Đề số 4 Kỳ thi: Chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

SECTION 1. LISTENING:
Part 1. You will hear a conversation between a man, Marco, and his wife, Sarash about a film they
have just seen at the cinema. Then answer True (T) or False (F). (1 point)

Statements T F

1. Marco and Sarah agree that the city in the film was London.
2. Marco feels that the length of the film made it rather boring.
3. Sarah was upset about how some of the audience behaved during the film.
4. Sarah was disappointed with the way the main actor performed.
5. Marco thinks this film is the best the director has made.

Part 2: You will hear a radio talk about holidays in Northumberland. Listen and fill in the missing
words.(2 points)
Good morning! This morning on “Holiday Time” I want to tell you about the cycling trip I took recently to
Northumberland in the North of England. Before I went I read a book by Peter Green (1)………….….. title
is Cycling around Northumberland , which I found really useful when planning my route. Northumberland
is a beautiful area of England and (2)……………… for cycling. There is very little traffic on the roads and
plenty to see and do. For example, why not visit a castle? More of them are open to the public here than
in any other part of the country. While I was there I actually stayed in a flat in a castle, but there are many
hotels, cottages or bed and breakfast places to choose from. In the summer it is important to book in
advance, but I (3)…………………going in the spring, as it is not so difficult to find somewhere to stay at
that time of the year. You will find that some places are closed in winter. Most of the small towns in the
area have cycling centres where you can hire a bicycle. A week’s hire will cost thirty-five pounds, two
weeks will be fifty-five pounds. There is also a (4)………………....of fifty pounds , which you get back
when you return the bicycle. Try to plan your holiday when there is a local event or festival happening. I
went in June and was lucky enough to go to a festival of local food. Every August there’s an(5)
…………………..festival of music, but you’ll find something going on in almost every month of the year.
Ring the Northumberland National Park if you’re interested in finding out about their activities – they have
a programme of guided walks, photography and bird watching. Ring them on double eight double 0 four
six.
Part 3: You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called
Krispy with his sister Mel. For each question choose the best answer A, B, or C. (1 point)
1. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, they…………….
A. disagreed about the style they should have. B. didn’t want to be the same as other bands.
C. were influenced by different kinds of music.
2. The band Krispy was started after………………..
A. Nick began studying at music school. B. two other musicians heard Nick nd Mel playing.
C. Nick and Mel advertised for the band members.
3. In the band’s first year together,…………….
A. concert audiences liked their music. B. they signed a recording contract.
C. their national tour was very successful.
4. What does Nick say about life in the band today ?
A. The older members look after him and Mel. B. He’s pleased to have the chance to travel.
C. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.
5. What disappointment has the band had?
A. They haven’t yet had a number one single. B. Their first album sold under a million copies.
C. A health problem delayed their album recording.
SECTION B. PHONETICS (1 points)
Part I. Circle your choice (A, B, C or D) indicating the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest. (0,5 point)
1. A. campus B. relax C. locate D. fashion
2. A. plays B. says C. rays D. stays
3. A. athletics B. health C. earthquake D. furthermore
4. A. sewage B. save C. treasure D. campus
5. A. cherish B. chorus C. chaos D. scholarship
Part II. Circle your choice (A, B, C or D) indicating the word that has a different stress pattern from the
others in the group. (0,5 point)
1. A. compulsory B. convenient C. correspond D. communicate
2. A.profession B. condition C. departure D. energy
3. A.hamburger B. minority C. material D. linguistics
4. A.generous B. humorous C. enormous D. dangerous
5. A. understand B. adventure C. engineer D. Vietnamese
SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (5points)
Part I. Circle your choice of the word, phrase or expression (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence. (1 point)
1. In a ___________________class, this is a great opportunity to learn about different customs and
traditions around the world.
A. multilingual B.multi-disciplinary C.multi-dimensional D.multinational
2. Learning English isn’t so difficult once you ______________________.
A.get down to it B.get off it C. get on it D.get down with it
3. Famous is most opposite to _____________________.
A.boring B.poor C.obscure D.untalented
4. 3/4 means _______________________.
A.third quarters B.three quarters C. three fourth D.thirth fourth
5. I am so tired that I can’t make _________________what you are saying.
A. up B. in C. out D. on
6. _______________is normally used to refer to the treatment and training of the child within the home.
A.Feeding B.Mothering C.Upbringing D.Educating
7. We found that _______________ students in this class are from the same city.
A.most of B.most all C.almost the D.most of the
8. The captain as well as the passengers _______________frightened.
A.was B.be C.to be D.were
9. This school needs _______________. It looks so old.
A.to repaint B.repainting C.repainted D.to be repainting
10.Peter:“Thanks for your help” –Tom:“_______”
A.There’s nothing B.Nothing C.It sounds good D.It’s my pleasure
Part II. Use the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to make sentences. (1 point)
1. On their next anniversary. Doris and Fred (1. be) ………….married for twenty years.
2. The news about the storm (2. already broadcast) …..……on radioseveral times so far.
3. She is accustomed to (3. train) …………….for long hours.
4. She (4. sleep) ………..for ten hours! You must wake her up.
5. At this time next week, they(5. sit) ……………….in the train on their way to Paris.
6. What tune (6. play)……………………. when we came in?
7. Scarcely they (7. move) ……………..into the new house when their friends came in.
8. Just as I (8. wonder)………..….what to do next, the phone rang.
9. During the trip, try to avoid (9. bite)………..……… by mosquitoes.
10. My boss is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I (10. do)……….last week.
III. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable preposition. (1point)
1. Rebecca cut ……………………….on our conversation to tell us that James had just been rushed to
hospital.
2. The teacher cleared……………………….the harder parts of the story.
3. Do you mind if I carry………………with my work while you are getting tea ready?
4. If you would like to wait a moment, sir, I will just call………………………your file on the computer
screen.
5. The man who lives opposite us sometimes comes…………….for a cup of coffee.
6. I’m not sure how old he is but he must be get……………………….for 70.
7. They had to call………………….……the match because of the rain.
8. When her millionaire father died, she came………………………. a fortune.
9. Joe is an orphan. He was brought…………………………….by his aunt.
10. Arm terrorists are reported to have taken……………………..the Embassy.
Part IV: Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. (1point)
GETTING AHEAD IN BUSINESS
Your chances of success can be greatly increased if you follow a few
simple rules in your working life. First of all, remember that your (1)
……….wants you to do well-that’s what you are being paid for. Many 1. EMPLOY
companies choose (2)…………young people to work for them and 2. AMBITION
provide a lot of (3)………….for their workers. Working for a large, 3. ENCOURAGE
international company may provide job (4)……….. On the other hand, a 4. SECURE
smaller company might give you the chance to use your (5)…………
more. 5. IMAGINE

