1. What is a key input for Project Plan Development?

● A) Performance reports
● B) Project charter
● C) Change requests
● D) Deliverables
● Correct Answer: B) Project charter
2. Which tool and technique is used in Project Plan Development?
● A) Change control system
● B) Configuration management
● C) Project management methodology
● D) Deliverables
● Correct Answer: C) Project management methodology
3. What is an output of Project Plan Development?
● A) Change requests
● B) Updated project plans
● C) Project plan
● D) Performance reports
● Correct Answer: C) Project plan
4. Which is an input for Project Plan Execution?
● A) General management skills
● B) Deliverables
● C) Performance reports
● D) Change requests
● Correct Answer: C) Performance reports
5. Which tool and technique is used in Project Plan Execution?
● A) General management skills
● B) Project charter
● C) Change control system
● D) Project plan
● Correct Answer: A) General management skills
6. What is an output of Project Plan Execution?
● A) Change requests
● B) Performance reports
● C) Project plan
● D) Organizational policies
● Correct Answer: A) Change requests
7. Which is an input for Integrated Change Control?
● A) General management skills
● B) Project charter
● C) Change requests
● D) Organizational policies
● Correct Answer: C) Change requests
8. Which tool and technique is used in Integrated Change Control?
● A) Project management software
● B) Configuration management
● C) Project plan
● D) Supporting detail
● Correct Answer: B) Configuration management
9. What is an output of Integrated Change Control?
● A) Organizational policies
 ● B) Performance reports
● C) Updated project plans
● D) General management skills
● Correct Answer: C) Updated project plans
10. Which technique is NOT used in cost estimation?
● A) Analogous estimating
● B) Parametric modeling
● C) Configuration management
● D) Bottom-up estimating
● Correct Answer: C) Configuration management

RTM (Requirements Traceability Matrix)

11. What does RTM stand for?
● A) Resource Tracking Matrix
● B) Requirements Traceability Matrix
● C) Risk Tracking Management
● D) Requirements Testing Matrix
● Correct Answer: B) Requirements Traceability Matrix
12. What is a key purpose of RTM?
● A) To manage project costs
● B) To trace the status of requirements
● C) To control project changes
● D) To execute project plans
● Correct Answer: B) To trace the status of requirements

Cost Estimation Techniques and Tools

13. What is Analogous Estimating also known as?
● A) Bottom-up Estimating
● B) Top-down Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Earned Value Management
● Correct Answer: B) Top-down Estimating
14. What does Bottom-up Estimating involve?
● A) Using previous project costs
● B) Summing individual work items
● C) Using mathematical models
● D) Managing project information
● Correct Answer: B) Summing individual work items
15. What does Parametric Modeling use?
● A) Historical data
● B) Individual work estimates
● C) Project characteristics in mathematical models
● D) Expert judgment
● Correct Answer: C) Project characteristics in mathematical models
General Project Management Concepts
16. What is a burst in AOA diagrams?
● A) A single node followed by multiple activities
● B) Two or more nodes preceding a single activity
● C) An activity with no dependencies
● D) An activity with multiple dependencies
● Correct Answer: A) A single node followed by multiple activities
17. What is a merge in AOA diagrams?
● A) A single node followed by multiple activities
● B) Two or more nodes preceding a single activity
● C) An activity with no dependencies
● D) An activity with multiple dependencies
● Correct Answer: B) Two or more nodes preceding a single activity
18. Which method represents activities with arrows?
● A) PERT
● B) CPM
● C) ADM
● D) Gantt chart
● Correct Answer: C) ADM
19. What is the main characteristic of ADM?
● A) Start-to-start dependencies
● B) Finish-to-start dependencies
● C) Start-to-finish dependencies
● D) Finish-to-finish dependencies
● Correct Answer: B) Finish-to-start dependencies
20. Which tool helps in tracing requirements throughout a project lifecycle?
● A) Gantt chart
● B) RTM
● C) PERT chart
● D) WBS
● Correct Answer: B) RTM

Project Planning and Execution

21. Which is a critical input for developing the project plan?
● A) Change requests
● B) Project management software
● C) Organizational policies
● D) Deliverables
● Correct Answer: C) Organizational policies
22. Which is essential for project plan execution?
● A) Project charter
● B) Performance reports
● C) Configuration management
● D) Change control system
● Correct Answer: B) Performance reports
23. Which output signifies the completion of project plan execution?
 ● A) Project status
● B) Change requests
● C) Updated project plans
● D) Organizational policies
● Correct Answer: B) Change requests
24. What role does configuration management play in integrated change control?
● A) Estimating project costs
● B) Managing project changes
● C) Developing project plans
● D) Executing project plans
● Correct Answer: B) Managing project changes
25. What does earned value management (EVM) help to assess?
● A) Project risk
● B) Project cost performance
● C) Project quality
● D) Project schedule
● Correct Answer: B) Project cost performance
26. Which document outlines the project's deliverables and the work required?
● A) Project charter
● B) RTM
● C) Project plan
● D) Performance report
● Correct Answer: C) Project plan

