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eer The Most Popular Book taking you to the Next Stage of IAS... Cracking the COMPLETE COVERAGE OF Com eee CMe OAc am eM ns er and Sufficiency, Decision Making and Problem Solving Interpersonal Skills including, Communication Skills Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability rare enarrtecu esto cus 9 the Most Popular Book taking you to the Next Stage of IAS... Cracking the CSAT Civil Services Aptitude Test PAPERe an) Divakar Sharma (Base Numa) iy and Analytical Reasoring) ‘Mridula Sharma (Comprehensi dal (Genera! Mental Abii sso) itesh (Data Interpretation and Soicien) Toshu Chaudhary & Kirt Jin Gish Singh Rajput ngs Lana ome Suman Kalyan Ghosh (Deon Making Prove olving end neers hilt) Se). 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Project Manager: Karishma Yadav Inner Designer : Pradeep Kumar Project Coordinator : Divya Gusain PRINTED & BOUND BY ARIHANT PUBLICATIONS (1) LTD. (PRESS UNIT) For further information about the products from Arihan ‘ogon to wwwarihantbooks.com or email o info@arihantbooks.com PREFACE From 2016, the merit of the Preliminary Examination will be determined purely on the basis of marks obtained in General Studies Paper 1. Whereas General Studies Paper 2 (CSAT) is made qualifying which means one must score minimum marks in this paper too i.e. 33% to qualify for mains. ‘We are back with a diversified and a whole new revised edition of ‘Cracking the CSAT Paper 2.’ With our aim to make all the dreams come true of the aspiring candidates, we present the new improved and exquisite book with all the latest features and the formats of UPSC Civil Service Preliminary. For 2018 CSAT Paper 2, we have strategised a foolproof plan and execution for the aspirants to easily grasp the concept from the revised 2018 edition. Main Features of the Book © According to the questions asked in the year 2017, technical terms like Inference (a conclusion reached on the basis of evidence], Assumption (an idea that is formed without evidence), Corollary (Logical), etc., are included in this edition, © As per 2017 examination, General Mental Ability, Analytical Reasoning, Decision Making, Problem Solving and Interpersonal Skills including Communication Skills have been revised intelligently. : © Basic Numeracy, Comprehension, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency and English Language Comprehension have also been included with improved features and formats. «© Atthe end of the book, according to the last years’ papers, detailed explanation with 5 Crack Sets have been given which will definitely help the aspirants to crack CSAT Paper 2, 2018, ‘We are thankful to Arihant Publications, for their kind and cordial help in publishing this book. ‘Apart from this, we are grateful to Publishing Manager (Amit Verma), Project Manager (Karishma Yadav), Project Coordinator (Divya Gusain), Cover Designer (Shanu Mansoori) and Taner Designer (Ravi Negi). These people helped usa lot with their priceles suggestions, We are also grateful to proof readers (Garima Sharma, Sonal Aggarwal) and for DTP work (Mudit Rastogi, Shravan Pandey and Ravindra Ravat). We welcome valuable suggestions and directions from our readers. Authors CONTENTS © Solved Paper 2017 © Solved Paper 2016 © Solved Paper 2015 © Solved Paper 2014 © Solved Paper 2013 © Solved Paper 2012 © Solved Paper 2011 Comprehension 1. Level | Passages 2, Level 2 Passages 3. CSAT Practice Basic Numeracy 1. Namber System 2. Fractions 3, Elementary Algebra 4. LOM and HCF 5. Average 6. Percentage 2. Order of Magnitude 8. Profit, Loss and Discount 9. Ratio, Proportion, ership and Mixture {Time and Work Speed, Time and Distance fe ‘Simpleand Compound Interest 1:20 _ 38 Permutation and Combination 116 “14. Probability 1-21 15. Sets and Functions 22-40 Clocks and Calendars 41-57 7 17, Area and Perimeter 5872 18, Volume and Surface Area 73-87 of Solid Figures { Sequences and Series 20. Plane Geometry 5:20 21. Statistics 21-57 5870 General Mental Ability 73-82 83-90 91-101 102-109 110-117 118-125, 126-134 135-143, 144-155 156-167 168-179 180-190, Seuss aer 10. u. 12. 13, uM. ——_ Analogy Classification Series Coding-Decoding Sequencing and Formation Direction and Distance Tests Sitting Arrangement Blood Relations Logical Venn Diagram Cubes and Dice ‘Verification of Truth/Lie of Statements Puzzles Routes and Networks ‘Time Sequence Test 191-199 200-208 209-218, 219-228 229-249, 243-252, 253-261 262-27 278-284 287-293 294-296 297.303 304-312 313-317 318-328 329.336 337.343, 344-351 352-360 361-363 364-375 376-382 383-387 15. Ranking Test 388-394 16. Problems Based on Ages 395-399 17. Scientific Reasoning 400-403 18. Insertingthe Missing Character 404-409 19. Figure Matrix 410-414 20. Non-Verbal and Visual Reasoning 415-428 Data Interpretation & Sufficiency 1. Introduction to Data Interpretation 431-438 2. Study of Graphs 439-451 3, Tables 452-463 4. Pie Charts 464-472 5. Bar Charts/Graphs 473-483 6. Line Graphs 484-493 7 Caselets 494-501 8. Mixed Graph 502-511 9. Data Sufficiency 512-522 Decision Making & Problem Solving 1. Decision Making and Problem Solving 525-537 2. Administrative Ethies and Decision Making 538-543, 3. Good Governance and Decision Making 544-548 4, Disaster Management Based Decision Making 549-552 eo CSAT Practice 1 553-559 © CSAT Practice 2 560-566 © CSAT Practice 3 567573 ‘© Answers & Explanations 574-580 Interpersonal Skills Including Communication Skills 583-594 Interpersonal/Communication Skills Elements/Skills of Communication Essential Features of an Effective Communication © Types of Communication © Barriers of Communication ‘Communication Flows © Communication Networks © Emotional Intelligence (El) © Stress Management o Leadership Styles © Conflict Management © CSAT Practice 1 595-598 © CSAT Practice 2 599-603 © Answers & Explanations 604-606 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability 1. Syllogism 609-622 2. Statement and Arguments 623-628 3. Statement and Assumptions 629-633 4, Statement and Courses of Action 634-638 5. Statements and Conclusions 639-645 6. Evaluating Conference 646-650 7. Assertion and Reason 651-653, 8. Cause and Effect 654-658 English Language Comprehension* © CSAT Examples 661-677 © CSAT Practice 1 678-687 © CSAT Practice 2 688-697 © Answers & Explanations 698-701 Crack Sets (1-5) with Detailed Explanations 705-822, * Question from English Language Comprehension or not asked in UPSC CSAT Paper I, but in State PCS questions are arti That's why tis section inde in hs bok UPSC-CSAT Civil Services Aptitude Tes Know about Examination! ‘There