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Chapter 6 Employee Selection
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When an organization does not hire a person who is described as low in predicted success and low in
job performance, what is the term for that situation?
a. the goal of selection
b. a miss
c. a hit
d. a successful selection system
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 198 OBJ: 1
BLM: Remember
2. Which term refers to the use of selection tests to measure applicant KSAOs against competencies for
the job?
a. employment equity compliance
b. person–job fit
c. person–organization fit
d. indirect expense
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 198 OBJ: 1
BLM: Remember
3. Which of the following most accurately represents the typical steps in the selection process?
a. candidates participate in employment testing before being interviewed
b. supervisors interview candidates followed by individual interviews with the HR
department
c. candidates are interviewed in the initial stages and again the late stages of the process
d. background investigations are carried out near the beginning of the process
BLM: Remember
4. Organization B is using an interview format that requires a panel of three interviewers. The company
has found that about half of the time, the interviewers disagree in their ratings such that some members
of the panel give the candidate a high rating, while others give the same candidate a low rating. What
is the best way to describe the interview format that Organization B is using?
a. it is not content valid
b. it is lacking predictive validity
c. it is not valid
d. it is not reliable
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 199 OBJ: 2
BLM: Higher Order
5. When would an applicant be rejected during the selection process?

a. after the preliminary interview
b. after completing the application blank
c. after selection test results are received
d. at any step in the procedure
BLM: Higher Order
Copyright © 2014 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-1

6. Which term refers to the degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of
time?
a. consistency
b. reliability
c. validity
d. conformity
BLM: Remember
7. Which term refers to the degree to which inferences drawn from interviews, test scores, and other
selection procedures are supported by evidence (such as good job performance)?
a. evidential
b. accuracy
c. reliability
d. validity
BLM: Remember
8. Which of the following represents an essential factor in the selection procedure, regardless of the
selection methods used?
a. lengthy and thorough
b. quick and efficient
c. reliable and valid
d. a positive experience for applicants
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 199-200 OBJ: 2
BLM: Higher Order
9. Which of the following is appropriate to ask on an application form?

a. whether the applicant has prior arrests
b. whether the applicant is eligible to be bonded
c. whether the applicant has ever been in jail
d. whether the applicant has ever been caught stealing
BLM: Higher Order
10. Which of the following is NOT a reason why interviews are popular as a selection method?
a. Interviews are the most valid method of selection.
b. Interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
c. Interviews function as a public relations tool.
d. Interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 203 OBJ: 3
BLM: Remember

11. Organization Beta is hiring 20 new staff for front-line positions. The interview the company is using
involves giving the applicant hypothetical incidents and asking how he or she would respond. What is
this type of interview called?
a. a behavioural description interview
b. a panel interview
c. a situational interview
d. a structured interview
BLM: Higher Order
12. Which type of interview provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the
questions asked?
a. a nondirective interview
b. a situational interview
c. a structured interview
d. an unstructured interview
BLM: Remember
13. Which type of interview allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the
course of discussion?
a. a nondirective interview
b. a depth interview
BLM: Higher Order
14. Questions contained in structured job interviews should be based on which of the following?
a. job analysis
b. job design
c. job specialization
d. job utilization
BLM: Higher Order
15. Which of the following refers to an interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident
and is asked how he or she would respond to it?
a. a computer interview
d. a nondirective interview
BLM: Remember

16. “Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee” is an example of which of the following?
a. a behavioural description interview question
b. a panel interview question
c. a computer interview question
d. a closed response interview question
BLM: Higher Order
17. Organization Omega is hiring 20 new front-line employees. The company is using an interview that
involves three people taking turns asking questions and then pooling their scores of the responses.
What is this type of interview called?
a. a behavioural description interview
BLM: Higher Order
18. Which of the following best describes the use of reference checks?
a. They are no longer used because organizations won’t share information about previous
employees for fear of litigation.
b. Their usefulness is limited because most managers will not share performance data.
c. Some organizations have detailed forms for previous employers to fill out in order to get
the best information.
d. New human rights laws prohibit their use.
BLM: Higher Order
19. Which of the following best describes credit reports?