Miscellaneous
27. What is the primary focus of project integration management?
● A) To manage individual project phases separately
● B) To ensure that project components are properly coordinated
● C) To develop detailed cost estimates
● D) To perform risk analysis
● Correct Answer: B) To ensure that project components are properly
coordinated
28. What is a key characteristic of a well-defined project plan?
● A) It is flexible and can change frequently
● B) It has detailed performance reports
● C) It clearly defines the project scope and objectives
● D) It includes a comprehensive change control system
● Correct Answer: C) It clearly defines the project scope and objectives
29. Which phase involves the creation of project deliverables?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Project Plan Execution
● C) Integrated Change Control
● D) Cost Estimation
● Correct Answer: B) Project Plan Execution
30. What is a common outcome of effective project plan execution?
● A) Reduced project scope
● B) Increased project risks
 ● C) Successful completion of project tasks
● D) Frequent change requests
● Correct Answer: C) Successful completion of project tasks
31. What tool is often used to monitor project performance?
● A) WBS
● B) Gantt chart
● C) RTM
● D) Change control system
● Correct Answer: B) Gantt chart
32. Which process helps in managing changes to the project scope?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Integrated Change Control
● C) Cost Estimation
● D) Project Plan Execution
● Correct Answer: B) Integrated Change Control
33. What is the purpose of a project charter?
● A) To execute the project plan
● B) To trace requirements
● C) To formally authorize a project
● D) To control project changes
● Correct Answer: C) To formally authorize a project
34. Which activity is NOT part of project integration management?
● A) Developing the project plan
● B) Executing the project plan
● C) Managing project changes
● D) Conducting a risk analysis
● Correct Answer: D) Conducting a risk analysis
35. Which technique is used to estimate project costs by comparing with similar past
projects?
● A) Bottom-up Estimating
● B) Analogous Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Expert Judgment
● Correct Answer: B) Analogous Estimating
36. What is a primary output of the integrated change control process?
● A) Performance reports
● B) Change requests
● C) Updated project plans
● D) General management skills
● Correct Answer: C) Updated project plans
37. Which element is essential in ensuring all project requirements are met?
● A) Project plan
● B) RTM
● C) Performance reports
● D) Configuration management
● Correct Answer: B) RTM
38. What is the significance of performance reports in project management?
● A) They authorize the project
● B) They provide information on project progress
● C) They manage project changes
 ● D) They trace project requirements
● Correct Answer: B) They provide information on project progress
39. Which tool helps in visually representing project schedules?
● A) RTM
● B) PERT chart
● C) Gantt chart
● D) Project charter
● Correct Answer: C) Gantt chart
40. What is the role of expert judgment in cost estimation?
● A) To create detailed work breakdown structures
● B) To validate project performance reports
● C) To estimate costs based on expertise and experience
● D) To execute project plans
● Correct Answer: C) To estimate costs based on expertise and experience
41. Which output includes the detailed process of how the project will be executed and
controlled?
● A) Project charter
● B) Project plan
● C) Performance reports
● D) Change requests
● Correct Answer: B) Project plan
42. What is a crucial factor for the success of project plan execution?
● A) Flexibility in project scope
● B) Detailed and realistic project plan
● C) Frequent changes in project team
● D) Comprehensive risk management plan
● Correct Answer: B) Detailed and realistic project plan
43. Which document is essential for initiating a project?
● A) Project plan
● B) Project charter
● C) RTM
● D) Performance reports
● Correct Answer: B) Project charter
44. What technique involves estimating costs by aggregating the costs of individual work
packages?
● A) Analogous Estimating
● B) Bottom-up Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Earned Value Management
● Correct Answer: B) Bottom-up Estimating
45. What is the primary focus of integrated change control?
● A) To execute project plans
● B) To manage changes to the project scope and plans
● C) To develop project charters
● D) To create performance reports
● Correct Answer: B) To manage changes to the project scope and plans
46. Which technique is used for managing project schedules and tracking progress?
● A) PERT chart
● B) Gantt chart
● C) RTM
 ● D) Configuration management
● Correct Answer: B) Gantt chart
47. What does parametric modeling rely on for cost estimation?
● A) Historical data
● B) Expert judgment
● C) Mathematical models
● D) Individual work item estimates
● Correct Answer: C) Mathematical models
48. What is an essential aspect of project plan execution?
● A) Updating project charters
● B) Delivering project outcomes
● C) Managing project risks
● D) Creating change control systems
● Correct Answer: B) Delivering project outcomes
49. Which tool helps in identifying and controlling changes to the project?
● A) Change control system
● B) Project charter
● C) RTM
● D) Performance reports
● Correct Answer: A) Change control system
50. Which technique involves comparing the project's planned progress with its actual
progress?
● A) Earned Value Management
● B) Parametric Modeling
● C) Analogous Estimating
● D) Bottom-up Estimating
● Correct Answer: A) Earned Value Management

