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Instant Download PDF Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition London Test Bank Full Chapter
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Chapter 7 Conception and Fetal Development
1) The nurse is explaining the difference between meiosis and mitosis. Which statements
should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
1. Mitosis occurs in most of the cells of the body.
2. Meiotic division leads to cells that halve the original genetic material.
3. Meiosis is the division of a cell into two exact copies of the original cell.
4. Meiosis is the process by which gametes, or the sperm and ova, are formed.
5. Mitosis is splitting one cell into two, each with half the chromosomes of the original cell.
Answer: 1, 2, 4
Explanation:
1. Mitosis is how the majority of cells reproduce so that the new cells have the same structure
and function as the original. Meiosis only occurs in gametes.
2. Meiosis creates two cells that have half of the chromosomes of the original cell.
3. Meiosis creates two cells that have half of the chromosomes of the original cell.
4. Both sperm and ova are created through meiosis.
5. Mitosis creates two cells that are exact copies of the original cell.
Page Ref: 136
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.1 Differentiate between meiotic cellular division and mitotic cellular division.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
1
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
2. Males begin spermatogenesis at puberty and continue throughout their life. Each sperm
divides into four haploid cells.
3. Females are born with all the ova they will ever produce. The ova begin to be formed in
early fetal life. One ovum is released each month during the reproductive life of a female,
from menarche to menopause.
4. Primary spermatocytes contain 46 chromosomes (46XY). Each primary spermatocyte
undergoes meiotic division into two haploid secondary spermatocytes (22X or 22Y).
Page Ref: 136
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.2 Compare the processes by which ova and sperm are produced.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
3) After teaching a class about the female reproductive system, the nurse asks the attendees to
describe the process of meiosis. Which student response suggests successful comprehension
of the material?
1. “At the time of ovulation, the first meiotic division begins.”
2. “At the time of puberty, the second meiotic division begins.”
3. “Completion of the first meiotic division produces three polar bodies and one primary
oocyte.”
4. “Completion of the second meiotic division results in formation of three polar bodies and
one ovum.”
Answer: 4
Explanation:
1. The first meiotic division of oocytes begins before the female fetus is born.
2. The second meiotic division begins at the time of ovulation.
3. Completion of the first meiotic division produces one polar body and one secondary oocyte.
4. Completion of the second meiotic division produces three polar bodies and one ovum.
Page Ref: 136
Cognitive Level: Understanding
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
2
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.2 Compare the processes by which ova and sperm are produced.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
4) A young woman claims that contraception is not needed because she avoids intercourse on
the day of ovulation. How should the nurse instruct this client?
1. Sperm survive 48 to 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
2. After ovulation, ova are considered fertile for about 72 to 96 hours.
3. Sperm are believed to be healthy and highly fertile for at least 5 days.
4. Refraining from intercourse on the day of ovulation will effectively prevent pregnancy.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
1. Sperm survive 48 to 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
2. Ova are considered fertile for about 12 to 24 hours after ovulation.
3. Sperm are believed to be most fertile for the first 24 hours following entry into the female
reproductive tract.
4. Because sperm survive 48 to 72 hours in the female reproductive tract, avoidance of
intercourse for 24 hours will not reliably prevent pregnancy from occurring.
Page Ref: 137
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.3 Analyze the components of the process of fertilization as to how each may
impact fertilization.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
5) The nurse instructs a client about conception and fetal development. Which client statement
indicates understanding about transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube
and into the cavity of the uterus?
1. “It will take 8 days for the egg to reach the uterus.”
2. “It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus.”
3. “It will take 18 hours for the fertilized egg to implant in the uterus.”
4. “It will only take 12 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube.”
Answer: 2
3
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation:
1. “It will take 8 days for the egg to reach the uterus” is an incorrect interpretation of the
information on conception.
2. It takes at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus.
3. “It will take 18 hours for the fertilized egg to implant in the uterus” is an incorrect
interpretation of the information on conception.
4. “It will only take 12 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube” is an incorrect
interpretation of the information on conception.
Page Ref: 139
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.3 Analyze the components of the process of fertilization as to how each may
impact fertilization.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
6) If only a small volume of sperm is discharged into the vagina, an insufficient amount of
enzymes might be released when sperm encounters the ovum. What would be the result for
pregnancy?
1. The block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) would not occur.
2. The fertilized ovum would be unable to implant in the uterus.
3. Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum.
4. Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter the
uterus.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
1. The answer choice of the block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) not occurring is incorrect
because it is mediated by release of materials from cortical granules below the ovum’s
surface and not the result of low sperm count.
