REC-085

WIRELESS & MOBILE COMMUNICATION

UNIT –III

VOCODERS

1. Vocoders analyse the speech signals at ______

a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Channel
d) IF Filter
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Vocoders are a class of speech coding systems. They analyse the speech signal at
the transmitter. And then transmit the parameters derived from the analysis.

2. Vocoders __________ the voice at the receiver.

a) Analyse
b) Synthesize
c) Modulate
d) Evaluate
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Vocoders synthesize the voice at the receiver. All vocoder systems attempt to
model the speech generation process as a dynamic system and try to quantify certain physical
constraints of the system.

3. Vocoders are simple than the waveform coders.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Vocoders are much more complex than the waveform coders. They can achieve
very high economy in transmission bit rate but are less robust.

4. Which of the following is not a vocoding system?

a) Linear predictive coder
b) Channel vocoder
c) Waveform coder
d) Formant vocoder
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Waveform coder is not a vocoding system. LPC (linear predictive coding) is the
most popular vocoding system. Other vocoding systems are channel vocoder, formant vocoder,
cepstrum vocoder etc.

5. Which of the following pronunciations lead to voiced sound?

a) ‘f’
b) ‘s’
c) ‘sh’
d) ‘m’
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Voiced sounds are ‘m’, ‘n’ and ‘v’ pronounciations. They are a result of
quasiperiodic vibrations of the vocal chord.

6. Speech signal can be categorised in _____ and ______

a) Voiced, unvoiced
b) Active, passive
c) Direct, indirect
d) Balanced, unbalanced
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Speech signal is of two types, voiced and unvoiced. Voiced sound is a result of
quasiperiodic vibrations of the vocal chord. Unvoiced signals are fricatives produced by
turbulent air flow through a constriction.

7. Channel vocoders are the time domain vocoders.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Channel vocoders are frequency domain vocoders. They determine the envelope of
the speech signal for a number of frequency bands and then sample, encode and multiplex these
samples with the encoded outputs of the other filters.

8. ________ is often called the formant of the speech signal.

a) Pitch frequency
b) Voice pitch
c) Pole frequency
d) Central frequency
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The pole frequencies correspond to the resonant frequencies of the vocal tract. They
are often called the formants of the speech signal. For adult speakers, the formants are centered
around 500 Hz, 1500 Hz, 2500 Hz and 3500 Hz.

9. Formant vocoders use large number of control signals.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Formant vocoders use fewer control signals. Therefore, formant vocoders can
operate at lower bit rates than the channel vocoder. Instead of transmitting the power spectrum
envelope, formant vocoders attempt to transmit the position of peaks of spectral envelope.

10. Cepstrum vocoder uses __________

a) Wavelet transform
b) Inverse wavelet transform
c) Cosine transform
d) Inverse Fourier transform
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cepstrum vocoders use inverse Fourier transform. It separates the excitation and
vocal tract spectrum by Fourier transforming spectrum to produce the cepstrum of the signal.

LINEAR PREDICTIVE CODERS

1. Linear predictive coders belong to _______ domain class of vocoders.

a) Time
b) Frequency
c) Direct
d) Indirect
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Linear predictive vocoders belong to the time domain class of vocoders. This class
of vocoders attempts to extract the significant features of the speech from the time waveform.
2. Linear predictive coders are computationally simple.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Linear predictive coders are computationally intensive. But, they are the most
popular among the class of low bit vocoders. With LPC, it is possible to transmit good quality
voice at 4.8 kbps and poorer quality voice at even lower rates.

3. Linear predictive coding system models the vocal tract as __________ linear filter.
a) Pole and zero
b) All zero
c) All pole
d) No pole
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The linear predictive coding system models the vocal tract as an all pole linear
filter. The excitation to this filter is either a pulse at the pitch frequency or random white noise
depending on whether the speech segment is voiced or unvoiced.

4. Linear predictive vocoders use __________ to estimate present sample.

a) Weighted sum of past samples
b) Multiplication of past samples
c) One past sample
d) Do not use past samples
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The linear predictive coder uses a weighted sum of p past samples. Using this
technique, the current sample can be written as linear sum of the immediately precoding samples.

5. Which of the following LPC uses code book?

a) Multiple excited LPC
b) Residual excited LPC
c) LPC Vocoders
d) Code excited LPC
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Code excited LPC uses code book. In this method, the coder and decoder have a
predetermined code book of stochastic (zero mean white Gaussian) excitation signals.
6. How many past samples are used by linear predictive coders to estimate present sample?
a) 100-150
b) 10-15
c) 1
d) 1000-1100
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: LPCs uses weighted sum of past p samples to estimate the present samples. The
number of past samples used by linear predictive coders ranges from 10 to 15.

7. Which of the non-linear transform is generally used to improve the coding of reflection
coefficient?
a) Long area ratio transform
b) Mutual information
c) Least square
d) Interpolation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Long area ratio (LAR) transform is generally used to improve the coding of
reflection coefficient. This non linear transformation reduces the sensitivity of reflection
coefficients to quantization errors. LAR performs an inverse hyperbolic tangent mapping of
reflection coefficients.

8. Which of the following LPC uses two sources at the receiver?

a) Multiple excited LPC
b) Residual excited LPC
c) LPC Vocoders
d) Code excited LPC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: LPC vocoder uses two sources at the receiver, one of white noise and the other with
a series of pulses at the current pitch rate. The selection of either of these excitation methods is
based on voiced/unvoiced decision made at the transmitter.

9. Which of the following LPC produces a buzzy twang in the synthesized speech?
a) Multiple excited LPC
b) Residual excited LPC
c) LPC Vocoders
d) Code excited LPC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LPC vocoder requires that the transmitter extract pitch frequency information
which is often very difficult. Moreover, the phase coherence between the harmonic components
of the excitation pulse tends to produce a buzzy twang in the synthesized speech.