Cost Estimation Techniques and Tools

51. Which cost estimation technique uses statistical relationships between historical data and
other variables?
● A) Bottom-up Estimating
● B) Analogous Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Expert Judgment
● Correct Answer: C) Parametric Modeling
52. What is the primary advantage of using Bottom-up Estimating?
● A) It is quick and easy to perform.
● B) It provides detailed and accurate estimates.
● C) It relies on expert judgment.
● D) It uses historical data for estimates.
● Correct Answer: B) It provides detailed and accurate estimates.
53. Which cost estimation technique is often used during the early phases of a project?
● A) Bottom-up Estimating
● B) Parametric Modeling
● C) Analogous Estimating
● D) Expert Judgment
 ● Correct Answer: C) Analogous Estimating
54. Which technique involves breaking down the project into smaller components for detailed
cost estimation?
● A) Analogous Estimating
● B) Bottom-up Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Expert Judgment
● Correct Answer: B) Bottom-up Estimating
55. What type of cost estimation is most suitable for projects with well-defined tasks and
deliverables?
● A) Analogous Estimating
● B) Bottom-up Estimating
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Expert Judgment
● Correct Answer: B) Bottom-up Estimating

Project Plan Development and Execution

56. What is the main purpose of Project Plan Development?
● A) To execute project tasks
● B) To authorize the project
● C) To define and document the project plan
● D) To manage project changes
● Correct Answer: C) To define and document the project plan
57. Which process involves coordinating all project activities to ensure alignment with the
project plan?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Integrated Change Control
● C) Project Plan Execution
● D) Cost Estimation
● Correct Answer: C) Project Plan Execution
58. Which tool and technique is used to determine the feasibility of the project plan?
● A) Earned Value Management (EVM)
● B) Project management methodology
● C) Expert Judgment
● D) Project management software
● Correct Answer: C) Expert Judgment
59. What is the outcome of a well-executed Project Plan Execution process?
● A) Detailed risk management plan
● B) Updated project charter
● C) Completed project deliverables
● D) Comprehensive change control system
● Correct Answer: C) Completed project deliverables
60. What does the acronym EVM stand for in project management?
● A) Earned Value Management
● B) Effective Value Management
● C) Estimated Value Management
● D) Essential Value Management
 ● Correct Answer: A) Earned Value Management

Integrated Change Control

61. Which process ensures that changes are managed throughout the project lifecycle?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Project Plan Execution
● C) Integrated Change Control
● D) Cost Estimation
● Correct Answer: C) Integrated Change Control
62. Which tool is crucial for handling modifications to the project plan?
● A) Change control system
● B) Earned Value Management
● C) Parametric Modeling
● D) Bottom-up Estimating
● Correct Answer: A) Change control system
63. What is a common result of an effective Integrated Change Control process?
● A) Reduced project scope
● B) Updated project plans
● C) Increased project risks
● D) Delayed project schedule
● Correct Answer: B) Updated project plans
64. Which process involves reviewing all change requests and managing the approval
process?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Project Plan Execution
● C) Integrated Change Control
● D) Cost Estimation
● Correct Answer: C) Integrated Change Control
65. What is the primary input for Integrated Change Control?
● A) Project charter
● B) Project plan
● C) Change requests
● D) Performance reports
● Correct Answer: C) Change requests

RTM (Requirements Traceability Matrix)

66. How does RTM help in managing requirements?
● A) By creating cost estimates
● B) By tracking the status of requirements throughout the project lifecycle
● C) By executing project plans
● D) By managing project risks
● Correct Answer: B) By tracking the status of requirements throughout the
project lifecycle
67. Which phase of the project lifecycle is RTM particularly useful?
 ● A) Project initiation
● B) Project execution
● C) Project closure
● D) All phases
● Correct Answer: D) All phases
68. What information is typically included in an RTM?
● A) Project risks and issues
● B) Project costs and budgets
● C) Requirements, their status, and their associated test cases
● D) Project schedules and timelines
● Correct Answer: C) Requirements, their status, and their associated test
cases
69. Which document helps in ensuring that all project requirements are met?
● A) Project charter
● B) Gantt chart
● C) RTM
● D) PERT chart
● Correct Answer: C) RTM
70. What is the main benefit of using an RTM?
● A) Improved cost estimation accuracy
● B) Better risk management
● C) Enhanced requirement tracking and validation
● D) More efficient project execution
● Correct Answer: C) Enhanced requirement tracking and validation