2. With a low sperm count it is unlikely that the ovum would be fertilized.
3. Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum because it takes
hundreds of acrosomes (the result of the acrosomal reaction) to rupture and release enough
hyaluronic acid to clear the way for a single sperm to penetrate the ovum’s zona pellucida
successfully.
4. “Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter
the uterus” is an incorrect statement.
Page Ref: 138
4
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Cognitive Level: Understanding
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.1. Conduct comprehensive and focused physical,
behavioral, psychological, spiritual, socioeconomic, and environmental assessments of health and
illness parameters in clients, using developmentally and culturally appropriate approaches│ NLN
Competencies: Context and Environment; Knowledge; health promotion/disease prevention │
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Assessment
Learning Outcome: 7.3 Analyze the components of the process of fertilization as to how each may
impact fertilization.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
7) The nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates the
client needs additional information?
1. “It is rare for twins to both be within the same amniotic sac.”
2. “Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical.”
3. “If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs.”
4. “If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical.”
Answer: 2
Explanation:
1. Monoamnionic-monochorionic twins are very rare and occur as a result of the zygote
splitting 7 or more days after fertilization.
2. Not all same-sex twins are identical or monozygotic, because fraternal, or dizygotic, twins
can be the same gender or different genders.
3. The only way to have twins of different genders is if they came from two separate fertilized
ova. Monozygotic twins are identical and are the same gender.
4. When the zygote splits, identical twins share the same genotype result.
Page Ref: 143
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.5 Compare the factors and processes by which fraternal (dizygotic) and
identical (monozygotic) twins are formed.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
5
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
8) A pregnant client asks about the differences between monozygotic and dizygotic twins.
Which should the nurse include during this teaching?
1. Dizygotic twins share one placenta and one chorion.
2. Monozygotic twins are also referred to as “fraternal” twins.
3. Dizygotic twinning occurs less frequently than does monozygotic twinning.
4. Monozygotic twins originate from division of the fertilized ovum at different stages.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
1. Dizygotic twins each have a separate chorion and amnion.
2. Monozygotic twins are also referred to as “identical” twins.
3. Dizygotic twinning occurs more frequently than does monozygotic twinning.
4. Monozygotic twins originate from division of the fertilized ovum at different stages of early
development.
Page Ref: 143
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.5 Compare the factors and processes by which fraternal (dizygotic) and
identical (monozygotic) twins are formed.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
9) Which statement by a client pregnant with twins would indicate that teaching was effective?
1. “Identical twins can be the same or different sex.”
2. “Identical twins occur more frequently than fraternal twins.”
3. “Congenital abnormalities are more prevalent in identical twins.”
4. “Because of their birth relationship, fraternal twins are more similar to each other than if
they had been born singly.”
Answer: 3
Explanation:
1. Identical or monozygotic twins have identical chromosomal structures and therefore are
always the same sex.
2. Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins occur more frequently than do monozygotic twins.
3. Due to variations in the timing of the splitting of the embryo, congenital abnormalities are
more common in monozygotic twins.
4. Fraternal twins are not more similar to each other than if they had been born singly.
Page Ref: 143
6
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.5 Compare the factors and processes by which fraternal (dizygotic) and
identical (monozygotic) twins are formed.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
10) The nurse is creating a teaching poster for pregnant mothers. Which description of fetal
development should the nurse include?
1. Most organs are formed by 8 weeks after fertilization.
2. The embryonic stage is from fertilization until 5 months.
3. Four layers of cells form after the embryo is at the ball stage.
4. After fertilization, the cells only become larger for several weeks.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
1. Most organs are formed during the embryonic stage, which lasts from the 15th day after
fertilization until the end of the 8th week after fertilization. This is also a critical period
because major organs are being developed and teratogens introduced during this time can
increase the risk of congenital abnormalities.
2. The embryonic stage begins on the 15th day after fertilization and ends at the completion of
the 8th week after fertilization.
3. Three primary germ layers form from the ball of undifferentiated cells, the blastocyst:
ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
4. After fertilization, the cells reproduce by mitosis, resulting in more cells, not larger cells.
Page Ref: 151
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.4 Summarize the processes that occur during the cellular multiplication and
differentiation stages of intrauterine development and their effects on the structures that form.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
7
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
11) The nurse is conducting an early pregnancy class for a group of pregnant women. Which
statement indicates a need for further education about the placenta?
1. “It develops and grows larger until about 20 weeks’ gestation.”