10. The problem of buzzy twang in synthesized speech is mitigated by multipulse excited LPC or
code excited LPC.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: LPC vocoder produces buzzy twang in the synthesized speech due to phase
coherence between the harmonic components of the excitation pulses. This problem is mitigated
by multipulse excited or code excited LPC.

11. Multipulse excited LPC requires pitch detection.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multipulse excited LPC does not require pitch detection and the prediction residual
is better approximated by several pulses per pitch period. This is the reason for better speech
quality.

SPEECH CODECS

1. The choice of speech coder does not depend on cell size used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The choice of speech coder depends on the cell size used. When the cell size is
sufficiently small such that high spectral efficiency is achieved through frequency reuse, it may
be sufficient to use a simple high rate speech codec.

2. Which of the following is an important factor in determining spectral efficiency of the system?
a) Multiple access technique
b) Cell size
c) Modulation technique
d) Vocoder
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The type of multiple access technique used is an important factor in determining the
spectral efficiency of the system. It strongly influences the choice of speech codec.

3. The type of modulation does not affect the choice of speech codec.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The type of modulation employed has a considerable impact on the choice of
speech codec. Using bandwidth efficient modulation scheme can lower the bit rate reduction
requirements on the speech codec and vice versa.

4. Which of the following is the name of original speech coder used in the pan European digital
cellular standard GSM?
a) Multipulse excited codec
b) Residual excited codec
c) Regular pulse excited long term prediction
d) Code excited codec
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The original speech coder used in the pan European digital cellular standard GSM
goes by a rather grandiose name of regular pulse excited long term prediction (RPE-LTP) codec.
This codec has a bit rate of 13 kbps.

5. Which of the following is true for baseband RELP codec?

a) Good quality of speech, low complexity
b) Good quality of speech, high complexity
c) Bad quality of speech, low complexity
d) Bad quality of speech, high complexity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of baseband RELP codec is that it provides good quality speech at
low complexity. The speech quality is sometimes limited due to tonal noise introduced by the
process of high frequency generation.
6. Which of the following is true for MPE-LTP codec?
a) Good quality of speech, low complexity
b) Good quality of speech, high complexity
c) Bad quality of speech, low complexity
d) Bad quality of speech, high complexity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The MPE-LTP technique produces excellent speech quality at high complexity. It is
not much affected by bit errors present in the channel.

7. RPE-LTP codec combines the advantage of RELP codec and CELP codec.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The RPE-LTP codec combines the advantages of the earlier French proposed RELP
codec with those of the multipulse excited long term prediction (MPE-LTP) codec proposed by
Germany.

8. Which of the following codec is used by IS-136?

a) Residual Excited Linear Predictive Coders
b) Multipulse Excited LPC
c) LPC Vocoders
d) Vector sum excited LPC
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The US digital cellular system, IS-136 uses a vector sum excited linear predictive
coder (VSELP). This coder operates at a raw data rate of 7950 bits/s and a total data rate of 13
kbps after channel coding.

9. VSELP speech coder is a variant of ___________

a) CELP
b) MPE_LTP
c) RELP
d) RPE-LTP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The VSELP speech coder is a variant of the CELP type vocoders. The code books
in the VSELP encoder are organised with a predefined structure such that a brute-force search is
avoided.

10. Which of the following is true for VSELP?

a) Low speech quality, modest computational complexity, robust to channel errors
b) Highest speech quality, low computational complexity, channel errors
c) Highest speech quality, high computational complexity, robust to channel errors
d) Highest speech quality, modest computational complexity, robust to channel errors
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: VSELP speech coder is designed to accomplish the three goals of highest speech
quality, modest computational complexity and robustness to channel errors. The code books used
by VSELP impart high speech quality and increased robustness to channel errors.

11. What is DAM in speech coding system?

a) Diagnostic Acceptability Measure
b) Digital Acceptability Measure
c) Diagnostic Accessibility Measure
d) Digital Accessibility Measure
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The diagnostic acceptability measure is used in speech coding system. It is used for
evaluation of acceptability of speech coding systems.

12. ________ exaggerates the bit errors originally received at the base station.
a) Non linear transformation
b) Tandem signalling
c) Large cell size
d) Complex vocoders
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Tandem signalling tends to exaggerate the bit errors originally received at the base
station. Tandem signalling is difficult to protect against but is an important evaluation criterion
in the evaluation of speech coders.

SPREAD SPECTRUM MODULATION TECHNIQUES

1. The transmission bandwidth of spread spectrum techniques is equal to the minimum required
signal bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spread spectrum techniques employ a transmission bandwidth that is several orders
of magnitude greater than the minimum required signal bandwidth. On the other hand, primary
objective of all the modulation schemes is to minimize the required transmission bandwidth.

2. Why spread spectrum technique is inefficient for a single user?

a) Large transmission bandwidth
b) Small transmission bandwidth
c) Fixed transmission bandwidth
d) Fixed null bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spread spectrum systems are bandwidth inefficient for single users. But in spread
spectrum systems, many users can simultaneously use the same bandwidth without significantly
interfering with one another. It is one of the advantages of spread spectrum.
3. Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?
a) Interference rejection capability
b) Multipath fading
c) Frequency planning elimination
d) Multiple user, multiple access interface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistance to multipath fading is one of the fundamental reasons for considering
spread spectrum systems for wireless communication. Since spread spectrum signals have
uniform energy over a very large bandwidth, at any given time only a small portion of the
spectrum will undergo fading.
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?
a) Nearly equal number of 0s and1s
b) Low correlation between shifted version of sequence
c) Non deterministic
d) Low cross-correlation between any two sequences
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pseudo-Noise sequences are deterministic in nature. Certain characteristics of PN
sequence are nearly equal number of 0s and 1s, very low correlation between shifted versions of
the sequence, very low cross correlation between any two sequences.
5. PN sequence can be generated using sequential logic circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PN sequence is usually generated using sequential logic circuits. When the
feedback logic consists of exclusive OR gates, the shift register is called a linear PN sequence
generator.