a. Organizations must advise and receive written consent from the applicant when they
request a credit report.
b. Organizations can request a report on any employee at any time without consent.
c. Organizations do not have to inform applicants if adverse decisions are made based on
information in the report.
d. Organizations cannot make adverse decisions based on information in such a report.
BLM: Remember
20. Which of the following types of test is increasingly being aided by computer simulations?
a. personality tests
b. physical ability tests
c. cognitive ability tests
d. work sample tests
BLM: Remember

21. Asking a candidate for an auto mechanic position to disassemble and reassemble a carburetor is an
example of which of the following?
a. a work sample test
b. a job knowledge test
c. a physical ability test
d. an interest inventory
BLM: Higher Order
22. Which of the following measures mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency,
numerical ability, or reasoning ability?
a. a personality and interest inventory
b. a physical ability test
c. a cognitive ability test
d. a job sample
BLM: Higher Order
23. Which of the following types of test is the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)?
a. a cognitive ability test
b. a personality test
c. a physical ability test
d. an interest inventory
BLM: Remember
24. Why are biographical information blanks difficult for applicants to fake?
a. they require detailed answers
b. they rarely have obviously right or wrong answers
c. they are administered by extremely knowledgeable interviewers
d. they require applicants to respond quickly
BLM: Higher Order
25. Which of the following best captures the current state of thinking on the use of biographical
information blanks?
a. Personal questions are viewed as inappropriate in a selection setting.
b. It is very time consuming to score them, but they are considered valid in particular
industries, such as health care.
c. They are not considered valid.
d. They are a very valid method of predicting job success.
BLM: Higher Order

26. Which of the following types of test measures dispositional characteristics such as extroversion,
inquisitiveness, and dependability?
a. personality tests
b. cognitive ability tests
c. physical ability tests
d. supervisory and managerial ability tests
BLM: Remember
27. Which of the following best describes personality tests?

a. They easily demonstrate job-relatedness.
b. They can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform
effectively.
c. They measure intelligence.
d. They measure an applicant’s preference for certain activities over others.
BLM: Remember
28. Why would an organization use an integrity test?

a. because even though such tests are not correlated with reduced disruptive behaviours, they
have been correlated with reduced turnover
b. because such tests are designed to identify thieves
c. because these tests not only reduce theft, but also have been shown to have a relationship
with performance on the job
d. because in using an integrity test, you can avoid the use of most other selection tests, since
it has been shown that these are good stand-alone predictors
BLM: Higher Order
29. What is currently the most effective way to assess a person’s honesty during the selection process?
a. polygraph testing
b. graphology testing
c. background tests
d. integrity testing
BLM: Higher Order
30. Which of the following is a legal means of screening out applicants who pose a security risk?
a. polygraph testing
b. a pencil-and-paper honesty test
c. a voice stress analyzer
d. deceptograph testing
BLM: Higher Order

31. Which of the following best describes drug testing in the selection process?
a. It is conducted in most Canadian workplaces.
b. It is illegal in Canada.
c. It is conducted more frequently in Canada than in the United States.
d. It is conducted by very few Canadian organizations.
BLM: Higher Order
32. Six months ago, Organization A used a new selection system to hire 100 front-line staff members.
With six months of performance data in hand, Organization A is interested in determining if its new
selection system predicts performance on the job. What is the best way to describe this process?
a. assessing concurrent validity through a cross-validation study
b. assessing concurrent validity through a criterion-related validity study
c. assessing predictive validity through a criterion-related validity study
d. assessing predictive validity through a cross-validation study
BLM: Higher Order
33. Organization C has developed a new selection system. The company is interested in determining if the
system predicts performance on the job, so Organization C gave the selection tests to 100 existing
employees. What is the best way to describe this process?
a. assessing concurrent validity through a cross-validation study
b. assessing concurrent validity through a criterion-related validity study
c. assessing predictive validity through a criterion-related validity study
d. assessing predictive validity through a cross-validation study
BLM: Higher Order
34. Which of the following terms refers to the extent to which good performance on a test correlates with
high marks on a performance review?
a. criterion-related validity
b. content validity
c. construct validity
d. cross-validation
BLM: Remember
35. Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an
example of which of the following?
a. predictive validity
b. concurrent validity
c. content validity
d. correlational validity
BLM: Higher Order

