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1. Normal visual sensation in the absence of complete visual perception is best illustrated
by
A) prosopagnosia.
B) priming.
C) the difference threshold.
D) sensory adaptation.
2. The process of detecting and encoding stimulus energies by the sensory receptors and
the nervous system is called
A) priming.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) top-down processing.
D) sensation.
3. Jake's excellent peripheral vision enabled him to detect a brief flash of light far to his
left, even though he couldn't recognize what he had seen. His experience best illustrates
A) top-down processing.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensation.
D) priming.
4. Perception is the process by which

A) stimulus energies are detected.
B) stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity.
C) sensory input is organized and interpreted.
D) nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus.
5. Recognizing an odor as the familiar smell of apple blossoms is an example of

A) perception.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) subliminal stimulation.
6. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.

A) encoding; detection
B) detection; interpretation
C) interpretation; organization
D) organization; accommodation
Page 1
7. Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the
sound sequence as a familiar melody is to ________.
A) absolute threshold; difference threshold
B) sensory adaptation; signal detection
C) signal detection; sensory adaptation
D) sensation; perception
8. Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the

A) hypothalamus.
B) sensory receptors.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) absolute threshold.
9. Berdine has developed cataracts in both eyes, preventing her from being able to identify
even her mother's face. Berdine most clearly is deficient in
A) priming.
B) perceptual set.
C) bottom-up processing.
10. Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes is called

A) prosopagnosia.
B) signal detection.
D) transduction.
11. Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may
experience increased postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of
A) subliminal stimulation.
C) difference thresholds.
D) top-down processing.
12. Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to
the brain.
A) adaptation, stimulation, and detection
B) receiving, transforming, and delivering
C) priming, tracking, and masking
D) signal detection, transduction, and sensory adaptation
Page 2
13. Which of the following represents the first of three steps basic to all sensory systems?
A) forming perceptual sets
B) delivering neural information to the brain
C) receiving sensory stimulation
D) transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses
14. The process by which our sensory systems transform stimulus energies into neural
impulses is called
A) priming.
C) transduction.
D) signal detection.
15. The conversion of a fresh coffee aroma into neural impulses by sensory receptor cells
best illustrates
A) top-down processing.
B) transduction.
D) priming.
16. Pain receptors trigger neural impulses in response to a sprain or a burn. This illustrates
A) priming.
B) transduction.
C) subliminal stimulation.
17. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of
the time is called the
A) masking stimulus.
B) just noticeable difference.
C) perceptual set.
D) absolute threshold.
18. Which early scientist and philosopher was the first to refer to our awareness of very
faint stimuli as an indication of our absolute thresholds?
A) Anthony Greenwald
B) Gustav Fechner
C) Dennis Proffitt
D) Ernst Weber
Page 3
19. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that
Mr. Antall could hardly detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's
A) perceptual set.
B) absolute threshold.
C) prosopagnosia.
D) difference threshold.
20. If a partially deaf person's hearing ability ________, his or her absolute threshold for
sound ________.
A) improves; remains unchanged
B) worsens; decreases
C) worsens; remains unchanged
D) improves; decreases
21. Which theory predicts when we will first notice a faint stimulus presented amid
competing background stimulation?
A) place theory
B) frequency theory
C) signal detection theory
D) opponent-process theory
22. Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level
of that person's absolute thresholds?
A) signal detection theory
B) frequency theory
C) opponent-process theory
D) place theory
23. Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could lower your
absolute threshold for sound as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
A) place theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) frequency theory
D) signal detection theory
Page 4
24. Lonely, anxious people at speed-dating events respond with a ________ threshold, and
thus tend to be ________ in reaching out to potential dates.
A) low; unselective
B) high; unselective
C) low; overly selective
D) high; overly selective
25. A subliminal message is one that is presented

A) below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness.
B) in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive.
C) with very soft background music.
D) repetitiously.
26. Priming refers to the activation of certain

A) conscious motives.
B) difference thresholds.
C) nerve cells.
D) associations.
27. In experiments, an image is quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus
that inhibits conscious perception of the original image. In these experiments, the
researchers are studying the effects of
A) sensory adaptation.
B) the just noticeable difference.
C) priming.
D) prosopagnosia.
28. After a photo of a nude man or woman was flashed and immediately masked before
being perceived, people's attention was unconsciously drawn to images in a way that
reflected their
A) perceptual set.
B) absolute threshold.
C) sexual orientation.
Page 5
29. Tyler formed a positive first impression of a new teacher because her facial expressions
triggered memories of his favorite aunt. This best illustrates the impact of
A) priming.
B) prosopagnosia.
D) Weber's law.
30. People's response to subliminal priming indicates that

A) they are capable of processing information without any conscious awareness of
doing so.
B) their unconscious mind is incapable of resisting subliminally presented
suggestions.
C) they are more sensitive to subliminal sounds than to subliminal sights.
D) they experience a sense of discomfort whenever they are exposed to subliminal
stimuli.
31. Subliminally presented stimuli

A) can sometimes be consciously perceived.
B) effectively influence purchases of consumer goods.
C) increase our absolute thresholds for visual images.
D) are usually mentally processed as completely as any other stimuli.
32. Which of the following strategies best illustrates the use of subliminal stimulation?
A) A store plays a musical soundtrack in which a faint and imperceptible verbal
warning against shoplifting is repeated frequently.
B) The laughter of a studio audience is dubbed into the soundtrack of a televised
situation comedy.
C) A radio advertiser repeatedly smacks her lips before biting into a candy bar.
D) An unseen television narrator repeatedly suggests that you are thirsty while a cold
drink is visually displayed on the screen.
33. Experiments evaluating the impact of subliminal messages for improving memory
indicated that they
A) interfere with people's capacity for sensory adaptation.
B) did not help more than a placebo.
C) improve people's capacity for transduction.
D) have a positive long-lasting impact on people's health.
Page 6
34. The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the
time is called
A) signal detection.
B) the absolute threshold.
C) perceptual set.
D) the just noticeable difference.
35. Jennifer can tune her guitar more effectively than Maria because Jennifer is better at
detecting whether specific strings are playing too sharp or too flat. With respect to tone
sensitivity, Maria apparently has a ________ threshold than does Jennifer.
A) lower absolute
B) higher absolute
C) smaller difference
D) larger difference
36. The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum proportion for their
difference to be perceived is known as
A) prosopagnosia.
B) Weber's law.
C) signal detection.
37. Giulio's bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Jim's. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make
Jim's bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Giulio's bag feel heavier.
This best illustrates
A) bottom-up processing.
B) perceptual set.
D) Weber's law.
38. Sensory adaptation refers to

A) the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
B) diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
C) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.
D) the effect of our expectations on perception.
Page 7
39. After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how
loudly the music is blasting. This best illustrates
A) Weber's law.
B) subliminal stimulation.
D) prosopagnosia.
40. The constant quivering movements of our eyes enable us to

A) focus the light on the back of our eyes.
B) adjust the amount of light entering our eyes.
C) minimize sensory adaptation.
D) do all of these things.
41. After gazing at an angry face, you immediately turn to look at a morphed blend of an
angry and a scared face. The face appears scared to you. This best illustrates the impact
of
A) Weber's law.
C) subliminal sensation.
D) prosopagnosia.
42. A perceptual set refers to

A) an unnoticed image that activates certain associated memories.
B) an inability to recognize familiar faces or voices.
C) a diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
D) a mental predisposition that influences what we perceive.
43. After learning that her new college roommate had experienced several depressive
episodes during her high school years, Erin incorrectly perceived her roommate's
laughter as artificial and phony. This best illustrates the impact of
A) difference thresholds.
B) perceptual set.
C) subliminal persuasion.
D) prosopagnosia.
Page 8
44. When researchers added a few drops of vinegar to a brand-name beer, the beer tasters
disliked it only if they had been told they were drinking vinegar-laced beer. This best
illustrates the impact of
B) prosopagnosia.
C) perceptual set.
45. After hearing rumors about the outbreak of an infectious disease, Alyosha began to
perceive his normal aches and pains as disease-related symptoms. His reaction best
illustrates the impact of
C) subliminal stimulation.
D) perceptual set.
46. The tendency to perceive a moving light in the night sky as belonging to an airplane
rather than a meteor best illustrates the impact of
A) signal detection.
C) perceptual set.
D) bottom-up processing.
47. A concept that helps us to interpret ambiguous sensations is called a