6. The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed _____
symbols.
a) 2m
b) m
c) 2m
d) 2m-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are exactly 2 m-1 non-zero states for an m stage feedback shift register. Thus,
the period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed 2 m-1.
7. DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a pseudo
noise sequence.
a) Adding
b) Subtracting
c) Multiplying
d) Dividing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A direct sequence spread spectrum (DS-SS) system spreads the baseband data by
directly multiplying the baseband data pulses with a pseudo noise sequence. And the pseudo
noise sequence is produced by a pseudo noise code generator.
8. Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______
a) Signal
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) Amplitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission frequency. A
frequency hopping signal is regarded as a sequence of modulated data bursts with time varying,
pseudo random carrier frequencies.
9. What is the set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS?
a) Hopset
b) Hop
c) Chips
d) Symbols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS is called hopset. Hopping occurs of
a frequency band that includes a number of channels. Each channel is defined as a spectral
region with central frequency in the hopset.
10. The bandwidth of the channel used in the hopset is called _________
a) Hopping bandwidth
b) Total hopping bandwidth
c) Instantaneous bandwidth
d) 3 dB bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bandwidth of a channel used in the hopset is called the instantaneous
bandwidth. And the bandwidth of the spectrum over which the hopping occurs is called total
hopping bandwidth.

11. The processing gain of FH systems is given by ratio of _______

a) Hopping bandwidth and hopping period
b) Instantaneous bandwidth and hopping duration
c) 3 dB bandwidth and bit rate
d) Total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The processing gain of frequency hopping (FH) systems is given by
Bss/B. Here, Bss and B denote the total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous
bandwidth respectively.

12. FH systems do not have collisions.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is possible to have collisions in an FH system where an undesired user transmits
in the same channel at the same time as the desired user. Whenever an undesired signal occupies
a particular hopping channel in FH, the noise and interference in the channel are translated in
frequency.
13. In fast frequency hopping, hopping rate is less than the information symbol rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast frequency hopping occurs if there is more than one frequency hop during each
transmitted symbol. Thus, in fast frequency hopping the hopping rate equals or exceeds the
information symbol rate.

Pseudo-Noise Codes with Properties and Code Generation Mechanisms

1. Pseudorandom signal ________ predicted.
a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) maybe
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Random signals cannot be predicted whereas pseudorandom sequence can be
predicted.

2. The properties used for pseudorandom sequence are

a) Balance
b) Run
c) Correlation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The three basic properties that can be applied for pseudorandom sequence are
balance, run and correlation properties.

3. The shift register needs to be controlled by clock pulses.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The shift register operation is controlled by clock pulses.

4. A linear feedback shift register consists of

a) Feedback path
b) Modulo 2 adder
c) Four stage register
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A linear feedback shift register consists of four stage register for storage and
shifting, modulo 2 adder and feedback path.

5. If the initial pulse of 1000 is fed to shift register, after how many clock pulses does the
sequence repeat?
a) 15
b) 16
c) 14
d) 17
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the initial pulse 1000 is given to shift register, the foregoing sequence repeats
after 15 clock pulses.

6. The sequences produced by shift register depends on

a) Number of stages
b) Feedback tap connections
c) Initial conditions
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The sequences produced by shift register depends on the number of stages, the
feedback tap connections and initial conditions.

7. For maximal length sequence, the sequence repetition clock pulses p is given by
a) 2n + 1
b) 2n -1
c) 2n
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For maximal length sequence, produced by n stage linear feedback shift register the
sequence repetition clock pulses p is given by 2n -1 .

8. For any cyclic shift, the auto-correlation function is equal to

a) 1/p
b) -1/p
c) –p
d) p
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For any cyclic shift the auto-correlation function is equal to -1/p.

9. Which method is better?

a) To share same bandwidth
b) To share different bandwidth
c) To share same & different bandwidth
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If the jammer noise shares the same bandwidth, the result could be destructive.

10. Pulse jammer consists of

a) Pulse modulated excess band noise
b) Pulse modulated band-limited noise
c) Pulse width modulated excess band noise
d) Pulse width modulated band-limited noise
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pulse jammer consists of pulse modulated band-limited noise.

11. Which are the design options for anti jam communicator?
a) Time diversity
b) Frequency diversity
c) Special discrimination
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The design options for anti-jam communicator are time diversity, frequency
diversity and special discrimination.

12. The ratio (J/S)reqd gives the measure of

a) Vulnerability to interference
b) Invulnerability to interference
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio (J/S)reqd gives the measure of how invulnerable the system is to
interference.

13. The system should have

a) Larger (J/S)reqd
b) Greater system’s noise rejection capability
c) Larger (J/S)reqd & Greater system’s noise rejection capability
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The system will be efficient if it has greater (J/S)reqd and larger system’s noise
rejection capability.

14. The broadband jammer jams the entire

a) W
b) Wss
c) W & Wss
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The broadband jammer or wide-band jammer is the one which jams the entire Wss
with its fixed power.

15. To increase error probability, the processing gain should be

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Exponentially increased
d) Exponentially decreased
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a system, to increase the error probability the processing gain should be
increased.

16. Which jamming method produces greater degradation?

a) Broadband jamming
b) Partial jamming
c) Broadband & Partial jamming
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Greater degradation is possible more with partial jamming than broadband
jamming.

