300+ TOP Communication Skills MCQs and Answers Quiz 2022

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300+ TOP Communication Skills MCQs and

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1. Communication is a non-stop______________. with 100+ minty
A. paper layers
B. process Tic Tac Gentle
Message
C. programme
D. plan
Open
Answer:B. process
2. Communication is a part of ________ skills.

A. soft
B. hard
C. rough
D. short
Answer:A. soft
3. The _______________ is the person who transmits the message.

A. receiver
B. driver
C. sender
D. cleaner
Answer:C. sender
4. _____________ is the person who notices and decodes and attaches some
meaning to a message.
A. receiver
B. driver
C. sender
D. cleaner
Answer:A. receiver
5. Message is any signal that triggers the response of a _________

A. receiver
B. driver
C. sender
D. cleaner
Answer:A. receiver
6. The response to a sender€™s message is called _________

A. food bank
B. feedback
C. food
D. back
Answer:B. feedback
7. ___________ context refers to the relationship between the sender and the
receiver
A. social
B. physical
C. cultural
D. chronological
Answer:A. social
8. ___________ context refers to the similarity of backgrounds between the

sender and the receiver.
A. physical
B. social
C. chronological
D. cultural
Answer:D. cultural
9. _________ refers to all these factors that disrupt the communication.

A. nonsense
B. noise
C. nowhere
D. nobody
Answer:B. noise
10. Environmental barriers are the same as ______ noise.

A. physiological
B. psychological
C. physical
D. sociological
Answer:C. physical
11. Our dress code is an example of _____________ communication.

A. verbal
B. nonverbal
C. written
D. spoken
Answer:B. nonverbal
12. Communication strengthens _______ & ______________ relationship is

an organization.
A. employer-father
B. employer-employer
C. mother-employer
D. mother-child
Answer:B. employer-employer
13. _______________ communication includes tone of voice body language,

facial expressions etC.
A. nonverbal
B. verbal
C. letter
D. notice
Answer:A. nonverbal
14. When there is similarity of background between the sender and the receives
such as age, language nationality, religion, gender then this is called
_____________ context.
A. social
B. cultural
C. physical
D. dynamic
Answer:B. cultural
15. Letter, e-mail telephone are examples of __________

A. message
B. feedback
C. channel
D. encoding
Answer:C. channel
16. Understanding __________different parts of speech forms the base of

leaning grammar
A. five
B. eight
C. six
D. seven
Answer:B. eight
17. It is of paramount importance that one need to construct a

__________sentence in the day to day affairs
A. wrong
B. correct
C. incorrect
D. night
Answer:B. correct
18. A__________way be defined as the name of a person place or thing

A. verb
B. noun
C. pronoun
D. adverb
Answer:B. noun
19. According to hoben communication is the _____ nituchange of thought or

ideA.
A. visual
B. audio
C. verbal
D. written
Answer:C. verbal
20. The person who transmits the message is called the ____ or
A. sender
B. gives
C. taker
D. receiver
Answer:A. sender
21. Proper nouns always begin with ________letters

A. running
B. capital
C. small
D. numerical
Answer:B. capital
22. ______________nouns require capitalization only if they start the

sentence or are part of a title
A. common
B. proper
C. abstract
D. collective
Answer:A. common
23. Once the message is encoded in a desired format it is transferred through a

medium called ______
A. channel
B. medium
C. media
D. way
Answer:A. channel
24. The nouns which cannot be felt, seen or heard are called __________
A. common
B. proper
C. abstract
D. collective
Answer:C. abstract
25. The information which is transferred to the receiver has to be interpreted

this process is called _____
A. encoding
B. decoding
C. opening
D. closing
Answer:B. decoding
26. All communication events have a _________.

