its primary goal or endeavor is deeper into the polar atmosphere.
to ensure that inflation aligns with the target on
Q49 Text Solution:
a durable basis. Therefore, 'endeavour' is the
Only (b) starter can be used to form a single
correct word to fill the blank H. All other words
sentence from the two sentences given below,
are contextually and grammatically incorrect to
implying the same meaning as expressed in the
fill the given blank.
statement sentences. However, it is not possible
(a) Campaign: Organized effort for a cause.
to construct a contextual sentence using the
(b) Assertion: Confident statement or
first and third starters. Hence,the correct answer
declaration.
is option D.
(c) Assurance: Promise or guarantee of support.
The sentence thus formed is:
(d) Endeavour: Determined effort or attempt.

Banking
(b)Although the loss and damage framework 109
900
of 9108 − 245 ÷ 3 =?
developed at COP27, is aimed at supporting 1103 − 82 =?
most impacted countries which is viewed as an 1021 =?
integral part of climate justice, concerns remain Q55. Text Solution:

on whether wealthy countries would be willing 99. 99 × 4. 024 + 3215. 021 − 124. 895 × 25
to pay any liabilities or reparations. . 01 = ?
100 × 4 + 3215 − 125 × 25 = ?

Q50 Text Solution:
400 + 3215 − 3125 =?
All starters can be used to form a single
3615 − 3125 =?
sentence from the two sentences given below, 490 =?
implying the same meaning as expressed in the Q56. Text Solution:

statement sentences. Hence, the correct 20, 24.5, 33.5, 46, 65, 87.5
answer is option E. 20 + 4.5 = 24.5
The sentences thus formed are: 24.5 + 9 =33.5
(a) Though the Centre may set goals, and use 33.5 + 13.5 = 47
carrots and sticks to help achieve them, the 47 + 18 = 65
realisation of these goals often depends on 65 + 22.5 = 87.5
how they are aligned with State priorities and In place of 46 the correct series is 47.
capabilities.
Q57. Text Solution:
(b)While the Centre may set goals, and use
12, 16, 36, 68, 132, 232
carrots and sticks to help achieve them, the
12 + 22 = 16
realisation of these goals often depends on
16 + 42 = 32
how they are aligned with State priorities and
32 + 62 = 68
capabilities.
68 + 82 = 132
(c)Whereas, the Centre may set goals, and use
132 + 102 = 232
carrots and sticks to help achieve them, the
In place of 36 the correct series is 32.
realisation of these goals often depends on
how they are aligned with State priorities and Q58. Text Solution:
capabilities. 145, 152, 161, 172, 196, 200
145 + 7 = 152
Q51. Text Solution:
1 152 + 9 = 161
of 1445 − 25. 998 + 20. 023% of 1650. 02
7
161 + 11 = 172
=?
172 + 13 = 185
206 − 26 + 330 =?
206 − 26 + 330 =?
185 + 15 = 200
180 + 330 =?
In place of 196, the correct series is 185.
? = 510
Q59. Text Solution:
Q52. Text Solution: 24, 25, 27, 30, 35, 39, 45
2156. 21 + 1245 ÷ 5. 99 =? + 154. 99 24 + 1 =25
2156 + 1245 ÷ 6 =? + 155
25 + 2 =27
2156 + 207 =? + 155
27 + 3 =30
? = 2363 − 155
30 + 4 =34
? = 2208
34 + 5 =39
Q53. Text Solution:
−−−− 1
39 + 6 = 45
√1445 × 24. 99 − of 400 =?
3 In place of 35 the correct series is 34.
38 × 25 − 133 =?
950 − 133 =?
Q60. Text Solution:
817 =? 15, 51, 95, 383, 1919, 11519
Q54. Text Solution:
1
12 % of 9107. 99 − 245. 04 ÷ 3. 024 =?
9

Banking
45% of 560
15 × 2 + 1 = 31 Required % = 450
× 100 = 56%
31 × 3 + 2 = 95
95 × 4 + 3 = 383
Q69. Text Solution:
383 × 5 + 4 = 1919 The number of shoes sold by Nike in January
1919 × 6 + 5 = 11519 and March together =45% of 560 + 60% of 350
In place of 51 the correct series is 31. =252 +210 =462
Q61. Text Solution: The number of shoes manufactured by Adidas
Required average in May and January together = 420 + 600 =1020
=
620 + 800 + 500 + 750 + 600
=
3270
= 654
Required ratio = 462 : 1020 =231: 510 =77: 170
5 5
Q62. Text Solution: Q70. Text Solution:

People traveled on Wednesday and Friday The number of shoes sold by Nike in April =75%
together by train B of 640 =480
= 640 + 900 = 1540 the number of shoes sold by Nike in June =
480
× 9 = 540
People traveled on Monday and Tuesday 8
together by train A Required % = 540
750
× 100 = 72%
= 620 + 800 = 1420 Q71. Text Solution:

Required ratio = 1540
1420
=
71
77
The total candidates who got the desired post
Q63. Text Solution: in MNC R & T
17.5 100 –70 75 40
Total no. of people traveling on Saturday by = 24000 ×

100
×
100
×
100
×
100
train A =
1 30 100 – 65 75 20
600 × (1 + ) = 700 + 24000 × × × ×
6 100 100 100 100
Total no. of people traveling on Saturday by = 945 ×

40
+ 1890 ×
20
100 100
train B =
1
900 × (1 − ) = 800
9 = 378 + 378
Required ratio =700:800 =7: 8 = 756
Q64. Text Solution: Total candidates appeared in the interview for