17. The jammer which monitors a communicator’s signal is known as

a) Frequency follower jammers
b) Repeat back jammers
c) Frequency follower & Repeat back jammers
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The smart jammers which monitor a communicator’s signals is known as frequency
follower or repeat back jammers.

DS-SS & FH-SS

1. DS/BPSK includes
a) Despreading
b) Demodulation
c) Despreading & Demodulation
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: DS/BPSK is a two step precess which includes despreading and demodulation.

2. In direct sequence process which step is performed first?

a) De-spreading
b) Demodulation
c) Despreading & Demodulation
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In direct sequence process, De-spreading correlator is followed by a modulator.

3. The processing gain is given as

a) Wss/R
b) R/Wss
c) Wss/2R
d) R/2Wss
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The processing gain is given by the ratio of the minimum bandwidth of the data to
data rate.

4. Chip is defined as
a) Shortest uninterrupted waveform
b) Largest uninterrupted waveform
c) Shortest diversion
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A chip is defined as the shortest uninterrupted waveform in the system.

5. Processing gain is given as

a) Wss/R
b) Rch/R
c) Wss/R & Rch/R
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Processing gain is given as both as the ratio of the minimum bandwidth of the data
to data rate and also the by the ratio of code chip rate and data rate as minimum bandwidth is
approximately equal to code chip rate.

6. Which modulation scheme is preferred for direct sequence spread spectrum process?
a) BPSK
b) QPSK
c) BPSK & QPSK
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Both the modulation scheme BPSK and QPSK can be used for direct sequence
spread spectrum process.

7. The frequency hopping system uses ______ modulation scheme.

a) FSK
b) BPSK
c) MFSK
d) MPSK
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The frequency hopping spread spectrum system uses M-ary frequency shift keying
modulation scheme.

8. The minimum spacing between consecutive hop positions gives the

a) Minimum number of chips necessary
b) Maximum number of chips necessary
c) Chip rate
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum spacing between consecutive hop positions given the minimum
number of chips necessary in the frequency word.

9. Which system allows larger processing gain?

a) Direct sequence
b) Frequency hopping
c) Direct sequence & Frequency hopping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum system allows greater processing gain than
direct sequence spread spectrum technique.

10. In which technique is phase coherence hard to maintain?

a) Direct sequence
b) Frequency hopping
c) Direct sequence & Frequency hopping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In frequency hopping spread spectrum phase coherence is hard to maintain from
hop to hop.

11. Which type of demodulator is used in the frequency hopping technique?

a) Coherent
b) Non coherent
c) Coherent & Non coherent
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As it is difficult to maintain phase coherence, non coherent demodulator is used.

12. Robustness gives the inability of a signal to withstand the impairments.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Robustness gives the ability of a signal to withstand the impairments such as noise,
jamming etc.

13. Chips are the

a) Repeated symbols
b) Non repeated symbols
c) Smallest length symbols
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The repeated symbols are called as chips.

14. Slow frequency hopping is

a) Several hops per modulation
b) Several modulations per hop
c) Several symbols per modulation
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Slow frequency hopping is several modulation per frequency hop.

15. Fast frequency hopping is

a) Several modulations per hop
b) Several modulations per symbol
c) Several symbols per modulation
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fast frequency hopping is several frequency hops per modulation.

16. Which duration is shorter?

a) Hop duration
b) Symbol duration
c) Chip duration
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In frequency hopping technique hop duration is shorter than the symbol duration.

Spread Spectrum and CDMA

1. Some advantages of spread spectrum are

a) Low susceptibility
b) Immunity to jamming
c) Reduced interference
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Advantages of spread spectrum are low susceptibility, reduced interference,
immunity to jamming and co existence of multi path system.

2. Processing gain is the ratio of message bandwidth to signal bandwidth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Processing gain is the ratio of signal bandwidth to message bandwidth.

3. Which is better for avoiding jamming?

a) Direct sequence spread spectrum
b) Frequency hopping spread spectrum
c) Time hopping spread spectrum
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is better for avoiding jamming.

4. Which is more bandwidth efficient?

a) Direct sequence spread spectrum
b) Frequency hopping spread spectrum
c) Time hopping spread spectrum
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Time hopping spread spectrum is more bandwidth efficient.
5. Which is more simpler to implement?
a) Direct sequence spread spectrum
b) Frequency hopping spread spectrum
c) Time hopping spread spectrum
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Direct sequence spread spectrum is more simpler to implement.

6. Which uses orthogonal codes?

a) Synchronous CDMA
b) Asynchronous CDMA
c) Synchronous & Asynchronous CDMA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous CDMA uses orthogonal codes and asynchronous CDMA uses
pseudorandom codes.

7. Which is more suitable when large number of transmitters are used?

a) Synchronous CDMA
b) Asynchronous CDMA
c) Synchronous & Asynchronous CDMA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Asynchronous CDMA is more suitable for large number of transmitters.

8. CDMA rejects
a) Narrow band interference
b) Wide band interference
c) Narrow & Wide band interference
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: CDMA effectively rejects narrow band interference.

9. Frequency planning is very essential in

a) FDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA & TDMA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency planning is necessary for both TDMA and FDMA.

10. CDMA uses

a) Hard hand off
b) Soft hand off
c) Hard & Soft hand off
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: CDMA uses soft hand off which provides more reliable communication.

Multicarrier Systems

1. A major attribute of coherent optical transmission was its ability to provide _______________
for future multicarrier systems and networks.
a) Attenuation
b) Dispersion
c) Frequency selectivity
d) Noisy carriers
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A coherent optical transmission involves the wavelength, frequency and the
distance as its main factors. It provides frequency and wavelength selectivity with narrow
channel spacing’s for future multicarrier systems and networks.

