Q1-Enamel rods in the gingival one-third of primary teeth incline:

A. Horizontally
B. Occlusally
C. Apically
D. Gingivally
E. Occlusally in molars and horizontally in incisors

Q2-Regarding occlusal evaluation for 3-6 years old, which of the following statements is not true?

A. The ideal arch in the primary dentition has spacing between the teeth. Two types of spaces
are identified. Primate space is located mesial to the maxillary canine and distal to the
mandibular canine
B. The presence of primate and developmental spacing ensure that the dentition will erupt
without crowding.
C. Anterior open bite is usually indicative of a sucking habit in this age group.
D. The majority of posterior crossbites are due to constriction of the maxillary arch.
E. Studies indicate that ankylosed primary teeth exfoliate normally and allow normal eruption
of succedaneous teeth.

Q3-Regarding caries-risk assessment tool, which of the following statement/s is/are true?

A Child with only one area of initial caries is considered a low risk.

B. Caries free child with clinical evidences of gingivitis should be always considered as high risk.

C. When active caries present in mother the child should be recognized as moderate risk.

D. All children wearing any type of orthodontic appliance are always considered as high risk

E. All of the above statements are true.

Q4-Dental home should be established by 1 months of age to help children and their families institute a
lifetime of good oral health. Dental home focuses only on preventive aspects of oral health care.

A. The first statement is true the second is false

B. The first statement is false, the second is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Q5-Original dental lamina shows the first signs of activity at:

A. 4 weeks intrauterine.
B. 6 weeks intrauterine.
C. 8 weeks intrauterine.
D. 6 months intrauterine.
E. 4 months intrauterine.

Q6-During extraction of the maxillary/left primary second (molar, the initial movement after applying
the forceps is:

A. Buccal
B. Palatal
C. Mesial
D. Distal

07-Crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:

A. 1-2 months in utero.

B. 2-3 months in utero.
C. 4-6 months in utero.
D. 8-9 months in utero.

Q8-Toxic doses of local anaesthetic agents have the following effect/ effects on the central nervous
system:

A. Excitation followed by depression.

B. Depression followed by excitation.
C. Jxcitation only.
D. Lepression only.

Q9-A draining fistula associated with a tooth with a deep carious lesion is an obvious clinical sign of an
irreversibly diseased pulp/Such infections can be resolved only by pulpotomy or pulpectomy.

A. First statement is true, the second is false.

B. First statement is false, the second is true.

C. Both statements are true.

D. both statements are false.

Q10-If tooth is present at the time of birth it is known as:

A. Neonatal tooth.
B. Perinatal tooth
C. natal tooth.
D. Prenatal tooth

Q11-Ulcers commonly seen in ventral surface of tongue and lingual vestibule in children

due to mucosal irritation is known as:

A. Crohns disease.
B. Rega feda
C. Darrier disease.
D. Ranula

Q12-Epstein pearls are:

A. Formed along the midpalatineraphe and are considered remnants of epithelial tissue trapped
along the raphe as the fetus grew.
B. Are found on the crests of the maxillary and mandibular dental ridges
C. Originate from the dental lamina.
D. Are considered remnants of salivary gland tissue.

Q13-Which of the following not found in trisomy 21 syndrome: (Anomalier)

A. Orbits are small and eyes slope upwards.

B. Some show congenital heart defects,
C. Some of the primary teeth are retained till age 15.
D. Absence of clavicles.
Q14- Which of the following not true about cleidocranial dysplasia:

A. fontanels are large and radiographs of the head show open sutures
B. Sinus are small especially the frontal one.-
C. Increased mandibular lengths and short cranial bases hence prognathism.
D. very early exfoliation of primary dentition.

Q15-The most commonly used lining for indirect pulp capping in primary teeth is:

A. Calcium hydroxide powder

B. MTA
C. Zinc oxide engenol
D. Polycarboxylate cement

Q16-Indication of pulpotomy include:

A. a non-vital tooth associated with an abscess.

B. a vita! tooth with accidental opening.
C. presence of pus in the exposure site without pain.
D. a vital tooth with profuse bleeding from pulp.

Q17-Which of the following diagnostic criteria is least reliable in assessing pulp status in the primary
dentition?

A. Swelling

B. Pulp testing

C. Spontaneous pain

D. Internal resorption
Q18-compared to permanent tooth abscess a primary tooth abscess is a more diffuse infection because:

A. Surrounding alveolar bone is less dense

B. Roots of the primary tooth are farther apart.
C. Pain is less and therefore the abscess is not detected early
D. Young patients are less resistant to infection.

Q19-Buckley's formocresol contains:

A. Prednisolone and calcium hydroxide.

B. Formaldehyde tricresol and glycerine.
C. Formaldehyde CMCP tricresol and glycerine.
D. Formocresol and calcium hydroxide.