36. What is one of the most important processes in establishing validity?

a. criterion-related validation
b. correlation
c. cross-validation
d. content validation
BLM: Higher Order
37. In which process is a test or test battery administered to a different sample (drawn from the same
population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study?
a. redundancy validation
b. repeat validation
c. cross-validation
d. inferential validation
BLM: Remember
38. The “can do” factors of an applicant include which of the following?
a. knowledge, skills, and abilities
b. personality, values, and motivation
c. honesty and integrity
d. motivation
BLM: Remember
39. Which of the following conditions represents a test that could be described as “construct valid”?
a. A professor puts one essay question on the final exam, and that essay question is drawn
from the chapter that she feels is the most important.
b. A manager uses a work sample test used for selection that has facets that tap in to every
major aspect of the job.
c. A researcher gives a test of “job satisfaction” to a group of participants and checks to
make sure that his results correlate with other measures of satisfaction.
d. A manager assesses how effective his selection test is by checking the performance of
successful candidates months after they are hired.
BLM: Higher Order
40. Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of which of the following?
a. job requirements
b. job characteristics
c. theories
d. constructs
BLM: Higher Order

41. Which of the following should the selection decision focus on?
a. the strategic objectives of the organization’s competition
b. the personality match of the applicant and the supervisor
c. the motivation of the applicant
d. both “can-do” and “will-do” factors of the applicant
BLM: Higher Order
42. Organization T uses a decision-making model in which an applicant is allowed to score poorly in one
area of the selection tests, as long as he or she scores very high in another area. What is this type of
decision-making model called?
a. a statistical model
b. a multiple hurdle model
c. a compensatory model
d. a multiple cutoff model
BLM: Higher Order
43. Why has interest in person–organization fit been increasing?

a. because of organizations’ increased need for teamwork and flexibility
b. because of the movement toward union-free hiring
c. because job descriptions are becoming more rigid
d. because of advances in selection tools
BLM: Higher Order
44. A manager is examining the number of applicants for a job compared to the number of people needed
to be hired. What is this figure called?
a. the yield ratio
b. the selection ratio
c. the base ratio
d. the validity coefficient
BLM: Remember
45. What does a selection ratio of .9 mean?

a. It means 90 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
b. It means 10 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
c. It means 9 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
d. It means 1 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
BLM: Higher Order

Scenario 6.1
Canadian Fasteners is an Ottawa-based packing firm that packages nuts, bolts, and screws for various
Canadian furniture companies. The firm started operations in 2003 with 13 employees and has grown
to over 150 employees today. Employees are paid hourly rates with benefits similar to other packing
firms across Ontario. The work does not need previous experience. Canadian Fasteners has been
struggling to recruit and hire the right employees to take the company into the new millennium. Part of
the problem is that workers, especially floor workers, are hired by word of mouth with no formal
application process or even an interview. As a result, the company faces a high turnover rate and
spends valuable time training new employees who may not have the prerequisite skills to effectively
do the job in the first place.
46. Refer to Scenario 6.1. Canadian Fasteners needs to do which of the following to gather information
about its candidates?
a. administer a lie detector test
b. run background and credit checks on all employees
c. gather résumés and applications and conduct interviews
d. continue as it is currently doing things
BLM: Higher Order
47. Refer to Scenario 6.1. Canadian Fasteners is trying to implement a process to recruit and hire workers.
Which of the following would work best in this type of organization?
a. a non-directive style
b. a structured interview
c. a behavioural description interview
d. a contextual interview
BLM: Higher Order
48. Refer to Scenario 6.1. Assume Canadian Fasteners designates a person to review the applications and
conduct the interviews. Which of the following is NOT helpful to the interviewer?
a. non-standardized questions
b. understanding the job
c. establishing an interview plan
d. controlling the course of the interview
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 209-210 OBJ: 3
BLM: Higher Order

Scenario 6.2
Computer Direct Inc. is a midsized technology firm that specializes in designing, manufacturing, and
selling computers. The organization staff complement is very diverse, and most of the company’s
employees are in the development and design, sales, and marketing departments. Computer Direct has
been using only one method to make recruitment decisions for all of its employees, from managerial to
technical to clerical. Data is gathered on each candidate, and a committee assigns scores to candidates
based on its understanding of the job. Candidates, however, are not given the opportunity to be tested
and hired based on their respective scores. Essentially, decisions are made based on personal
judgments.
49. Refer to Scenario 6.2. Which approach best reflects how decisions about recruiting are made at
Computer Direct?
a. psychological approach
b. clinical approach
c. statistical approach
d. behavioural approach
BLM: Higher Order
50. Refer to Scenario 6.2. If Computer Direct wants to use more objective methods of decision making,
which of the following is the best approach?
a. demonstrated approach
b. compensatory approach
c. subjective iterative approach
d. statistical approach
BLM: Higher Order
51. Refer to Scenario 6.2. Which approach is considered superior and would best serve the needs of
Computer Direct?
a. objective approach
b. clinical approach
c. statistical approach
d. personal judgment approach
BLM: Higher Order

TRUE/FALSE
1. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results, but not to the agreement
between two or more raters.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 199 OBJ: 2

BLM: Higher Order
2. If an organization’s selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures
are valid.