B) schema.
C) signal detector.
D) masking stimulus.
48. The influence of schemas on our interpretations of unfamiliar information best

illustrates
A) context effects.
B) top-down processing.
C) bottom-up processing.
Page 9
49. Stereotypes are mental conceptions that can strongly influence the way we interpret the
behaviors of individuals belonging to specific racial or ethnic groups. A stereotype is
most similar to a
A) signal detector.
C) perceptual set.
50. Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different
surroundings. This best illustrates
A) prosopagnosia.
B) Weber's law.
C) context effects.
51. In one study, a pictured woman was perceived by some as balancing a box on her head
and by others as sitting under a window. The study best illustrated that perceptions are
influenced by
B) masking stimuli.
C) context effects.
D) subliminal sensation.
52. Although Sue Yen sees her chemistry professor several times a week, she didn't
recognize the professor when she saw her in the grocery store. This best illustrates the
importance of
A) bottom-up processing.
B) context effects.
C) priming.
53. When Rick learned that many students had received a failing grade on the midterm
exam, he was no longer disappointed by his C grade. His experience best illustrates the
importance of
B) subliminal sensation.
C) context effects.
D) masking stimuli.
Page 10
54. While listening to sad rather than happy music, people are more likely to perceive a
spoken word as mourning rather than morning. This best illustrates that perception is
influenced by
B) subliminal stimuli.
C) Weber's law.
55. Scary-sounding music accompanied a movie scene in which mountain climbers scaled a
steep slope. The fact that the music made the climbing appear more dangerous to
viewers illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
A) emotion.
C) prosopagnosia.
56. A softball may appear smaller to batters who are discouraged by their poor performance
than to batters who are hitting well. This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced
by
A) Weber's law.
B) emotion.
D) absolute thresholds.
57. To those throwing a very heavy rather than a light object at a target, the target is likely
to be perceived as
A) softer.
B) slower moving.
C) larger.
D) farther away.
58. We may perceive a bottle of fruit juice as less expensive when we are most thirsty. This
best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
A) subliminal stimulation.
B) masking stimuli.
D) motivation.
Page 11
59. Humans experience the longest visible electromagnetic waves as the color ________
and the shortest visible waves as ________.
A) blue-violet; red
B) red; green
C) red; blue-violet
D) black; white
60. The wavelength of visible light determines its

A) relative luminance.
B) amplitude.
C) difference threshold.
D) hue.
61. The perceived brightness of visible light waves is determined by their

A) relative motion.
B) difference threshold.
C) amplitude.
D) frequency.
62. Brightness is to intensity as hue is to

A) amplitude.
B) color.
C) pitch.
D) wavelength.
63. For her birthday, Amy received flowers that had a dull red appearance. Compared with
the entire range of visible light waves, the flowers reflected relatively ________
frequency and ________ amplitude light waves.
A) high; small
B) high; great
C) low; small
D) low; great
64. Light first enters the eye through the front surface structure known as the
A) fovea.
B) pupil.
C) cornea.
D) retina.
Page 12
65. The pupil is the
A) adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters.
B) transparent structure that focuses light rays in a process called accommodation.
C) light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing both rods and cones.
D) central focal point in the retina, around which the eye's cones cluster.
66. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the

A) iris.
B) retina.
C) optic nerve.
D) feature detectors.
67. Which process allows more light to reach the retina?

A) accommodation of the lens
B) transduction of the blind spot
C) dilation of the pupil
D) perceptual adaptation of feature detectors
68. The colored muscle that constricts when you feel disgust or enter a dark room is the
A) cornea.
B) iris.
C) retina.
D) fovea.
69. Paul is feeling romantic toward his wife. She is most likely to detect his interest in her
by changes in the appearance of his eyes caused by
A) accommodation of the lens.
B) dilation of the pupils.
C) increased retinal disparity.
D) disappearance of the blind spot.
70. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curve and thickness of the
A) rods and cones.
B) lens.
C) bipolar cells.
D) optic nerve.
Page 13
71. Accommodation refers to the
A) diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
B) quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
C) process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural messages.
D) process by which the lens changes shape to focus images on the retina.
72. Which of the following is the correct order in which the retina's neural layers process
visual stimulation?
A) ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells
B) rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells
C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells, rods and cones
D) rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells
73. Which cells for visual processing are located closest to the back of the retina?
A) ganglion cells
B) bipolar cells
C) rods and cones
D) feature detectors
74. Neural impulses are transmitted to bipolar cells when light energy enters the eye and
triggers ________ in the rods and cones.
A) top-down processing
B) constriction
C) accommodation
D) chemical changes
75. The axons of ganglion cells converge to form

A) the lens.
B) bipolar cells.
C) the cornea.
D) the optic nerve.
76. The blind spot is located in the area of the retina

A) called the fovea.
B) that contains rods but no cones.
C) where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
D) where bipolar cells connect with ganglion cells.
Page 14
77. The fovea refers to
A) the outer protective surface of the eye.
B) a colored muscle that adjusts light intake.
C) an area of the thalamus that receives information from the optic nerve.
D) the central focal point in the retina.
78. Objects to your ________ would be most likely to fall into your right eye's blind spot
because the blind spot is located on the side of each retina that is ________ to the nose.
A) right; closest
B) left; closest
C) right; farthest
D) left; farthest
79. The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in
the cone's message.
A) rod
B) ganglion cell
C) blind spot
D) bipolar cell
80. Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of
light?
A) rods
B) cones
C) bipolar cells
D) feature detectors
81. Rods are

A) more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
B) less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
C) more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
D) less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
82. Damage to the fovea would probably have the LEAST effect on visual sensitivity to
________ stimuli.
A) brilliantly colored
B) finely detailed
C) dimly illuminated
D) highly familiar
Page 15
83. When a power outage shut off the lights in her house late one night, Shelly could see
very little. But within 20 minutes she could see quite well in the dark due to
A) visual afterimages.
B) retinal disparity.
C) pupil dilation.
D) color constancy.
84. The encoding and analysis of visual information begin within the neural layers of the
A) lens.
B) optic nerve.
C) retina.
D) thalamus.
85. When we are exposed to the narrow band of wavelengths visible to the human eye, we
see a red object as red because it rejects waves of
A) blue-violet light.
B) red light.
C) green light.
D) yellow light.
86. A genetically sex-linked characteristic accounts for the greater incidence of

A) retinal disparity among females than among males.
B) visual afterimages among males than among females.
C) accommodation among females than among males.
D) color-deficient vision among males than among females.
87. Who first hypothesized that the eye must have three different types of color receptors,
with each especially sensitive to one of the three primary colors?
A) Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk
B) David Hubel and Torsten Weisel
C) Thomas Young and Hermann von Helmholtz
D) John Locke and William Molyneux
88. Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and
still others to blue light is most directly supportive of
A) place theory.
B) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
C) Kant's theory.
D) the opponent-process theory.
Page 16
89. According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red-sensitive and green-sensitive
cones are stimulated simultaneously, a person should see
A) red.
B) yellow.
C) blue.
D) green.
90. Who first proposed the opponent-process theory of color vision?

A) Isaac Newton
B) Ewald Hering
C) Adelbert Ames
D) Herman von Helmholtz
91. Ewald Hering found a clue to the mystery of color vision in

A) blindsight.
B) afterimages.
C) retinal disparity.
D) the Moon illusion.
92. When most people stare first at a blue circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface,
the afterimage of the circle appears
A) yellow.
B) red.
C) green.
D) blue.
93. People with color-deficient vision for red and green may still see yellow. This is most
easily explained by
A) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
B) Locke's theory.
C) frequency theory.
D) the opponent-process theory.
94. Opponent-process cells have been located in the

A) retina and the thalamus.
B) cornea and the lens.
C) lens and the retina.
D) thalamus and the hypothalamus.
Page 17
95. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are turned “on” by
A) green light are turned “off” by blue light.
B) yellow light are turned “off” by red light.
C) green light are turned “off” by red light.
D) red light are turned “off” by blue light.
96. The processing of color begins with the activation of ________, followed by the
activation of ________.
A) opponent-process cells; cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, yellow, or
blue
B) cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, yellow, or blue; opponent-process
cells
C) opponent-process cells; cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, green, or blue
D) cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, green, or blue; opponent-process cells
97. Visual information is processed by

A) feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones.
B) ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors.
C) bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones.
D) feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells.
98. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of