are three stages of the examination: Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Interview o Those who qualify the Preliminary Commission (UPSC) conducting Civil Services Exam Examination are selected for Main for Group A and Group B for Examination and those who qualify the recruitment in the services like- Main Examivation aré-then, flied fox the Interview. The final merit list, made according to the combined marks Police Services, Indian Revenue obtained in the Main Examination and ss, Combined Defence the Interview, is the list of successful Examination (CDSE). candidates. ‘There will be negative marking for all questions. live Services, Indian Foreign Services, Indian Objectives of Civil } Services Aptitude Test For the development of the Civil Servant plays a vital rae As an officer on duty, a wil find himsel/erlfve vtaaanoc which he/she would have to take urgent decisions, and for this, the individual ‘must possess good decision-making and problem solving skills with analytical and mental abilities. As a Civil Servant, ‘person comes across various data types and structures, and would have to base the decision on interpretations of the given data structures. Itis thus clear that through aptitude test, the innate or acquired capability of the candidate could be tested. Career in Civil Services Civil Servants are appointed by the President on recommendations of the | UPSC and so their services could also be terminated by the President only. ‘The Civil Servants are paid well with various perks. ‘There is ample scope for promotion in the service. The aura attached by the country to Civil Servants, the stability in job and an opportunity to be the part of the ‘development’ of the country are the hosts of attractions which motivate large number of highly qualified youth of the country to choose the Civil Services as a career. Syllabus of Preliminary Examination ‘The Examination shall comprise of two compulsory papers of 200 marks each. ‘The General Studies Paper-II of Civil Services | (Preliminary) Examination will be «qualifying paper with ‘minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%. Paper I TQ 100 TM.200 7.7.2 Hours Current events of national and international importance History of India and Indian National Movement ‘© Indian and World Geography ~ Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and World Indian Polity and Governance ~ Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj Public Policy, Rights Issues, ete Economic and Social Development ~ Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographies, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. ‘© General Issues on Environmental Ecology, and Climate Change © General Science Paper It T.Q80 T.M, 200 © Comprehension Interpersonal Skills Including Communication Skills Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability Decision Making and Problem Solving General Mental Ability ‘© Basic Numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of ‘magnitude, etc. Class X level), Data Interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency, etc,- Class X level) T.T.2 Hours Section- Wise STRATEGY CSAT 2018 | Comprehension This section has almost 30-35% weightage in the CSAT Paper 2. The good thing about this section is that, it is the most scoring part in CSAT Paper 2 and the most interesting thing is | that, you don’t need to be equipped with any | prior knowledge. For this, you should know how to differentiate between assumptions and conclusions, verbal expressions of the author and yourarguments. By practicing CSAT Paper II, you can understand basic things about the topic. As per questions asked in the year 2017, aspirants should have a brief knowledge about technical terms, like Inference, Corollary and Assumption, ete. ‘You should read the question first and determine what to look Corollary for within the answer choices. In general, you have to look for the answer choices that either strengthen or weaken the argument and predict the answer after reading and understanding the passage, the premises and the argument. You should take care of the words like may, only, if only, can, must, should, etc. Remember, your answers should be totally based on the passage and your understanding of the passage only. Scoring ‘good marks in this section depends entirely ‘on how much you can synchronise yourself with the author. Aspirants should select passages from different areas like Science, Philosophy, Economics, Art, Environment, Literature, etc. for practice. Basic Numeracy This section covers topics related to number and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc. The questions range from purely numeric calculations to problems of arithmetical reasoning, group and table reading, percentage analysis and quantitative analysis. In this, we require more Reasoning Ability to solve mathematical problems than in pure Mathematics itself. On the whole, students are tested for their sharpness to analyse the given data in a short span of time. Basic Numeracy can be divided into ‘five categories 1. Numerical Aptitude ‘Understanding of numbers, their relations and applications may help a candidate in calculating various data or analysing charts and dealing with calculations. This includes basic knowledge of various types of numbers 3 4. 5. ‘and topics related to them such as Rational and Irrational ‘Numbers, Prime Numbers and their Properties, Surds and Indices, Logarithms, Simplification questions based on. BODMAS and Basic Formulae, HCF and LCM, Divisibility ‘ess, etc. The questions related to BODMAS, Surds and Indices, Logarithms, Divsibility Rules and HCF and LOM are {important from the examination point of view. Arithmetic In this module, topics covered include Percentage and its Properties, Simple and Compound Interest, Ratio and Proportion and its Properties (Partnership and Mixtures), Time, Speed and Distance (including the concept of trains, boats, streams and clocks) and Time and Work, which also covers questions on pipes and cisterns. Questions in this module are more scoring than those in other modules, as they are easy to interpret and also there are very few concepts that one has to ‘master to do wel in these topics. The questions involve use of concepts and tricks ofthe Number System. Some short and easily memorised ticks may prove helpful in such problems. Sometimes, approximate calculations may be useful in eliminating the wrong choices in the answer options. Algebra ‘This module contains Basies of Polynomials, Linear Equations One, Two or Three Variables, Quadratic Equations and