BLM: Higher Order
3. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 199-200 OBJ: 2

BLM: Remember
4. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and
systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 201 OBJ: 2

BLM: Remember
5. Application forms should always require relevant dates, including date of birth.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 201-202 OBJ: 2

BLM: Higher Order
6. It is estimated that at least 30 percent of applicants stretch the truth on their résumés.

BLM: Remember
7. Although many organizations are encouraging applicants to apply for jobs online, this practice slows
down the application process.

BLM: Higher Order
8. Online applications can speed up the selection process, combine information, and disseminate
promising leads to hiring managers more efficiently.

BLM: Remember
9. Although widely used, employment interviews pose potential concerns about validity.

BLM: Higher Order

10. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate.

BLM: Remember
11. The situational interview is a variation of the unstructured interview.

BLM: Remember
12. A situational interview asks the applicant what he or she actually did in a given situation.

BLM: Higher Order
13. Situational interviews ask applicants how they would respond, while behavioural description
interviews ask applicants how they did respond
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 204-205 OBJ: 3

BLM: Higher Order
14. Behavioural description interviews are based on hypothetical situations.

BLM: Higher Order
15. “Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee” could be a behavioural description
interview question.

BLM: Higher Order
16. “Tell me more about your experiences on your last job” is an example of a nondirective interview
question.

BLM: Higher Order
17. The premise of a behavioural interview is that “past performance is the best predictor of future
performance.”

BLM: Higher Order
18. Behavioural description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially
for higher-level positions.

BLM: Remember

19. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and faster decision times
than one-to-one interviews.

BLM: Higher Order
20. Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost-effectiveness.

BLM: Higher Order
21. Typically, a computer interview requires candidates to answer a series (75–125) of multiple-choice
questions tailored to the job.

BLM: Remember
22. Employers are required by law to provide references for former employees.

BLM: Higher Order
23. Written letters of reference are very valid in the selection of employees.

BLM: Higher Order
24. Credit checks are the most common form of reference check.

BLM: Remember
25. The federal government relies extensively on employment testing in the selection process.

BLM: Higher Order
26. Aptitude tests measure what a person knows or can do right now.

BLM: Higher Order
27. The Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) is an example of a cognitive ability test.

BLM: Higher Order
28. Since biographical information blanks rarely have obviously right or wrong answers, they are difficult
to fake.

BLM: Higher Order

29. Studies have shown that an objective scoring of biographical information blanks and application forms
is one of the most potentially valid methods that can be used to predict job success.

BLM: Remember
30. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience.

BLM: Remember
31. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and
flexible.

BLM: Remember
32. In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.

BLM: Remember
33. A comprehensive analysis of honesty tests reveals that they are valid for predicting theft, disciplinary
problems, absenteeism, and job performance.

BLM: Remember
34. Human rights legislation severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations that
employers may use.

BLM: Remember
35. Medical examinations are usually conducted before an offer of employment is made.

BLM: Remember
36. Drug testing is used much more frequently in Canada than in the United States.

BLM: Higher Order
37. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully
validated on the basis on the essential functions of the job.

BLM: Higher Order

38. Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance
data for existing employees.

BLM: Remember
39. In general, a criterion-related method of assessing selection test validity is preferred over other
methods because it is based on empirical data.

BLM: Higher Order
40. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important
elements of work behaviour.

BLM: Remember
41. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the
job for some indefinite period.

BLM: Remember
42. Predictive and concurrent validity are determined by comparing test scores with supervisor
performance ratings.

BLM: Higher Order
43. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 220-221 OBJ: 6

BLM: Higher Order
44. The closer the content of the selection instrument to actual work samples or behaviours, the higher the
content validity.

BLM: Higher Order
45. Content validity is the most direct and least complicated type of validity to assess.