General Project Management Concepts

71. What is the primary focus of project cost management?
● A) To develop detailed project schedules
● B) To estimate, budget, and control costs
● C) To manage project risks
● D) To control project changes
● Correct Answer: B) To estimate, budget, and control costs
72. Which process involves creating a detailed list of project tasks?
● A) Project Plan Development
● B) Project Plan Execution
● C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) creation
● D) Integrated Change Control
● Correct Answer: C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) creation
73. What is the purpose of a Gantt chart in project management?
● A) To trace project requirements
● B) To manage project costs
● C) To visually represent project schedules and timelines
● D) To perform risk analysis
● Correct Answer: C) To visually represent project schedules and timelines
74. Which tool is used for managing and tracking project schedules?
● A) RTM
● B) Earned Value Management
 ● C) PERT chart
● D) Gantt chart
● Correct Answer: D) Gantt chart
75. What is the role of a project sponsor?
● A) To develop the project plan
● B) To execute project tasks
● C) To authorize and provide resources for the project
● D) To manage project risks
● Correct Answer: C) To authorize and provide resources for the project
76. What is a common method for assessing project performance?
● A) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
● B) Gantt chart
● C) Performance reports
● D) Project charter
● Correct Answer: C) Performance reports
77. Which document outlines the high-level scope, objectives, and stakeholders of a project?
● A) Project plan
● B) RTM
● C) Project charter
● D) Performance reports
● Correct Answer: C) Project charter
78. What is the primary goal of risk management in project management?
● A) To increase project costs
● B) To reduce project scope
● C) To identify, assess, and manage risks
● D) To create detailed project schedules
● Correct Answer: C) To identify, assess, and manage risks
79. Which tool helps in determining the critical path of a project?
● A) RTM
● B) Earned Value Management
● C) Gantt chart
● D) PERT chart
● Correct Answer: D) PERT chart
80. What is the significance of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
● A) It helps in estimating project costs.
● B) It visually represents project schedules.
● C) It breaks down the project into smaller, manageable components.
● D) It manages project changes.
● Correct Answer: C) It breaks down the project into smaller, manageable
components.

Additional MCQs from Chapter 5 and Chapter 6

Project Risk Management

81. What is the primary goal of project risk management?
● A) To minimize project scope
 ● B) To identify, assess, and manage project risks
● C) To reduce project costs
● D) To increase project quality
● Correct Answer: B) To identify, assess, and manage project risks
82. Which technique involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of identified risks?
● A) Quantitative risk analysis
● B) Risk mitigation
● C) Qualitative risk analysis
● D) Risk transfer
● Correct Answer: C) Qualitative risk analysis
83. What is the purpose of a risk register in project management?
● A) To document all project tasks
● B) To track project schedules
● C) To document and track risks
● D) To estimate project costs
● Correct Answer: C) To document and track risks
84. Which strategy involves transferring the impact of a risk to a third party?
● A) Risk avoidance
● B) Risk acceptance
● C) Risk mitigation
● D) Risk transfer
● Correct Answer: D) Risk transfer
85. What is a common method used in quantitative risk analysis?
● A) Probability and impact matrix
● B) Monte Carlo simulation
● C) SWOT analysis
● D) Expert judgment
● Correct Answer: B) Monte Carlo simulation
86. Which process includes identifying risks that might affect the project and documenting
their characteristics?
● A) Risk identification
● B) Risk assessment
● C) Risk monitoring
● D) Risk response planning
● Correct Answer: A) Risk identification
87. What is the primary purpose of risk response planning?
● A) To document project schedules
● B) To create a risk register
● C) To develop options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats
● D) To assess the probability of risks
● Correct Answer: C) To develop options and actions to enhance
opportunities and reduce threats

Project Quality Management

88. Which process involves monitoring specific project results to ensure they comply with
relevant quality standards?
● A) Quality planning
 ● B) Quality assurance
● C) Quality control
● D) Quality improvement
● Correct Answer: C) Quality control
89. What is the primary goal of quality assurance in project management?
● A) To create quality management plans
● B) To ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
● C) To perform quality audits
● D) To monitor project performance
● Correct Answer: B) To ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant
quality standards
90. Which tool is commonly used in quality control to determine if a process is in control?
● A) Pareto chart
● B) Control chart
● C) Fishbone diagram
● D) Histogram
● Correct Answer: B) Control chart
91. Which quality management process involves continuous improvement?
● A) Quality planning
● B) Quality assurance
● C) Quality control
● D) Quality improvement
● Correct Answer: D) Quality improvement
92. What is the purpose of a Pareto chart in project quality management?
● A) To identify the root causes of defects
● B) To show the frequency of defects
● C) To prioritize issues based on their impact
● D) To monitor process performance over time
● Correct Answer: C) To prioritize issues based on their impact
93. Which diagram is used to identify possible causes of a problem?
● A) Control chart
● B) Pareto chart
● C) Fishbone diagram
● D) Histogram
● Correct Answer: C) Fishbone diagram
94. What is the main focus of quality planning in project management?
● A) To monitor and record project results
● B) To identify quality standards relevant to the project
● C) To perform quality audits
● D) To implement continuous improvement
● Correct Answer: B) To identify quality standards relevant to the project
95. Which tool helps in visually representing the distribution of data over a range of values?
● A) Pareto chart
● B) Control chart
● C) Fishbone diagram
● D) Histogram
● Correct Answer: D) Histogram
96. What is the role of quality audits in quality assurance?
● A) To identify the causes of defects
● B) To verify that project activities comply with organizational policies
 ● C) To monitor project progress
● D) To estimate project costs
● Correct Answer: B) To verify that project activities comply with
organizational policies
97. Which quality management process focuses on preventing defects through planned and
systematic activities?
● A) Quality control
● B) Quality assurance
● C) Quality planning
● D) Quality improvement
● Correct Answer: B) Quality assurance

