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(download pdf) Basic Immunology Functions And Disorders Of The Immune System 5th Edition Abbas Test Bank full chapter
(download pdf) Basic Immunology Functions And Disorders Of The Immune System 5th Edition Abbas Test Bank full chapter
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Abbas: Basic Immunology, 5th Edition
Chapter 07: Humoral Immune Responses
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which one of the following statements about primary and secondary antibody responses is
NOT true?
A. Antibodies in primary responses generally have lower affinity for antigen than those
produced in secondary responses.
B. Secondary responses reach peak levels more quickly than primary responses.
C. Primary responses require higher concentrations of antigen for initiation than secondary
responses.
D. Primary responses occur to all types of antigens, but secondary responses mostly occur
only to protein antigens.
E. Primary responses are characterized by IgG antibodies, whereas secondary responses are
dominated by IgM antibodies.
ANS: E
In a primary immune response, IgM antibodies are initially produced against antigens. IgG
production requires T cell–dependent isotype switching and is seen predominantly in secondary
responses. Primary antibody responses can be mounted to any type of antigen, but secondary
responses usually require CD4+ T cell help, and therefore the antigen must be a protein. Primary
responses do require higher concentrations of antigen for initiation. The affinity of membrane Ig
for antigen is lower on naive B cells, which are responsible for primary responses, compared
with memory B cells, which are responsible for secondary responses. Secondary responses
develop more quickly and produce higher peak levels of antibody as compared with primary
responses.
2. Which one of the following statements about humoral immune responses is true?
A. Naive B cells are required for initiation of primary responses and memory B cells are
required for initiation of secondary responses.
B. Antibody responses to bacterial polysaccharide antigens require CD4+ helper T cells.
C. Heavy chain isotype switching typically occurs in response to bacterial polysaccharide
antigens.
D. Affinity maturation does not require helper T cells.
E. Antibody-secreting cells generated during a humoral immune response live for only a few
hours.
ANS: A
Humoral responses require antigen-dependent activation of B cells through binding of the
antigen to membrane Ig on naive B cells or on memory B cells, for primary or secondary
responses, respectively. In most cases, nonprotein antigens do not stimulate isotype switching or
affinity maturation because these changes require T cell help, and only protein antigens can
stimulate T cells. For both nonprotein and protein antigens, antibody-secreting cells that are
generated may live for months, often in the bone marrow.
3. All of the following assays are used to detect antibody production EXCEPT:
A. BrdU (bromodeoxyuridine) assay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. ELISPOT assay
D. Hemolytic plaque assay
E. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
ANS: A
BrdU (bromodeoxyuridine) is a thymidine analogue that is used to measure cellular proliferation
in vivo. BrdU is injected into the organism, and tissues are subsequently stained with anti-BrdU
antibody to quantify the extent of BrdU incorporation into cellular DNA. The other assays listed
all can be used to detect antibody production.
ANS: D
This is a common presentation of hyper-IgM syndrome. Patients with this disease have B cells
that are unable to undergo isotype switching, and therefore contain only IgM in the serum but
very low levels of IgG, IgA, and IgE. Clinically, these patients are susceptible to bacterial
infections and often present with a history of recurrent pneumonia, otitis media, and
gastrointestinal infections. Mutations in genes coding for CD40L, CD40, and activation-induced
deaminase (AID) have been identified in these patients. During an immune response, T cell
interactions with B cells via CD40L-CD40, as well as active AID, are both essential for
numerous processes, including isotype switching, somatic mutation, and germinal center
formation. Thus, patients with hyper-IgM syndrome produce antibodies that typically have a
lower affinity for antigen (due to the lack of somatic mutation) and do not develop large follicles
containing a light zone and dark zone (germinal center) within lymph nodes. Mechanisms of
generation of diversity of the Ig repertoire should not be impaired in this patient. Although
somatic mutation of variable regions will be impaired, this will not be manifest in IgM
antibodies. In addition, patients with either CD40L or CD40 mutations, but not AID mutations,
will have an increased susceptibility to certain intracellular infections (such as Pneumocystic
carinii pneumonia), because the microbicidal activity of macrophages is partially dependent on
CD40-mediated signals.
ANS: C
Because both a maternal uncle and an older brother, but not the patient’s sister, are affected, the
inheritance pattern is most likely X-linked recessive. The CD40L gene is located on the X-
chromosome.
ANS: B
If the patient’s sister is also affected with hyper-IgM syndrome, then the inheritance pattern is
autosomal recessive. Both the AID and CD40 genes are located on autosomal chromosomes, and
mutations in both have been identified as causes of hyper-IgM syndrome. However, only a
mutation in CD40 will result in reduced macrophage function and susceptibility to Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia, as is observed in this patient.
7. The B cell receptor (BCR) complex and the signaling cascades to which it is linked share
many similarities with the T cell receptor (TCR) complex and its linked signaling cascades.
Which of the following comparisons between BCR and TCR signaling is NOT true?