BLM: Higher Order
46. Asking an applicant for an accounting position to solve accounting problems similar to those
encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.

BLM: Higher Order

47. Measuring construct validity requires linking a psychological test to job performance.

BLM: Higher Order
48. It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do.

BLM: Higher Order
49. Strategies for selecting managerial and technical people are relatively similar.

BLM: Higher Order
50. Measuring KSAOs of an applicant against the competencies required for the job is called
person–organization fit.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 225 OBJ: 1|5

BLM: Remember
51. When trying to achieve person–organization fit, managers will pass up potential employees who don’t
embrace the values of the company even if they have excellent job skills.

BLM: Higher Order
52. Person–organization fit has become more of a focus in firms that need teamwork and flexibility.

BLM: Remember
53. In large organizations, supervisors are usually responsible for making job offers and notifying
applicants of selection decisions.

BLM: Higher Order

ESSAY
1. Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
ANS:
Reliability describes the degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures yield
comparable data over a period of time. For example, if an interviewer judges the capabilities of a
group of applicants differently today than yesterday, his or her judgment is unreliable. Reliability can
also be determined by interrater reliability, or agreement between two or more raters. Selection
decision data that are unreliable cannot be used as predictors of job success.
Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it. For personnel
selection, validity indicates the extent to which data from a selection procedure are predictive of job
performance or other relevant criteria. In order for a test to be valid, it must also be reliable. However,
reliability does not assure validity.
PTS: 1 REF: 199-200 OBJ: 2 BLM: Higher Order
2. Compare and contrast the following four interview approaches: (1) nondirective interview, (2)
structured interview, (3) situational interview, and (3) behavioural description interview.
ANS:
In a nondirective interview, the interviewer allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in
determining the course of the discussion. The interviewer asks broad, general questions, but permits
the applicant to talk freely with little interruption. The greater freedom afforded to the applicant in the
nondirective interview is particularly valuable in bringing to the interviewer’s attention any
information, attitudes, or feelings that may be concealed by a more structured approach. However, the
unstructured nature of this approach limits the consistency of information provided and makes it
difficult to cross-check agreement with other interviewers. Thus, the reliability and validity of the
nondirective approach is suspect.
The structured interview has a number of standard questions asked of each job applicant. Questions are
job-related based upon job analysis. Since applicants are asked identical questions, the structured
interview provides a more consistent basis for evaluating job candidates. This interview strives to
maximize the validity of selection decisions.
With the situational interview, the applicant is given a hypothetical incident and asked to respond how
he or she would handle it. Responses are evaluated relative to pre-established standards.
Behavioural description interviews focus on actual work experiences in the applicant’s past. The
behavioural questions ask the applicant what he or she actually did in a given situation. This
interviewing approach assumes that past performance is the best predictor of future performance.

3. Identify and explain the five primary types of employment tests.
ANS:
• Cognitive ability tests measure mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency,
numerical ability, and reasoning ability.
• Personality and interest inventories measure dispositional characteristics such as extroversion,
inquisitiveness, and dependability.
• Physical ability tests assess a job candidate’s physical abilities such as strength and endurance.
• Job knowledge tests are a type of achievement test designed to measure a person’s level of
understanding about a particular job.
• Work sample tests, or job sample tests, require the job applicant to perform tasks that are
actually part of the work required on the job.

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This is the style that leads from the stigma that brushes the
bee that gathers the pollen that lies in the anther that grows on the
stamen that lives in the flower so bright and gay.
This is the ovary that stands under the style that

leads from the stigma that brushes the bee that gathers the pollen
that lies in the anther that grows on the stamen that lives in the
flower so bright and gay.
This is the ovule that hides in the ovary that stands under the
style that leads from the stigma that brushes the bee that gathers the
pollen that lies in the anther that grows on the stamen that lives in
the flower so bright and gay.
This is the seed that grows from the ovule
BECAUSE
the ovule hid in the ovary, the ovary stood under the style, the style
led from the stigma, the stigma brushed the bee, the bee gathered the
pollen, the pollen lay in the anther, the anther grew on the stamen,
and the stamen lived in the flower so bright and gay!
THE CALYX.
The calyx is green.
The calyx is strong.
The calyx protects the ovary.
It has five sepals—five green sepals.
They overlap like the tiles on a roof and thus protect the
ovary from rain. They also protect it from insects that
otherwise might destroy it.
The calyx covers the base of the corolla and forms a green
urn, a little vase, in which to hold it secure from harm.
It is not bright and delicate like the corolla, but what would the
flower do without it?
BLOSSOM DEAR.
Blossom dear, what is the power