Additional General Project Management Concepts

98. What is the main benefit of using project management software?
● A) To identify project risks
● B) To track and manage project schedules, costs, and resources
● C) To create detailed work breakdown structures
● D) To perform qualitative risk analysis
● Correct Answer: B) To track and manage project schedules, costs, and
resources
99. Which document outlines the criteria for project success and stakeholder acceptance?
● A) Project charter
● B) Quality management plan
● C) Project plan
● D) Requirements documentation
● Correct Answer: D) Requirements documentation
 JL

27. The figure above represents a portion of a ____ report.

a. calendar c. planning
b. Gantt d. milestone

28. ____ is the process of measuring progress towards project objectives, monitoring deviation from the plan,
and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan.
a. Controlling c. Executing
b. Planning d. Reforming

29. Controlling affects ____ other phases of the project life cycle.
a. no c. all
b. some d. two

30. The ____ process includes verifying that all of the deliverables are complete and often includes a final
presentation.
a. initiating c. planning
b. closing d. controlling

Chapter 4: Project Integration Management

1. There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management( 5 phases 6 processes)
a. two c. four
b. three d. five??

2. Projects that are somewhat ambiguous at the beginning are often described as having a fuzzy ____.
a. high-end c. back-end
b. rear-end d. front-end

3. Most people consider project integration ____ the key to overall project success.
a. management c. clients
b. programmers d. marketers

4. ____ management involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements
of the project.( search đáp án là integration)
a. Interlace c. Interface
b. Interproject d. Interpreted

5. The ____ process of project integration management is project plan development.

a. first c. third (trong lect là thứ 3 nhé mn - nhật)
b. second d. fourth

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6. In order to integrate across project management knowledge areas and across the organization, there must
be a good ____ plan.
a. floor c. marketing
b. project d. coding

7. Every project needs a ____.

a. tailor-made software package c. sponsor
b. Gantt chart d. sales team

8. The description of the project in the project plan should be written in ____ terms.
a. layperson’s c. financial
b. technical d. legal

9. The project ____ should always be the contact for project information.
a. plan c. programmer
b. sales executive d. manager

10. Project controls should be described in the ____ section of the project plan.
a. organizational c. overview
b. management and technical approaches d. project schedule

11. The acronym CASE stands for Computer Aided Software ____.
a. Engineering c. Entertainment
b. Experimentation d. Education

12. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) Standard 1058.1 describes the contents of
a(n) ____.
a. Gantt chart c. Software Project Management Plan
b. Object-oriented Management Plan d. Software Development Plan

13. The ____ process of project integration management is project plan execution.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth (thứ 4 nhé - nhật)

14. The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____.

a. analysis c. development
b. testing d. execution

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15. The main function of creating project plans is to guide project ____.
a. marketing c. interface
b. development d. execution

16. Most systems analysts begin their careers as ____.

a. programmers c. clients
b. project managers d. sales representatives

17. Good project plan execution also requires a ____ organizational culture.
a. large c. supportive
b. distracted d. wealthy

18. ResNet was the first large information technology project at Northwest Airlines led by a(n) ____
manager, and it was a roaring success.
a. financial c. project
b. business d. accounting

19. Project managers or other team members can create Gantt charts using software such as Microsoft ____.
a. Project 2002( chắc chắn rồi, đoán gì) c. Internet Explorer
b. Windows XP d. Windows NT

20. The figure above shows a schematic of the ____ process

a. project integration management c. systems development life cycle
b. project life cycle d. integrated change control

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21. The project ____ provides the baseline for identifying and controlling project changes.
a. manager c. deliverable
b. plan d. software

22. Information technology often used to be referred to as data ____.

a. transference c. automation
b. interpretation d. management

23. Project managers should use ____ performance reports to help identify and manage project changes.
a. written and oral c. oral
b. written d. neither written nor oral

24. The goal of a ____ meeting is to communicate what is most important on the project quickly.
a. stand-up c. pack-in
b. front-end d. get-out

25. It is the ____ responsibility to integrate all project changes so that the project stays on track.
a. sales representative’s c. project manager’s
b. client’s d. programmer’s

26. Project management is a process of ____ communication and negotiation.

a. reducing c. disregarding
b. constant d. occasional

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27. The above figure shows a software application tool’s creation of a(n) ____.
a. workflow diagram c. Gantt chart
b. object model d. project life cycle

28. The main purpose of a project plan is to facilitate ____.

a. explanation c. thought
b. stasis d. action

Chapter 5: Project Scope Management

1. CIO refers to the Chief ____ Officer.
a. Inspection c. Interpretive
b. Information d. Isolation

2. Many factors involved with project success, such as user involvement, clear business objectives,
minimized scope, and firm basic requirements are elements of project ____ management.
a. scope c. planning
b. funding d. initiation

3. The term ____ refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes
used to create them.
a. enactment c. scope
b. enterprise d. development
4. The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project.
a. input c. process
b. output d. deliverable