People traveling on Tuesday and Thursday MNC S
25 100 – 75 60
= 24000 × × × = 900
together by train B = 530 + 850= 1380 100 100 100
Required % =
756
People traveling on Wednesday and Friday 900

× 100 = 84%
together by train A = 500 + 600 = 1100 Q72. Text Solution:

1380 −1100
Required percent = 1100
× 100 Total candidates who get the desired post in
=
280 5
11
= 25
11
% MNC P
12.5 100 – 60 75 20
= 24000 × × × × =
Q65. Text Solution: 100 100 100 100
Required total = 480 + 530 + 640 + 850 + 900 = 180
Total candidates who get the desired post in

3400
MNC S
Q66. Text Solution: = 24000 ×
25
×
100 – 75
×
60
×
2
= 200
100 100 100 9
The number of shoes manufactured by Nike and Required ratio = 180: 200
Adidas in March together = 350 + 540 =890 = 9: 10
The number of shoes manufactured by Nike and
Q73. Text Solution:
Adidas in May = 700 + 420 = 1120
Total candidates who get the desired post in
Required difference = 1120 - 890 = 230
MNC Q
15
×
100 – 80
×
60
×
25
100 100 100 100

Required ratio = 20% of 72% of 450: 40% of 75% =108
of 640 Girl candidates who get the desired post in
= 2 × 72 × 45 : 4 × 75 × 64
MNC Q
= 9 × 45 : 16 × 75 4
= 108 × = 48
9
= 27 : 80
Total girl candidates who applied for the
Q68. Text Solution:
executive post in MNC Q

Banking
= 24000 ×
15
100
×
2
5
= 1440 One boy can complete the work in 1 day
Required percentage = 48
× 100 = 3
1
% working 1 hour a day = 300 ×3 =900 days.
1440 3
Let total work = LCM of 300 and 900 = 900

Q74. Text Solution:
units.
Required difference
25 25 60 12.5 One day 1 hour per day work of a man =
= 24000 × × × – 24000 ×
units.
100 100 100 100 900
= 3
40 75 300
× × = 900 – 900 = 0
100 100 One day 12 hours per day work of 6 men =12×6
Q75. Text Solution: × 3 =216 units.
Total candidates who get the desired post in One day 1 hour per day work of a boy
unit.
900
MNC P =
900
= 1
= 24000 ×
12.5
×
100 – 60
×
75
×
20
= One day 4 hours per day work of 21 boys =4 ×21
100 100 100 100
180 =84 units.

Q76 Text Solution: One day work of 6 men and 21 boys together
Applying the compound interest and simple when men working per day 12 hours and boys
interest formulae in the following equations, we working per day 4 hours =216 + 84 =300 units.
Required days = days.
900
get 300
= 3
Interest earned by Mahesh = a × [(1 + 0.10)3 – 1] = Q80 Text Solution:

Rs. 0.331a Let the average marks of 26 students be and
Interest earned by Dinesh = (a + 2000) × 0.11 × 3 the Marks of the top scorer = 17a, and lowest
= Rs. 0.33a + 660 scorer = 2a
Using the data provided in the question, we get 26x − 17a = 25(x − 1)
0.33a + 660 – 0.331a = 625 ⇒ x = 17a − 25
0.001a = 35 and,
a = 35000 26x − 2a = 25(x + 2)
So, the value of a = Rs 35000 ⇒ x = 2a + 50
17a − 25 = 2a + 50
Q77 Text Solution:
⇒ 15a = 75
Distance between his house and his office
⇒ a = 5
= 75 × 6 = 450 miles. The score of the top scorer =
One-third of the distance = miles.
450
= 150 17a = 17 × 5 = 85
3
Required average speed = total distance/ total

Q81 Text Solution:
time = 2×450
=
900
= 128. 57 miles/hour.
Milk in 90 liters mixture =
150 2
7
+2 90 × = 36
5
30
Water in 90 liters mixture =

3
90 × = 54
Q78 Text Solution: 5
Let x liters of water be evaporated.

Ramesh alone can do the whole work =4 x 12 = 54−x
× 100 = 25
48 days. 90−x
54−x
Let total work = LCM of 36 and 48=144 units 90−x
× 4 = 1
One day work of Umesh and Ramesh 216 − 4x = 90 − x
units.
144
= = 4 3x = 126
36
One day of work of Ramesh = 144
48
= 3 units. x = 42
One day work of Umesh = 4 – 3=1 units.

20 days work of Umesh = 20 x 1 =20 units.
Fraction of work completed by Umesh in 20
days =
20 5
=
144 36
Q79 Text Solution:

Q82 Text Solution:
One man can complete the work in 1 day
The number of boys = 80
working 1 hour a day = 10× 5 × 6 =300 days.
The number of girls who gets admission = 45%
of 100 =45

Banking
The number of girls who did not get admission = x = 18 + y............I

100- 45 =55 And,
The number of boys who gets admission = 40% x+y=
990
of 80 =32 x + y = 110..............II
The number of boys who did not get admission From eq. I Put the value of x in eq. II
=80-32=48 18 + y + y = 110
Total number of students who did not get 18 + 2y = 110
admission = 55 + 48 =103 2y = 110,
Required percentage y = 55
103
=
100+80
× 100 = 57. 22% Speed of the train A = 55 m/s
Q83 Text Solution: Q87 Text Solution:

Candidate B got 44% of the valid votes The ratio of investment of P and Q is 42000:
because candidate A got 56% of the valid 54000 = 7: 9
votes. Let total profit = X
Difference between votes gets by A and B =(56- Using the data provided in the question, we get
44)% of valid votes = 360 Difference between Q and P’s profit
X 7X
12% of valid votes =360
9
= × − = 510
16 2 16 × 2
Valid votes =3000 2X = 510 × 16 × 2

Total number of cast votes that are valid X = Rs. 8160
3000×100
=
75 Q88 Text Solution:
Total number of votes voters Let Ravi’s present age = x
=
3000×100
75
×
100
80
= 5000 voters Ramya’s present age = y
Q84 Text Solution: A.T.Q.
x−9 100
Let the selling price of article A be Rs 100x y−9
=
80
Then Marked price = Rs 140x 8x – 72 = 10y – 90

By using the formula: 8x – 10y + 18 = 0 ………(i)
SP x+4 100
CP = × 100 =
P + 100 y+4 90
Cost price= =
100
100x ×
125
= Rs. 80x 9x + 36 = 10y + 40
ATQ, 9x – 10y – 4 = 0 ………(ii)
60x − 20x = 400 From equation (i) and (ii), we get –
⇒ x = 10 x = 22 and y = 19.4
Required profit = 20 × 10 = 200 Now, the maximum age of any child must be
Q85 Text Solution: less than 9 years (as she was married only 9
Let, the cost price of the book = Rs. x years ago).
ATQ, Hence, their age can be (2 : 3: 4) 4, 6, 8 years.
1.44x – 0.78x = 396 So, the maximum possible value for the present
⇒ 0.66x = 396 age of the family = 22 + 19.4 + (1 × 4 + 2 × 6 + 3 ×
⇒ x = 600 8) (because 1 child is 4 years old, the twins are 6
Marked price of the book = 145% of 600 = Rs. years old and the triplets are 8 years old)
870 = 22 + 19.4 + (4 + 12 + 24) = 81.4 years

Let the speed of train B = x m/s Breadth of rectangle = 1440
48
= 30 m
Speed of the train A = y m/s Area of path = 1440 – 40 × 22 = 1440 – 880 =

ATQ, 560 m2
x–y=
990 Number of tiles required =
55
560 × 100 × 100
x – y = 18 80 × 56
= 1250

Banking
Q90 Text Solution: 2 (42 + 36) – 4a = 28
Required probability 4a = 156 – 28

5 C ×6 C
2 2 10+15 25 5
a = 32 m
= = =
15C
2
105 105 21
Area of square field = (32)2 = 1024 m2
Q91. Text Solution: So, statements I and II together are necessary
Circumference of circle = 132 to answer the question.
Circumference of circle = 2 ×
22
7
× r
Q95. Text Solution:
22
⇒ 2 ×
7
× r = 132
Given the cost price of the mobile cover for
⇒ r = 21cm Pranav = the Selling price for Nitin
Quantity I = Area of circle
= Rs. 200
250
= × 100
cm2
22 2 22 2 22 125
= × r = × 21 = × 441
7 7 7 Using the data provided in Statement I, we get
= 1386
Cost price of cover for Nitin = 200 – 50 = Rs. 150
Quantity II:
Profit percentage of Nitin =
50 1
× 100 = 33 %
Quantity II = Area of square = 252 = 625 cm2 150 3
Using the data provided in statement II, we get

Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II
The cost price of mobile cover for Nitin
300
= Rs. 150
500
Quantity I: Nitin’s profit percentage
Length of river = 500m =
200 −150
× 100 = 33
1
%
50 − 30 150 3
Quantity I = Speed of stream =
2
= 10 So, data in either statement I or statement II
m/s alone are sufficient to give answer the question.
Quantity II:
Q96. Text Solution:
Quantity II = Speed of boat in still water
50 + 30
=
2
= 40 m/s = 40 m/s
Hence, Quantity II > Quantity I
Q93. Text Solution:

Quantity I:
4 boys out of 9 can be selected in 9C and 4
4
girls out of 9 girls can be selected in 9C
4
Quantity I = The required number of way = 9C4 The average marks obtained by Aman in all
× 9C = 15876
4 subjects = 90
Quantity II: Total marks of Aman = 5 × 100 = 500
6 boys out of 9 can be selected in 9C and 5

6 Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500-420 =80
girls out of 9 can be selected in 9C5 Total marks obtained by Baman 5 × 95 = 475
Quantity II = The required number of way = 9C6 Marks obtained by Baman in English = 475 -115-
×9C5 = 10584 125-80-70 = 85
Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II Total marks obtained by Chaman
5 × 80 = 400
Q94. Text Solution:
Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be
7x and 5x respectively
Using the data provided in Statement I, we get
Given, πr2 = 2464
r2 = 2464 × 7
22
r = 28 cm
Length of rectangle = 28 ×
3
= 42m
Required ratio = 80: 85 =16: 17
2
Breadth of rectangle = = 42
7
× 6 = 36 m Q97. Text Solution:
From I and II together,
2(l + b) – 4a = 28

Banking
Marks obtained by Chaman in Art =

The average marks obtained by Aman in all 3 × 110 − 80 − 120 = 130
subjects = 90 Required ratio =115: 130 =23: 26

Total marks of Aman = 5 × 100 = 500
Q99. Text Solution:
Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500-420 =80
Total marks obtained by Baman 5 × 95 = 475
Marks obtained by Baman in English = 475 -115-