Progressions (AP, GP & HP), Basics of Maxima and Minima. Algebra has not been asked in the previous years, but still students are advised to go through the basic concepts of algebra. Geometry and Mensuration In geometry, we have topics like Lines, Angles, Triangles, Quadtrlaterals, Circles and their Properties, Area and Perimeter of various figures like triangle, quadrilateral, circle, ete, and ne of Figures like eylinder, cone, sphere, hemisphere, etc. Geometry questions have been asked in some previous years’ papers, so students should go through the basic theorems and the formulae to find the area and the volume of different figures. Simple geometry of lines and angles, plane figures like circles, triangles, squares, rectangles and parallelograms and three- dimensional figures like cubes, cuboids, cylinders, cones, spheres and hemispheres, etc, may be asked in the CSAT examination. You should remember the basic formulae related with volumes, perimeters and areas ofthese figures. Questions on Sectors and Segments are also important. Questions where one has to find the area of the shaded part are most important in this module. Modern Mathematics ‘This includes topics like Permutations and Combinations, Probability and the basic logical aspects of Set Theory (Union and Intersection). Permutations and Combinations is a very important topic from this module, as in the past, one or two questions of moderate to high difficulty level were asked from this topic. A lot of practice is required to do well in this Basic ‘Numeracy section. The students are advised to attempt the question before looking atthe scion. Th wil el inthe devloptsent oftheir aptitude in solving a new question. Also, one should learn the techniques to solve the questions from the given ‘options or try to salve the questions by eliminating the options. DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY Data can be represented in different forms such as Tables, Graphs, Charts, etc. This part has questions based on data represented in the form of Tables, Bar Graphs, Line Graphs, Pie Charts, Mixed Graphs, etc., and students are required to analyse the data and solve the questions in context to the data given. We basically have three types of questions in Data Interpretation, i.e. calculation, counting and reasoning based questions. In calculation based questions, we have to do mathematical calculations to find the answer; in counting based questions, we have to do counting while following certain constraints; in reasoning based questions, more than one constraints are given to solve the question asked. Questions related to Data Interpretation require your ability to comprehend and analyse the given data and solve related questions quickly and accurately. Bar Chart Itis a graph having rectangular bars in which length is proportional to the value that it represent. The bars can be plotted vertically or horizontally. Bar graphs are the best for comparing larger changes or differences in data among groups. Bar graphs are very useful because they allow the reader to recognise patterns for trends for more easily than looking at a table of numerical data. Histogram Itis a graphical representation, showing a visual impression of the distribution of data, It shows frequency of a continuous data. A histogram consists of tabular frequencies, shown as adjacent rectangles, erected over discrete intervals with an area equal to the frequency of the observations in the interval. The height of the rectangle is equal to the frequency density of the interval, that is, the frequency divided by the width of the interval. Line Chart Itis a type of graph, which displays information as a series of data points connected by straight line segments. It is created by connecting with line segments a series of scattered points that represent individual measurements. Tables are the ——— tematic and scientific presentation of quantitative to understand the given information. They erable the viewer to make comparison of facts and draw quick conclusions. Pie Chart Itisa circular chart divided into sectors in which the arc length, its central angle and area are proportional to the quantities that it represents. Itconveys approximate proportional relationships at point in time, Iti difficult to compare different sections of a given pie chart or to compare data across different pie charts. Pie charts are generally used to show percentage or proportional data and usually the percentage represented by each category is provided next to the corresponding slice of pie. Data Sufficiency In this part a question is followed by_statement(s) and you will be expected to find whether the information provided in the statements individually or collectively is sufficient to answer the question. Good mathematical knowledge and skills are required to solve data sufficiency problems because these problems appear more difficult at first. But once you become familiar with the directions, you find these problems no harder than standard aptitude problems. General Mental Ability (GMA) General mental ability is one of the prime topics of ‘most of the entrance examinations. This section analyses a student's ability to picturise data and rearrange it to reach to a solution. From a student's perspective, GMA as a subject does not require any formal learning of specific rules, but an exposure to and find your own way to handle tricky questions. These questions can be based on Puzzles, Dice, Visual Reasoning, Alpha-Numeric Reasoning, Number Series, Logical/Alphabetical/ Diagrammatic Sequences, Codes, Blood Relations, Directions, Venn Diagrams, etc. It may encompasses our verbal Concepts, vocabulary, arithmetic and spatial awareness, Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability ‘The previous year’s examination emphasised more on the Analytical Ability questions as opposed to Logical Reasoning questions. The Analytical Ability questions were asked from familiar areas and in familiar form. (©. This section tests the ability to reason ‘out correctly. This section is closest to real life problems. Here, questions can be based on Short Passages, Syllogisms, Statement and Conclusion, Evaluating Inferences, etc © Assumptions are unstated facts and logical connections in a statement. In order for the conclusion of a statement to be true, the assumptions on which that statement is based must also be true. In the questions based on arguments, 2 statement is followed by two arguments. ‘strong argument is that which touches the practical and real aspect of the situation as described inthe statement. A ‘weak argument