5. There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management.

a. two c. five
b. three d. nine

6. ____ involves committing the organization to begin a project or continue to the next phase of a project.
a. Scope planning c. Scope definition
b. Initiation d. Scope change control

7. A project ____ is a key document for formally recognizing the existence and providing a broad overview
of a project.
a. charter c. action
b. plan d. deliverable

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8. Scope ____ involves developing documents to provide the basis for future project decisions, including the
criteria for determining if a project or phase has been completed successfully.
a. definition c. verification
b. change control d. planning

9. Scope ____ involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components.(Tra đc là Creating WBS)
a. planning c. verification
b. definition d. change control

10. The project team creates a work breakdown structure (WBS) during the scope ____ process.
a. definition c. initiation
b. change control d. planning

11. Scope ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope.

a. definition c. verification
b. planning d. change control

12. Scope changes, corrective action, and lessons learned are outputs of the scope ____ process.
a. verification c. planning
b. initiation d. change control (May be)

13. The term “SWOT” analysis refers to analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and ____.
a. Treats c. Time
b. Threats d. Traffic

14. Many information systems are classified as ____ because they directly support key business strategies.
a. secret c. profitable
b. ancillary d. strategic

15. One method for selecting projects based on broad organizational needs is to determine whether they first
meet three important criteria: need, funding, and ____.
a. value c. time
b. will d. deliverables

16. ____ are undesirable situations that prevent an organization from achieving its goals.
a. Problems c. Opportunities
b. Directives d. Assets

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17. ____ are chances to improve the organization.

a. Problems c. Initiatives
b. Directives d. Opportunities (May be)

18. ____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence.
a. Objectives c. Directives
b. Goals d. Incentives

19. EDI stands for ____ data interchange.

a. economic c. event-driven
b. electronic d. effective

20. A(n) ____ rate is also called the required rate of return, hurdle rate, or opportunity cost of capital.
a. development c. opportunity
b. discount d. availability

21. The formula for the discount factor is ____ where r is the discount rate and t is the year.
a. 1(1+r) c. 1/(1+r)
t t

b. t/(1+r) d. r(1+t)

22. ROI stands for return on ____.

a. interest c. intelligence
b. information d. investment
23. A balanced ____ is a methodology that converts an organization’s value drivers, such as customer
service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics.
a. scorecard c. equation
b. Gantt chart d. charter

24. A project ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on
the project’s objectives and management.
a. goal c. charter
b. definition d. initiative

25. A scope ____ is a document used to develop and confirm a common understanding of the project scope.
a. plan c. initiative
b. chart d. statement

26. The project ____ describes the business need that sparked creation of the project.
a. plan c. budget
b. justification d. strategy

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27. The process of breaking work into manageable pieces is called scope ____.
a. definition c. orientation
b. planning d. development

28. A work ____ structure is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the
total scope of the project.
a. definition c. breakdown
b. development d. benefit

29. A(n) ____ is often depicted as a task-oriented family tree of activities, similar to an organizational chart.
a. ROI c. Internet site
b. Gantt chart d. WBS

30. A WBS can be shown in ____ form as an indented list of tasks that shows the same groupings of the
work.
a. pie chart c. Gantt chart
b. tabular d. bar graph

31. A(n) ____ package is a task at the lowest level of the WBS which generally should represent roughly
eighty hours of effort.
a. benefit c. work
b. investment d. production

32. Tasks under initiating include selecting a project manager, forming the project ____, and developing the
project charter.
a. team c. budget
b. goal d. liturgy

33. The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project, but many of the tasks under the other project
management process groups would be similar for all projects.
a. initiating c. planning
b. closing d. executing

34. Tasks under planning include developing a(n) ____ statement, creating a WBS, and developing and
refining other plans, which would be broken down in more detail for a real project.
a. scope c. independent
b. budget d. closing

35. One approach to developing work breakdown structures is to use ____.

a. formulas c. guidelines (may be)
b. investments d. contractors

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36. When constructing a WBS, in the ____ approach, you use a similar project’s WBS as a starting point.
a. top-down c. guideline
b. bottom-up d. analogy

37. To use the ____ approach in creating a WBS, start with the largest items of the project and break them
into their subordinate items.
a. top-down c. analogy
b. bottom-up d. mind-mapping

38. When constructing a WBS, in the ____ approach, team members first identify as many specific tasks
related to the project as possible and then aggregate the specific tasks and organize them into summary activities,
or higher levels in the WBS.
a. top-down c. analogy
b. bottom-up d. mind-mapping

39. The ____ approach is a technique that uses branches radiating out from a core idea to structure thoughts
and ideas.
a. top-down c. analogy
b. bottom-up d. mind-mapping

40. The tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger is called ____ creep.
a. project c. scope
b. process d. guideline
41. The 1995 Standish Group CHAOS study found that key factors associated with information technology
project success include user involvement and a clear statement of project ____.
a. budget c. values
b. requirements d. staff

42. Research and practice indicate that in order to verify project scope and control scope change, you need to
improve user ____ and reduce incomplete and changing requirements and specifications.
a. output c. input
b. technology d. safety