Draws the shining wings to thee?
Nestled in thy dainty bower
I can always find a bee.
Little friend, my bees find honey

Hidden deep as deep can be.
Without fear and without money
Come they for these sweets to me.
Flower, flower, give me honey,
Give me honey from thy store.
I will pay with love and money;
Stores of money, and love much more.
Dear, I cannot give you honey.
Shall I truly tell you why?
Bees pay better worth than money
As they have wings, but you can’t fly!
So I coax them with my honey,

Feed them with my very best,
While their wings bear life to many
Waiting in the cradle nest.
For the children of the flowers

Need the precious pollen dust,
And the bees have winged powers
To bear to them this sacred trust.
WHAT HAPPENED IN THE GARDEN.
The morning-glory lay rolled up in the bud down under the leaves.
One day it bloomed.
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the blossom stood there, fresh and fair.
The bees saw it from afar, and came as fast as
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The morning-glory, because of their coming,
had filled the nectar cups and opened the boxes of
snow-white pollen.
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nectar, and carried away the pollen. As fast as the
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The honeybees and the bumblebees were
provided with baskets, which they filled with
pollen; but the other bees carried it away on the
long hairs of their bodies.
The morning-glory glowed in the sunshine all
day long, happy, no doubt, in the consciousness
that the little seed-children had begun to grow. It
was because of them the bees were made so
welcome.
We can imagine the flower might feel like
saying, “This is my seed-children’s birthday party;
come often, dear bees, and sip my nectar and take
my pollen. But be like the good fairies and bring
each a gift to my seed-children.”
The bees buzzed and came and went and came and went.
Each time they took away nectar and pollen to their hives, and
each time left something for the seed-children.
Do you suppose they left a cap of darkness, and a pair of seven-
league boots, and a sword that always conquered, and a magic carpet
that took people wherever they wanted to go, as the fairies used to do
in the times when fairies were alive and came to
the christenings of little children?
I do not think the bees brought any of these
things to the birthday party of the seed-
children.
The bees, not being real fairies, were obliged
to bring what they could.
Now, the day that the pink morning-glory
bloomed, a great many other morning-glories
came out of their buds, and they all gave the
bees a welcome.
They filled their cups with nectar and opened
their boxes of snow-white pollen.
Such a feast as was spread for the bees! Blue
morning-glories, and pink and purple and
white ones, on all sides they stood, fresh and
smiling, and invited the bees to come.
And the bees came. They went from one to
the other as fast as they could. They sucked up
nectar from all, and took it home and made
morning-glory honey of it. And they gathered
snow-white pollen from all, and took it home
and made morning-glory beebread of it.
But they did not carry home all the snow-
white pollen. They bore some of it as gifts to the seed-children.
The seed-children needed the pollen; they could not grow into
seeds without it, and they needed the pollen from another flower, not
that from their own. So the pollen the bees brought them was better
far than caps or boots or carpets or any of those things the fairies
used to bring to human children.
And this is why the morning-glories made the bees so welcome.
They could not take their pollen to each other, for they could not
leave their stems; so they employed the bees to carry it for them.
The morning-glories nodded to each other across the garden. “I
will send my bee to you,” one said to another, and the bee came and
left a few grains of pollen from the friendly flower. In this way the
morning-glories exchanged pollen all day long, so that each had
plenty of fresh neighbors’ pollen to give the seed-
children.
The flowers lasted all day, from sunrise to
sunset, and the nectar lasted all day, and the
snow-white pollen. But when night came the bees
went home to sleep, and the morning-glories, too,
slept. They rolled in the edges of their corollas so
that the way to the nectar cups was closed.
Next day the morning-glories did not open
again. There was no more nectar in their cups and
no more snow-white pollen in their anther cells.
Other morning-glories came out of their buds and
invited the
bees, but these
staid shut.
Soon the
corollas, faded
now and no
longer lovely to
look at, fell off.
Their work was
done. They had
been beautiful
to show how
happy they
were and how
lovely life was;
by their
beauty, too,
they had
brought the bees and gained the pollen they wanted to make other
lovely flowers live. Now, their messages of love and happiness given,
they fell off, and the pollen boxes, empty and withered, fell with
them.
But they left behind life and hope, for each tiny seed had received
its grain of life-assuring pollen. For only the corolla and the stamens
fell. The seed-children still clung to the stem; they lay in their
cradles, nicely wrapped up by the green calyx leaves. And then the
little stems that held the seed-babies’ cradles turned down and hid
the little cradles under the leaves.
The seed-babies grew and grew. They would soon have outgrown
their cradles, only the strange thing is, the cradles grew too! They