Secondly, remember that any experience you gain will always (6)
………..your position in the company. The company wants (7) 6. STRONG
………..that you want to get to the top. Take any opportunity you get to 7. PROVE
go on (8)…………courses related to your work. The more (9) 8. TRAIN
………..you are, the better chance you have of being promoted. Finally, 9. QUALIFY
don’t give up, even when you are (10)………… Stick with it and you’ll 10. SUCCESS
get there in the end.

Part V: The passage below contains 10 errors. UNDERLINE and CORRECT the. Write your
answers in the numbered blanks provided. There is an example at the beginning. (1 point)

All students here come from very difficult backgrounds; there is street children, 0......are.......
orphans, children of war-invalid, hearing-impaired students and young people 1................
in very poor families. 2................
This school provides us with free training in one of these areas: Vietnam and 3................
Asian cooking, French and European cooking, French baking and pastry,
restaurant and catering services, domestic service, sewing and embroider. After 4................
one year of training at the school, full-time jobs are finding for us and we could be 5................
working in any number of hotels, restaurants, private houses, embassies or
companies of Vietnam. 6................
To cover all the training costs, our school has four businesses: a restaurant, a 7................
bakery, a catering service and a sewing & embroidery shop. These income-
generating businesses also provide an excellently opportunity for us to gain 8................
valuable practice experiences. If you ever come to Vietnam, don’t miss the 9................
chance tasting delicious Vietnamese and French dishes at our restaurant. 10..............