A) nerve cells in the brain.
B) rods and cones.
C) bipolar cells.
D) ganglion cells.
99. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel respond to specific aspects of
A) a visual scene.
B) a musical recording.
C) pain sensations.
D) familiar odors.
100. When we look at a clock showing 8 A.M., certain brain cells in our visual cortex are
more responsive than when the hands show 10 A.M. This is most indicative of
A) retinal disparity.
B) feature detection.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) accommodation.
Page 18
101. Teams of neurons in the temporal lobe enable us to identify a familiar chair by
recognizing its unique visual patterns. These neural teams have been called
A) optic nerves.
B) ganglion cells.
C) supercell clusters.
D) bipolar cells.
102. An area of the brain dedicated to the specialized task of recognizing faces is located in
the right ________ lobe.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) temporal
103. Simultaneously analyzing distinct subunits of information received by different areas of

the brain is known as
A) interposition.
B) perceptual adaptation.
C) parallel processing.
D) feature detection.
104. The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a
song best illustrates
B) accommodation.
D) parallel processing.
105. The human ability to speedily recognize familiar objects best illustrates the value of
A) closure.
B) afterimages.
106. Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are
able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates
C) accommodation.
D) blindsight.
Page 19
107. People who demonstrate blindsight have most likely suffered damage to their
A) cornea.
B) lens.
C) fovea.
D) visual cortex.
108. Early in the twentieth century, a group of German psychologists noticed that people tend
to organize a cluster of sensations into a(n)
A) parallel process.
B) monocular cue.
C) afterimage.
D) gestalt.
109. A gestalt is best described as a(n)

A) binocular cue.
B) illusion.
C) organized whole.
D) linear perspective.
110. Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of
A) blindsight.
111. The organizational rules identified by Gestalt psychologists illustrate that

A) perception is the same as sensation.
B) we learn to perceive the world through experience.
C) the perceived whole may exceed the sum of its parts.
D) sensation has no effect on perception.
112. The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called

A) linear perspective.
B) perceptual constancy.
C) figure-ground perception.
D) interposition.
Page 20
113. Visually perceiving words as distinct from the surrounding white paper on which they
are printed best illustrates
B) figure-ground perception.
C) visual afterimage.
D) perceptual adaptation.
114. As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that
appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a
A) figure.
B) binocular cue.
C) ground.
115. Figure is to ground as ________ is to ________.

A) form; substance
B) looking up; looking down
C) sensation; perception
D) a white cloud; blue sky
116. The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near each other is called
A) interposition.
B) perceptual constancy.
C) proximity.
D) closure.
117. Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, so Ruth
perceived that they were all members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the
organizational principle of
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
118. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that

A) sensations are organized into meaningful patterns.
B) perception is the direct product of sensation.
C) cultural experiences shape perception.
D) visual information is especially likely to capture our attention.
Page 21
119. The perception of the letter “t” as two intersecting lines rather than as four
nonintersecting lines illustrates the principle of
A) linear perspective.
B) proximity.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
120. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a
whole object is called
A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) continuity.
D) proximity.
121. Although a few keys on the piano were broken, Shana mentally filled in the missing
notes of the familiar melodies. This best illustrates the principle of
A) proximity.
B) closure.
C) blindsight.
D) interposition.
122. When hearing the words “eel is on the wagon,” you would likely perceive the first word
as “wheel.” Given “eel is on the orange,” you would likely perceive the first word as
“peel.” This context effect best illustrates the organizational principle of
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
C) closure.
D) accommodation.
123. The ability to see objects in three dimensions is most essential for making judgments of
A) continuity.
B) distance.
C) relative luminance.
D) color constancy.
Page 22
124. When Kristy saw her mother and sister running toward her, she quickly recognized that
her sister was running ahead of her mother. This best illustrates Kristy's capacity for
B) closure.
C) depth perception.
D) relative luminance.
125. The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants.
A) size constancy
B) accommodation
C) depth perception
D) perceptual adaptation
126. Caroline wonders whether her 10-month-old daughter can perceive depth well enough
to avoid crawling over the edge of a tall platform in her church auditorium. Researchers
could safely assess her daughter's perceptual ability using
A) a visual afterimage.
B) a Necker cube.
C) a visual cliff.
D) the Moon illusion.
127. Infants who were exposed to the visual cliff

A) tried to climb up the cliff if their mother was at the top.
B) gave no evidence that they could perceive depth.
C) refused to cross the glass over the cliff to their mothers.
D) eagerly crossed to their mothers by means of the “bridge” provided.
128. Retinal disparity is an important cue for

A) perceiving color.
B) shape constancy.
C) perceiving distance.
D) brightness constancy.
129. Retinal disparity refers to the

A) tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance.
B) tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object.
C) somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object.
D) inability to distinguish figure from ground.
Page 23
130. Holding two index fingers in front of the eyes can create the perception of a floating
finger sausage. This best illustrates the effect of
A) relative height.
C) interposition.
131. John has more difficulty hitting baseballs that are pitched to him than his classmates do
because he was born blind in his right eye. His difficulty can best be attributed to his
lack of the depth cue known as
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
132. Indicators of distance such as interposition and linear perspective are

A) visual cliffs.
B) feature detectors.
C) monocular cues.
D) cataracts.
133. Relative height is a cue involving our perception of objects higher in our field of vision
as
A) brighter.
B) farther away.
C) hazier.
D) smaller.
134. If you stared at a house to you walked down a street, the trees in front of the house
would appear to be moving
A) in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the opposite direction as you.
B) in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the opposite direction to you.
C) in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the same direction as you.
D) in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the same direction as you.
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135. If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal
image is perceived to be
A) moving faster.
B) less hazy.
C) more distant.
D) closer.
136. As the farmer looked across her field, the parallel rows of young corn plants appeared to
converge in the distance. This provided her with a distance cue known as
A) proximity.
B) linear perspective.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
137. The monocular depth cue in which an object blocking another object is perceived as
closer is
A) interposition.
B) relative height.
C) continuity.
138. Which of the following is a cue used by artists to convey depth on a flat canvas?
A) proximity
B) continuity
C) interposition
D) closure
139. Our assumption that light typically comes from above us contributes most directly to the
importance of ________ as a monocular cue for depth perception.
A) interposition
B) retinal disparity
C) light and shadow
D) linear perspective
140. Perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change is
known as
A) interposition.
B) blindsight.
C) perceptual constancy.
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141. Our capacity for perceptual constancy even as illumination and retinal image change
illustrates the importance of
B) proximity.
D) blindsight.
142. Color constancy refers to the fact that

A) light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lighting.
B) objects are perceived to be the same color even if the light they reflect changes.
C) the perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness.
D) the frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light's wavelength.
143. To experience color constancy, we should view things

A) from very short distances.
B) for long periods of time.
C) under low levels of illumination.
D) in relation to surrounding objects.
144. Jody's horse looks just as black in the brilliant sunlight as it does in the dim light of the
stable. This illustrates what is known as
A) interposition.
B) accommodation.
C) brightness constancy.
D) continuity.
145. Brightness constancy is most clearly facilitated by

A) proximity.
B) interposition.
D) retinal disparity.
146. The amount of light reflected by an object relative to the amount reflected by
surrounding objects is called
A) continuity.
B) interposition.
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147. Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students
typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of
A) size constancy.
B) linear perspective.
C) shape constancy.
D) binocular cues.
148. As the retinal image of a horse galloping toward you becomes larger, it is unlikely that
the horse will appear to grow larger. This best illustrates the importance of
B) size constancy.
C) closure.
D) relative motion.
149. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived
A) shape.
B) color.
C) distance.
D) motion.
150. If two objects cast retinal images of the same size, the object that appears to be closer is
perceived as ________ the object that appears to be more distant.
A) overlapping
B) smaller than
C) larger than
D) the same size as
151. Because she mistakenly thought she was much closer to the mountain than she actually
was, Fiona perceived the mountain to be ________ than it actually was.
A) higher
B) smaller
C) more richly colorful
D) larger
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152. When the Moon is near the horizon, it appears larger than when it is high in the sky.
This effect is primarily a result of
A) the slightly dimmer appearance of the horizon Moon.
B) the scattering of the horizon Moon's light waves, which penetrate the atmosphere at
an angle.
C) monocular distance cues, which make the horizon Moon seem farther away.
D) the brighter appearance of the horizon Moon.
153. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size
helps us to understand
A) the Moon illusion.
B) blindsight.
C) shape constancy.
154. The tendency to hear the steady drip of a leaky sink faucet as if it were a repeating
rhythm of two or more beats best illustrates
A) interposition.
B) perceptual organization.
155. Who emphasized that perceptual understanding comes from inborn ways of organizing
sensory experience?
A) Immanuel Kant
B) Aristotle
C) John Locke
D) Sigmund Freud
156. The ability of newborn infants to perceive depth best serves to support the views of
A) John Locke.
B) Immanuel Kant.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) Aristotle.
157. The philosopher John Locke believed that people