2. The channel width is narrow for the coherent systems than the WDM systems. State whether
the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The coherent optical systems involve wavelength selectivity with narrow channel
spacing. The conventional WDM systems use a far more relaxed channel spacing than the
coherent systems.
3. The technique within the coherent multicarrier systems used to broadcast the optical signals
over the network is the use of passive _____________
a) Star coupler
b) Optical resonator
c) Optical regenerator
d) Local oscillator
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In multicarrier systems, the channels are separated via various techniques. The use
of passive star coupler ensures that the optical signals are broadcasted over the network within
the coherent system.

4. Estimate the minimum transmitter power if number of photons per bit are 150, wavelength 1.3
micrometer with an optical bandwidth of 20 THz.
a) 0.2 mW
b) 0.5mW
c) 1 mW
d) 2.3mW
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum transmitter power is given by –
Ptx= Np hf B
Here, Ptx= transmitter power, f =frequency, h=Planck’s constant and B=bandwidth.

5. The performance degradation due to nonlinear phase noise is referred to as _____________

a) Munich effect
b) Linear bipolar effect
c) Gordon Mollenauer effect
d) Delta effect
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The phase noise is a variant due to the RZ signal. The nonlinear phase noise causes
severe performance degradation in terms of bandwidth and frequency.

6. ______________ facilitates the doubling of the feasible spectral efficiency through the
transmission of independent information in each of the two orthogonal polarizations.
a) WDM
b) Gordon Mollenauer effect
c) EDFA control
d) POLMUX
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: POLMUX is abbreviated as Polarization multiplexing. It provides a different
approach to the multilevel modulation. It requires polarization control at the receiver side.

7. ____________ is a transparent multiplexing technique.

a) POLMUX
b) PDM
c) WDM
d) Munich
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is a transparent technique as it is not dominated by polarization mode dispersion
or polarization-dependant loss. It provides many advantages to the multilevel modulation format
in comparison to the non-POLMUX signals at the same data rate.

8. Which of the following in not a drawback of POLMUX?

a) Polarization-sensitive detection at the receiver
b) Receiver complexity
c) Cross-polarization nonlinearities
d) Multilevel modulation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The drawbacks of the POLMUX include receiver complexity, polarization
sensitivity at the receiver side and the cross polarization nonlinearities. It is advantageous to the
multilevel modulation scheme.

9. A multicarrier modulation format in which there has been growing interest to compensate for
impairments in optical fiber transmission systems is _______________
a) OFDM
b) EDM
c) WDM
d) ADM
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: OFDM is abbreviated as orthogonal frequency division multiplexing. It combats
both fiber chromatic dispersion and polarization mode dispersion.
10. It is suggested that the technique with high white noise is an attractive option for use in long
haul systems. State whether the given statement is true or false.
a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Long haul systems require a technique which boosts the distance covered by the
signals with less use of carrier signal. The technique which exhibits high spectral density is an
attractive option for the long haul systems.

Intersymbol interference

1. The method in which the tail of one pulse smears into adjacent symbol interval is called as
a) Intersymbol interference
b) Interbit interference
c) Interchannel interference
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the effect of system filtering the received pulse can overlap on one and
another. The tail of one pulse smears into the adjacent symbol interval thereby interfering the
detection process. This process is called as intersymbol interference.

2. If each pulse of the sequence to be detected is in _____ shape, the pulse can be detected
without ISI.
a) Sine
b) Cosine
c) Sinc
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The sinc shaped pulse is the ideal nyquist pulse. If each pulse in the sequence to be
detected is in sinc shape the pulses can be detected without ISI.

3. What is symbol rate packing?

a) Maximum possible symbol transmission rate
b) Maximum possible symbol receiving rate
c) Maximum bandwidth
d) Maximum ISI value allowed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A system with bandwidth Rs/2 can support a maximum transmission rate of Rs
without ISI. Thus for ideal Nyquist filtering the maximum possible symbol transmission rate is
called as symbol rate packing and it is equal to 2 symbols/s/Hz.

4. A nyquist pulse is the one which can be represented by _____ shaped pulse multiplied by
another time function.
a) Sine
b) Cosine
c) Sinc
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A nyquist filter is one whose frequency transfer function can be represented by a
rectangular function convolved with any real even symmetric frequency function and a nyquist
pulse is one whose shape can be represented by sinc function multiplied by another time
function.

5. Examples of nyquist filters are

a) Root raised cosine filter
b) Raised cosine filter
c) Root raised & Raised cosine filter
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The most popular among the class of nyquist filters are raised cosine and root
raised cosine filter.

6. The minimum nyquist bandwidth for the rectangular spectrum in raised cosine filter is
a) 2T
b) 1/2T
c) T2
d) 2/T
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For raised cosine spectrum the minimum nyquist bandwidth is equal to 1/2T.

7. Roll off factor is the fraction of

a) Excess bandwidth and absolute bandwidth
b) Excess bandwidth and minimum nyquist bandwidth
c) Absolute bandwidth and minimum nyquist bandwidth
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The roll off factor is defined by a fraction of excess bandwidth and the minimum
nyquist bandwith. It ranges from 0 to 1.

8. Which value of r (roll off factor) is considered as Nyquist minimum bandwidth case?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinity
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For the roll off factor of 0 an ideal rectangular nyquist pulse is obtained. This is
called as nyquist minimum bandwidth case.

9. A pulse shaping filter should satisfy two requirements. They are

a) Should be realizable
b) Should have proper roll off factor
c) Should be realizable & have proper roll off factor
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A pulse shaping filter should provide the desired roll off and should be realizable,
that is the impulse response needs to be truncated to a finite length.