43. JAD stands for joint ____ design.

a. accuracy c. artistic
b. availability d. application

44. Common techniques for selecting projects include focusing on broad organization needs, categorizing
projects, performing financial analyses, developing weighted scoring models, and using balanced ____.
a. pie charts c. Gantt charts
b. scorecards d. portfolios

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45. A type of software, called a(n) ____ management tool, aids in capturing and maintaining requirements
information, provides immediate access to the information, and assists in establishing necessary relationships
between requirements and information created by other tools.
a. project c. information
b. regulations d. requirements

Chapter 6: Project Time Management

1. According to the 1995 CHAOS report, unsuccessful information technology projects that were planned to
take one year ended up taking ____ years to complete.( có thông tin là 1.22)
a. 1.4 c. 2.2
b. 1.8 d. 2.6

2. Overall, ____ issues cause the most conflict over the life of a project.
a. budget c. planning
b. schedule d. verification

3. There are ____ main processes involved in project time management.

a. two c. six
b. four d. ten

4. Activity ____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders
must perform to produce the project deliverables.
a. conflict c. verification
b. modification d. definition
5. Activity ____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities.
a. duration c. control
b. development d. sequencing

6. Activity ____ estimating involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete
individual activities.
a. duration c. development
b. sequencing d. control

7. Schedule ____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity duration estimates, and resource
requirements to create the project schedule.
a. sequencing c. control
b. development d. duration

8. Schedule ____ involves managing changes to the project schedule.

a. sequencing c. development
b. duration d. control

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9. Activity ____ involves reviewing the activities in the detailed WBS, detailed product descriptions,
assumptions, and constraints to determine the relationships between activities.
a. budgeting c. sequencing
b. definition d. management

10. There are ____ basic reasons for creating dependencies among project activities.
a. three c. eight
b. five d. nine

11. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being done on a project.
a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Relationship

12. ____ dependencies are defined by the project team.

a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Relationship

13. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities.
a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Relationship

14. A project ____ diagram is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of,
project activities.
a. Gantt c. schedule
b. bar graph d. network

15. In the figure above, the letters A through J represent activities with ____ that are required to complete the
project.
a. dependencies c. budgets
b. schedules d. deliverables

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16. A PDM, or ____ diagramming method (PDM) is a network diagramming technique in which boxes
represent activities.
a. precedence c. parallel
b. predictive d. primary

17. ____ is a relationship in which the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity is started.
a. Finish-to-start c. Finish-to-finish
b. Start-to-start d. Start-to-finish

18. ____ is a rarely used relationship in which the “from” activity must start before the “to” activity can be
finished.
a. Finish-to-start c. Finish-to-finish
b. Start-to-start d. Start-to-finish

19. An example of a ____ relationship is when quality control efforts cannot finish before production
finishes, although the two activities can be performed at the same time.
a. Finish-to-start c. Finish-to-finish
b. Start-to-start d. Start-to-finish

20. The number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task is called ____.
a. duration c. effort
b. length d. time
21. On a Gantt chart, a(n) ____ is a significant event on a project with zero duration.
a. marker c. milestone
b. goal d. inning

22. The critical path method (CPM) also called critical path ____ is used to predict total project duration.
a. requirements c. therapy
b. divisions d. analysis

23. Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or
the project finish date.
a. flotsam c. excess
b. float d. padding

24. A(n) ____ pass determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
a. forward c. late
b. backward d. early

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25. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule
compression for the least incremental cost.
a. Costing c. Creating
b. Crashing d. Culling

26. ____ tracking involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence.
a. Parallel c. Slow
b. Simultaneous d. Fast

27. The Theory of ____ (TOC) is based on the fact that, like a chain with its weakest link, any complex
system at any point in time often has only one aspect that limits its ability to achieve more of its goal.
a. Complaints c. Constructs
b. Constraints d. Conventions

28. ____ Law states that work expands to fill the time allowed.
a. Parkinson’s c. Murphy’s
b. Gantt’s d. Stevenson’s

29. Lucent Technologies Outside Plant Fiber Optic Cable Business Unit used critical chain scheduling to
reduce its product introduction interval by ____ percent.
a. 20 c. 40
b. 30 d. 50

30. ____ Technologies Group successfully implemented critical chain scheduling to manage more than 200
concurrent projects in nine locations.
a. Lucent c. Synergis
b. Antarctic d. U.S.