A) learn to perceive the world through experience.
B) are endowed at birth with perceptual skills.
C) perceive whole figures as greater than the sum of their parts.
D) are unable to adapt to an inverted visual world.
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158. John Locke is to Immanuel Kant as ________ is to ________.
A) figure; ground
B) perception; sensation
C) nurture; nature
D) experience; learning
159. Lenore had been blind from birth. Immediately after corrective eye surgery, she could
visually perceive figure-ground relationships. This fact would serve to support the
position advanced by
A) Immanuel Kant.
B) Thomas Young.
C) Ewald Hering.
D) John Locke.
160. If an adult who was blind from birth gains the ability to see, that person would have the
greatest difficulty visually distinguishing
A) ice cubes from golf balls.
B) the Sun from the Moon.
C) red from green.
D) a white cloud from the blue sky.
161. A clouding of the lens of the eye is called a

A) blind spot.
B) cataract.
C) visual cliff.
D) gestalt.
162. Rebecca was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years
old. As a result, Rebecca is most likely to
A) have lost visual receptor cells in her eyes.
B) be unable to perceive figure-ground relationships.
C) have inadequate neural connections in her visual cortex.
D) be unable to sense colors.
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163. Sensory restriction is much more likely to hinder visual development in early infancy
than during other times of life. This suggests that there is a(n) ________ for normal
visual development.
A) difference threshold
B) accommodation
C) critical period
D) blind spot
164. The ability to adjust to changed sensory input is called

B) accommodation.
D) shape constancy.
165. Research with distorting goggles best supports the view of human perception advanced
by
A) John Locke.
B) Hermann von Helmholtz.
C) Immanuel Kant.
D) Ewald Hering.
166. Although he was wearing a pair of glasses that shifted the apparent location of objects
20 degrees to his right, after a short practice time Lars was still able to play tennis very
effectively. This best illustrates the value of
B) shape constancy.
167. Our sense of hearing is known as

A) the vestibular sense.
B) kinesthesia.
C) audition.
D) tinnitus.
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168. The process of transforming air pressure waves into neural messages that the brain
interprets as meaningful sound is known as
A) sensory interaction.
B) the vestibular sense.
C) kinesthesia.
D) audition.
169. The loudness of sounds is determined by the ________ of sound waves.

A) length
B) telepathy
C) amplitude
D) frequency
170. The high notes on a piano always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes.
A) greater-amplitude
B) smaller-amplitude
C) higher-frequency
D) lower-frequency
171. High-frequency sound waves are to ________ as low-frequency sound waves are to
________.
A) a loud voice; a soft voice
B) a high-pitched voice; a low-pitched voice
C) a soft voice; a loud voice
D) a low-pitched voice; a high-pitched voice
172. The absolute threshold for hearing is defined as zero

A) decibels.
B) amps.
C) ESPs.
D) hertz.
173. An 80-decibel sound is ________ times more intense than a 60-decibel sound.
A) 2
B) 10
C) 20
D) 100
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174. Eardrum vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the
A) vestibular sacs.
B) inner ear.
C) cochlea.
D) middle ear.
175. The bones of the middle ear relay vibrations received from the
A) cochlea.
B) eardrum.
C) vestibular sacs.
D) semicircular canals.
176. Eardrum vibrations are transmitted to the cochlea by a piston consisting of

A) protruding hair cells.
B) the basilar membrane.
C) the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.
D) vestibular sacs.
177. The surface of the basilar membrane is lined with

A) hair cells.
B) olfactory receptors.
C) nociceptors.
D) decibels.
178. The cochlea consists of

A) interconnected nerve fibers in the spinal cord.
B) a fluid-filled tube in the inner ear.
C) olfactory receptor cells at the top of each nasal cavity.
D) neural networks located within each temporal lobe.
179. On the way to the temporal lobe's auditory cortex, neural impulses from the auditory
nerve are first relayed to the
A) thalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) hippocampus.
D) hypothalamus.
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180. Damage to the hair cells lining the basilar membrane is most likely to result in
A) phantom limb sensations.
B) conduction hearing loss.
C) loss of the sense of balance.
D) sensorineural hearing loss.
181. As a rock musician who has experienced prolonged exposure to high-amplitude sounds,
Rodney is beginning to lose his hearing. It is most likely that this hearing loss involves
problems in the
A) auditory canal.
B) eardrum.
C) tiny bones of the middle ear.
D) cochlea.
182. Joe Wilson, age 55, has been told by experts that he has conduction hearing loss. It is
likely that Joe's hearing loss involves problems in the
A) inner ear.
B) middle ear.
C) auditory nerve.
D) basilar membrane.
183. Damage to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is most likely to cause
A) dissociation.
B) sensorineural hearing loss.
C) phantom limb sensations.
D) conduction hearing loss.
184. Ringing of the ears after exposure to loud music is most likely to be caused by damage
to
A) nociceptors.
B) hair cells.
C) cochlear implants.
D) bipolar cells.
185. A cochlear implant converts sounds into

A) decibels.
B) electrical signals.
C) air pressure changes.
D) fluid vibrations.
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186. The greatest number of hair cells lining the basilar membrane are activated in response
to ________ sound waves.
A) great-amplitude
B) small-amplitude
C) high-frequency
D) low-frequency
187. Place theory suggests that

A) structures in the inner ear provide us with a sense of the position of our body in
space.
B) we have a system for sensing the position and movement of the various parts of our
body.
C) we can locate the place from which a sound is emitted because of the distance
between our ears.
D) the pitch we hear is related to the place where the cochlea's basilar membrane is
stimulated.
188. Place theory was first proposed by

A) Ronald Melzack.
B) Hermann von Helmholtz.
C) Ernst Hilgard.
D) Harry McGurk.
189. After a small section of his basilar membrane was damaged, Jason experienced a
noticeable loss of hearing for high-pitched sounds only. Jason's hearing loss is best
explained by the ________ theory.
A) gate-control
B) frequency
C) dissociation
D) place
190. According to place theory, the perception of

A) low-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the eardrum closest to the
oval window.
B) high-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the eardrum closest to the
oval window.
C) low-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the basilar membrane
closest to the oval window.
D) high-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the basilar membrane
closest to the oval window.
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191. Which of the following best explains how we perceive very low-pitched sounds?
A) place theory
B) volley principle
C) frequency theory
D) dissociation theory
192. Individual nerve cells increase the frequency of neural impulses in the auditory nerve by
firing in rapid succession. This is said to illustrate
A) gate-control theory.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) the volley principle.
193. The volley principle is most directly relevant to our perception of

A) touch.
B) taste.
C) pain.
D) pitch.
194. Some combination of place theory and frequency theory appears to be most necessary in
accounting for how we sense
A) high-frequency sound waves.
B) intermediate-frequency sound waves.
C) low-frequency sound waves.
D) low-amplitude sound waves.
195. A time lag between left and right auditory stimulation is important for accurately
A) locating sounds.
B) detecting pitch.
C) recognizing rhythms.
D) judging amplitude.
196. Cocking your head would be most useful for detecting the ________ of a sound.
A) pitch
B) loudness
C) location
D) amplitude
Page 35
197. The barn owl's right ear opens slightly upward, while its left ear opens slightly
downward. This difference enables the owl to detect the ________ of a sound.
A) pitch
B) location
C) loudness
D) amplitude
198. Infant rats deprived of their mothers' grooming touch produce

A) less growth hormone and have a higher metabolic rate.
B) more growth hormone and have a lower metabolic rate.
C) less growth hormone and have a lower metabolic rate.
D) more growth hormone and have a higher metabolic rate.
199. Premature human babies gain weight faster if they are stimulated by
A) blinking lights.
B) rhythmic sounds.
C) hand massage.
D) phantom limb sensations.
200. The sense of touch includes the four basic sensations of

A) pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold.
B) pain, pressure, hot, and cold.
C) wetness, pain, hot, and cold.
D) pressure, pain, warmth, and cold.
201. Stroking adjacent pressure spots is most likely to trigger a sense of

A) being tickled.
B) itchiness.
C) tinnitus.
D) synesthesia.
202. A sensual leg caress evokes a different somatosensory cortex response when a
heterosexual man believes it comes from an attractive woman rather than a man. This
best illustrates the impact of ________ on our brain's sensory response.
A) kinesthesia
B) nociceptors
C) psychokinesis
D) cognition
Page 36
203. Men's sense of hearing tends to be ________ sensitive than women's, and women are
________ pain sensitive than men.
A) more; more
B) less; less
C) more; less
D) less; more
204. Sensory receptors in our skin that detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals are
called
A) vestibular sacs.
B) hair cells.
C) nociceptors.
D) olfactory nerves.
205. In response to a harmful stimulus, ________ initiate neural impulses leading to the
sensation of pain.
A) endorphins
B) nociceptors
C) olfactory bulbs
D) the semicircular canals
206. Which theory suggests that large-fiber activity in the spinal cord can prevent pain
signals from reaching the brain?
A) place theory
B) dissociation theory
C) gate-control theory
D) frequency theory
207. The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve
fibers activate and open a neural gate in the
A) basilar membrane.
B) semicircular canals.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) spinal cord.
Page 37
208. According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your
physical aches and pains by causing the
A) release of painkilling endorphins in your muscles.
B) activation of large nerve fibers in your spinal cord.
C) the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.
D) deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.
209. After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his
nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates
A) dissociation.
D) the McGurk effect.
210. The brain, responding to the absence of auditory stimulation, may amplify irrelevant
neural activity to produce
A) tinnitus.
B) kinesthesia.
C) sensory interaction.
D) psychokinesis.
211. After painful medical procedures, people's memory snapshots tend to overlook
A) the final moments of pain associated with the procedure.
B) the peak moments of pain associated with the procedure.
C) the total duration of the pain associated with the procedure.
D) all of these periods of pain.
212. Before eating their fifth and final piece of chocolate, experimental participants were told
that it was their “next” piece or that it was their “last” piece. Those told that it was their
“last” piece liked it ________ and rated the whole experiment as ________ enjoyable
than those told it was their “next” piece.
A) less; less
B) better; less
C) less; more
D) better; more
Page 38
213. During the mid-1980s, pockets of Australian keyboard operators suffered outbreaks of
severe pain while typing. Their pain could not be attributed to any discernible physical
abnormalities. This best illustrates the role of ________ in the perception of pain.
A) phantom limb sensations
B) psychokinesis
C) social-cultural influences
D) dissociation
214. An integrated understanding of pain control in terms of mental distraction, the release of
endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers is most clearly provided by
A) parapsychology.
B) dissociation theory.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) the volley principle.
215. The biopsychosocial approach to pain is likely to emphasize the importance of both
A) top-down and bottom-up processing.
B) frequency and place theories.
C) kinesthesia and psychokinesis.
D) telepathy and clairvoyance.
216. The brain's release of endorphins reduces

A) pain.
B) tinnitus.
C) kinesthesia.
D) sensory interaction.
217. After receiving a placebo said to reduce the pain of her sprained ankle, Suzie is most
likely to respond with a(n) ________ in her brain's release of ________,
A) decrease; nociceptors
B) decrease; endorphins
C) increase; nociceptors
D) increase; endorphins
Page 39
218. Stan continued playing with minimal pain during the closing quarter of an exciting
collegiate football game even though he had suffered a severe ankle sprain when he was
tackled. It is likely that Stan's pain was psychologically minimized by ________ and
physically minimized by the brain's release of ________.
A) synesthesia; nociceptors
B) distraction; endorphins
C) synesthesia; endorphins
D) distraction; nociceptors
219. For burn victims, a computer-generated virtual reality can help to control pain by means
of
A) synesthesia.
B) thought distraction.
D) kinesthesia.
220. Hypnosis involves a state of

A) increased physical stamina.
B) heightened openness to suggestion.
C) improved perceptual skills.
D) elevated physical arousal.
221. Research on susceptibility to hypnosis indicates that

A) very few people can actually be hypnotized.
B) people who are most easily hypnotized usually have difficulty paying attention to
their own personal thoughts and feelings.
C) how well a person responds to hypnotic suggestion depends primarily on the skill
and experience of the hypnotist.
D) people who are highly responsive to hypnotic induction are especially imaginative.
222. In surgical experiments, hypnotized patients have required ________ medication and
they have recovered ________ than patients in unhypnotized control groups.
A) less; sooner
B) more; later
C) less; no sooner
D) more; no sooner
Page 40
223. One theory suggests that hypnosis simply involves getting caught up in role-playing the
feelings and behaviors appropriate for “good hypnotic subjects.” This theory
emphasizes that hypnosis is a form of
A) dissociation.
B) synesthesia.
C) social influence.
D) phantom limb sensation.
224. Suppose that unhypnotized adults who are encouraged to behave like children act just as
genuinely childlike as hypnotized adults who are encouraged to act in a childlike
manner. This fact would most clearly support the view that hypnosis involves
A) precognition.
B) social influence.
C) psychokinesis.
D) dissociation.
225. A split in consciousness in which some thoughts occur simultaneously with and yet
separately from other thoughts is called
A) embodied cognition.
B) dissociation.
C) extrasensory perception.
D) posthypnotic suggestion.
226. The claim that hypnotic phenomena occur outside our normal awareness is associated
with the theory that hypnosis involves
B) dissociation.
C) synesthesia.
D) role playing.
227. People hypnotized for pain relief may show brain activity in areas that receive sensory
information but not in areas that normally process pain-related information. This fact
most clearly supports
A) place theory.
C) the volley principle.
D) dissociation theory.
Page 41
228. A posthypnotic suggestion is made ________ a hypnosis session and intended to be
carried out in the future when the subject is ________.
A) after; once again hypnotized
B) during; once again hypnotized
C) after; no longer hypnotized
D) during; no longer hypnotized
229. One plausible theory suggests that hypnotic pain relief may result from
A) selective attention.
B) stereophonic hearing.
C) extrasensory perception.
230. Just prior to awakening Chinua from a hypnotic state, the therapist told him that during
the next few days he would feel nauseated whenever he reached for a cigarette. Chinua's
therapist was attempting to make use of
A) the volley principle.
B) posthypnotic suggestion.
C) the McGurk effect.
231. Our sense of taste was once thought to involve only the four sensations of
A) sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.
B) salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.
C) sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.
D) bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.
232. The taste sensation umami is most likely to attract us to foods that are
A) sweet.
B) bitter.
C) starchy.
D) rich in protein.
233. The sense of ________ is a chemical sense.

A) taste
B) kinesthesia
C) equilibrium
D) pain
Page 42
234. Sensory receptor cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within
A) the eardrum.
B) phantom limbs.
C) taste buds.
D) nociceptors.
235. Receptor cells for our sense of ________ reproduce themselves every week or two.
A) body position
B) hearing
C) taste
D) equilibrium
236. The same brand of chocolate truffles tasted better to Julia when she thought they cost
$20 a pound than when she thought they cost half that much. This best illustrates the
impact of
A) the volley principle.
B) top-down processing.
C) synesthesia.
D) precognition.
237. The sense of smell is known as

A) telepathy.
B) the vestibular sense.
C) transduction.
D) olfaction.
238. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense?