grew as fast as the seeds and kept them snug and safe.
So all summer long, until the frost
came and it was time for the morning-
glories to take their long winter sleep,
the buds opened in the morning. All
summer long the bright morning-glories
filled their cups with nectar and opened
their boxes of snow-white pollen for the
bees. And all summer long the seed-
children received their pollen and grew
and grew in their cradles that grew too.
But after a while the green cradles
turned brown. And after another while
the brown cradles opened to let the seed-
children look out, and as soon as this
happened every little black seed—for
they had grown quite black by this time
—fell out of its cradle! It did not hurt it
to fall out, for it tumbled and rolled
down to the earth, where, at last, the
wind came and covered it with leaves, as
the robins covered up the babes in the
woods. And the little black seed-babies
lay there as snug as seed-babies could
be.
Then the snow came and spread a
blanket over them, and the leaves and
the snow kept them as warm as they
wanted to be until springtime came and
the snow went away; and the seeds
began to stretch themselves and think it
was time to wake up and go out and see what was going on in the big
world above.
THE OVULES
When the ovules get ready to grow, the flower
prepares to bloom.
All about the ovules the delicate walls of the
ovary shut tightly.
The white filaments of the stamens group
themselves about it; you cannot see the ovary,
they stand so close to it.
Their anther cells reach halfway up to the
stigma, for the white stigma stands above the
anthers. The anthers and the stigma are there for
the sake of the ovules.
But this is not all.
A delicate corolla of bright
colors surrounds the stamens
and pistil. It holds them in its
white tube, and spreads the
bright border out wide for the
bees to see and come to the
help of the ovules.
The green calyx wraps its sepals about the end of the corolla
tube, and when the corolla falls the calyx covers nicely the
ovary and helps it protect the ovules.
When the bees have been and have left their message
of life, and when the corolla has faded and fallen, the
stems of the flowers turn down and hide the ovary with its
seedlets under the leaves.
The leaves work day and night to make food for the plant, and
some of it goes to the ovules. The leaves eat what is in the air and
change it to food for the rest of the plant and the ovules.
The roots suck food from the hard earth; they help the leaves make
food.
The stems carry the food from the roots to the leaves, and from the
leaves to the flowers, where it gets to the ovules.
Why should so much be done for the sake of the tiny ovules, white
little atoms at the heart of the flower?
Why should the flowers care? Why should they spread bright
corollas and arrange these cunning protections and draw up the sap
for the sake of the tiny white ovules?
Look into the ovary and see them.
Six small white things are they, so small and soft you
would scarcely think they were worth much care.
But look again and think a little. They are very wonderful,
although so small. They grow to the ovary by a little stem;
they get the good sap to grow on through this stem. They
have a little hole through their delicate coats, and through
this hole the pollen enters.
When the pollen is in, the little hole closes, and the ovules feel
strong and alive. They draw in the sap the leaves have made them
through their little stem; they grow larger and firmer. They cease to
be tiny white round things; they get two leaves with a little stem and
a bud between them.
They are no longer ovules, they are seeds. They are little sleeping
vines. In each black little seed is a whole vine packed away.
After a time the old vine will fade away. It will fall and turn brown.
It will do no more work of changing gases and minerals into living
plant. It will not again have green leaves and bear bright flowers.
But there will be more morning-glories, for the vine has stored
some of its life in the seeds, and they will not fade and cease to work.
All that is left of the life of the vine is in the seeds. All the morning-
glories that will grow and delight us with their bright flowers next
summer lie packed away in the dark seeds.
Dear little seeds, live on through the cold winter; without you we
never again could see our bright morning-glories!
And that is why the vines take such care of the seeds; the whole
race of morning-glories is in their keeping.
THE LEAVES.
The leaves of the morning-glory consider each other. They stand
close together, but, as you see, they do not crowd.
They turn a little to one side that all may have as
much room as possible, for each needs all the light
and air it can get.
The leaves also have regard for the roots working
away in the dark earth. Instead of being flat, they
have a channel down the middle, a gutter to convey
the rain water from leaf to leaf, and finally to the
ground above the roots.
Some of the roots, it is true, stray away, but some
stay close to the plant and suck up the rain the leaves
send them.
The young leaves fold together. They are very
tender, and too much cold or too much heat would
harm them; and if they were open, the sun would
draw away too much of their water.
So they lie close and snug, and do not open until
they have grown large and strong enough to meet the
bright sunshine and the cold night.
Then they open wide; they become green and do
their work, which is to make food for the plant.
TO THE MORNING-GLORY.
What do you do with your pollen so white?