31. ADM stands for ____ diagramming method.

a. advanced c. assertive
b. arrow d. anchor

32. ____-on-arrow (AOA) is a network diagramming technique in which activities are represented by arrows
and connected at points to illustrate the sequence of activities.
a. Activity c. Advances
b. Arrow d. Articles

33. A(n) ____ pass is a project network diagramming technique that determines the late start and late finish
dates for each activity in a similar fashion.
a. forward c. fast
b. backward d. slow

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34. A(n) ____ is when a single node is followed by two or more activities on a network diagram.
a. start c. milestone
b. arrow d. burst

35. A(n) ____ occurs when two or more nodes precede a single node on a network diagram.
a. mesh c. merge
b. milestone d. burst

36. The equation for the PERT ____ average is: (optimistic time + 4(most likely time) + pessimistic time)/6.
a. weighted c. slack
b. probabilistic d. constraint

37. A(n) ____ Gantt chart is a Gantt chart that compares planned and actual project schedule information.
a. information c. singular
b. tracking d. inverted

38. One of the first ____ checks a project manager should make is to review the draft schedule usually
included in the project charter.
a. time c. progress
b. reality d. account

39. ____-coding involves entering all activity dates manually instead of letting the software calculate them
based on durations and relationships.
a. Cold c. Hard
b. Hot d. Slow

Chapter 7: Project Cost Management

1. The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates is called the cost ____.
a. excess c. completion
b. availability d. overrun

2. EVM stands for ____ value management.

a. excess c. eventual
b. earned d. economic

3. Project ____ management includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a
project within an approved budget.
a. cost c. scope
b. time frame d. goal

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4. ____ planning involves determining what people, equipment, and materials a project team should use to
perform project activities and the quantities of each resource.
a. Scope c. Resource
b. Cost d. Development

5. The output of the resource planning process is a list of resource ____.

a. goals c. ideas
b. requirements d. plans

6. Cost ____ involves developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete a
project.
a. budgeting c. estimating
b. control d. planning

7. The main outputs of the cost estimating process are cost estimates, ____ detail, and a cost management
plan.
a. development c. scope
b. budget d. supporting

8. Cost ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for
measuring performance.
a. budgeting c. control
b. analysis d. estimating
9. The main output of the cost budgeting process is a cost ____.
a. graph c. analysis
b. baseline d. estimate

10. The main outputs of the cost control process are revised cost estimates, budget ____, corrective action,
estimate at completion, and lessons learned.
a. charts c. updates
b. timelines d. goals

11. Profit ____ is the ratio between revenues and profits.

a. margin c. scope
b. life cycle d. cost

12. ____ costing allows you to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project and develop an accurate
projection of a project’s financial benefits.
a. Project scope c. Development
b. Life cycle d. Profit

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13. ____ costs or benefits are those costs or benefits that an organization can easily measure in dollars.
a. Sunk c. Indirect
b. Direct d. Tangible

14. ____ costs or benefits are costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.
a. Indirect c. Intangible
b. Direct d. Tangible

15. ____ costs are costs related to a project that an organization can trace back in a cost-effective way.
a. Direct c. Sunk
b. Indirect d. Intangible

16. The cost of electricity, paper towels, and so on in a large building housing a thousand employees are
examples of ____ costs.
a. tangible c. direct
b. intangible d. indirect

17. ____ cost is money that has been spent in the past.
a. Direct c. Sunk
b. Indirect d. Intangible

18. Contingency reserves, also sometimes called ____, allow for future situations that may be partially
planned for and are included in the project cost baseline.
a. unknown knowns c. unknown unknowns
b. known unknowns d. known knowns

19. Management reserves, sometimes called ____, allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
a. unknown unknowns c. unknown knowns
b. known unknowns d. known knowns

20. A ROM or a rough order of ____ (ROM) estimate provides a rough idea of what a project will cost.
a. maintenance c. magnitude
b. money d. misdemeanors

21. ____ estimates are used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required
and for estimating final project costs.
a. Budgetary c. Rough
b. Definitive d. Absolute

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22. ____ estimates use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the
current project.
a. Analogous c. Parametric
b. Bottom-up d. Constructive Cost

23. One popular parametric model is the ____ Cost Model, which is used for estimating software
development costs based on parameters such as the source lines of code or function points.
a. Creative c. Coupled
b. Collaborative d. Constructive

24. EVM or ____ value management is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope,
time, and cost data.
a. excess c. earned
b. eventual d. elapsed

25. A(n) ____ is the original project plan plus approved changes.
a. description c. forecast
b. baseline d. assignment

26. The ____ value (PV), also called the budget, is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to
be spent on an activity during a given period.
a. prepared c. periodical
b. planned d. participant
27. The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a
given period.
a. planned value c. actual cost
b. earned value d. budgeted cost

28. ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost.

a. Schedule variance c. Schedule performance index
b. Cost performance index d. Cost variance

29. The ____ performance index can be used to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC), an estimate of
what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
a. completion c. spreadsheet
b. cost d. project

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30. The figure above shows the earned value chart for the project after ____ month(s).
a. one c. twelve
b. five d. thirteen

Chapter 8: Project Quality Management

1. Currently, about ____ percent of U.S. homes have computers.

a. 25 c. 75
b. 50 d. 95

2. It took only ____ years for fifty million people to use the Internet compared to twenty-five years for fifty
million people to use telephones.
a. two c. fifteen
b. five d. twenty
3. ____ is defined as the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs.
a. Fitness c. Performance
b. Conformance d. Quality

4. ____ for use means a product can be used as it was intended.

a. Fitness c. Performance
b. Conformance d. Quality

5. Quality ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy
those standards.
a. assurance c. planning
b. control d. development

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