A. resource
B. source
C. start
D. end
Answer:B. source
27. Personifications of strength and violence are considered as ________

gender.
A. masculine
B. feminine
C. common
D. neuter
Answer:A. masculine
28. The message may be misinterpreted because of _____

A. barriers
B. distortions
C. distractions
D. noise
Answer:A. barriers
29. The environment in which the transmitter or receiver are should be ____
A. complex
B. competent
C. complete
D. compatible
Answer:D. compatible
30. A noun that dandies neither a male or a female is ___________gender

A. masculine
B. feminine
C. common
D. neuter
Answer:D. neuter
31. Countries when referred to by names are also considered _____________

A. masculine
B. feminine
C. common
D. neuter
Answer:B. feminine
32. The Christian sign of the ____ is a gesture pertaining to religion and
spirituality.
A. plus
B. minus
C. division
D. cross
Answer:D. cross
33. In oral communication there is a possibility of immediate _________

A. reaction
B. response
C. refection
D. reset
Answer:B. response
34. In oral communication the speaker can observe the listenerâ€™s _______
to what is being elateD.
A. reaction
B. response
C. rejection
D. reset
Answer:A. reaction
35. Nouns that end in â€œYâ€ but have a constant before â€œYâ€ form their
plural by dropping and adding ___
A. ves
B. es
C. s
D. ies
Answer:D. ies
36. White talking to friends you do not pay attention to the skills of _____
Communication.
A. written
B. oral
C. audio
D. visual
Answer:B. oral
37. In oral presentation outside your organisation you must first give the
audience a ______ of your organization.
A. flash back
B. background
C. front view
D. forword view
Answer:B. background
38. A and an are the ___________articles

A. definite
B. indefinite
C. particular
D. specified
Answer:B. indefinite
39. The _______ are used to present using overhead projectors.

A. acetate film transparent sheet
B. paper sheets
C. polythene sheet
D. butter paper
Answer:A. acetate film transparent sheet
40. Any word that adds more meaning to the noun is called an __________
A. adverb
B. verb
C. adjective
D. noun
Answer:C. adjective
41. A__________indicates the action done by the subject

A. verb
B. adverb
C. noun
D. pronoun
Answer:B. adverb
42. A___________is a word which connects words phrases , clauses or

sentences
A. preposition
B. conjunction
C. interjection
D. verb
Answer:B. conjunction
43. During presentation using an OHP. One can read information line by line
using an opaque sheet to cover the transparency with a view to minimize
distraction. This technology is called _________
A. positive disclosure
B. zero disclosure
C. negative disclosure
D. progressive disclosure
Answer:D. progressive disclosure
44. Another thing that you have to avoid is adding to OHPs with a ________
during a talk.
A. chalk
B. pencil
C. pen
D. marker
Answer:C. pen
45. It is important to consider proper _____ room where you are giving your
presentation.
A. darkness
B. lighting
C. lightning
D. ventilation
Answer:B. lighting
46. _____ Listening means learning through conversation

A. evaluative
B. appreciative
C. dialogic
D. empathetic
Answer:C. dialogic
47. In _____ Listening the difference between the sounds is identified

A. discriminative
B. comprehension
C. dialogic
D. empathetic
Answer:A. discriminative
48. The ___________is an exclamation mark

A. ?
B. .
C. ,
D. !
Answer:D. !
49. Evaluative listening is also called _____

A. therapeutic
B. evaluative
C. dialogic
D. impathetic
Answer:A. therapeutic
50. The___________is the action or description that occur in the sentence

A. predicate
B. subject
C. object
D. complement
Answer:A. predicate
51. The _____________speech is also called as reported speech

A. direct
B. indirect
C. indefinite
D. definite
Answer:B. indirect
52. A cordless telephone using separate frequencies for transmission in base and
portable units is known as
A. duplex arrangement
B. half duplex arrangement
C. either (a) or (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:A. duplex arrangement
53. For attenuation of high frequencies we should use

A. shunt capacitance
B. series capacitance
C. inductance
D. resistance
Answer:A. shunt capacitance
54. A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is

A. upto 100 bps
B. upto 250 bps
C. upto 400 bps
D. upto 600 bps
Answer:D. upto 600 bps
55. VSB modulation is preferred in TV because

A. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
B. it avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
C. it results in better reception
D. none of the above
Answer:A. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
56. A woofer should be fed from the input through a

A. low pass filter
B. high pass filter
C. band pass filter
D. band stop filter
Answer:A. low pass filter
57. Which of the following is an indirect way of generating FM?