10. Examples of double side band signals are

a) ASK
b) PSK
c) ASK & PSK
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ASK and PSK needs twice the transmission bandwidth of equivalent baseband
signals. Thus these are called as double side band signals.
11. The likelihood ratio test is done between
a) Likelihood of s1 by likelihood of s2
b) Likelihood of s2 by likelihood of s1
c) Likelihood of s1 by likelihood of s1
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The likelihood ratio is given with the help of conditional probabilities.

12. According to the rule of minimizing the error probabilities, the hypothesis should be like if
the priori probabilities are ________ than the ratio of likelihoods.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The rule of minimizing the error probabilities show that the hypothesis should be
like if the ratio of likelihoods should be greater than the priori probabilities.

13. The detector that minimizes the error probability is called as

a) Maximum likelihood detector
b) Minimum likelihood detector
c) Maximum & Minimum likelihood detector
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For the signals that are equally likely, the detector used to minimize the error
probability is called as maximum likelihood detector.

14. For a M-ary signal or symbol the number of likelihood functions are
a) M
b) M+1
c) M-1
d) 2M
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For a M-ary signal there will be M likelihood functions representing M signal
classes to which a received signal might belong.
15. An error in binary decision making occurs when the channel noise is
a) Greater than the optimum threshold level
b) Lesser than the optimum threshold level
c) Greater or Lesser than the optimum threshold level
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An error will occur when s1(t) or s2(t) is sent and if the channel noise is greater or
lesser than the optimum threshold level.

16. Optimum threshold value is given by

a) a0+a1/2
b) a0-a1/2
c) a0/2
d) a1/2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The optimum threshold level value for error probability reduction is given by
a0+a1/2.

17. The symbol of the probability under the tail of Gaussian pdf is called as
a) Complementary error function
b) Co error function
c) Complementary error & Co error function
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The co error function or complementary error function is a commonly used symbol
for probability under the tail of Gaussian pdf.

18. Matched filter provides _____ signal to noise ratio.

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A matched filter is a linear filter designed to give a maximum signal to noise ratio
power at the output.
19. The impulse response of the filter is the ________ of the mirror image of the signal
waveform.
a) Delayed version
b) Same version
c) Delayed & Same version
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The matched filter’s basic property is that the impulse response of the filter is the
delayed version of the mirror image of the signal waveform.

20. Example for antipodal bandpass signaling is

a) BPSK
b) ASK
c) FSK
d) MSK
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: One type of antipodal bandpass signaling is binary phase shift keying.

Diversity Techniques

1. Diversity requires a training sequence.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike equalization, diversity requires no training overhead since a training
sequence is not required by the transmitter. Diversity is a powerful communication receiver
technique that provides wireless link improvement at a relatively low cost.

2. Diversity decisions are made by ____________

a) Receiver
b) Transmitter
c) Channel
d) Adaptive algorithms
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In virtually all applications, diversity decisions are made by the receiver and are
unknown to the transmitter. Diversity exploits the random nature of radio propagation by finding
independent signal paths for communication.

3. Small scale fades are characterized by ____________ amplitude fluctuations.

a) Large
b) Small
c) Rapid
d) Slow
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Small scale fades are characterized by deep and rapid fluctuations. They occur as
the mobile system moves over distances of just a few wavelengths. These fades are caused by
multiple reflections from the surrounding in the vicinity of the mobile.

4. ____________ is used to prevent deep fade for rapidly varying channel.

a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In order to prevent deep fades from occurring, microscopic diversity techniques can
exploit the rapidly changing signal. By selecting the best signal at all times, a receiver can
mitigate small scale fading effects.

5. Large scale fading can be mitigated with the help of _________

a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Large scale fading is mitigated with macroscopic diversity techniques. It is done by
selecting a base station which is not shadowed when others are, the mobile can improve
substantially the average signal to noise ratio.

6. Space diversity s also known as ________

a) Antenna diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Frequency diversity
d) Polarization diversity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Space diversity is also known as antenna diversity. It is one of the popular forms of
diversity used in wireless communications. Signals received from the spatially separated antenna
on the mobile would have essentially uncorrelated envelopes for antenna separation.

7. Which of the following is not a category of space diversity technique?

a) Selection diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Feedback diversity
d) Equal gain diversity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Space diversity reception methods can be classified into four categories. They are
selection diversity, feedback diversity, maximal ratio combining and equal gain diversity.

8. In selection diversity, the gain of each diversity branch provides different SNR.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Selection diversity uses m demodulators to provide m diversity branches. Their
gain is adjusted to provide the same average SNR for each branch.

9. Polarization diversity uses the ________ as the diversity element.

a) Modulation index
b) Carrier frequency
c) Reflection coefficient
d) Coherence time
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Decorrelation of the signal in each polarization is caused by multiple reflections in
the channel between mobile and base station antenna. Reflection coefficient for each polarization
is different, which results in different amplitudes and phases for each reflection.

10. Which of the factor does not determine the correlation coefficient?
a) Polarization angle
b) Cross polarization discrimination
c) Offset angle from the main beam direction
d) Coherence time
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The correlation coefficient is determined by three factors, polarization angle, offset
angle from the main beam direction of the diversity antenna, and the cross polarization
discrimination. The correlation coefficient generally becomes higher as offset angle becomes
large.

11. Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than one

___________
a) Carrier frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Phase
d) Modulation scheme
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than one
carrier frequency. Frequency diversity is often employed in microwave line of sight links which
carry several channels in frequency division multiplex mode.

12. Frequency diversity uses ________ as a diversity element.

a) Correlation coefficient
b) Coherence time
c) Coherence bandwidth
d) SNR
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The rationale behind the frequency diversity is that frequencies separated by more
than the coherence bandwidth of the channel will be uncorrelated. Thus, they will not experience
the same fade.

