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GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- I Test Booklet Series

GS - April Batch 2024 – Test 29

GS - June Batch 2024 – Test 20
CA - June Batch 2024 – Test 20
A
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100
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Syllabus

Economy: Fiscal Policy (FRBM) and Fiscal Policy

(Taxation).

Polity: Centre-State relations (Committees &

Commission) and Emergency, Comparing Features of
India's constitution with other countries, Important
Judgements, Important Amendments, Misc.
Constitutional Bodies, Services under Union and State
and Official Language.

Current Affairs: October Booklet-5 and 6

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Q1. With reference to national 3. Unless approved by the

emergency, consider the following Parliament the emergency so
statements: proclaimed ceases to operate on
1. The President can proclaim a the expiry of 30 days.
national emergency only on the 4. Parliament can sanction the
written advice of the council of continuation of emergency any
ministers. number of times.
2. The President can proclaim an Select the correct answer using the
emergency in the entire country code given below.
or any part of it. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The President can issue different (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
proclamations on different (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
grounds even if an emergency is (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
already in operation.
4. Any change in the proclamation Q4. Which of the following are the
of emergency can be made at the changes made to the provision of
discretion of the President. national emergency by 44th
How many of the statements given Constitutional Amendment Act,
above is/are correct? 1978?
(a) Only one 1. It empowered the President to
(b) Only two limit the operation of a National
(c) Only three Emergency to a specified part of
(d) All four India.
2. The term ‘internal disturbance’
Q2. Consider the following statements was replaced by ‘armed
with respect to the disapproval of rebellion’.
the national emergency: 3. Periodic Parliamentary control
1. If one-tenth of the total number for the revocation of emergency
of members of the Lok Sabha was incorporated.
give a written notice, then the 4. Every resolution of emergency
President must revoke the must be passed by either House
proclamation of emergency. by a special majority.
2. A proclamation of emergency can 5. The proclamation of a national
be revoked by the President at emergency can be challenged in
any time without the approval of the Supreme Court on the
the Parliament. grounds of malafide.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the
is/are not correct? code given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q3. Which of the following statements Q5. Consider the following statements:
are correct with reference to the 1. Under a proclamation of national
national emergency? emergency, the Government of
1. Both the houses of the India can issue directions to a
Parliament have to approve the State on any matter.
proclamation of emergency 2. During the national emergency,
sitting separately. the Parliament can extend the
2. The proclamation of emergency normal life of the House of the
has to be approved by a simple People by a period not exceeding
majority. six months at a time.

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3. When the national emergency is Q8. With reference to President’s rule,

in operation, the term of state consider the following statements:
legislative assembly can be 1. A proclamation imposing
extended by a period not President’s Rule must be
exceeding six months at a time. approved by both the Houses of
How many of the statements given Parliament within one month
above is/are correct? from the date of its issue.
(a) Only one 2. Once approved by both the
(b) Only two Houses, the President’s Rule
(c) All three operates for six months beyond
(d) None which Parliament can sanction
its continuation for a maximum
Q6. Consider the following statements in duration of three years.
context of state emergency: Which of the statements given above
1. The President is empowered to is/are correct?
issue a proclamation of state (a) 1 only
emergency in case of failure of (b) 2 only
administrative machinery of the (c) Both 1 and 2
State. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The proclamation of state
emergency can only be issued on Q9. Which of the following is/are correct
the report of the Governor of the when the State legislature is
concerned State. suspended during President’s rule?
Which of the statements given above 1. The President can delegate the
is/are not correct? power to the Parliament to make
(a) 1 only laws for the state.
(b) 2 only 2. The President can authorise
(c) Both 1 and 2 expenditure from the state
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consolidated fund when the Lok
Sabha is not in session.
Q7. With respect to national emergency, 3. The President can promulgate
which of the following statements ordinances for the governance of
is/are not correct? the state only when the
1. Article 358 of the Constitution Parliament is not in session.
deals with the suspension of the Select the correct answer using the
Article 19 during emergency, code given below.
except when the emergency is (a) 1 and 2 only
declared on grounds of armed (b) 1, 2 and 3
rebellion. (c) 1 only
2. Article 359 of the Constitution (d) 2 and 3
deals with the suspension of all
fundamental rights except Article Q10. Consider the following
20 and 21 when the emergency committees/commissions:
is in operation. 1. Rajamannar Committee
Select the correct answer using the 2. Sarkaria Commission
code given below. 3. MM Punchhi Commission
(a) 1 only 4. National Commission to Review
(b) 2 only the Workings of the Constitution
(c) Both 1 and 2 5. First Administrative Reforms
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Commission
How many of the
committees/commissions given