A. armstrong modulator
B. varactor diode modulator
C. reactance fet modulator
D. reactance bipolar transistor
Answer:A. armstrong modulator
58. When the length of antenna is a whole wavelength

A. the radiation at right angles is zero
B. the radiation at right angles is maximum
C. the radiation is zero in all directions
D. the radiation is maximum in all directions
Answer:A. the radiation at right angles is zero
59. Circular polarization

A. is useful in reducing depolarization effect on received wave
B. involves critical alignment of transmitting and receiving antenna
C. is useful in discrimination between reception of adjacent beams
Answer:A. is useful in reducing depolarization effect on received wave
60. An FM radio receiver which is tuned to a 91.6 MHz broadcast station may
receive an image frequency of __________ MHz.
A. 102.3
B. 113
C. 70.2
D. 80.9
Answer:B. 113
61. For telegraphy the most commonly used modulation system is

A. fsk
B. two tone modulation
C. pcm
D. single tone modulation
Answer:A. fsk
62. Commercial Frequency deviation of FM is

A. 70 khz
B. 75 khz
C. 80 khz
D. 65 khz
Answer:B. 75 khz
63. The colour of an object is decided by

A. the reflected colour
B. the wavelength transmitted through it
C. reflected colour for opaque object and wavelength transmitted through it for transparent
objects
Answer:C. reflected colour for opaque object and wavelength transmitted through it for
transparent objects
64. In Pulse Code Modulation system

A. large bandwidth is required
B. quantising noise can be overcome by companding
C. quantising noise can be reduced by decreasing the number of standard levels
D. suffers from the disadvantage of its incompatibly with tdm
Answer:A. large bandwidth is required
65. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. convex lens has positive focal power and concave lens have negative focal power
B. convex lens has negative focal power and concave lens have positive focal power
C. all lens have positive focal power
D. all lens have negative focal power

Answer:A. convex lens has positive focal power and concave lens have negative focal power
66. In Modulation, “carrier” is

A. resultant wave
B. speech voltage to be transmitted
C. voltage with constant frequency, phase or amplitude
D. voltage for which frequency, phase or amplitude is varied
Answer:D. voltage for which frequency, phase or amplitude is varied
67. To eliminate ghosts in the picture

A. use a longer transmission line
B. connect a booster
C. change the antenna orientation of location
D. twist the transmission line
Answer:C. change the antenna orientation of location
68. The frequency range of 300 kHz to 3000 kHz is known as

A. low frequency
B. medium frequency
C. high frequency
D. very high frequency
Answer:B. medium frequency
69. Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?
A. stepped index operation
B. impurities
C. microbending
D. attenuation in glass
Answer:A. stepped index operation
70. For a low level AM system, the amplifiers modulated stage must be
A. linear devices
B. harmonic devices
C. class c amplifiers
D. non-linear devices
Answer:A. linear devices
71. A telephone channel requires a bandwidth of about

A. 1 khz
B. 3 khz
C. 10 khz
D. 50 khz
Answer:B. 3 khz
72. For a given carrier wave, maximum undistorted power is transmitted when
value of modulation is
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
Answer:A. 1
73. As per Shannon-Hartley theorem, a noise less Gaussian channel has

A. zero capacity
B. infinite capacity
C. small capacity
Answer:B. infinite capacity
74. DVD uses

A. laser beam for both recording and playback
B. laser beam for recording and video head for playback
C. video head for recording and laser beam for playback
Answer:A. laser beam for both recording and playback
75. Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as

A. a fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics
B. a fundamental sine wave and even harmonics
C. a fundamental sine wave and harmonics
D. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
Answer:A. a fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics
76. FM transmitting and receiving equipment as compared to AM equipment is

A. costly
B. cheaper
C. almost equally costly
Answer:A. costly
77. An audio signal (say from 50 Hz to 10000 Hz) is frequency translated by a

carrier having a frequency of 106 Hz. The values of initial (without frequency
translation) and final (after frequency translation) fractional change in
frequency from one band edge to the other are
A. 200 and 1.01
B. 200 and 10.01
C. 200 and 100.1
D. 200 and 200
Answer:A. 200 and 1.01
78. If in a broadcasting studio, a 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by an audio

signal of frequency range 100-5000 kHz, the width of channel is __________
kHz.
A. 5
B. 4.9
C. 995
D. 10
Answer:D. 10
79. Which one of the following is analog?