isa very simple, superfluous and long drawn one. Candidates are required to distinguish between the strong and weak argument, A strong argument should not be mere reiteration of the situation given inthe statement © Asa responsible Civil Servant officer, ‘you will have to face many ‘administrative challenges where the ability to decide the correct course of action will prove very important. Course of action should be feasible and should relate tothe practial aspects of life. For solving such questions think of yourself asthe officerin-charge concerned, who has to take the decision impartially. Mostly questions wil be based on an Indian context, so consider the socio- economic conditions of India while choosing the correct course of action. eg, if any direction is given by the courts, then the possible courses of action at the various steps taken by the government isto execute that direction, DECISION MAKING AND PROBLEM SOLVING ‘This section measures a candidate’s ability to take a decision based on a given set of conditions and information. Decision Making is the ability of an individual to prioritise the various alternatives available to him/her. Based on your experiences gathered so far, you can make decisions. Decision Making is ‘All decisions are based on the situation in which it has been taken. in the domain of Interpersonal Skills and itis based on perception, use of intellect, io ation and volition, Interpersonal skills are effective and coordinated ways of delivering the decisions. Remember, while resolving a situation, the candidate just has to present his/her own Attitude and approach for solving the same. Think yourself as a responsible Civil Servant while attempting these questions. An officer has to be a good communicator and a good facilitator, the Decision Making section of CSAT is therefore, a very important topic. INTERPERSONAL SKILLS INCLUDING COMMUNICATION SKILLS “The true meaning of skill i ‘possession of quality to do something’ or ‘avail something done": Soft skills also known as non-technical skills, are the personal values and {nterpersonal skills that determine a person’s ability to work well with others in @ project team, These skils include effective communication, leadership and team work Tills, showing problem solving abilities; initiative and motivation skill, showing honesty and strong work ethics. Communication is also a kind of interpersonal skill. UPSC has included it in its examination pattern to select appropriate candidates ‘amongst aspirants. We should consider these skills especially for prelims as well as for interview. Effective leaders periodically take stock of their personal strengths and shortcomings. Being perceptive can also help a leader to be more effective in knowing the needs of team. Some team values trust over creativity and other prefer clear communicator to & great organiser. Building a strong team is easier when you know the value and goals of Each individual. The skills are generally interpersonal, not specific to leadership, but successful leader tend to show high levels of skill while communicating. TREND ANALYSIS OF CSAT PAPER 2 Based on Tend Analysis of 2012, 208, 2014, 2015, 2016 a 907 papers mb of quis ave ‘been asked from each section, are : . a : ‘Test Area 2017 2016 2015-2014 20132012 Comprehension 30 7 30D Basic Numeracy, Data Interpretationand 24 —«26=«~SCSO Sufficiency ue "agi Rens Fenn Tnglsh Language Comprehension Se a te mem cas Mating ed paar tT pecan cag es Communication Skills Toul a a a) In Year 2017 30 questions were asked from 29 passages, 24 questions from Basic Numeracy. There ‘were no questions asked from Data Interpretation and Data Suficiency. General Mental Ability seetion hhad 20 questions which analysed students' ability to comprehend data. 6 questions were there from logical reasoning and analytical ability based on statements and conclusions and syllogism. No questions ‘were asked from non-verbal reasoning, decision-making, English language comprehension and communication skills inthe paper. In Year 2016 27 questions were asked from 17 passages, 26 questions from Basic Numeracy. There were ‘no questions from Data Interpretation this year. Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability included 5 ‘questions and 22 questions were therefrom General Mental Ability. In this year, no questions were asked fom Decision Making, English Language Comprehension, Problem Solving and Non-verbal Reasoning. In Year 2015 30 questions were asked from 25 passages, 24 questions from Basic Numeracy, 6 questions from Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability, 20 questions from General Mental Abily. In ear 2015 no questions were asked fom Decision Making and Problem Solving and English Language ‘Comprehension. In Year 2014 26 questions were asked from 8 passages, 19 questions were asked from Basic Numeracy and Daa Interpretation, 5 questions from Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability, 24 questions from General Mental Ability In Year 2013 23 questions were asked from 8 passages, 20 questions were asked from Basic Numeracy, 6 questions from Decision Making and Problem Solving, 1 queston from Logical Reasoning and ‘Analytical Ability, 22 questions from General Mental Ability and 8 questions from English Language Comprehension. In Year 2012 32 questions were asked from 8 passages, 3 questions from Basic Numeracy, 7 questions from Decision Making and Problem Solving, 19 questions from English Language Comprehension. \ | ‘ee cs SOLVED PAPER 2017-2016 OAV DEVAN ee CSAT Civil Services Aptitude Test PAPER 2 Time : 2 hrs MM : 200 INSTRUCTIONS © There are 80 questions in this paper. © The answer of any question you are thinking that more than two answers are true, then you must choose the nearest one. There is only one answer to be selected by you Penalty for wrong answer © There are four alternative answers in every question. When you select a wrong answer, then 4/8rd mark of that question is deducted in your total marks. © If any candidate gives more than one answer and one of them is true but its treated as a wrong, answer and the candidate is penalised for that and1/Srd marks will be deducted. Directions (@. Nos. 1-8) Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage 1 Disruption of traditional intiutions, identifications and loyaltics is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. Ic is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups nd symbols emergent from processes of political development. In addition, politcal development tends to foster group gwarenese of a variery of cass tribe, region, lan, language, religion, occupation and others. 1. Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage? {@) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay {b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development {© itis impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties {@) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development & (@) According to the passage no poltical development evolves in a steady and consistent way. iwolves both growth and decay. Any paitcal evelopment gues people an opporunity to ether show thei yates towards itor break away trom thee loyaties and jon ther poiticl groups. Here option (a) only is correct as otter options eppearinelevant here ss ee Passage 2 ‘There has been a significant trend worldwide rowards regionalism in government, resulting in a widesp transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterised a being made up of dee factors—political legitimacy, decentralisation o authority and decentralisation of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralisation process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralisation is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilisa it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralisation process often does not Fulfil its for objectives. 2. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential 10 create sub-national politcal entities and thus successful devolution decentralisation {(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralisation on the regional ‘communities by law or otherwise Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level (d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential (6) The passage deals with a signiicant trend all over the world after 1890s in which powers, ights end responsibilties are transferred to the local authoiies or regions by the central government. tis termed 08 ‘devolution and it isa form of administrative ‘decentralisation, Devolution tobe successful needs an ‘atmosphere where people are fre to express their ‘Opinions and are wiling fo actively participate in running the administration, Imposing ‘Devolution’ through law cannot make it successful. Here option (c) gives us the ‘most logia) rational and crtical inference of the passage, cther options (a), (b) and (d) are not fully relevant in Conte ofthe passage. © Passage 3 We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are Cracking the CSAT Paper 2 hugely structured by the digital technolog is everywhere and, like sr, invisible. Wel ee nga digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets we” interact through digital media, and the very prese and imagination of the digital has dramavicily = restructured out lives. The digital, far from bein, tool, is a condition and context that defines thee shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance, 3. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage? {@) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living (0) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence cof mankind in future & (0) The passage speaks about how we ve in an era of dhtleation which sa procass of converting information ino adil format. Today, most of our activi are integrated through diataltechaologies. Daitalisation has complete taken ove ou ves and no one can imagine fing without t. Gur daly fe has become less dependent ‘and devoid of human interaction with the help of digital technology. Hence option () i the most logical and essential message conweyed by this passage. Other tptions are not relevant here as option (a) tak about soing of problems. Option (c) deals about some uses of ‘Sgialgation and option (d) only talks about its usefuiness for our existence in future. 80, opton (2) isthe most relevant one asi says that speaking of cigtl technologies is speaking of our Ives and ivng. ©) @ Passage 4 ‘The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the tisk of falling into ‘middle-income trap’. It means chat average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point—a point that is well shore of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income crap—none of which is surprising— from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less macroeconomic conditions. overall cause, says IMB, is growth of productivity. 4, Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (@) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes (b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies Solved Paper * 2017 (©) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory 3 (0) As per the passage, the IMF has pointed out that ‘emerging Asian economies are potentially susceptible tothe ‘Middle Income Trap’ a phenomenon where by ‘economies fail to graduate into the ranks of advanced ‘economies. IMF is ofthe view that ASEAN counties lack in growth of productivity as they are quite ‘weak. Here option (d) is most logical and citical inference, @ Passage 5 An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives ofall Indians. Innovation and R&cD can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanisation. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to inerease income inequality. By ‘encouraging Indias R8¢D labs and universities to focus on the neéds of poor people and by improvin the ably of informal Gem to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the costs of jgoods and services and create income-carning ‘opportunities for the poor people. . Which among the following is the most logicat and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage? {@) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimise the divergence between productivity in agricultural and other sectors Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society Rapid urbanisation takes place only when country’s economic growth is rapid '& (6) The givon passage deals with the potential relevance of inclusive innovation which is the means by which Few goods and services are developed for and by the poor. Poor people's innovative sil is constrained by Inuficiently developed skis, inadequate pubic services and an inabilty to access markets and assets ‘on fair terms, Through innovations and R&D, we can ‘certainly do much more for these poor and remove ‘disparity between the rich and the poor. Main focus willbe that diferent types of stakeholders willbe ‘Brought together to address issues of mutual concern ‘and interest with specific focus on the marginalised poor. ‘Option (isthe most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the given passage. © @ Passage 6 Climare is likely ro expose a large nlimber of people © Tnedae Sarbonaseel risks forcing them to migrate. ‘The international community is yet to recognise this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climace refugees owing to the distince meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going © provide protection? More emphasis has been given international migration due to climate change. But there is need to recognise the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly. 6. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage? {@) The world will not be able to cope with large-scale imigration of climate refugees We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change Climate change will be the most important reason forthe ‘migration of people in the future Relation between climate change and migration isnot yet properly understood 3 (@) The passege deals wth people's migration to other places due fo climate changes. tis sil not clea oitemational communty how cimalic changes work asthe oot cause of miptaion of people. Cate and environmental changes are Intrelated jst as ervronmental degradation and csaster an cause migration. Moverent of people can also ental Soniicant elects i surounding ecosystem. A crucial insight is thal by mpovershing url population and worsening thet income perspectives long-term warming aflects migration in ferent ways. Bu al ths til nt car fo international ‘community, Option (6) heres the correct answer as relation between climatic change and migration isnot yet propery understood, So, othe options are not relevant here. ) ic) @ Passage 7 Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hecrare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment, Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ccological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight, Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nacure for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. ‘They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in ipucuiecsnice i of biological diversity of predarors and the reduction of Caviomental comamination and hurman health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable altemative. 1. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modem agriculture. 2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance. 3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? {@) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (0) 1and 3 only (@) 1, 2and3 8. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent in environment. 3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below. fa) tonly tb) 1 and 2 only (€)1 and 3 only (1, 2and3 ‘ ¥6~0. Inthe passage, theres discussion about the harmiul effects of synthetic pesticides and usefulness of botanical pesticides. Syrinetic pesticides are harmful to farmers, Consumers and envionment. They are responsible for causing ecological imbalance. On the contrary, natural est control using botanical pesticides is saler for crops 2 well as tothe envionment and itis @ practical sustainable eltemative, 7. (0) Option (0) isthe retevant assumption here as one of {he aims of sustainable agriculture should be to ensure that minimum ecological imbalance takes place. ‘Syrthelc pesticides should be avoided as by entering in {ood chain, they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ‘ecological imbalance. (@) Regarcing biopestcides option (1) provides the Correct statement. It says that botanical pesticides are not hazardous to human heath as they help inthe ‘maintenance of biological diversity and the reduction of environmental contamination. Cracking the CSAT. Paper 9. Certain 3-digit num i Certain 3-digit numbers have the folowing 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7. How many such 3-digit numbers are there? @2 ws 6 ws '& () There are four numbers, ie, 168, 861, 952, 259, 10. Examine the following statements : 1, All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4, Some colours are not pleasant. Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded? (a) 1 and 2 are true. (b) 3 is true. (0) 2is false. (2) 1 is fase. ‘& (@) Given that some colours ere not pleasant clearty means that all colours are pleasant cannot be true, Henge, statement (1) if definitely false. 11. How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place? (aos 80 (90d) 108 & (6) Between 99 and 1000 all numbers are 3-digit numbers, Hundreds place can be occupied by any 9 numbers frm 1 108, Tens place can be occupied by any 10 numbers from otes. = Required numbers = 9 x 10= 90 12. If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode, then the distribution is (a) symmetric (©) skewed to the right (© neither symmetric nor skewed (@) skewed to the leit & (@) If meen < median < mode, then the distribution is skewed tothelet. 13, The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again? (a2 3825 16 Solved Paper » 2017 '& (b) Let the present age of Mr. x be xy. Then, according to question, ey and (xt er te Yeterot By ht ond wal method, z= Sand --Present 0900! Mr Now, not cube at 27, Hoos, Me. Xhaveo wat = 38 years for his a sme cube ofa Baty ge o become cube of 14, P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings? (a3stet (oy 3:2s4 (oaiaia (acts4 &(@ Gren, P=9Qand P+ Om 4A = 30+0=48 30=R Ratio of share = P:Q:A'=30:0:0 sactet 15. Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F: 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F. 3. Dis the mother of two, one boy and one gil. 4. B is the son of A. 5, There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above? (a) A, Band Care all females. (6) Ais the husband of D. (0) and F are children of D. (@) Dis the daughter of F 31 (0) As per given information, we have aot agt Se aS, Clearly, is the husband of . 16. A bag contains 20 balls, 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour? wiz 0) 16 (13 @i 7 1 (b) Alter picking & green balls and 7 white balls, i. 15 balls, the next 16th ball must be red. So, we have atleast one bal of each colour 17. If 2 boys and 2 gitls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there? @3 6 ©1228 9 (c) Total possible arrangements = 4! = 24 “otal possible arrangements when two git sit together ai x 21= 12 Required anangements = 24-12 = 12 18, The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 em cube is painted completely in red. It is sticed parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1.0m x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces? ws 16 = 2436 ‘¥ (@) Total number of unpainted cubes (0-2) =(4-2) =2?