A) kinesthesia
B) audition
C) equilibrium
D) smell
239. Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your
home?
A) nociceptors
B) olfactory receptors
C) vestibular sacs
D) the basilar membrane
Page 43
240. Messages from olfactory receptor cells are NOT relayed to the
A) limbic system.
B) thalamus.
C) temporal lobes.
D) olfactory bulb.
241. The olfactory receptors are activated by

A) nociceptors.
B) phantom limb sensations.
C) airborne molecules.
D) the basilar membrane.
242. Information from the taste buds travels to an area of the

A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) occipital lobe.
D) temporal lobe.
243. Pleasant memories are most likely to be evoked by exposure to

A) bright colors.
B) soft touches.
C) fragrant odors.
D) loud sounds.
244. Our sense of the position and movement of individual body parts is called
A) the vestibular sense.
B) olfaction.
C) kinesthesia.
245. Receptor cells for kinesthesia are located in the

A) temporal lobe.
B) tendons, joints, and muscles.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) auditory nerve.
Page 44
246. Sensing the position and movement of your pitching arm while throwing a fastball best
illustrates
A) synesthesia.
B) kinesthesia.
C) psychokinesis.
D) the volley principle.
247. The semicircular canals are most directly relevant to

A) hearing.
B) kinesthesia.
C) the vestibular sense.
D) dissociation.
248. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a
thrilling roller coaster ride?
A) olfactory receptors
B) nociceptors
C) basilar membranes
D) semicircular canals
249. Tiny hair-like receptors that monitor the tilting of your head are located in the
A) temporal lobe.
B) tendons, joints, and muscles.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) vestibular sacs.
250. During the months when there is a large amount of pollen in the air, your hay fever
severely affects your sense of smell. At the same time, your food all seems to taste the
same. This illustrates the importance of
A) sensory interaction.
B) kinesthesia.
C) tinnitus.
D) dissociation.
251. The McGurk effect best illustrates

B) anosmia.
C) tinnitus.
Page 45
252. When sounds were accompanied by a puff of air on people's neck or hands, they more
often misheard airless sounds such as ba or da as pa or ta. This best illustrates
A) synesthesia.
B) psychokinesis.
C) sensory interaction.
D) kinesthesia.
253. The influence of our physical gestures on our psychological preferences is said to be an
indication of
B) dissociation.
C) psychokinesis.
254. The interconnection of brain circuits that process sensory experiences with brain circuits
responsible for abstract thinking contributes to what psychologists call
A) parapsychology.
B) embodied cognition.
C) precognition.
D) kinesthesia.
255. After holding a warm drink rather than a cold one, people are more likely to rate others
more warmly. This best illustrates
A) the McGurk effect.
B) psychokinesis.
C) synesthesia.
D) embodied cognition.
256. When holding a soft ball, American students become more likely to categorize a face as
a Democrat than as a Republican. This best illustrates
A) the McGurk effect.
B) embodied cognition.
C) synesthesia.
D) dissociation.
Page 46
257. If hikers perceive a hill as steeper when carrying heavy backpacks rather than light
backpacks, this would best illustrate
B) synesthesia.
D) psychokinesis.
258. When put in a foul-smelling rather than a pleasant-smelling room, members of a jury
perceived immoral acts such as stealing as more disgusting. This best illustrates the
importance of
A) dissociation.
C) embodied cognition.
D) synesthesia.
259. For some people, hearing certain sounds may activate color-sensitive regions of the
cortex so as to trigger a sensation of color. This phenomenon is called
A) tinnitus.
B) telepathy.
C) synesthesia.
D) kinesthesia.
260. Psychics' suggestions that perception can occur apart from sensory input involve claims
for the existence of
B) posthypnotic suggestion.
C) synesthesia.
D) ESP.
261. Telepathy refers to the

A) extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
B) extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver.
C) perception of future events, such as a person's fate.
D) ability to understand and share the emotions of another person.
Page 47
262. Jamal claims that his special psychic powers enable him to perceive exactly where the
body of a recent murder victim is secretly buried. Jamal is claiming to possess the power
of
A) psychokinesis.
B) precognition.
C) telepathy.
D) clairvoyance.
263. The extrasensory ability to perceive an automobile accident taking place in a distant
location is to ________ as the extrasensory ability to know at any moment exactly what
your best friend is thinking is to ________.
A) telepathy; precognition
B) precognition; psychokinesis
C) psychokinesis; clairvoyance
D) clairvoyance; telepathy
264. Margo insists that her dreams frequently enable her to perceive and predict future
events. Margo is claiming to possess the power of
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) precognition.
D) psychokinesis.
265. Andre claims that he can make a broken watch begin to run again simply by entering a
state of intense mental concentration. Andre is claiming to possess the power of
A) precognition.
B) telepathy.
C) clairvoyance.
D) psychokinesis.
266. Parapsychology refers to the

A) study of phenomena such as ESP and psychokinesis.
B) study of perceptual illusions.
C) study of synesthesia.
D) direct transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
Page 48
267. Psychics who have worked with police departments in an effort to solve difficult crimes
have demonstrated the value of
A) clairvoyance.
B) telepathy.
C) precognition.
D) none of these things.
268. The existence of convincing scientific evidence that ESP is possible would pose the
greatest challenge to the
A) contemporary scientific understanding of human nature.
B) continued existence of parapsychology.
C) continuation of research on the processes that underlie ordinary forms of sensation
and perception.
D) ordinary belief systems of most Americans.
269. The greatest difficulty facing contemporary parapsychology is the

A) inability to subject claims of ESP to scientific testing.
B) lack of a reproducible ESP phenomenon.
C) willingness of many experts to accept fraudulent evidence.
D) difficulty of persuading many ordinary people that there really is such a thing as
ESP.
Page 49
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. B
34. D
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. B
39. C
40. C
41. B
42. D
43. B
44. C
Page 50
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. C
50. C
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. A
56. B
57. D
58. D
59. C
60. D
61. C
62. D
63. C
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. C
68. B
69. B
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. C
74. D
75. D
76. C
77. D
78. A
79. D
80. B
81. C
82. C
83. C
84. C
85. B
86. D
87. C
88. B
89. B
90. B
Page 51
91. B
92. A
93. D
94. A
95. C
96. D
97. B
98. A
99. A
100. B
101. C
102. D
103. C
104. D
105. D
106. D
107. D
108. D
109. C
110. D
111. C
112. C
113. B
114. C
115. D
116. C
117. A
118. A
119. D
120. B
121. B
122. C
123. B
124. C
125. C
126. C
127. C
128. C
129. C
130. B
131. C
132. C
133. B
134. D
135. C
136. B
Page 52
137. A
138. C
139. C
140. C
141. C
142. B
143. D
144. C
145. C
146. D
147. C
148. B
149. C
150. B
151. B
152. C
153. A
154. B
155. A
156. B
157. A
158. C
159. A
160. A
161. B
162. C
163. C
164. C
165. A
166. D
167. C
168. D
169. C
170. C
171. B
172. A
173. D
174. D
175. B
176. C
177. A
178. B
179. A
180. D
181. D
182. B
Page 53
183. D
184. B
185. B
186. A
187. D
188. B
189. D
190. D
191. C
192. C
193. D
194. B
195. A
196. C
197. B
198. C
199. C
200. D
201. A
202. D
203. D
204. C
205. B
206. C
207. D
208. B
209. C
210. A
211. C
212. D
213. C
214. C
215. A
216. A
217. D
218. B
219. B
220. B
221. D
222. A
223. C
224. B
225. B
226. B
227. D
228. D
Page 54
229. A
230. B
231. D
232. D
233. A
234. C
235. C
236. B
237. D
238. D
239. B
240. B
241. C
242. D
243. C
244. C
245. B
246. B
247. C
248. D
249. D
250. A
251. D
252. C
253. A
254. B
255. D
256. D
257. A
258. C
259. C
260. D
261. A
262. D
263. D
264. C
265. D
266. A
267. D
268. A
269. B
Page 55
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The Project Gutenberg eBook of Five Nights at
the Five Pines
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States and most other parts of the world at no cost and with
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eBook.
Title: Five Nights at the Five Pines
Author: Harriet A. Gaul
Release date: May 3, 2024 [eBook #73520]
Language: English
Original publication: New York: The Century Co, 1922
Credits: Susan E., David E. Brown, and the Online Distributed

Proofreading Team at https://www.pgdp.net (This book
was produced from images made available by the
HathiTrust Digital Library.)
*** START OF THE PROJECT GUTENBERG EBOOK FIVE NIGHTS