125-80-70 = 85
Total marks obtained by Chaman
5 × 80 = 400
The average marks obtained by Aman in all

subjects = 90

Marks scored by Chaman in history = 80 + 40 Marks obtained by Baman in English = 475 -115-
=120 125-80-70 = 85
Percentage of marks scored by Chaman in Total marks obtained by Chaman
history =
120
× 100 = 80%
150 5 × 80 = 400
Q98. Text Solution:
Marks obtained by Chaman in English =

3 × 60 − 80 − 60 = 40
The average marks obtained by Aman in all Required ratio = 40: 90 =4: 9
subjects = 90
Q100. Text Solution:

Marks obtained by Baman in English = 475 -115-

125-80-70 = 85
5 × 80 = 400
The average marks obtained by Aman in all

subjects = 90


Banking
Marks obtained by Baman in English = 475 -115- The statements can be represented as:
125-80-70 = 85
5 × 80 = 400
Both conclusions I and II follow

Required average =
135+125+80
=
340
= 113. 33 Q104 Text Solution:
3 3
Following Figure can be formed

Q101 Text Solution:
Only a few potions are edible. Some bubbles
are edible. All bubbles are gum.
From the figure, Neither conclusion I nor II

follows.

J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a
Some gum is edible is true. No gum is edible is week starting from Monday to Sunday but not
not true. So, only I follows. necessarily in the same order. No two people
attend the same class on the same day. So, we
Q102 Text Solution:
can draw a structure as;
Only a few arms are orbis. Some armours are
orbis. No arm is an armour.
All orbis can never be arms is true as no arm is

an armour. Some armours are definitely not
orbis is not true. So, only I follows.
before J. Three people attend the class
Q103 Text Solution:

Banking
between N and M, who attend the class after

Friday.
M attend the class immediately after O.
So, here we have two cases;
O attend the class on Friday.

who attend the class after L. Q106. Text Solution:
week starting from Monday to Sunday but not
necessarily in the same order. No two people
Number of people attend the class between L

and P is same as the number of people attend
the class between K and O. L attend the class
before K. P does not attend the class on Number of people attend the class after J is
Tuesday. K and L are not adjacent to each same as the number of people attend the class
other. So, we get, before J. Three people attend the class
Friday.
So, here Case 2 is invalid. So, Case 2 gets

cancelled.
So, Final Arrangement:

Banking
Two people attend the class between L and J, Q107. Text Solution:
who attend the class after L. J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a

before K. P does not attend the class on
Tuesday. K and L are not adjacent to each
other. So, we get,
Friday.

cancelled.

who attend the class after L.
One person attends the class between O and K .

Banking


other. So, we get,
Friday.

cancelled.

P attends the class immediately above J.

Banking
If all the people are arranged in the increasing

alphabetical order from Monday to Sunday;

the class between K and O. L attend the class Q109. Text Solution:
before K. P does not attend the class on J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a
Tuesday. K and L are not adjacent to each week starting from Monday to Sunday but not
other. So, we get, necessarily in the same order. No two people

cancelled.

Friday.
No person remains same as before.

Now,

Banking

P-M is the odd one out.

Except P-M, all other options have only one
person between them.

tuition.
· She walks 4m in the south direction and
reaches the stationary shop.

other. So, we get,
· She buys a notebook, takes a left turn and
walks for 6m in the same direction to reach an
ice-cream shop

cancelled. · She buys an ice-cream and takes a right turn.
So, Final Arrangement: · She walks 8m in the same direction till MG
Road.

Banking

tuition.
She takes a right turn and walks for 10m in the

same direction to reach her tuition.
· She buys a notebook, takes a left turn and
walks for 6m in the same direction to reach an
ice-cream shop.
The shortest distance between stationary shop · She buys an ice-cream and takes a right turn.
and MG Road is 10m. Hence, 'b' is the correct · She walks 8m in the same direction till MG
option. Road.
According to Pythagoras theorem,

X2 = P 2 + B 2
· She takes a right turn and walks for 10m in the
Here,
X = √ (62+82)
Or, X = √ (36+64)
Or, X = √100 = 10m.

Banking

tuition.
She takes a right turn and walks for 10m in the
She buys a notebook, takes a left turn and

walks for 6m in the same direction to reach an Q113 Text Solution:
ice-cream shop. EVERYDAY
First letter - E
Fourth letter - R
Fifth letter - Y
Sixth letter - D
DYER, YERD, RYDE

She buys an ice-cream and takes a right turn. P has a white colour box.
· She walks 8m in the same direction till MG Final Answer:
Road.
W has a violet colour box and sits on any one of

the extreme ends of the row.
The one who has a yellow colour gift box sits
two places away from the one who has a violet
colour box

Banking
From the above conditions, we get, P is an immediate neighbour of S.

Q does not have a green colour box.
From the above conditions, Case 2 gets
eliminated.
Case 1 shows the final arrangement.
R sits at the end of the row and has a blue

colour box.
The one who has a green colour box that sits
adjacent to W.
Q, who has a yellow colour box sits second to
the left of the one who has a black colour box
Final Answer:

Only one person sits between T and S, who has The one who has a yellow colour gift box sits
a black colour. two places away from the one who has a violet
U has the pink colour box and sits in the middle colour box
of S and T. T has a red colour box, and sits on From the above conditions, we get,
the right of U.
S is not an immediate neighbour of R. At least 3
persons sit between the one who has a violet
colour box and the one who has a black colour
box.

colour box.
adjacent to W.
V sits immediate left of Q.