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above are related to the centre-state Q13. Consider the following statements in
relations? context of Financial Emergency:
(a) Only two 1. Once a financial emergency is
(b) Only three approved by the Parliament, it
(c) Only four continues indefinitely till it is
(d) All five revoked.
2. The resolution approving
Q11. Which of the following constitutional proclamation of emergency
amendment lowered the voting age requires only a simple majority.
of elections to the Lok Sabha and to 3. The proclamation of emergency
the Legislative Assemblies of States has to be approved by both the
from 21 years to 18 years? Houses of Parliament within two
(a) 69th Constitutional Amendment months from the date of its
Act, 1991 issue.
(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Which of the statements given above
Act, 1976 are correct?
(c) 61st Constitutional Amendment (a) 1 and 2 only
Act, 1988 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 73rd Constitutional Amendment (c) 1 and 3 only
Act, 1992 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q12. Consider the following pairs: Q14. Which of the following is/are not the
Taxation power Example effect of financial emergency?
1. Taxes levied by : Stamp duties 1. All money bills and other
the Centre but on bills of financial bills of the state can be
collected and exchange reserved for the consideration of
appropriated by the President once passed by the
the States state legislature.
2. Taxes levied : Estate duty 2. Salaries and allowances of all
and collected by on property class of persons serving the
the Centre but other than Union can be reduced.
assigned to the agricultural 3. Salaries and allowances of both
States land the judges of the Supreme Court
3. Taxes levied : Corporation and the High Court can be
and collected by Tax reduced.
the Centre but Select the correct answer using the
distributed code given below.
between the (a) 1 only
Centre and the (b) 2 only
States (c) 3 only
4. Taxes levied : Excise duty (d) None
and collected on alcoholic
and retained by liquors for Q15. Consider the following pairs:
the States human Constitutional Subject matter
consumption Amendment
How many of the above given pairs 1. 100th : National Judicial
are correctly matched? Amendment Appointments
(a) Only one Act Commission to
(b) Only two replace Collegium
(c) Only three system
(d) All four 2. 101st : Constitutional
Amendment status to
Act National

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Commission for 5. Law Commission

Backward 6. Joint Public Service Commission
Classes How many of the following are
3. 102nd : Introduction of constitutional functionaries/bodies?
Amendment Goods and (a) Only three
Act Service Tax (b) Only four
4. 103 rd : Reservation to (c) Only five
Amendment Economically (d) All six
Act Weaker Sections
of citizen Q19. With reference to State Public
How many of the pairs given above Service Commission, consider the
is/are correct? following statements:
(a) Only one 1. Chairman and other members of
(b) Only two the Commission are appointed
(c) Only three by the Governor of that State.
(d) All four 2. The conditions of service of the
Chairman and members of the
Q16. Which of the following is not Commission are determined by
correctly matched? the President of India.
(a) KS : Right to privacy 3. The strength of the Commission
Puttaswamy is protected as a has been left at the discretion of
case fundamental the Governor.
right How many of the statements given
(b) SR Bommai : Due process of above is/are correct?
case the law read into (a) Only one
the Article 21 of (b) Only two
(c) All three
the Constitution
(d) None
(c) Kihoto : Established the
Hollohan validity of the Q20. With respect to decisions taken at
case Anti-defection the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
law Council, consider the following
(d) Kesavananda : Introduction of states:
Bharati case doctrine of the 1. The quorum for conducting the
‘basic structure’ meeting of the GST Council is
of the one-tenth of total number of
Constitution members.
2. The vote of central government
Q17. The Commissioner for Linguistic carries a weightage of one-third
Minorities works under the while the votes of all the state
administrative control of governments (includes UTs as
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs well) combined have a weightage
(b) Ministry of Culture of two-third.
(c) Ministry of Minority Affairs 3. Every decision of the Council is
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs to be taken by a majority of not
less than three-fourths of the
Q18. Consider the following weighted votes of the members
functionaries/bodies: present and voting at the
1. Advocate General of the State meeting.
2. National Commission of Which of the statements given above
Backward Classes is/are not correct?
3. Special Officer for Linguistic (a) 1 only
Minorities (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Goods and Services Tax Council (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q21. Which of the following best describe Q25. Consider the following statements
tax buoyancy? about Cess in India:
(a) The ratio of tax revenue to GDP. 1. Cess is imposed to fund specific
(b) The responsiveness of tax activities like education, health,
revenue with respect to changes or infrastructure development.
in the GDP. 2. It is used for routine government
(c) The percentage change in tax expenditure.
revenue with respect to a change Which of the above statements
in tax rates. is/are correct?
(d) The absolute tax revenue (a) 1 only
collected annually. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q22. Which tax is likely to have higher (d) Neither 1 nor 2
elasticity?
(a) Tax on luxury cars Q26. Consider the following statements
(b) Tax on basic food items about the Minimum Alternate Tax
(c) Tax on essential medicines (MAT) regime in India:
(d) Property Tax 1. The MAT regime was introduced
in India for the first time in 1996
Q23. Consider the following pairs: to deal with the problem of zero
Taxation Meaning tax companies.
system 2. Under the regime in FY 2023-24,
1. Progressive : A tax system a company has to pay at least
Taxation where tax rate 18.5% of the book profit (and
increases as the Cess & Surcharge as applicable)
income increases as corporate tax.
2. Proportional : Everyone pays the Which of the above statements
is/are not correct?
Taxation same percentage
(a) 1 only
of their income as (b) 2 only
tax (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Regressive : Leads to higher (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Taxation tax burden on
low-income Q27. Consider the following statements
individuals about Taxation Laws (Amendment)
How many of the above pairs are Act, 2019:
correctly matched? 1. The changes made through
(a) Only one amendment are focused upon
(b) Only two increasing India's attractiveness
(c) All three as a preferred destination for
(d) None investments.
2. The amendment will also
Q24. Consider the following types of contribute towards improving
taxes: the ease of doing business for
1. Income Tax new domestic manufacturing
2. Corporate Tax companies.
3. Wealth Tax 3. It will also lead to increased
revenue for government in short
4. Securities Transaction Tax
run.
How many of the above taxes is/are Which of the above statements
type of Direct Taxes? is/are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 2 only