AT THE FIVE PINES ***
FIVE NIGHTS AT THE
FIVE PINES
FIVE NIGHTS AT THE
FIVE PINES
BY
AVERY GAUL
NEW YORK
THE CENTURY CO.
1922
Copyright, 1922, by
The Century Co.
PRINTED IN U. S. A.
To
MARY FENOLLOSA
CONTENTS
CHAPTER PAGE
I The House of the Five Pines 3
II Mattie “Charles T. Smith” 24
III The Winkle-man and the Will 41
IV The Boycott 51
V “The Shoals of Yesterday” 65
VI Lobster-Pots 76
VII The First Night at Five Pines 89
VIII A Message from Mattie 103
IX The Second Night 118
X The Cat or the Captain 134
XI The Third Night 149
XII The Little Coffin 162
XIII The Séance of Horns 178
XIV The Fourth Night 191
XV Beach-Plums 207
XVI The Fifth Night 225
XVII Dawn 231
XVIII The Disappearance of Mrs. Dove 247
XIX I Hide the Ghost 260
XX Jezebel 273
FIVE NIGHTS AT THE
FIVE PINES
FIVE NIGHTS AT THE
FIVE PINES
CHAPTER I
THE HOUSE OF THE FIVE PINES
A SEA of yellow sand rose, wave on wave, around us. High hills,
carved by the bitter salt winds into tawny breakers, reared towering
heads, peak upon peak. Like combers that never burst into spray,
their static curves remained suspended above us, their tops bent
back upon the leeward side, menacing, but never engulfing, the
deep pools of purple shadows that lay beneath them. The sand was
mauve in the hollows, and black upon white were the cupped dunes
hung over their own heights. They were like water that did not move,
or mountains with no vegetation. They did not support as much life
upon their surface as that which crawls upon the floor of the ocean.
They were naked and unashamed as the day when they were tossed
up out of the bed of the sea. Only tufts of sharp green grass clung to
some of the slopes, their silhouettes flattened out before them like
the pin-feathers of a young bird, inadequate and scant, accentuating
the barrenness of the saffron sand.
Centuries ago some gigantic upheaval of Neptune had forced this
long ridge out of the shielding water, to lie prone in the sight of the
sun, like a prehistoric sea-monster forever drying its hide. More
isolated than an island, the head of the cape, with the town in its
jaws, fought the encroaching sea, which thundered upon it in
constant endeavor to separate it from the tail, extending a hundred
miles to the mainland. From the height on which we stood, the line of
ocean far away was dark blue, following in a frothy scallop the
indentations of the coast. The sound of the surf came to us like a
repeated threat. It could bend the cape, but never break it, twist and
turn it, change the currents and the sand-bars, and toss back upon
its shore the wreckage of such vessels as men essayed to sail in,
but the sand-dunes continued to bask blandly. Sometimes they
shifted, but so silently and gradually that they seemed not so much
to move as to vanish. To-day there would be a dune in the way of our
path to the sea, so steep as to make a barrier, impossible to scale.
To-morrow the force of the wind upon its surface, and the strength of
the far-away tide which continually seeped its roots, would have
leveled it. The very footsteps one followed, trying to trace a track
across the waste, would have melted away.
On this desert each traveler must be his own guide and climb to
some eminence which topped all others, to get his bearings from the
strip of deep blue that marked the ocean’s rim. Nor could he say to
himself, securely, “Here is east,” although he looked out on the
Atlantic. Land played a trick upon the wayfarer who trusted it, and
turned its back upon the sea, and curled up like a snail, so that the
inside of the cape, where the town lay behind us in its green verdure,
faced south, and the outside sea, where the sun set, curved west
and north. The glory of light in the afternoon struck first upon the hills
and was reflected back from the sheltered bay to the little fishing-
village.
The path from the woods, by which you entered the dunes, lost itself
to sight under the foliage of the scrub-oak trees, and unless you had
tied a white rag to the last branch, marking the point where you
climbed up out of the forest, you would never find it again. There
were many foot-paths through the thicket which separated the
hamlet on the inside of the horn from the immense dry sea-bed, but
none of them were visible, once you had left them. By day you must
mark the entrance to the desert of your own footsteps, by night it
was useless to look for them.
This must have been the place, I thought, where Dorothy Bradford
was lost. Brave as the Pilgrim Fathers were, they had not loitered
here after dark to look for William’s young wife! They had
conscientiously attended to their laundry work, on that first
November day when the Mayflower landed, and, having finished
their domestic duties, waited no longer for any scatterbrain of the
party who had been foolish enough to venture from the fold, but
weighed anchor without finding her and put off for Plymouth Rock!
As I looked about me at the profound grandeur of space, it seemed
to me that I understood why Dorothy had not hurried back to the
boat. She had embarked upon the Mayflower, a bride, strange to the
ways of men and of marriage, and for sixty-three days the stern-
faced Puritans had been her only companions and the rolling sea her
entire horizon. Her quarters must have become a prison to her
before the voyage was over. When at last this finger of land,
reaching into the Atlantic, had beckoned to the mariners, her heart
must have sung like a caged canary, even as mine responded when
first I saw the cape. Did she linger with the other virtuous
housewives at the first spring, to wash her husband’s dirty linen? Not
she! I liked to think that in glad escape she ran from all those stuff
gowns and starched kerchiefs, through the woods, chasing the
scarlet-winged blackbirds on and on, picking the wintergreen berries
and ravenously eating them, gathering her arms full of bright autumn
leaves, feeding her hungry eyes on the vivid color of growing things
and her starved soul, at last, upon the dunes. It was not the Indians
who prevented Dorothy Bradford from returning to the ship; it was
her own heart. If Indians saw her, they must have fallen on their red
knees in the sand and worshiped her for a sprite of limitless space,
running past them with gay branches clasped to her gray dress and
a wreath of waxy bayberries on her fair young head. It was her
wayward feet that forbade her from following further the fortunes of
the Pilgrims. No doubt, from some high point on the dunes she
watched them sail away, and laughed, taking off her shoes upon the
sand and dancing, fleeing further. That is what I would have done.
That is what I wanted to do now. Something starving in my heart
found food here; a hardness that had been growing within me for two
years dissolved, as my mind relaxed, and the troubles that had
driven me here appeared insignificant. The tired spirit of hope that
had been driven deeper and deeper down beneath the weight of
disillusion began to bubble up. There might be a way of regaining the
nice balance of life, after all, if one could weigh it every afternoon
upon the sand-dunes!
Ruth and I were sitting on a pyramid, where we had brought a picnic
lunch, and were watching her children play in the hollows.
“Do people get lost here nowadays?” I asked her.
“The natives never come here,” she answered; “at least, not for fun.
They only follow the wagon-track to the coast-guard station on ‘the
outside,’ and that is about all the summer people do. It is three miles
across the soft sand to the sea, and most people get discouraged
and turn back before they reach the further shore. But enough
children and strangers have been lost here in recent years to scare
away the others! The townspeople say the dunes are haunted, and
that at night strange shapes flit across the sand, spirits of those who
have never been found. They will not come near the white fields at
moonlight, when they are wrapped in mystery. The landmarks are
not permanent. Every storm changes them, just as it changes the
shoals on ‘the outside.’ The sailors are more afraid of this neck of
land than any one else. Do you see how far distant the big steamers
keep?” She pointed out to me a thin line of smoke on the horizon.
“Hundreds of ships have run aground off here in less than that many
years. There are lighthouses at every point now, but the bed of the
sea moves constantly. That is why they call this coast the ‘Graveyard
of the Cape.’”
“Have there been any wrecks since you have lived here?”
Ruth’s eyes darkened. “A year ago a fleet of fishing-vessels were
caught in a sudden tempest and half of them were lost. Eleven men
were drowned, all from this town! Star Harbor raises her sons upon
the sandy flats of the bay at her doorway, and when they grow old
enough they sail away from her, and she knows that one day, sooner
or later, they will fail to return. In the meantime the mothers do not
bring their boys out here on the dunes to play, as we do our children
from the cities. It is too much like dancing on their own graves! They
try to forget the dunes are here, and walk up and down the front
street of the village.”
“I do not want to forget them,” said I. “They mean something to me,
Ruth, something that I have needed for a long time.”
Ruth smiled at me fondly, without replying. We had known each
other for a long time.
“It is like the touch of a hand on the heart,” I tried to explain, “or like a
song heard outside a window in the dark—or a flaming embroidery
on a stucco wall.”
The sun shone down upon the tawny sand, illuminating the dunes
with so blinding a radiance that description was futile. The effect of
so much heat and light was soothing and restful, and at the same
time stimulating. The body drank up enough electricity, through
contact with the sand, to renew its youth and send the worn years
reeling backward. The children were shouting and sliding down the
inside of a crater below us, transposing their winter sports to the
summertime, climbing up the opposite slope, only to shoot down
again on the seats of their rompers, laughing and crawling up, and
repeating the game, in ecstasy of abandonment.
“I would like to do that, too,” said I.
Ruth smiled. “You would get sand in your sneakers.”
“Sneakers!” I scoffed.
“And wear holes in your silk stockings.”
“Silk stockings! No one should wear stockings out here. They should
run barefoot before the wind, and leap from peak to peak. It is
absurd, in the face of this vast emptiness, to wear clothes at all!”
“So many people feel that way,” said Ruth, dryly.
But I refused to be rebuffed.
“We need it, Ruth,” I cried. “We, who are cooped up in cities, are
starving for this very thing—space and sunlight, air and warmth. Not
the suffocating heat of the area-ways, but the glow that glances off
the sun-kissed sand. Our eyes are blind with gray pavements and
white asphalt, stone and cement, nothing but colors as hard as the
substance we tread on. We hunger for blue and for purple, for the
sea and the seacoast shadows, for green that is brighter than burnt
sod, and for living red and yellow. The craving for earth under our
feet is still natural to us. It is what has made possible the barefoot
cult of the people who choose to get up in the morning and run
around in the dew, and the ‘back to all fours’ cult of those who put
their hands down on the floor and prance like a trained bear. And the
‘stand on your head’ cult, who pick out a cushion which best suits
their psychic soul and balance themselves with their feet in the air for
hours at a time. Perhaps it is true that it is stimulating to the brain.
But Ruth, joking aside, there must be a fundamental reason for all of
this ‘simple life’ movement—the elemental need for relaxation, which
is what this sort of exercise gives to the worn human machine. I am
going to give up my apartment in New York and pitch a tent on the
sand-dunes!”
Ruth laughed.
I thought that probably she would point out to me how impractical I
was. But she did not. She seemed to be weighing the matter, taking
me more seriously than I took myself. Ruth had a penetrating quality
of sympathy with another’s trouble that made of it an immediate
problem for her to solve and for the sufferer to relinquish. I had come
up here a week ago, for no other reason than that life had reached
the stage with me where I had to run away from the confusion of my
own ménage. I needed another line of vision, another angle from
which to approach it, and I considered it worth taking the long dull
journey up the cape to get my friend’s point of view. All that quiet
August afternoon, while we had watched her children playing on the
sand-dunes, we had been talking over life and our place in it as only
two women can who had known each other since childhood and
have managed to keep friends, although both of them are married.
Our conversation had been mostly about New York, from which I was
escaping, and that offshoot of society which has its roots among
actors and producers and its branches in the motion-picture studios.
Ruth was far removed from this forcing frame, spending her winters,
more happily, in Charleston, and her summers on Cape Cod, so that
I thought I could get from her the calm point of view and the fresh
focus that I needed.
“Well, if you want to live here and get back to nature by way of the
sand-dunes, by all means do so,” she was saying dispassionately;
“that would be saner than running on all fours and standing on your
head in the city. But don’t pitch a tent out here! It has been
demonstrated that hurricanes have an antipathy for canvas. Buy a
house in town, and at least have shingles over your head and
running water in the kitchen. Even the birds refuse to drink from the
rank pools in this desert. There is alkali on the surface and
quicksands along the edges of the ponds. I’ll show you a house in
Star Harbor that has been waiting for years for some one like you to
come along and take a chance on moving into it.”
She stood up and, giving a long “Woo-ooh!” through her hands to the
turbulent young ones, led me back over the dunes to the green edge
of the woods.
“There,” she said, pointing over the tree-tops to the town that nestled
at the edge of the encircled bay, “do you see five pine-trees standing
up higher than all the others? That is the place.”
I saw below me a mass of scrubby oaks and stunted pines, which
wore out to a thin edge on the shore where the fishing-village
huddled. The bright white paint of the cottages, with the sun at their
backs, picked them out distinctly from the blue bay beyond them,
and one house, larger than any of the others, thrust its sloping roof
into prominence beside a row of pines.
“That!” I exclaimed. “But how large it is—for only my husband and
myself! We would rattle around in it. We haven’t enough furniture!”
I was alarmed at the expansive turn of Ruth’s imagination. Even if
you have put yourself in the power of a friend’s advice, or perhaps
just because of that, you are not ready to admit that she, with one
slash of unprejudiced judgment, has cut the knot which you have
been patiently trying to untangle.
“Furniture!” scoffed Ruth. “If that is all that is worrying you—There is
more furniture in that house than any other house on Cape Cod.
That is a captain’s place, old Captain Jeremiah Hawes, and he
brought home fine mahogany from wherever he dropped anchor. In
his day they sailed to England for their Chippendale and to China for
a set of dishes.”
“What good would that do me?”
“You don’t seem to understand,” Ruth explained patiently; “it all goes
together. There is hardly a house sold in Star Harbor but what the
furniture is included in the deal. You get whatever the house
contains, when you buy it.”
We were retracing the path through the woods by which we had
entered the dunes earlier in the day. The children ran before us,
playing wood-tag from tree to tree, exploring “fairy circles,” and
stopping from time to time to let us catch up with them, when they
would drop completely out of sight among the blueberry-bushes.
These grew so thick at our feet that you could pull the berries off by
the handful and munch them as you strolled along.
“Tell me more about the house,” I begged. My mouth was full of
blueberries, but my mind was full of plans.
“It was built over a hundred years ago, by ships’ carpenters who
came down here all the way from Boston. They don’t know how to do
that kind of cabinet-work any more. The soil in the yard was hauled
here by the wagon-load from ten miles down the cape to make the
garden—no sea sand left there to sprout burrs! The Old Captain
knew what he wanted and where to get it. He made what was, in
those days, a fortune. He was master of a fleet of fishing-vessels,
and used to make yearly voyages to the banks of Newfoundland for
cod and to Iceland for sperm-oil whales. A pair of his big iron testing-
kettles are still down in his wharf-shed, and the house is full of
valuable maps and charts. Not that any one has ever seen them.”
“Why not? How long has it been vacant?”
“It has never been vacant at all! That’s the trouble. After old Captain
Hawes and his wife died, their son, whom every one calls the ‘New
Captain,’ lived on there in the house for years, along with the same
woman who had always been a servant to his mother. He died after
we came here, five years ago, under peculiar circumstances, but she
still lives on, behind closed shutters.”
“Is the house for sale?”
“It’s been for sale ever since the New Captain died, but the old
woman who lives in it won’t let any one inside the door to look at it.”
“I’d take it without seeing it, if it’s all you say it is,” I answered. “Why
don’t they put the old woman out?”