2. “It floats in the amniotic sac and filters waste products from the fetus.”
3. “It creates hormones and enzymes that are necessary during pregnancy.”
4. “It ages and becomes less permeable during the last month of pregnancy.”
Answer: 2
Explanation:
1. The chorionic villi of the placenta become more differentiated with time. The placenta
grows in size until about 20 weeks. After this point, the placenta thickens but does not
increase in size.
2. The placenta is attached to the uterine wall, and does not float in the amniotic sac. One
function of the placenta is to filter metabolic waste products from the baby’s blood so that
they can be excreted by the mother.
3. The placenta creates glycogen, cholesterol, hormones such as human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), and enzymes such as sulfatase and insulinase.
4. The placenta is designed to last for 40 weeks, the average length of human gestation. The
permeability to nutrients and oxygen begins to decrease starting at about 36 weeks as a part
of the aging of the placenta.
Page Ref: 143
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Evaluation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.6 Describe the development, structure, and functions of the placenta and
umbilical cord during intrauterine life (embryonic and fetal development).
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
12) A client who has experienced a fetal death in utero at 20 weeks asks what her baby will look
like when it is delivered. How should the nurse respond to this client?
1. “The genitals of the baby will be ambiguous.”
2. “Your baby will be covered in fine hair called lanugo.”
3. “Your child will have arm and leg buds, but not fully formed limbs.”
4. “A white, cheesy substance called vernix caseosa will be on the skin.”
Answer: 2
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Explanation:
1. The genitals are apparent by 12 weeks after fertilization. This fetus would have had
specifically male or female genitals 8 weeks ago.
2. Downy fine hair called lanugo covers a 20-week fetus.
3. Limb buds have developed by 35 days postfertilization. At 20 weeks, the fetus will have
well-developed well-differentiated arms and legs.
4. Vernix caseosa forms at about 24 weeks. This fetus is only 20 weeks and will not have
vernix.
Page Ref: 149
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.4. Communicate effectively with all members of
the healthcare team, including the client and the client’s support network │ NLN Competencies:
Context and Environment; Knowledge; health promotion/disease prevention │ Nursing/Integrated
Concepts: Implementation
Learning Outcome: 7.7 Summarize the significant changes in growth and development of the fetus at
4, 6, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 36, and 40 weeks’ gestation.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
13) At her first prenatal visit, the client states, “I’m 5 weeks pregnant now and I would like to
hear my baby’s heartbeat today.” How should the nurse respond?
1. Anticipate that the client will be scheduled for Doppler ultrasound.
2. Prepare to assist with auscultation of the fetal heartbeat using a fetoscope.
3 Explain to the client that the fetal heartbeat is not yet detectable at 5 weeks’ gestation.
4. Explain to the client that the fetal heart does not begin to beat until approximately 7 weeks’
gestation.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
1. Generally, fetal heart tones cannot be heard until approximately the 8th week of pregnancy
by ultrasound Doppler device.
2. Fetal heart tones can be identified through use of a fetoscope at approximately the 20th
week of pregnancy.
3. While the tubular heart begins to form during the 3rd week, fetal heart tones generally are
not detectable until at least 7 weeks’ gestation.
4. The fetal heart begins to beat by the 4th week of gestation.
Page Ref: 148
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.4. Communicate effectively with all members of
the healthcare team, including the client and the client’s support network │ NLN Competencies:
9
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Context and Environment; Knowledge; health promotion/disease prevention │ Nursing/Integrated
Concepts: Implementation
Learning Outcome: 7.7 Summarize the significant changes in growth and development of the fetus at
4, 6, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 36, and 40 weeks’ gestation.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
14) A client at 18 weeks’ gestation thinks she might have been exposed to a toxin at work that
could affect fetal development and asks what organs might be affected at this point in the
pregnancy. How should the nurse respond to this client?
1. “The brain is developing now and could be affected.”
2. “Because you are in the second trimester, there is no danger.”
3. “It’s best to not worry about possible problems with your baby.”
4. “The internal organs like the heart and lungs could be impacted.”
Answer: 1
Explanation:
1. Maximum brain growth and myelination are occurring at this point in fetal development.
2. Although the greatest danger from teratogens is during the embryonic stage (the first 8
weeks of pregnancy), the fetus at 20 weeks is still vulnerable to exposure to teratogens.
3. Avoid telling clients not to worry. Doing so indicates to the client that you do not care about
their concerns and will end effective communication.
4. The heart, lungs, and other internal organs form during the embryonic state, or the first 8
weeks of pregnancy. During their formation is when they are most likely to be affected by a
teratogen.