SECTION C. READING (5 points)

Part I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C
or D. (1 point)
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that was introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the
1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales,
Scotland or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the
globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small
enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these
communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking
and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80% of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two - thirds of
the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media,
international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the
world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than
any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology.
2. The word “ emerged” in paragraph 1 means ________.
A.appeared B.hailed C.frequented D. engaged
3. Approximately, when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A.in 1066 B.around 1350 C.before 1600 D. after 1600
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “stored” in paragraph 2?
A.bought B.saved C.spent D. valued
5. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world
today?
A. a quarter million C. 350 million
B. half a million D. 700 million
Part II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in each numbered blank in the following
passage. (2 points)
British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (1)
_____planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a
telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as “Darwin”, his telescope could tell if
planets 50 (2)_______ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) _____ , NASA scientists
had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope
may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (4) _____ of 500
million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (5) _____ around 2015, its
destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned
50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6) _____ processing station. The combined data from these
telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen
before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7) _____ , but Penny
believes a second – generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping
the universe around our (8) _____ galaxy, even though these planets lie (9) _____ our reach for the
moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (10) _____ Darwin within three years.
1. a. another b. other c. others d. the other
2. a. light b. lighten c. lightening d. lighting
3. a. following b. after c. next d. later
4. a. price b. schedule c. charge d. budget
5. a. driven b. fetched c. launched d. taken
6. a. central b. centre c. middle d. heart
7. a. invents b. searches c. discovers d. looks
8. a. alone b. same c. one d. own
9. a. out b. toward c. beyond d. over
10. a. of b. on c. about d. with
My Son Sanctuary
The sanctuary (1)............more than 70 architectural (2).............. They include temples and towers
that connect to each other with complicated red brick designs. The main component of the Cham
architectural design is the tower. (3) ............. to reflect the divinity of the king. Bricks are main material for
the construction of the Cham Towers. However, it has yet been unable to figure out the reasonable
explanation for the linking material, brick baking method, and (4) ..............method of the Cham Pa. Even
these days, this still (5) ...........as an attractive secret to contemporary people.
Among the ruins of many architectural (6)..................dug in 1898, a 24-meter-high tower was
found in the Thap Chua area. This tower is a(n) (7).............of ancient Cham architecture. It has two
doors, one in the east and the other in the west. The tower body is high and delicate with a system of
paved pillars, six sub-towers surrounding the tower. This two-story tower (8) ............ a lotus flower. The
top of the upper layer is made of sandstone and carved with elephant and lion designs. In the lower layer,
the walls are carved with fairies, water evils and men (9) .............elephants. (10).........., the tower was
destroyed by US bombs in 1969.
SECTION D. WRITING (5 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (2 points)
1. If nobody puts some more coal in, the fire will go out.
-> Unless …………………………………………………………………………….
2. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches.
-> In case…………………………………………………………………..................
3. I now regret spending too much money on clothes.
-> I wish …..………………………………………………………………………….
4. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.
-> You shouldn’t .…………………………………………………………………….
5. “I must see the manager! ” he cried.
-> He insisted ………………………………………………………………………..
6. I only realized how dangerous the situation had been when I got home.
-> Only …………………………………………………………………..…………..
7. It’s Peter’s job to look after his little brother. (responsible)
-> Peter ………………………….…………………………………………………..
8. Their car is Japanese. It is big and white.
-> They have ……..…………………………………………………………………..
9. Couldn’t you take a bus to the station this morning?
-> Wasn’t ………………………………………………………………………….?
10.Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.
-> Enormous effort.......................................................................................................
Part II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given.
1.The lecture was cancelled because the professor was ill. called
They ……………………………… because the professor was ill.
2.Mr John never takes any notice of what his children say. attention
Mr John never ……………………. what his children say.
3.I don't really want to go out tonight. rather
I ……………………………… out tonight.
4.Nobody in the office works nearly as hard as than Ralph. far
Ralph is …………………………… hard-working person in the office.
5. James hasn't decided whether he's coming to the concert. mind
James hasn't ……………………………….. if he's coming to the concert
Part III. “Many people say that it is the main responsibility of schools for the violence among
students”. To what extent do you agree with this statement? Write a composition, not more than
200 words. (2points)