A. pcm
B. pwm
C. delta modulation
D. differential pcm
Answer:B. pwm
80. The disadvantage of FM over AM is that

A. high output power is needed
B. high modulating power is needed
C. noise is very high for high frequency
D. large bandwidth is required
Answer:D. large bandwidth is required
81. Which of the following is a digital modulation technique?

A. pcm
B. psk
C. dm
D. all
Answer:B. psk
82. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?

A. free running multi-vibrator
B. monostable multi-vibrator
C. jk flip-flop
D. schmitt trigger
Answer:B. monostable multi-vibrator
83. SSB can be generated by

A. filter method
B. phase cancellation method
C. good attenuation characteristics
D. all of the above
Answer:D. all of the above
84. A zero mean white Gaussian noise is passed through an ideal low pass filter
of bandwidth 10 kHz. The output of the samples so obtained would be
A. correlated
B. statistically independent
C. uncorrelated
D. orthogonal
Answer:B. statistically independent
85. What is the purpose of peak clipper circuits in radio transmitters?

A. to prevent overmodulation
B. to reduce bandwidth
C. to increase bandwidth
D. to regulate oscillator i/p voltage
Answer:A. to prevent overmodulation
86. In case of low level amplitude modulation system, the amplifiers following
the modulated stage must be
A. class c amplifiers
B. linear devices
C. non-linear devices
D. harmonic devices
Answer:B. linear devices
87. Under ordinary circumstances, impulse noise can be reduced in

A. fm only
B. am only
C. both am and fm
Answer:A. fm only
88. In case of frequency modulation, modulating voltage remains constant if the

modulating frequency is lowered, then
A. amplitude of distant sidebands decreases
B. amplitude of distant sidebands increases
C. amplitude of distant sidebands remains constant
D. amplitude of distant sidebands first increases, then decreases
Answer:B. amplitude of distant sidebands increases
89. If sampling is done at the rate of 10 kHz. The bandwidth required is

A. 35 khz
B. 70 khz
C. 10 khz
D. 1280 khz
Answer:A. 35 khz
90. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers from fading. This can be
avoided by using
A. space diversity
B. frequency diversity
C. broad band antenna
D. directional antenna
Answer:B. frequency diversity
91. In practical commercial FM system, channel bandwidth is

A. 150 khz
B. 100 khz
C. 88 mhz
D. 108 mhz
Answer:A. 150 khz
92. In EM waves, polarization

A. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
B. is caused by reflection
C. is due to transverse nature of waves
D. results from longitudinal nature of waves
Answer:C. is due to transverse nature of waves
93. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band
allocated to satellite communication is about
A. 0.5 kw
B. 8 kw
C. 20 kw
D. 50 kw
Answer:A. 0.5 kw
94. PAM stands for

A. pulse analogue modulation
B. phase analogue modulation
C. pulse amplitude modulation
D. phase amplitude modulation
Answer:C. pulse amplitude modulation
95. The characteristic impedance of a twin wire feeder used for TV signals is
about
A. 1000 ohm
B. 500 ohm
C. 300 ohm
D. 100 ohm
Answer:C. 300 ohm
96. In a FM receiver, amplitude limiter

A. amplifiers low frequency signals
B. reduces the amplitude of signals
C. eliminates any change in amplitude of received fm signals
Answer:C. eliminates any change in amplitude of received fm signals
97. A buffer amplifier is

A. a double-tuned amplifier
B. a high gain D.C. amplifier
C. a cathode follower stage
Answer:B. a high gain D.C. amplifier
98. Leak type bias is used in plate modulated class C amplifier to

A. increase the bandwidth
B. prevent over modulation
C. prevent excessive grid current
D. prevent tuned circuit damping
Answer:C. prevent excessive grid current
99. The direction of rotation of a CD is

A. clockwise
B. anticlockwise
C. clockwise or anticlockwise depending on frequency of data stored
D. mostly anticlockwise but some times clockwise
Answer:B. anticlockwise
100. One of the advantages of base modulation over collector modulation of a

transistor class C amplifier is
A. improved efficiency
B. better linearity
C. high power output per transistor
D. the lower modulating power requirement
Answer:D. the lower modulating power requirement
101. In a TV receiver antenna the length of reflector rod.