Page Ref: 153
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.4. Communicate effectively with all members of
the healthcare team, including the client and the client’s support network │ NLN Competencies:
Context and Environment; Knowledge; health promotion/disease prevention │ Nursing/Integrated
Concepts: Implementation
Learning Outcome: 7.8 Identify the factors that influence congenital malformations of the various
organ systems.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
15) The nurse is preparing a presentation about causes of fetal organ malformation in the first
trimester. What prenatal influences on the intrauterine environment should be included in
this teaching? Select all that apply.
1. The use of drugs
2. Maternal nutrition
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3. The use of saunas or hot tubs
4. Age of the mother at conception
5. The quality of the sperm or ovum
Answer: 1, 2, 3
Explanation:
1. Many drugs can have teratogenic effects.
2. Maternal nutrition, if deficient, can cause damage to the fetus. Vitamins and folic acid taken
prior to and during the pregnancy can have beneficial effects.
3. The use of saunas or hot tubs is associated with maternal hyperthermia and neural tube
defects.
4. A maternal age of 35 or older is associated with genetic defects that occur at conception, not
with first-trimester organ malformation.
5. The quality of the sperm or ovum can affect fertility but not organ formation.
Page Ref: 153
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship Centered
Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Planning/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.8 Identify the factors that influence congenital malformations of the various
organ systems.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
16) The nurse is preparing information about reproduction for high school students. What should
the nurse include about the production of sperm? Select all that apply.
1. Diploid cells are formed.
2. Sperm cells develop through meiotic division.
3. Four spermatids are formed during the second meiotic division.
4. Spermatocytes contain either a double-structured X or Y sex chromosome.
5. Two secondary spermatocytes contain 22 double-structured autosomal chromosomes.
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5
Explanation:
1. The formation of diploid cells occurs during mitosis.
2. Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis, the process by which sperm are produced.
3. During the second meiotic division, they divide to form four spermatids, each with the haploid
number of chromosomes.
4. Spermatocytes contain either a double-structured X sex chromosome or a double-structured Y
sex chromosome.
5. During the first meiotic division, the spermatogonium replicates and forms two cells called
secondary spermatocytes, each of which contains 22 double-structured autosomal chromosomes.
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Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 136–137
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship
Centered Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Planning/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.1 Differentiate between meiotic cellular division and mitotic cellular
division.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
17) The nurse is reviewing the embryonic primary germ layers with a group of students. Which
structures should the nurse identify as being formed from the mesoderm? Select all that apply.
1. Nails
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Muscles
5. Skeleton
Answer: 3, 4, 5
Explanation:
1. The nails originate from the ectoderm.
2. The liver originates from the endoderm.
3. The spleen originates from the mesoderm.
4. The muscles originate from the mesoderm.
5. The skeleton originates from the mesoderm.
Page Ref: 141
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship
Centered Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.4 Summarize the processes that occur during the cellular multiplication
and differentiation stages of intrauterine development and their effects on the structures that
form.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
18) The nurse is discussing an embryonic structure that forms red blood cells until the liver takes
over the process in the developing fetus. Place an X on the diagram to identify the structure that
the nurse is discussing.
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Answer:
Explanation: The yolk sac is small and functions early in embryonic life. It forms primitive red
blood cells during the first 6 weeks of development, until the embryo’s liver takes over the
process.
Page Ref: 141
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship
13
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Centered Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.4 Summarize the processes that occur during the cellular multiplication
and differentiation stages of intrauterine development and their effects on the structures that
form.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
19) The nurse is reviewing the structures of the developing fetus with a group of pregnant
clients. What should the nurse emphasize about the function of the placenta? Select all that
apply.
1. It produces hormones.
2. It produces glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids.
3. It maintains fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion.
4. It provides a circulatory pathway from the chorionic villi to the embryo.
5. It contains a specialized mucoid connective tissue known as Wharton jelly.
Answer: 1, 2, 3
Explanation:
1. The placenta produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG); human placental lactogen (hPL),
also referred to as human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS); relaxin; inhibin; and estrogen
and progesterone.
2. The placenta produces glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids continuously for fetal use and
hormone production.
3. The placental functions include fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion. To carry out these
functions, the placenta is involved in metabolic and transfer activities.
4. The umbilical cord provides a circulatory pathway from the chorionic villi to the embryo.
5. The umbilical cord contains a specialized mucoid connective tissue known as Wharton jelly,
which prevents compression of the umbilical cord in utero.