What do you do with your honey so sweet?
What is the use of your border so bright?
And what is the use of your calyx so neat?
THE CONVOLVULUS FAMILY.
Thi
s is a
large
and,
on the
whole
,
aristo
cratic
family
.
Abo
ut two
thous
and
differ
ent
kinds
of
plants
belon
g to it;
but
not so
many
in our
climat
e.
Perha
ps not
more
than
two
hundred of the Convolvulaceæ, which is the proper name of this
family, come as far North as we live.
They are rather cold-blooded people, these Convolvulaceæ, and
prefer to stay in or near the tropics.
Up our way are the morning-glories, as you know. This is not their
native home, though, as it is of the bloodroots, the bindweeds, and all
the other wild flowers.
They were brought here from the hot part of America, near the
equator. Somebody saw them, no doubt, and of course fell in love
with them and sent some seeds to their friends in the North, or else
took them when they went home.
Perhaps a sailor boy, landing in South America and seeing the
bright flowers in the morning sunshine, thought of the New England
village where he lived and which he often longed for there in that
strange hot country, and perhaps he sent the seeds of these bright
flowers home in a letter. But whoever may have sent the first seeds, it
is certain the morning-glories received a hearty welcome in our
Northern world. And they soon behaved like old settlers.
They grew cheerily where they were planted, and their seeds fell to
the ground, where they managed to survive the cold Northern winter.
This must have been a great surprise to them the first time they
felt it!
Then up they came in the spring just as though they were at home.
They even strayed away from the people’s gardens and grew wild
near the villages.
Perhaps they met their Northern cousins the bindweeds there. And
what a surprise that must have been,—to come up from South
America and find a member of one’s own family who had always
lived in the cold North!
See how astonished the morning-glory at the bottom of the page
looks as it gazes upon its cousin the bindweed!
For the bindweeds, you must know, are like the bloodroots and
mandrakes and other wild flowers; they are natives of our Northern
climate.
There are several kinds of bindweeds just as there are several
kinds of morning-glories; but they are all, morning-glories and
bindweeds alike, descended from some way-back convolvulus
ancestor, just as you and your cousins and your second cousins and
your third cousins and your fourteenth cousins are all descended

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5. When would an applicant be rejected during the selection process?

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9. Which of the following is appropriate to ask on an application form?

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19. Which of the following best describes credit reports?

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27. Which of the following best describes personality tests?

28. Why would an organization use an integrity test?

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36. What is one of the most important processes in establishing validity?

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43. Why has interest in person–organization fit been increasing?

45. What does a selection ratio of .9 mean?

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ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 199 OBJ: 2

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 199 OBJ: 2

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 199-200 OBJ: 2

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 201 OBJ: 2

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 201-202 OBJ: 2

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 202 OBJ: 2

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 203 OBJ: 2

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 203 OBJ: 2

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 203 OBJ: 2

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10. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 204 OBJ: 3

11. The situational interview is a variation of the unstructured interview.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 204 OBJ: 3

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 204 OBJ: 3

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 204-205 OBJ: 3

14. Behavioural description interviews are based on hypothetical situations.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 205 OBJ: 3

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 205 OBJ: 3

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 206 OBJ: 3

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 206 OBJ: 3

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 206 OBJ: 3

Copyright © 2014 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-13

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 206 OBJ: 3

20. Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost-effectiveness.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 208 OBJ: 3

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 208 OBJ: 3

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 212 OBJ: 3

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 212 OBJ: 3

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 214 OBJ: 4

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 214 OBJ: 4

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 216 OBJ: 4

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ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 217 OBJ: 4