=8 Ineren= 4) 19. Consider the following A,B,C, D, E, F, Gand H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of 6. Fis to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at the extreme end. Ais sixth to the left of E. His sixth to the right of C. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above? (a) Cis tothe immediate let of A (b) Dis immediate neighbour of B and F. {© G is to the immediate right of D. {d) Aand E are at the extreme ends. 28 (6) As per given information, correct order is a Ac BD G H ‘Clary, G is othe immediate right of D. 20. In a certain code, ‘256 means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk. The digit in the code that indicates ‘white’ is 2 (4 5 ws ‘8 (0) 256~red colour chalk 589 - green colour fower 254 white colour chalk Hee, 5—+ Colour 2— Chalk 4 Mnite 8 Directions,(Q.No. 21-27) Read the following Seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage 1 ‘An Air Quality Index (AQl) is a way to combine ‘measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating, This index is ideally kept constancly updated and available in different places. The AQL is mose useful when lots of pollution data are being gathered and when pollution levels are normally, but not always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the public can quickly take preventive action (like staying indoors) in response to an air quality warning. Unforcunately, that is not urban India. Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are so high thac they remain well above any health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in the Red/Dangerous' region day after day, there is not much any one can do, other than getting used to ignoring it. 21. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free (b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country (0) Air Quality Index is not helpful to the residents ff many of our large cities (a) tn every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase 22 (6) The passage is about the polio ive in indian cies and usefulness of ir Quality Index (RQ), AQ is a numerical scale used for reporting day to day aie qualty with regard to human heath and the fenvronment, The AI can be useful if pollution level remains normal or low most ofthe time. Wit the help of AG, people can take preventive measures, pollution levels rise for few days. But in most of {nian cites poluton levels are so high constantly that AI will aways stayin dangerous postion (red) 50 people have to ignore it most ofthe me and get Used to come cut oftheir houses and move around in highly paluted environment option (isthe most logical and rational inference here. In Indian cites Air (Quai Index isnot helptl tothe residents as politon fevel remains very high most ofthe time, Option (a) here has not been discussed in the passage, option (6) sitelevant and option (2) remains undiscussed in the passage. 3 (@) The passa: Cracking the CSAT Paper 2 Passage 2 Productive jobs are vital for growth and 2 good job is the bast form of inclusion, More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other counties suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture wil have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are ro go up substantially. While industry is creating jobs, too many Bech jabs are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the tunorganised sector, offering low incomes, litle protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employmenc growth in services has been slow in recent yeas. is the most logical and 22. Which among the following be made from the above rational inference that can passage? (a) We must create conditions for the faster productive service jabs to ensure employment inclusion (b) We must shift ‘manufacturing and service growth and inclusion We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while fmproving the productivity of agriculture We must emphasise the cultivation of high-yielding, hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture 190 deals with the importance of productive jobs to 's economy. A productive job results in producing goods and services that have monetary ot exchange Jalue. Generating employment without growth should not be & policy prescription. The most logical and rational inference that an be made from the above passage is option (2); we must Greate concitions for the faster growth of highly productive Service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion. Option (b), (6) and (4) are not relevant here, growth of highly yowth and the farm workers to the highly productive Sectors to ensure the economic @ a boost a county’ Passage 3 ‘A landscape-scale approach ro land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During Woricane Mite? in 1998, farms using ecoagriculrural practices suffered 58 per cent, 70 per cent and 99 per cent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa Rica, vegetative windbreaks and fencerows boosted farmers’ income from pasture and coffee while aso increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat, a finding that matters because 87 per cent of the world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems that integrate trees with pastureland are improving the sustainability of cattle production, and diversifying and increasing farmers’ income. Solved Paper » 2017 23, Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? {a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters (b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture (0) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there (d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them '& (@) The passage mentions about landscape-scale approach and its benefits. There are strong lnks between the Jandscape-scale approach and ‘ecosystem’ appreach ‘which encourage an integrated approach to land ‘management. We must pursue such matters that minimise risks and maximise opportunites for people, for nature and forthe economy, This would aso involve stepping outside raiional disciplines and comfort zones. Here option (a) provides the most logical end rational inference trom the passage as it stats that agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and rue the winerabily to csasters, ‘Options (0) (c) and (@) ae relevant here, Passage 4 ‘The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing, is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added sectors, and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing; and high tech industries are mainly capital and technology intensive. In order to push the share of