A. There are ITAMs in the cytoplasmic tails of CD3 in the TCR complex and in the
cytoplasmic tails of Ig and Ig in the BCR complex.
B. The cytoplasmic tails of membrane Ig and TCR antigen receptors are very short and
lack intrinsic signaling functionality.
C. Early signaling events induced by antigen binding to both BCR and TCR involve both
Src family and Zap-70 family protein tyrosine kinases.
D. Phospholipase C–mediated generation of IP3 and DAG occurs downstream of both BCR
and TCR signaling.
E. CD4/CD8 coreceptors in T cells and the CR2 coreceptor in B cells both enhance
responses to antigen by a PI3 kinase–dependent mechanism.
ANS: E
The CR2 coreceptor, in association with CD19 and CD81, activates PI3-kinase. CD4 and CD8
do not activate PI3-kinase but, rather, bring the Src family tyrosine kinase Lck into proximity of
the TCR complex.
8. The initial cellular events that are induced by antigen-mediated cross-linking of the B cell
receptor (BCR) complex include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Increased percentage of time spent in mitosis, resulting in rapid proliferation
B. Increased expression of B7, resulting in enhanced APC function
C. Increased expression of bcl-2, resulting in improved survival
D. Increased expression of CCR7, promoting migration into lymph node follicles
E. Increased expression of the interleukin-2 receptor, resulting in enhanced proliferation and
response to T cell signals
ANS: D
In the initial events after antigen binding to the B cell receptor, B cells migrate out of, not into,
the lymph node follicles and toward the T cell zones by increasing expression of CCR7, a
chemokine receptor that responds to chemokines produced in the T cell zone. Helper T cells play
an important role in the activation of B cells, inducing proliferation, isotype switching, and
somatic mutation both by the release of cytokines as well as through direct interactions with the
B cell via CD40L. T cell–mediated activation of B cells can only occur in the presence of protein
antigens. Other early events that occur in B cell activation include increased proliferation and
time spent in mitosis, increased expression of B7 to enhance the B cell’s ability to activate T
cells, increased expression of the anti-apoptotic protein bcl-2 to promote survival, and increased
expression of cytokine receptors to enhance survival and proliferative signals coming from T
cells.
9. Which one of the following statements accurately describes antigen recognition events in a
lymph node during a helper T cell–dependent antibody response to a protein antigen?
A. Naive B cells and naive T cells simultaneously recognize the intact protein antigen.
B. Naive B cells recognize intact proteins, generate peptide fragments of these proteins, and
present them in complexes with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules to naive
helper T cells.
C. Naive B cells recognize intact proteins, generate peptide fragments of these proteins, and
present them in complexes with MHC molecules to differentiated helper T cells.
D. Naive T cells recognize peptides bound to MHC molecules presented by dendritic cells,
and naive B cells recognize the intact protein antigen bound to the surface of follicular
dendritic cells.
E. Differentiated helper T cells recognize peptides bound to MHC molecules on dendritic
cells, and the T cells secrete cytokines that promote antibody production by any nearby B
cells that have recognized different protein antigens.
ANS: C
T cells and B cells cannot recognize the same protein antigen molecule simultaneously because
T cells only recognize peptide-MHC complexes. B cells bind intact proteins, internalize them via
surface Ig, and then present peptide-MHC complexes to helper T cells, not to naive T cells. The
helper T cells specific for the peptide-MHC complexes have been differentiated from naive T
cells that recognized the same peptide-MHC complexes presented by dendritic cells. Follicular
dendritic cells display intact protein antigens to previously activated (but not naive) B cells
during the germinal center reaction. Collaboration of T cells and B cells requires direct contact of
T cells and B cells specific for the same antigen, even though the antigen recognition events are
not simultaneous, because the bidirectional activation requires membrane-bound molecules (i.e.,
CD40 ligand on the T cells and CD40 on the B cells).
10. Which one of the following B cell responses is NOT stimulated by CD40 ligand?
A. Association of TRAFs with the cytoplasmic tails of CD40 molecules
B. Activation of NF-B
C. Enhanced expression of B7-1 and B7-2
D. Enhanced Ig isotype switch recombinase activity
E. Enhanced production of membrane Ig
ANS: E
CD40 ligand binding to B cell CD40 enhances production of secreted, not membrane, Ig. CD40
signaling involves recruitment of signaling intermediates, called tumor necrosis factor–receptor
associated factors (TRAFs), to the cytoplasmic tails of CD40 and the downstream activation of
NF-B, as well as other transcription factors. The signaling cascades result in increased
expression of various genes, including B7 costimulators, and increased Ig isotype switching,
which is mediated by switch recombinases.
11. Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the change from B cell production of
membrane Ig to secreted Ig?