A. is the same as that of dipole
B. is less than that of dipole
C. is more than that of dipole
D. may be equal, more or less than that of dipole
Answer:C. is more than that of dipole
102. The modulation index of an FM is changed from 0 to 1. How does the

transmitted power change?
A. gets halved
B. gets doubled
C. gets increased by 50 percent
D. remains unchanged
Answer:C. gets increased by 50 percent
103. For AM receivers the standard IF frequency is

A. 106 khz
B. 455 khz
C. 1.07 mhz
D. 10.7 mhz
Answer:B. 455 khz
104. For a plate-modulated class C amplifier the plate supply voltage is E. The
maximum plate cathode voltage could be almost high as
A. 2e
B. 3e
C. 4e
D. 6e
Answer:C. 4e
105. In TV systems, equalising pulses are sent during

A. horizontal blanking
B. vertical blanking
C. serrations
D. horizontal retrace
Answer:A. horizontal blanking
106. A three stage telephone switching structure is to have 128 input and 128
output terminals. There are 16 first stage and 16 third stage matrices. To avoid
blocking the number of intermediate paths required is

A. 16
B. 15
C. 8
D. 1
Answer:B. 15
107. The main function of a balanced modulator is to

A. produce balanced modulation of a carrier wave
B. produce 100% modulation
C. suppress carrier signal in order to create a single-sideband or double sideband
D. limit noise picked by a receiver
Answer:B. produce 100% modulation
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2/13/22, 8:23 AM 300+ TOP Communication Skills MCQs and Answers Quiz 2022

Any Skill Search H

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Home » Communication Skills Objective Questions » 300+ TOP Communication Skills

300+ TOP Communication Skills MCQs and

Refresh with many flavors

2. Communication is a part of ________ skills.

3. The _______________ is the person who transmits the message.

5. Message is any signal that triggers the response of a _________

6. The response to a sender€™s message is called _________

8. ___________ context refers to the similarity of backgrounds between the

9. _________ refers to all these factors that disrupt the communication.

10. Environmental barriers are the same as ______ noise.

11. Our dress code is an example of _____________ communication.

12. Communication strengthens _______ & ______________ relationship is

13. _______________ communication includes tone of voice body language,

15. Letter, e-mail telephone are examples of __________

16. Understanding __________different parts of speech forms the base of

17. It is of paramount importance that one need to construct a

18. A__________way be defined as the name of a person place or thing

19. According to hoben communication is the _____ nituchange of thought or

21. Proper nouns always begin with ________letters

22. ______________nouns require capitalization only if they start the

23. Once the message is encoded in a desired format it is transferred through a

25. The information which is transferred to the receiver has to be interpreted

26. All communication events have a _________.

27. Personifications of strength and violence are considered as ________

28. The message may be misinterpreted because of _____

30. A noun that dandies neither a male or a female is ___________gender

31. Countries when referred to by names are also considered _____________

33. In oral communication there is a possibility of immediate _________

38. A and an are the ___________articles

39. The _______ are used to present using overhead projectors.

Answer:A. acetate film transparent sheet

41. A__________indicates the action done by the subject

42. A___________is a word which connects words phrases , clauses or

Answer:D. progressive disclosure

46. _____ Listening means learning through conversation

47. In _____ Listening the difference between the sounds is identified

48. The ___________is an exclamation mark

49. Evaluative listening is also called _____

50. The___________is the action or description that occur in the sentence

51. The _____________speech is also called as reported speech

B. half duplex arrangement

C. either (a) or (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

Answer:A. duplex arrangement

53. For attenuation of high frequencies we should use

Answer:A. shunt capacitance

54. A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is

B. upto 250 bps

C. upto 400 bps

D. upto 600 bps

Answer:D. upto 600 bps

55. VSB modulation is preferred in TV because

B. it avoids phase distortion at low frequencies

C. it results in better reception

D. none of the above

Answer:A. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half

56. A woofer should be fed from the input through a

B. high pass filter

C. band pass filter

D. band stop filter

12. Communication strengthens _ & ________ relationship is