manufacturing. in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global marker in sectors showing a rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capical intensive 24, Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? {@) India's GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries (6) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India (0) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and evelopment, technology upgradation and skill development (@) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand 9 {2 (@) The passage s about chalenges for Indian manulacturing sector which need to mave fom overt high ech sectors an rom tower o higher productive sector. To push the share of manufacturing in overall projected GOP of 25%. India needs a high technology ndustal capabily to create high valu obs, sustain grovch, protec ts national securty and bull vibrant society. ncian manufacturing needs 10 capture global markets showing a rising vend in demand. Bulding a word class and globally competive high technology industri, no doubt a huge task, but Inca hes ‘most ofthe ingredients for success, Some vision and commitment with imagination isthe needed. Option (a) hare provides the most logical and rational Inference. Option (bis false, option (c) snot discussed here and option (is irelevant. Passage 5 ‘Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become ‘more robust with record production of foodgrains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added hhuge stacks of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world’ top producers of rice, wheat, mill, fruits and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter ofall undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food. 25, Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage? (@) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition Increasing the agricultural productivity will ‘automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it isnot necessary to increase it further Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India & (@) The passage deals about two contrasting situations or paradox of plenty prevalent in india, On the one hand there has been record production in foodgrains increasing huge stacks of foodgrains in granares. On the other hand, india is fll of undemourshed people totaling almost a quarter ‘fal undernourished people in the word. The most logical corollary tothe given passage is option (a). isa fact that India’s Public Distribution System needs a revamping ‘which may increase the efficiency of farm to fork value chain. tis necessary to reduce the poverty and ‘mainuttion of people of India. The amount of wheat or rice distributed tothe poor needs to get larger. the system ‘needs to be rd of loopholes where food does not ‘each the needy and gets exchanged for money in between. Option (0) is incorect, option (c) and (@) are not relevant ) © @ | 0 Cracking the CSAT Paper 2 | Passage 6 ‘The States are like pearls and the Centre isthe thread which turns them into a necklace; if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered 26. Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement? {a) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong (b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity (0 A strong Centre isa hindrance to State autonomy (@) State autonomy is a prerequisite fora federation (0) The author wants to convey through the passage that a strong Centra isthe foundation oF a binding force keeping ‘al States together in harmony. The federal structure ofthe ration shows that Conte isthe supreme power wich helps, supports and coordinates the States, while respecting ther cuture and traditions. The song Cente acts asa binding force which feciltates the exchange of ideas and promote national iniegity. The statement of the passage is corroborated by statement (b).A strong Centre {$a binding force for national inter Passage 7 Really | think thar the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as che greatest he, and therefore truly, 1 think it is clear tha every man that isto live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government, and 1 do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government that he has not had a voice to put himself under. 27. The above statement argues for {@) distribution of wealth equally to all {b) rule according to the consent of the governed (0) tule of the poor (@) expropriation of the rich {8 (0) The passage doals withthe idea that consent of everyone being ruled or governed is very essential for a goed governance. The poor and the rch ake should have a Tight to choose the people who wil form the goverment in ‘ paricular county. Here, option (tis the corect answer as this statement argues inthe best possible manner that 'ule ina state should be according fo the consent ofthe (governed, Other options are nat relevant here 28. The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day? fa) 0.60 inch (b) 0.70 inch (©) 0.80 inch (d) 0.90 inch 3 (¢) Avorage rainfall in fst four days = 0.40 inch ‘Average rainfall in six days = 0.50 inch Lethe rainfall on ast two days be 4x and 3, espe 4x 040+ 4x4 3x a Then, 0s @ . oso= 18+7* = 3218+ 7% Tx=3-16=14 sy . 12 Hence, rainfall on the fith day = 4x = 4x/0.2=0.80 inch Directions (Q.Nos. 29-31) Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow, A,B,C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same order) who participated in a conference, Each one of them is specialised in a different subject, viz., Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not necessarily in the same order). Further 1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialised in Geography. 2, Lecturer D is from Shillong. 3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialised in Sociology. 4, Lecturer B is specialised in neither History nor Mathematics. 5. Lecturer A who is specialised in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad. 6. Lecturer F who is specialised in Commerce belongs to Srinagar. 7. Lecturer G who is specialised in Statistics belongs to Chennai. 29, Who is specialised in Geography? @B o) D @e (@) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate 30. To which city does the Lecturer specialised in Economics belong? (@) Hyderabad (b) Mumbai (@ Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai (2) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate Who of the followig belongs to Hyderabad? @B WE (2) Neither B nor & (@) Cannot be deter 31, id as data are inadequate

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