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Q28. Akhilesh Ranjan Committee was in Q32. Consider the following facts
news recently with reference to: regarding Maldives:
(a) Insolvency and Bankruptcy 1. It is separated from
Reforms Lakshadweep by 9-degree
(b) Banking Reforms channel.
(c) Direct Tax Reforms 2. It is one of the founding
(d) Assessing poverty estimation in members of SAARC.
India 3. The equator doesn’t pass
through Maldives.
Q29. Consider the following statements How many of the statements given
about Direct Tax collection in India: above are correct?
1. Net Direct Tax collection in FY (a) Only one
2022-23 has reached an all-time (b) Only two
high. (c) All three
2. Direct taxes in India are (d) None
progressive and thus they bring
Q33. Project Sashakt is a program
equity in society.
launched by the Government of
Which of the above statements
India:
is/are correct?
(a) To provide institutional credit to
(a) 1 only
marginal farmers in rural areas.
(b) 2 only
(b) For the resolution of stresses
(c) Both 1 and 2
assets with PSU banks.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Skill development mission for
rural youth.
Q30. Faceless assessment scheme has
(d) To financially empower tribal
contributed to India's Direct Tax
women.
administration in which of the
following ways: Q34. Which of the following countries
(a) It has led to expeditious disposal does not have a coastline along the
of cases. Gulf of Guinea?
(b) It has increased transparency (a) Nigeria
and efficiency. (b) Ghana
(c) It has led to use of data driven (c) Benin
selection of cases. (d) Chad
(d) All of the above
Q35. Consider the following statements
Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Non-Performing Assets
with respect to Laffer Curve: (NPAs):
1. The tax revenue of government 1. An asset which remains as NPAs
always increases with increase in for less than or equal to 12
tax rate. months is called as doubtful
2. The tax revenue of government asset.
at tax rate of 100% is zero. 2. An asset which remains as NPAs
Which of the above statements for more than 12 months is
is/are correct? called as substandard asset.
(a) 1 only 3. Stressed assets include
(b) 2 only restructured loans, not the
(c) Both 1 and 2 written off assets.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three