13. Frequency diversity is good for low traffic conditions.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency diversity is not good for low traffic conditions. This technique has a
disadvantage that it not only requires spare bandwidth but also requires that there be as many
receivers as there are channels used for frequency diversity. However, for critical traffic, the
expense may be justified.

14. Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed ___________
a) Coherence bandwidth
b) Dwell time
c) Run time
d) Coherence time
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed
coherence time of the channel. Thus, multiple repetitions of the signal will be received with
independent fading conditions, thereby providing for diversity.

15. In maximal ratio combining, the output SNR is equal to __________

a) Mean of all individual SNRs
b) Maximum of all SNRs
c) Sum of individual SNR
d) Minimum of all SNRs
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Maximal ratio combining produces an output SNR equal to the sum of the
individual SNRs. Thus, it has the advantage of producing an output with an acceptable SNR even
when none of the individual signals are themselves acceptable.

Equalization

1. Which of the following is not used to improve received signal quality over small scale times
and distance?
a) Modulation
b) Equalization
c) Diversity
d) Channel coding
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Equalization, diversity and channel coding are the three techniques which are used
to improve received signal quality and link performance over small scale times and distance. But,
the approach, cost, complexity and effectiveness varies in wireless communication system.
2. Equalization is used to compensate __________
a) Peak signal to noise ratio
b) Intersymbol interference
c) Channel fading
d) Noises present in the signal
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Equalization compensate the intersymbol interference (ISI) created by multipath
within time dispersive channels. An equalizer within a receiver compensates for the average
range of the expected channel amplitude and delay characteristics.

3. Training and tracking are the operating modes of _________

a) Diversity techniques
b) Channel coding techniques
c) Equalization techniques
d) Demodulation techniques
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: General operating modes of an adaptive equalizer includes training and tracking. A
known fixed length training sequence is sent by the transmitter so that the receiver’s equalizer
may adapt to a proper setting for minimum bit error rate detection.

4. An equalizer is said to be converged when it is properly _______

a) Trained
b) Tracked
c) Installed
d) Used
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When an equalizer has been properly trained, it is said to have converged.
Equalizers are commonly used in digital communication systems where user data is segmented
into short time blocks or time slots.

5. Time for convergence of an equalizer is not a function of _______

a) Equalizer algorithm
b) Equalizer structure
c) Time rate of change of multipath radio channel
d) Transmitter characteristics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The timespan over which an equalizer converges is a function of the equalizer
algorithm, the equalizer structure and the time rate of change of the multipath radio channel.
Equalizers require proper retraining in order to maintain effective ISI cancellation.

6. Equalizer is usually implemented in __________

a) Transmitter
b) Baseband or at IF in a receiver
c) Radio channel
d) Modulator stage
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An equalizer is implemented at baseband or at IF in a receiver. Since the baseband
complex envelope expression can be used to represent bandpass waveform, the channel response,
the demodulated signal and adaptive equalizer algorithm are usually simulated and implemented
at baseband.

7. Equalizer is ________ of the channel.

a) Opposite
b) Same characteristics
c) Inverse filter
d) Add on
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An equalizer is actually an inverse filter of the channel. The goal of equalization is
to satisfy that the combination of the transmitter, channel and receiver be an all pass channel.

8. ______ controls the adaptive algorithm in an equalizer.

a) Error signal
b) Transmitted signal
c) Received signal
d) Channel impulse response
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The adaptive algorithm is controlled by the error signal. The error signal is derived
by comparing the output of the equalizer and some signal which is either an exact scaled replica
of the transmitted signal or represents a property of transmitted signal.

9. The adaptive algorithms in equalizer that do not require training sequence are called ________
a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Blind algorithms
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Blind algorithms exploit the characteristics of the transmitted signal and do not
require training sequence. These type of algorithm are able to acquire equalization through
property restoral techniques of transmitted signal.

10. Which of the following is a blind algorithm?

a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Constant modulus algorithm
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Blind algorithm technique uses algorithms such as the constant modulus algorithm
(CMA) and the spectral coherence restoral algorithm (SCORE). CMA is used for constant
envelope modulation and forces the equalizer weights to maintain a constant envelope on the
received signal.

11. Equalization techniques can be categorised into _______ and ______ techniques.
a) Linear, non linear
b) Active, passive
c) Direct, indirect
d) Slow, fast
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Equalization techniques can be classified into linear and non linear techniques.
These categories are determined from how the output of an adaptive equalizer is used for
subsequent control of the equalizer.

12. Equalization is linear if an analog signal is fed back to change the subsequent outputs of the
equalizer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If the analog signal is not used in the feedback path to adapt the equalizer, the
equalization is linear. On the other hand, if it is fed back to change the subsequent outputs of the
equalizer, the equalization is non-linear.

13. In the context of equalizers, LTE stands for ________

a) Long transversal equalizer
b) Least time-varying equalizer
c) Linear transversal equalizer
d) Linear time-varying equalizer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The most common equalizer structure used for equalization is linear transveral
equalizer (LTE). It is made up of tapped delay lines, with the tappings speed a symbol period
apart.

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of FIR filter?

a) Many zeroes
b) Poles only at z=0
c) Transfer function is a polynomial of z-1
d) Many poles
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Finite impulse response filter (FIR) has many zeroes but poles only at z=0. The
transfer function of the filter is a polynomial of z-1. It is also referred to as transversal filter.

15. Which of the following is not an advantage of lattice equalizer?

a) Simple structure
b) Numerical stability
c) Faster convergence
d) Dynamic assignment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The structure of lattice equalizer is more complicated than a linear transversal
equalizer. But, numerical stability and faster convergence are two advantage of laatic equalizer.
Also, its unique structure allows dynamic assignment of the most effective length of lattice
equalizer.