Q20-A 5-year-old boy presents to you with intermittent pain in the lower right quadrant of his mouth
that seems to occur spontaneously/Intraoral examination reveals a mesial carious cavity on his right
mandibular second primary molar/The tooth is not tender to palpation or percussion The bitewing
radiograph reveals furcation radiolucency with normal root structure. Your treatment recommendation
is:

A. Apexogenesis
B. Pulpectomy
C. Pulpoto y
D. Indirect pulp therapy

Q21-The management of a non-vital lower primary second molar with extensive alveolar bone damage
in a 4-years-old child is

A. Extraction and space management

B. Non-vital pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. Formocresol pulpotomy
Q22-The best restoration for a hypomineralised permanent first molar with post- eruptive breakdown
involving two surfaces and two cusps in a 10 years old presenting with 'Molar-incisor
Hypomineralisation' is:

A. Amalgam restoration

B. Composite resin restoration

C. Resin modified glass-ionomer restoration

D. Stainless steel crown

Q23-What is the position of the developing crowns of permanent incisors in relation to

the roots of the primary incisors:

A. Buccally placed and with a labial inclination.

B. Lingually placed and with a labial inclination.

C. Buccally placed and with a lingual inclination.

D. Lingually placed and with a lingual inclination.

Q24-Ionizing radiation has a cumulative effect/children are more prone to radiation induced
carcinogenesis than adults:

A. The first statement is true, the second is false.

B. The first statement is false, the second is true.
C. Both statement are true
D. Both statements are false
Regarding behaviour management techniques, choose the most appropriate nswer for each statement:
(1 mark per each statement).

tell-show-do

b) voice control

c) positive reinforcement

d) distraction

e) Nonverbal communication

f) conscious sedation

g) general anesthesia

h) hand-over-mouth

i) nitrous oxide

j) physical restraint.

 Any ASA class I or II patients who cannot cooperate due to lack of psychological/ emotional
maturity. i
 Cannot cooperate due to immaturity, mental or physical disability, failure of other management
technique/safety of patient/practitioner would be at risk. j
 All patients who can communicate regardless of communication. e
 Healthy child who is able to understand and cooperate, but elects to display defiant,
obstreperous, or hysterical avoidance behaviors h
 Diverting patient's attention from perceived unpleasant procedure d
 Contraindicated in healthy, cooperative patient with minimal dental needs. g
Q26-Regarding pulp treatment in primary dentition, match the following:

a) Indirect pulp capping

(b) direct pulp capping

c) pulpotomy

d) pulpectomy

 Strategic necrotic Loth for arch development pulpectomy

 Carious/iatrogenic pulp exposure/coronal pulp affected/infected as judged by clinical and
radiographic means, tooth is restorable pulpotomy
 Objectives: preservation of vitality, arrest of caries advance, formation of tertiary dentin indirect
pulp Capping
 Treatment of choice when we are dealing with carious second primary molar,
Spontaneous pair, slight mobility. pulpectomy.

Q27-Regarding Patient management, which of the following statements are true and which are false: (1
mark per each statement).

 Unlike adults/children cannot be influenced by the processes attending many events perceived
as fearsome/ stressful, or both, including various dental procedures. false
 Emotional and cognitive elements in the pain process have critical roles in the degree of pain
awareness. true
 Behaviour management is the means by which the dental health team effectively and efficiently
performs treatment for a child and, at the same time without wasting extra time trying to in still
a positive dental attitude. true
 Voice control requires the dentist to interject more authority into his or her communication with
the child. true
 Positive reinforcement, distraction, and nonverbal communication are management types that
can be used for any patient. true
Q28-Answer the following questions by writing T in the blank next to the true statement, and F next to
the false statement: (1 mark per each statement).

A. During extraction of primary dentition blind investigation of the socket can be done in cases of
granulomas. false
B. mucocele is the most benign salivary gland tumors. true
C. Marsupialization is process by which total removal of a cystic lesion is achieved. false
D. Severe tooth ache at night signals extensive degeneration of the pulp and calls for more than
conservative pulp therapy. true
E. Electric and thermal pulp tests are reliable in both primary and permanent dentition. false
F. Use of calcium hydroxide of MTA can be recommended in the treatment of primary and
permanent dentition with carious exposures when there is a pathologic change in the pulp at
the exposure site. false
G. Buckley's original formula for formocresol calls for equal parts of formaldehyde and cresol. false
H. it is very important to retain and treat the second primary molar especially if the first permanent
molar has not yet erupted to prevent mestal drift of the latter. true
I. Zinc oxide eugenol and gutta percha are good pulpectomy filling materials for the primary
dentition. false
J. During preparation of stainless steel crowns the buccal and lingual cervical bulges can be left
uncut if they do not interfere in the placement of the crown.. true
K. From the indications for pulpectomy in primary dentition are radiographic sign of calcific
globules in pulp chamber and caries penetrating the floor of pulp chamber and those can be
contraindications for pulpotomy. true
L. Management of dental caries includes identification of an individual's risk for caries progression
understanding of the disease process for that individual, and active surveillance to assess
disease progression and manage with appropriate preventive services supplemented by
restorative therapy when indicated. true
M. Fluoride is released from glass ionomer and taken up by the surrounding enamel and dentin,
resulting in teeth that are less susceptible to acid challenge. true
N. with infections of the lower portion of the face patients usually complain of facial pain fever and
malaise infection of the upper portion of the face usually involve pain swelling and trismus."
lower false
O. During extraction radiographic examination is mandatory in all cases to check the root anatomy
discrepancies. true
P. The maximum recommended dosage for children of atricaine 4% wilt 1/100000 epinephrine is
.4mg/kg. false
Q. Any sign of smooth-surface caries in a child younger than three years of age a diagnosis of
severe early childhood caries. True
R. When compared to roots of permanent molars, roots of primary molars are more slender and
flared.true