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Q36. What are the outcomes of a high
level of Non-Performing Assets?
1. Decreased income for bank
2. Decreased fiscal burden on
government
3. Decline in credit ratings of bank
4. Reduced profitability and capital
erosion
5. Expanded Lending capacity
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4, and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q37. Consider the following statements
regarding Pradhan Mantri Gram
Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):
1. PMGSY is a centrally sponsored
scheme launched under Ministry
of Road Transport and
Highways.
2. The eligibility under the PMGSY
scheme was based on a (c) All three
population size of 500 or more
in plain areas and 250 in
Himalayan states.
3. The objective of the scheme is to
connect unconnected habitations
with adequate all-weather roads.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q38. With respect to Unity Malls, consider
the following statements:
1. The Ministry of commerce and
industry has issued guidelines to
states regarding the construction
of unity malls.
2. It will act as a one stop market
place for promotion and sale of
One District One Product, GI
Product, Handicraft Product and
other local products.
3. Central government has
allocated amount of Rs 1 Lakh
crore to states to help them build
unity malls.
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Which of the statements given above
are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q39. Consider the following statements
regarding Road Infrastructure in
India:
1. India has the third largest road
infrastructure after USA and
China.
2. The total road length in 2019
has increased by five folds since
1991 level.
3. National highways carry almost
40% of the total road traffic in
India, but they constitute nearly
2% of the total road network.
How many of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) None
Q40. With respect to Aditya-L1 mission,
consider the following statements:
1. It is the first space-based
observatory class Indian solar
mission to study the sun.
2. The launch was conducted using
PSLV-C57 rocket.
3. The objective is to gain a
deeper understanding of the
Sun's behavior, its radiation,
heat, particle flow and
magnetic fields and how they
impact Earth.
How many of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q41. Consider the following statements
regarding space infrastructure in
India:
1. Space activities in India began
with the establishment of the
Indian National Committee for
Space Research in 1971 after
Indo-Pakistan war.
2. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre,
located in Thiruvananthapuram
is known as ‘spaceport of India’.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q42. Consider the following statements
regarding Vande Bharat Train:
1. It is an indigenously designed
and manufactured semi high-
speed self-propelled train.
2. It is manufactured by Integral
coach factory, Chennai as part of
the Make in India program.
3. Vande Bharat 2.0 is equipped
with indigenously developed
train collision avoidance system-
KAVACH.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
Q43. Consider the following statements
with respect to nuclear fusion
process:
1. Inertial confinement method
employs the use of high energy
laser beams to create very high
temperature for fusion process.
2. Magnetic confinement fusion
method uses a magnetic field to
contain plasma to prevent the
particles from hitting the reactor
walls.
3. International Thermonuclear
Experiment Reactor uses
magnetic confinement fusion
method.
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Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q44. The term ‘Tokamak’ was in news
recently, it is related to
(a) Genetically modified crop
(b) Production of biofertilizer
(c) Spread of viral diseases
(d) Nuclear fusion reactor
Q45. How does tax elasticity differ in
progressive and regressive tax
systems?
(a) Progressive tax systems exhibit
higher tax elasticity due to
higher tax rates on the wealthy.
(b) Regressive tax system shows
higher tax elasticity due to a
more substantial tax burden on
lower-income individuals.
(c) Progressive tax systems have
lower elasticity as they tax the
wealthy less.
(d) There is no difference in tax
elasticity between progressive
and regressive tax systems.
Q46. Consider the following pairs of ITR
type and the kind of tax payers
covered under it.
1. ITR-1: Individuals who have an
income up to Rs 50 Lakh
2. ITR-3: People who have income
as profits from
businesses/profession.
3. ITR-5: Limited Liability
Partnership
4. ITR-7: Trust and non-profit
organizations
How many pairs given above are
correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
 Page 11 of 12

Q47. Consider the following statements

with reference to The Medical
Termination Of Pregnancy
(Amendment) Act, 2021:
1. Advice of one doctor is
mandatory for abortion of
pregnancies up to twenty weeks.
2. Advice of two doctors is
mandatory in the case of certain
categories of women between 20
and 24 weeks.
3. Abortion beyond 24 weeks is
allowed only in cases of
substantial foetal abnormalities.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

Q48. ”Special Mention Account”

sometimes seen in news is related to
which of the following?
(a) Basel III norms
(b) Non-Performing Assets
(c) Quotas in International
Monetary Fund
(d) Zero balance savings account for
students

Q49. With reference to RBI’s revised

Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)
framework, consider the following
parameters:
1. Capital
2. Asset Quality
3. Leverage Ratio
How many of the above parameters
are used for monitoring Scheduled
Commercial Banks as part of the
PCA framework?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q50. ‘One District One Product’ program

is under
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of Commerce &
Industry
(c) Ministry of Culture
(d) Ministry Of Corporate Affairs

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 Page 12 of 12

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