P does not have a yellow colour box and is not
an immediate neighbour of R.

Banking
Logic- In all the options, all persons has a

correct box to their colour except R.
Hence, Option E is correct.
Final Answer:

Only one person sits between T and S, who has The one who has a yellow colour gift box sits
a black colour. two places away from the one who has a violet
U has the pink colour box and sits in the middle colour box
of S and T. T has a red colour box, and sits on From the above conditions, we get,
the right of U.
box.

colour box.
adjacent to W.

P is an immediate neighbour of S.
eliminated.
Only one person sits between T and S, who has

a black colour.
U has the pink colour box and sits in the middle
of S and T. T has a red colour box, and sits on
the right of U.
box.

Banking

colour box.
adjacent to W.

eliminated.

a black colour.
the right of U.
box.
Three persons sit between Q and the one who
has a red colour box.
Final Answer:

colour box
From the above conditions, we get,
eliminated.
Case 1 shows the final arrangement

Banking

a black colour.
the right of U.
Q118. Text Solution: S is not an immediate neighbour of R. At least 3
V is an immediate neighbour of W. persons sit between the one who has a violet
Final Answer: box.

colour box
From the above conditions, we get,

eliminated.

colour box.
adjacent to W.

Banking
Fill/The is coded as ‘qp/dv’

From statement (2),
“Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
----(2)
Of/Space is coded as ‘nm/po’
From statement (3),
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”---
--(3)
Room is coded as ‘pm’
Following then final solution we can say that,

“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg” dull is coded as rl.
-----(1)
----(2)
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”----
-(3)
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”---
--(4)
From statements (2), (3) and (4)
“Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
-----(2)
--(3)
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”-- “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg”
---(4) -----(1)
Dull is coded as ‘rl’ “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
From statements (1) and (2), ----(2)
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”----
kg” -----(1) -(3)
“Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” - “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”---
----(2) --(4)
Moon is coded as ‘kg’ From statements (2), (3) and (4)
From statements (1) and (4), “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp -----(2)
kg” -----(1) “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”---
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--- --(3)
--(4) “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--
Wonder is coded as ‘kf’ ---(4)
From statements (1) and (3), Dull is coded as ‘rl’
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp From statements (1) and (2),
kg” -----(1) “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”--- kg” -----(1)
--(3) “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
Am/Sun is coded as ‘tp/xt’ ----(2)
From statement (4), Moon is coded as ‘kg’
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”-- From statements (1) and (4),
---(4)

Banking
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
kg” -----(1) -----(2)
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--- “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”---
--(4) --(3)
Wonder is coded as ‘kf’ “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--
From statements (1) and (3), ---(4)
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp Dull is coded as ‘rl’
kg” -----(1) From statements (1) and (2),
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”--- “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
--(3) kg” -----(1)
Am/Sun is coded as ‘tp/xt’ “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
From statement (4), ----(2)
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”-- Moon is coded as ‘kg’
---(4) From statements (1) and (4),
Fill/The is coded as ‘qp/dv’ “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
From statement (2), kg” -----(1)
----(2) --(4)
Of/Space is coded as ‘nm/po’ Wonder is coded as ‘kf’
From statement (3), From statements (1) and (3),
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”--- “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
--(3) kg” -----(1)
Room is coded as ‘pm’ “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”---
--(3)
Following then final solution we can say that, Am/Sun is coded as ‘tp/xt’
room wonder is coded as kf pm. From statement (4),
Q121. Text Solution: “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--
---(4)
From statement (2),
----(2)
From statement (3),
--(3)
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg” Following then final solution we can say that,
-----(1) moon is coded as kg.
“Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” - Q122. Text Solution:
----(2)
-(3)
--(4)

Banking

From statement (2),
----(2)
From statement (3),
--(3)
Following then final solution we can say that,

“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg” the code of xt stands for Am/Sun.
-----(1)
----(2)
-(3)
--(4)
“Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
-----(2)
--(3)
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”-- “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp kg”
---(4) -----(1)
Dull is coded as ‘rl’ “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
From statements (1) and (2), ----(2)
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”----
kg” -----(1) -(3)
----(2) --(4)
Moon is coded as ‘kg’ From statements (2), (3) and (4)
From statements (1) and (4), “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm”
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp -----(2)
kg” -----(1) “Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”---
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--- --(3)
--(4) “Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--
Wonder is coded as ‘kf’ ---(4)
From statements (1) and (3), Dull is coded as ‘rl’
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp From statements (1) and (2),
kg” -----(1) “Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”--- kg” -----(1)
--(3) “Dull moon of space” is coded as “rl kg po nm” -
Am/Sun is coded as ‘tp/xt’ ----(2)
From statement (4), Moon is coded as ‘kg’
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”-- From statements (1) and (4),
---(4)

Banking
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp distance between M and T.

kg” -----(1)
--(4)
Wonder is coded as ‘kf’
From statements (1) and (3),
“Wonder am sun moon” is coded as “kf xt tp
kg” -----(1)
--(3)
Am/Sun is coded as ‘tp/xt’
From statement (4),
“Dull fill the wonder” is coded as “rl dv qp kf”--
---(4)
From statement (2),
----(2)
From statement (3),
“Sun dull am room” is coded as “xt tp pm rl”--- Again we have,
--(3) The distance between T and U is 5m more than
Room is coded as ‘pm’ the distance between W and Q(counted right
of W). The one who sits opposite U sits second
Following then final solution we can say that, to the right of L.
space can be coded as nm/po. From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Q124 Text Solution:
One such pair is there forward and backward.
Q125 Text Solution:

Perimeter=4a=60 a=60/4=15
Each side =15m.
M sits 10m away from W who sits at the corner
of the table. Q sits 15m right of M.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities.
Again we have,
The distance between Q and O is 5m. The R sitting second to the left of the one who sits
distance between M and O is the same as the immediate left of U. The distance between R

Banking
and T is the same as between T and S. From

the above condition, case 2 gets eliminated. The distance between Q and O is 5m. The
distance between M and O is the same as the
distance between M and T.
Again we have,
V neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance
the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P The distance between T and U is 5m more than
nor T sits adjacent to R and O. From the above the distance between W and Q(counted right
condition, case 2a gets eliminated. case1 shows of W). The one who sits opposite U sits second
the final Arrangement. to the right of L.
From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Q126 Text Solution:

Each side =15m.
possibilities.

Banking
R sitting second to the left of the one who sits

immediate left of U. The distance between R
the above condition, case 2 gets eliminated.
The distance between Q and O is 5m. The

distance between M and O is the same as the
distance between M and T.

the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P
nor T sits adjacent to R and O. From the above
condition, case 2a gets eliminated. case 1
shows the final Arrangement.
The distance between T and U is 5m more than

the distance between W and Q(counted right
of W). The one who sits opposite U sits second
to the right of L.
From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Q127 Text Solution:

Each side =15m.
possibilities.

Banking
Q128 Text Solution:

Each side =15m.
possibilities.

immediate left of U. The distance between R The distance between Q and O is 5m. The
and T is the same as between T and S. From distance between M and O is the same as the
the above condition, case 2 gets eliminated. distance between M and T.

from the left of V to N is five meters more than The distance between T and U is 5m more than
the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P the distance between W and Q(counted right
nor T sits adjacent to R and O. From the above of W). The one who sits opposite U sits second
condition, case 2a gets eliminated. case1 shows to the right of L.
the final Arrangement. From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.

Banking
Q129 Text Solution:

Each side =15m.
possibilities.

immediate left of U. The distance between R The distance between Q and O is 5m. The
and T is the same as between T and S. From distance between M and O is the same as the
the above condition, case 2 gets eliminated. distance between M and T.

from the left of V to N is five meters more than The distance between T and U is 5m more than
the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P the distance between W and Q(counted right
nor T sits adjacent to R and O. From the above of W). The one who sits opposite U sits second
condition, case 2a gets eliminated. case1 shows to the right of L.
the final Arrangement. From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.

Banking
Q130 Text Solution:

Solution -
Conclusion 1: 1 > 4 It is true.
In the statement relation between 1 and 4 is 1 >
2 ≥ 3 = 6 > 5 ≥ 4 this here common symbol > is
present so, 1 > 4 it is true.
Conclusion 2: 5 ≥ 7 It is true.
In the statement relation between 5 and 7 is 7 ≤
8 ≤ 9 = 4 ≤ 5 this, here common symbol ≤ is
present so, 5 ≥ 7 it is true.
Q131 Text Solution:

Solution -
Conclusion 1: J ≥ H It is not true.
In the statement relation between J and H is H
immediate left of U. The distance between R
≥ I > Z ≥ K < J this here opposite symbols are
present between J and H, so J ≥ H it is not true.
the above condition, case 2 gets eliminated.
Conclusion 2: K < Y It is true.
In the statement relation between K and G is K
≤ Z < I ≤ H = G < Y this, here common symbol < is
present so, K < Y it is true.
Q132 Text Solution:

Solution -
Conclusion 1: S ≤ R It is true.
In the statement relation between S and R is R =
K ≥ F ≥ S this, here common symbol ≥ is present
so, R ≥ S it is true.
Conclusion 2: F > A It is true.
In the statement relation between F and A is A <
Q < S ≤ F this, here common symbol < is present
so, F > A it is true.
Q133 Text Solution:

Solution -
Conclusion 1: T ≥ B It is not true.
In the statement relation between T and B is B <
V neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance N = U > R ≤ T, here opposite symbols are present
from the left of V to N is five meters more than between T and B, so T ≥ B is not true.
the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P Conclusion 2: B > T It is not true.
nor T sits adjacent to R and O. From the above In the statement relation between T and B is B <
condition, case 2a gets eliminated. case1 shows N = U > R ≤ T, here opposite symbols are present
the final Arrangement. between T and B, so B > T is not true.
But here Either or case occurs.
Q134 Text Solution:

Box U is kept third from top at a gap of one box
from one that contains Violet colour ball. Box D
contains Maroon colour ball, which is neither
kept adjacent to box U nor adjacent to the one

Banking
that contain Violet colour ball.
So, only three boxes are kept below box which

contains white colour ball. Hence, statement II
is sufficient alone.
Q135 Text Solution:

From statement I,
From I,
Box which contains Blue and violet are kept
together. Box which contains Blue is kept at a Total = 27
gap of three from box K, that means in case (1) Left + right = (13+ 21)-1
& case (2) box which contains Blue is kept just 34-1=33
below box which contains violet. Box L, which Persons between rahul and vivek => (33 -27)=
neither contains Blue nor contains violet, is kept 6th
at a gap of two from box X, that means in case Thus, from the statement I the position of Rahul
(1) box L is kept just below box U and case (2) is with respect to Vivek is sixth from the left end
not valid. From statement II,
Thus, total persons sitting in a row is not given

so we cannot find the position Rahul from
statement II.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in Statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
So, exact position of box which contains white
Q136 Text Solution:
colour ball is not known. Thus, result can’t be
From statement I,
determined. Hence, statement I is not sufficient.
Code of done and enjoy written as - pl eh
From II,
Thus, code of enjoy is not valid
L which contains Pink colour ball is kept at a
So, from statement I and II both
gap of two from box X, which neither contains
done enjoy strike - pl eh xz
Blue colour ball nor kept adjacent to box D,
pain done enjoy - eh ku pl ‘
that means in case (1) box X contains violet and
use pain enjoy - ku kv eh
case (2) is not valid. Only two boxes are kept
Hence, the code of enjoy is ‘ eh ‘
between box K and box which contains white
Both the Statements I and II together are
colour ball, that means box K is kept at bottom.
necessary to answer the question.
Q137 Text Solution:

From statement I,

Banking
We have, R, A > X > T > D Month Case-3

L, A > R > P > T September-16 P
Salary of only two people is less than T. September-27 R
Lowest salary is F and the highest is A.
October-16 S
A > L > R > X > P/D > T > D/P > F
October-27 U
So, clearly the exact position of P is not
determined. November-16 T
Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient. November-27 Q/

From statement II December-16 V
We have, L, X > P > D > F December-27 Q/
L, A > R > T D V attending the meeting immediately before W.
Salary of only three people are more than X Here is the final arrangement.
A’ s salary is highest and F’s salary is lowest Month Person
A > L > R > X > P/ T > T/ P > D > F September-16 P
So, clearly the exact position of P is not
September-27 R
determined.
October-16 S
NOW, After combining both the statements we
get, October-27 U
A>L>R>X>P>T>D>F November-16 T
Thus, we get the final position of P and the no. November-27 Q
of persons more than P is 4. December-16 V
Hence, both the Statements I and II together December-27 W
are necessary to answer the question

U attending the meeting on an odd date but U attending the meeting on an odd date but
not in the month which has less than 31 days. not in the month which has less than 31 days.
Only two persons were attending the meeting Only two persons were attending the meeting
between U and P. Only one person attending between U and P. Only one person attending
the meeting between S and P and P attending the meeting between S and P and P attending
before S. before S.
Month Case-1 Case-2 Case-3 Month Case-1 Case-2 Case-3
September-16 P September-16 P
September-27 September-27
October-16 S October-16 S
October-27 U U October-27 U U
November-16 S P November-16 S P
November-27 November-27
December-16 P S December-16 P S
December-27 U December-27 U
From:- R attending the meeting an odd From:- R attending the meeting an odd
numbered date. Only two persons are numbered date. Only two persons are
attending the meeting between R and T. V attending the meeting between R and T. V
attending the meeting two person after T. R is attending the meeting two person after T. R is
attending the meeting before T and at most attending the meeting before T and at most
two persons are attending the meeting after Q. two persons are attending the meeting after Q.
Here the case-1 and case 2 are invalid and we
consider the case-3.

Banking
Here the case-1 and case 2 are invalid and we attending the meeting before T and at most
consider the case-3. two persons are attending the meeting after Q.
Month Case-3 Here the case-1 and case 2 are invalid and we
September-16 P consider the case-3.
September-27 R Month Case-3
October-16 S September-16 P
October-27 U September-27 R
November-16 T October-16 S
November-27 Q/ October-27 U
December-16 V November-16 T
December-27 Q/ November-27 Q/
V attending the meeting immediately before W. December-16 V

Here is the final arrangement. December-27 Q/
Month Person V attending the meeting immediately before W.
September-16 P Here is the final arrangement.
September-27 R Month Person
October-27 U September-27 R
November-16 T October-16 S
November-27 Q October-27 U
December-16 V November-16 T
December-27 W November-27 Q
December-16 V
December-27 W
Q140 Text Solution:
U attending the meeting on an odd date but
not in the month which has less than 31 days. Q141 Text Solution:
Only two persons were attending the meeting U attending the meeting on an odd date but
between U and P. Only one person attending not in the month which has less than 31 days.
the meeting between S and P and P attending Only two persons were attending the meeting
before S. between U and P. Only one person attending
Month Case-1 Case-2 Case-3 the meeting between S and P and P attending
September-16 P before S.
September-27 Month Case-1 Case-2 Case-3
October-27 U U September-27
November-16 S P October-16 S
November-27 October-27 U U
December-16 P S November-16 S P
December-27 U November-27
From:- R attending the meeting an odd December-16 P S

numbered date. Only two persons are December-27 U
attending the meeting between R and T. V From:- R attending the meeting an odd
attending the meeting two person after T. R is numbered date. Only two persons are
attending the meeting between R and T. V

Banking
attending the meeting two person after T. R is attending the meeting between R and T. V
attending the meeting before T and at most attending the meeting two person after T. R is
two persons are attending the meeting after Q. attending the meeting before T and at most
Here the case-1 and case 2 are invalid and we two persons are attending the meeting after Q.
consider the case-3. Here the case-1 and case 2 are invalid and we
Month Case-3 consider the case-3.
September-16 P Month Case-3
September-27 R September-16 P
October-16 S September-27 R
October-27 U October-16 S
November-16 T October-27 U
November-27 Q/ November-16 T
December-16 V November-27 Q/
December-27 Q/ December-16 V
V attending the meeting immediately before W. December-27 Q/
Here is the final arrangement. V attending the meeting immediately before W.
Month Person Here is the final arrangement.
September-16 P Month Person
September-27 R September-16 P
October-16 S September-27 R
October-27 U October-16 S
November-16 T October-27 U
November-27 Q November-16 T
December-16 V November-27 Q
December-27 W December-16 V
December-27 W
Q142 Text Solution:

U attending the meeting on an odd date but Q143 Text Solution:
not in the month which has less than 31 days. The statement tells us how the China is reeling
Only two persons were attending the meeting under high levels of corporate debt due to the
between U and P. Only one person attending easy monetary policy put in place at the time
the meeting between S and P and P attending of the pandemic. This rests on the assumption
before S. that such a policy can help a country to
Month Case-1 Case-2 Case-3 overcome an economic crisis that can take
September-16 P place due to a pandemic. I follows.
September-27 It also rests on the assumption that such a

policy makes it easier for companies to secure
October-16 S
loans, which is why corporate debt levels would
October-27 U U
rise. II follows.
November-16 S P Thus, C is the right answer.
November-27
December-16 P S
December-27 U Q144 Text Solution:
From:- R attending the meeting an odd The given statement talks about how the real
numbered date. Only two persons are estate crisis in China will dampen the outlook

Banking
for steel manufacturers around the world. This proteins found in animal byproducts, or the
rests on the assumption that the Chinese real capacity to create enzymes, neither of the
estate sector consumes a considerable portion implications follows the statement.
of steel produced globally since a crisis in the
sector will affect steel manufacturers globally. I Q148 Text Solution:
follows. Thus, (a) is the right answer. Love's brother is the father of both Chitra and
II is incorrect as the statement does not throw Srikant and both are unmarried.
light on the contribution of different sectors to
the growth of China’s GDP.
Q145 Text Solution:

The author argues that the fashion industry has Juhi is the maternal aunt of Chitra.
divided children into two groups- one that likes
to wear blue clothes and the other one that
likes to wear pink clothes. Option (d) weakens
this argument by stating that there is no such
division of children based on certain colour
preferences; instead, they still prefer neutral · Preeti is the paternal grandmother of both
clothing. If option (d) is true, it cannot be Chitra and Srikant.
deduced that fashion world has divided
children into blue and pink. Option (a) is a
neutral statement; it doesn't specifically talk
about gender and gender clothing, (b) and (c)
strongly support the argument of the author
while option (e) is statement that might be
· Raman is the father-in-law of Koyal who is a
representing one of the many ideologies of the
female.
author and doesn't either strengthen or weaken
· Raman has only two sons.
the given argument.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q146 Text Solution:

The statement asks whether SEBI should allow
the European securities regulator to scrutinise
· Srikant is a male member.
INdian companies. I presents a strong argument
against doing so - this would allow the
European regulator to impinge on the Indian
regulator's jurisdiction. II also presents a strong
argument as it tells us how other countries will
also start demanding the same. Thus, E is the
right answer.
Therefore -
Q147 Text Solution:

Since the statement makes no inferences
regarding the protein composition of soy, the

Banking

Love's brother is the father of both Chitra and Love's brother is the father of both Chitra and
Srikant and both are unmarried. Srikant and both are unmarried.
Juhi is the maternal aunt of Chitra. Juhi is the maternal aunt of Chitra.
· Preeti is the paternal grandmother of both · Preeti is the paternal grandmother of both
Chitra and Srikant. Chitra and Srikant.
· Raman is the father-in-law of Koyal who is a · Raman is the father-in-law of Koyal who is a
female. female.
· Raman has only two sons. · Raman has only two sons.
· Srikant is a male member. · Srikant is a male member.
Therefore - Therefore -

Banking

Banking - IBPS SO Prelims Full Length Mock Test 1 PYQ IT - English

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IBPS SO Prelims Full Length Mock Test 1 (PYQ) (IT)

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(C) Indifferent (D) Ambivalent

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Direction: In the following question, three

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(B) Reduced job creation introduction of this new terminology could

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(A) Sustained (B) Confirmed C. dispersed

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be used in the beginning to form a single Q51 1

sentence from the given two sentences, 1650. 02 =?

implying the same meaning as expressed in (A) 510 (B) 450

pay any liabilities or reparations (A) 817 (B) 780

(B) Only (a) =?

(A) 880 (B) 1021

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Directions (66-70) Read the following passage

Q62 What is the ratio of people traveled on

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(A) 45% (B) 50%

Q69 What is the ratio of the number of shoes

candidates in the interview for the

Q74 Find the difference between the total

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(E) None of these

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Q86 The length of two trains (A and B) is 270 m and 9 21

720 m, respectively. If they are going in the 11

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(C) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II (A) if statement I alone is sufficient to

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What is the ratio of marks obtained by (B) Only conclusion II follows

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I. All D are H is a possibility If all the people are arranged in the

J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a (B) O-K

week starting from Monday to Sunday but not (C) J-M

necessarily in the same order. No two people (D) N-J

attend the same class on the same day. (E) P-M

Number of people attend the class after J is

(C) One (D) None

(A) P (B) South east

(B) O (C) South West

(C) N (D) West

(D) M (E) North west

(E) None of these

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(A) Noth (B) South east (A) V (B) U

letter from the left end of the newly formed (C) Q

word? Mark X as your answer, if more than one (D) V

word is formed. Mark Z, if no meaningful word (E) Both A and C

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(E) None of these neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance

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second to the left of the one who sits

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