16. Non-linear equalizers are used in applications where channel distortion is not severe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-linear equalizers are used in applications where the channel distortion is too
severe for a linear equalizer to handle. They are most commonly used in practical wireless
communication.

17. Which of the following is not a non-linear equalization technique?

a) Decision feedback equalization
b) Maximum likelihood symbol detection
c) Minimum square error detection
d) Maximum likelihood sequence detection
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Decision feedback equalization, maximum likelihood symbol detection and
maximum likelihood sequence detection offers non-linear equalization. They offer improvements
over linear equalization techniques and are used in most 2G and 3G systems.

18. For a distorted channel, LTE performance is superior to DFE.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: LTE is well behaved when the channel spectrum is comparatively flat. But if the
channel is severely distorted or exhibits null in the spectrum, the performance of LTE
deteriorates and MSE of DFE is better than LTE.

19. Which of the following does not hold true for MLSE?
a) Minimizes probability of sequence error
b) Require knowledge of channel characteristics
c) Requires the statistical distribution of noise
d) Operates on continuous time signal
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Matched filter operates on the continuous time signal, whereas maximum
likelihood sequence estimation (MLSE) equalizer and channel estimator rely on discretized
samples. MLSE is optimal in the sense that it minimizes the probability of sequence error.

20. MLSE decodes each received signal by itself.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rather than decoding each received signal by itself, MLSE tests all possible data
sequences by using a channel impulse response simulator within the algorithm. It chooses the
data sequence with maximum probability as the output.

Algorithms for Adaptive Equalization

1. Which of the following factor could not determine the performance of algorithm?
a) Structural properties
b) Rate of convergence
c) Computational complexity
d) Numerical properties
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The performance of an algorithm is determined by various factors. These factors
are rate of convergence, computational complexity and numerical properties. The performance of
algorithm does not depend on structural properties.

2. Rate of convergence is defined by __________ of algorithm.

a) Time span
b) Number of iterations
c) Accuracy
d) Complexity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of convergence is required as number of iterations required for the algorithm
to converge close enough to the optimum solution. It enables the algorithm to track statistical
variations when operating in non stationary environment.

3. Computational complexity is a measure of ________

a) Time
b) Number of iterations
c) Number of operations
d) Accuracy
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Computational complexity is the number of operations required to make one
complete iteration of the algorithm. It helps in comparing the performance with other algorithms.
4. Choice of equalizer structure and its algorithm is not dependent on ________
a) Cost of computing platform
b) Power budget
c) Radio propagation characteristics
d) Statistical distribution of transmitted power
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of the computing platform, the power budget and the radio propagation
characteristics dominate the choice of an equalizer structure and its algorithm. Battery drain at
the subscriber unit is also a paramount consideration.

5. Coherence time is dependent on the choice of the algorithm and corresponding rate of
convergence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The choice of algorithm and its corresponding rate of convergence depends on the
channel data rate and coherence time. The speed of the mobile unit determines the channel
fading rate and the Doppler spread, which is directly related to coherence time of the channel.

6. Which of the following is an algorithm for equalizer?

a) Zero forcing algorithm
b) Least mean square algorithm
c) Recursive least square algorithm
d) Mean square error algorithm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Three classic equalizer algorithm are zero forcing (ZF) algorithm, least mean
squares (LMS) algorithm and recursive least squares (RLS) algorithm. They offer fundamental
insight into algorithm design and operation.

7. Which of the following is a drawback of zero forcing algorithm?

a) Long training sequence
b) Amplification of noise
c) Not suitable for static channels
d) Non zero ISI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The zero forcing algorithm has the disadvantage that the inverse filter may
excessively amplify noise at frequencies where the folded channel spectrum has high attenuation.

8. Zero forcing algorithm performs well for wireless links.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ZF is not often used in wireless links as it neglects the effect of noise altogether.
However, it performs well for static channels with high SNR, such as local wired telephone
links.

9. LMS equalizer minimizes __________

a) Computational complexity
b) Cost
c) Mean square error
d) Power density of output signal
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: LMS equalizer is a robust equalizer. It is used to minimize mean square error
(MSE) between the desired equalizer output and the actual equalizer output.

10. For N symbol inputs, LMS algorithm requires ______ operations per iterations.
a) 2N
b) N+1
c) 2N+1
d) N2
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The LMS algorithm is the simplest algorithm. For N symbol inputs, it requires only
2N+1 operations per iteration.

11. Stochastic gradient algorithm is also called ________

a) Zero forcing algorithm
b) Least mean square algorithm
c) Recursive least square algorithm
d) Mean square error algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimization of the MSE is carried out recursively, and it can be performed by
the use of stochastic gradient algorithm. This more commonly called the least mean square
(LMS) algorithm.

12. Convergence rate of LMS is fast.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The convergence rate of the LMS algorithm is slow. It is slow due to the fact that it
uses only one parameter i.e. step size that control the adaptation rate.

13. Which of the following does not hold true for RLS algorithms?
a) Complex
b) Adaptive signal processing
c) Slow convergence rate
d) Powerful
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Recursive least square (RLS) algorithm uses fast convergence rate as opposed to
LMS algorithms. They are powerful, albeit complex, adaptive signal processing techniques
which significantly improves the convergence of adaptive equalizer.

14. Which of the following algorithm uses simple programming?

a) LMS Gradient DFE
b) FTF algorithm
c) Fast Kalman DFE
d) Gradient Lattice DFE
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Advantages of LMS gradient DFE algorithm are low computational complexity and
simple programming. While fast tranversal filter (FTF) algorithm, Fast Kalman DFE and
gradient lattice DFE uses complex programming.