Page Ref: 145
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need/Sub: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate client teaching that
reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, client preferences, and health literacy
considerations to foster client engagement in their care│ NLN Competencies: Relationship
Centered Care; Practice; learn cooperatively, facilitate the learning of others │
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 7.6 Describe the development, structure, and functions of the placenta and
umbilical cord during intrauterine life (embryonic and fetal development).
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
20) A pregnant client who restricted the intake of fat, protein, and sugar to prevent a large weight
gain delivers a small-for-gestational-age fetus. What long-term health problems is this child at
risk for developing as an adult? Select all that apply.
1. Arthritis
2. Diabetes
3. Hypertension
14
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4. Cystic fibrosis
5. Coronary heart disease
Answer: 2, 3, 5
Explanation:
1. Arthritis is not specifically linked to nutritional deficiencies in utero.
2. Poor maternal nutrition may also predispose babies who were small or disproportionate at
birth to the development of adult diabetes.
3. Poor maternal nutrition may also predispose babies who were small or disproportionate at
birth to the development of adult hypertension.
4. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease seen in pediatric clients.
5. Poor maternal nutrition may also predispose babies who were small or disproportionate at
birth to the development of adult coronary heart disease.
Page Ref: 153
Cognitive Level: Analyzing
Client Need/Sub: Physiological Integrity/Reduction of Risk Potential
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of client
centered care │ AACN Essential Competencies: IX.2. Recognize the relationship of genetics and
genomics to health, prevention, screening, diagnostics, prognostics, selection of treatment, and
monitoring of treatment effectiveness, using a constructed pedigree from collected family history
information as well as standardized symbols and terminology│ NLN Competencies: Context and
Environment; Knowledge; health promotion/disease prevention │ Nursing/Integrated Concepts:
Planning
Learning Outcome: 7.8 Identify the factors that influence congenital malformations of the various
organ systems.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1.4.1. Analyze the components of the fertilization process.
15
Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
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ACUTE URETHRITIS. CATARRH OF THE
URETHRA.
Causes. Follows acute. Same causes less potent. Lesions: as in acute, or sclerosis,
and abscess. Symptoms: delayed urination, last glairy or purulent, constipation,
defecation followed by urethral discharge, little genital ardor, rectal palpation,
tenderness of prostate to hand or catheter, atony of hind limbs. Treatment: open
air life, idle, milk or succulent diet, saline laxatives or enemata, avoid generative
excitement, castrate, check masturbation, iodine, camphor, antiseptic irrigations.
This has been seen almost exclusively in old dogs, among the
domestic animals.
Causes. Age and good living, more particularly on highly
albuminous food, may be adduced as the most prominent. Perhaps
even more important are continued irritation in adjacent organs
such as the rectum, bladder and urethra. It is the old, pampered dog
that above all suffers from atonic, overloaded rectum, proctitis, piles,
calculus, cystitis, and stricture, and the constant local pelvic
congestion caused by one or other of these tends to a hyperplasia of
the prostate. Again atheroma which is especially a disease of the aged
is regarded as a cause of both cystitis and prostatic hypertrophy.
Chronic inflammation in the prostate has been claimed as a factor,
but contested on the ground that inflammation never increases
normal growth though it may cause degeneration. The exudate of
inflammation, tends, however, on its temporary arrest, to undergo
organization, and such organization inclines to assume the structure
which is normally built up by the adjacent trophic cells. The products
of inflammation may, therefore, well contribute to hypertrophy, and
above all to the increase of the simpler tissue represented by the
fibrous framework of the gland. The congestion attendant on
excessive venery has also been incriminated, and this too has been
denied on the ground that the hypertrophy is not found in the young
animals and men in which the generative ardor is greatest and most
frequently aroused and gratified. Thompson’s idea is that the
prostate, like the ovaries and womb, is especially prone to morbid
growths and developments at the time when in advancing age, the
normal generative functions are undergoing a rapid decline. The two
conditions may well be recognized without considering them as
mutually excluding each other as causative factors.
Lesions. The enlargement is usually general, but it may
predominate in the right, left or median lobe, the latter as a rule
exercising greater compression of the urethra so that this is often
marked in the worst cases. The hyperplasia may feel firm and
resistant or it may be more or less soft from sacs of muco-purulent
fluid imprisoned by the obstruction of the outlet canals. On the
surface and on section the general appearance of the gland is pale,
bloodless and uniformly solid. This comes from the great
hypertrophy of the fibro-muscular stroma which has in many cases
compressed the parenchymatous or secreting structure so as to cause
its atrophy. The presence of calculi (mainly phosphatic) in the
follicles is not uncommon.