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4. Perception is the process by which

5. Recognizing an odor as the familiar smell of apple blossoms is an example of

6. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.

8. Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the

10. Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes is called

25. A subliminal message is one that is presented

26. Priming refers to the activation of certain

30. People's response to subliminal priming indicates that

31. Subliminally presented stimuli

38. Sensory adaptation refers to

40. The constant quivering movements of our eyes enable us to

42. A perceptual set refers to

47. A concept that helps us to interpret ambiguous sensations is called a

48. The influence of schemas on our interpretations of unfamiliar information best

60. The wavelength of visible light determines its

61. The perceived brightness of visible light waves is determined by their

62. Brightness is to intensity as hue is to

66. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the

67. Which process allows more light to reach the retina?

75. The axons of ganglion cells converge to form

76. The blind spot is located in the area of the retina

81. Rods are

86. A genetically sex-linked characteristic accounts for the greater incidence of

90. Who first proposed the opponent-process theory of color vision?

91. Ewald Hering found a clue to the mystery of color vision in

94. Opponent-process cells have been located in the

97. Visual information is processed by

98. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of

103. Simultaneously analyzing distinct subunits of information received by different areas of

109. A gestalt is best described as a(n)

111. The organizational rules identified by Gestalt psychologists illustrate that

112. The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called

115. Figure is to ground as ________ is to ________.

118. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that

127. Infants who were exposed to the visual cliff

128. Retinal disparity is an important cue for

129. Retinal disparity refers to the

132. Indicators of distance such as interposition and linear perspective are

142. Color constancy refers to the fact that

143. To experience color constancy, we should view things

145. Brightness constancy is most clearly facilitated by

157. The philosopher John Locke believed that people

161. A clouding of the lens of the eye is called a

164. The ability to adjust to changed sensory input is called

167. Our sense of hearing is known as

169. The loudness of sounds is determined by the ________ of sound waves.

172. The absolute threshold for hearing is defined as zero

176. Eardrum vibrations are transmitted to the cochlea by a piston consisting of

177. The surface of the basilar membrane is lined with

178. The cochlea consists of

185. A cochlear implant converts sounds into

187. Place theory suggests that

188. Place theory was first proposed by

190. According to place theory, the perception of

6. Sensation is to as perception is to .

115. Figure is to ground as is to .