The complication of infective cystitis is frequent, the congestion,
redness, ecchymosis, maculation, puckering and thickening of the
mucosa, the granular degeneration and desquamation of the
epithelium, the exposure of a raw vascular surface, the discoloration
of the urine by mucus, pus and blood, and the formation of ammonia
and other products of decomposition, becoming marked phenomena.
Vesical calculus is not uncommon, the slowness of the exit current of
the urine retarded by the enlarged prostate, tending to prevent its
impaction in the orifice and thus minimizing one of the most
prominent symptoms.
Symptoms. Among the earliest symptoms, is some modification in
the act of micturition. Straining a few seconds before urine comes,
retention, incontinence and dribbling, discharge in a small or weak
stream, and sudden arrest of the flow and the last few drops may
contain muco-pus showing abundance of spermatic crystals, on the
addition of ammonia phosphate. Impaction of the rectum tends to
occur sooner or later, the animal making little effort to unload the
viscus, and the overdistended organ becoming more and more
atonic, congested and catarrhal and reacting injuriously on the
urinary organs. Incontinence may be especially marked during sleep,
the sphincter being sufficiently controlled by volition during waking
hours. Retention may be at first temporary from excitement and later
more continuous by reason of the greater compression of the neck by
the enlarged and indurated prostate. With the advance of the disease
the urine shows abundance of triple phosphates, and becomes
ammoniacal and fœtid. A dark or bloody color of the discharge and
the presence of crystals suggest calculus.
An accurate diagnosis can only be had by rectal examination. The
great enlargement of the prostate, in the absence of heat and
tenderness is characteristic. Enlargement is usually uniform, though
it may be concentrated on the right, left or central lobe. The passage
of the catheter may be obstructed, but is not specially painful at the
prostatic region as in prostatitis. From vesical calculus it is
distinguished by the fixity of the swelling on the neck of the bladder
as contrasted with the mobility of the stone inside that half-filled
organ. From stricture it is differentiated by the fact that the
obstruction offered to the catheter and the swelling of the prostate
exactly correspond in position, that the stream is lessened in force
rather than simply reduced in size, and that the history of the case
shows no antecedent cause for stricture.
Treatment. This has been considered as mainly palliative. Special
care of the general health and above all of the diet which should be
moderate, farinaceous and laxative, protection against cold and wet,
the correcting of any coexisting trouble of the urinary or generative
organs, and the removal from all sources of generative excitement
are important elements. Occasional small doses of Epsom or Glauber
salts in draught or enema obviate rectal hyperæmia. Ergot,
potassium iodide internally, and iodine or mercurial ointment to the
perineum have had little good effect. Möller claims to have secured
improvement from the injection into the prostate at intervals of
fourteen days, of a solution of two parts each of tincture of iodine
and iodide of potassium, and sixty parts of distilled water. A small
hypodermic syringe is used and the injection is made through the
rectum directly into the substance of the prostate. Glass has adopted
the recent surgical alternative of castration, with the result of marked
relief from the active symptoms in a number of cases, but with a
more rapid advance through emaciation and marasmus to death in
three or four weeks in others. We would suggest a careful antiseptic
castration in such cases, to obviate any added trouble from absorbed
toxins or sepsis.
For the human subject, Lydston strongly advocates removal of the
enlarged prostate by surgical means in strong, vigorous subjects,
with healthy bladder and kidneys. The difficulty of such an operation
in the dog is greatly enhanced by the relatively greater length of the
pubio-ischiatic symphysis, and the lessened diameter of the pelvic
cavity. Yet with the comparative immunity of the dog from
suppuration, and the hopelessness of the case without such radical
measure, and with the rigid application of an antiseptic technic, the
operation would appear to be fully justified. It would be contra-
indicated in all advanced cases, in which the prostate was the seat of
active suppuration with discharge into the urethra, in cases
complicated by urethritis, cystitis or nephritis, in cases in which
there is marked prostration from sepsis or absorbed toxins, and
generally in old, worn out and cachectic animals.
Short of this, in cases complicated by cystitis, antiseptics by the
stomach and as injections into the bladder are desirable. Eucalyptol
in doses of ten minims four times a day, or beta naphthol, guaiacol,
or phenol have been used in man. As injections mercuric chloride
1:20,000; boric acid, saturated solution; or carbolic acid ·5:100
(Lydston) may be used warm several times a day.