A. V(D)J recombinase-mediated deletion of the exon encoding the transmembrane domain
B. Alternative processing of primary RNA transcripts to remove the transmembrane domain
and include a secretory tail piece
C. Increased vesicular exocytosis of intracellular stores of the secretory form of Ig
D. Switch recombinase-mediated recombination of the heavy chain locus to juxtapose the
V(D)J segment with the exon encoding a secretory tail piece
E. Up-regulation of ectoenzymes that proteolytically cleave membrane Ig heavy chains just
proximal to the membrane
ANS: B
Primary transcripts of Ig genes include sequences encoding both transmembrane and secretory
tail piece domains. Alternative splicing of these transcripts determines which form of Ig is
ultimately made. V(D)J recombinases are not involved in modifications of Ig heavy chain
expression, and switch recombinases are only involved in changes in DNA related to isotype
switching. Membrane Ig is not cleaved to form secretory Ig.
12. Which of the following statements about Ig isotype switching is NOT true?
A. Interleukin-4 promotes switching to the IgE isotype by increasing germline transcription
of the C exon.
B. Isotype switching involves recombination of a V(D)J complex with downstream C region
genes and the deletion of intervening DNA including other C region genes.
C. Activation-induced deaminase (AID) is required for switch recombination.
D. The enzymes that mediate isotype switching recognize conserved heptamer and nonamer
DNA sequences adjacent to the constant region exons.
E. The same recombined V(D)J gene complex is used to encode the antigen-binding region
of the antibodies produced by a B cell before and after isotype switching.
ANS: D
Heptamer and nonamer sequences are part of the recombination signal sequences recognized by
V(D)J recombinases, and not by the enzymes that mediate switch recombination. I exons and S
(switch) regions are the DNA “landmarks” just upstream of each constant region gene that
dictates where switch recombination will occur. Switch recombination is incompletely
understood, but requires AID as well as other enzymes that gain access to the S regions when
germline transcription through the I, S, and C exons is induced by cytokines. The same V(D)J
unit is used to encode the antigen-binding site after switch recombination, and this preserves
antigen specificity of the antibodies produced while effector functions of the antibodies change.
13. Which one of the following molecules is important for the production of IgE antibodies?
A. CD28
B. CD40
C. IFN-
D. IL-2
E. TGF-
ANS: B
Cytokines play essential roles in regulating the switch to particular heavy chain isotypes. IFN- is
important in switching to the IgG isotype (specifically IgG3), whereas TGF- is a stimulator of
IgA production. The cytokine that promotes IgE production is IL-4, but this is not an answer
choice. However, the process of isotype switching in general is known to depend on signaling
through CD40L-CD40, and is also dependent on the activity of the enzyme activation-induced
deaminase (AID). CD28 is a costimulatory molecule that is important for T cell activation and
CD40L up-regulation. However, other costimulatory molecules are also present on T cells that
can cause up-regulation of CD40L. IL-2 is a growth factor cytokine for T cells.
14. Which of the following events does NOT occur within germinal centers?
A. Somatic mutation of Ig V genes
B. Generation of memory B cells
C. B cell proliferation
D. Affinity maturation
E. Ig gene V(D)J recombination
ANS: E
V(D)J recombination to form functional Ig genes occurs only in developing B cells, mostly in
the bone marrow. Germinal centers are sites of differentiation of mature B cells, in response to T
cell–dependent protein antigens. The germinal center “reaction” begins with helper T cell signals
delivered to B cells via CD40 ligand and cytokines. This results in B cell movement back into
the follicle and brisk B cell proliferation of one or a few clones of B cells specific for an inciting
antigen. The proliferating B cells undergo somatic mutation of the variable genes, at which point
mutations are introduced that may alter the affinity of the encoded antibodies for their antigens.
Antigens are displayed in limited concentrations on the surfaces of follicular dendritic cells in the
germinal center, and only B cells whose high-affinity Ig receptors can bind these antigens are
selected to survive. Some of these cells become antibody-secreting cells, and others become
memory B cells.
ANS; A
Somatic mutation of V genes is the basis for production of immunoglobulins with different
affinities, which are then positively selected in the germinal center; B cells that cannot bind
antigen with high affinity die through a default pathway of apoptosis. Antigen processing and
presentation by dendritic cells are required to generate helper T cells outside the follicle, but not
to activate B cells in the follicle. Autoimmune regulator (AIRE) is involved in thymic expression
of tissue antigens but is not involved in affinity maturation. Somatic recombination of V genes is
involved in producing functional Ig genes during B cell development, but it is not involved in
germinal center reactions.
16. Which of the following antigenic structures might activate B cell antibody production
without the aid of T cells?
A. Lysozyme
B. Benzene
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. ABO blood group antigen
E. Rh factor antigen
ANS: D
T cell–independent antigens consist of polysaccharides, glycolipids, and nucleic acids with
multiple repeated epitopes, so that maximal cross-linking of the B cell receptor is induced, thus
bypassing the need for T cell help. Of the answer choices, the best choice is the ABO blood
group antigen, because of its polyvalent glycolipid structure. Lysozyme and the Rh factor are
protein antigens. Benzene and glucose-6-phosphate are not polyvalent.
ANS: A
Antibody feedback is the mechanism of regulation of humoral immune responses and is
mediated by the Ig FcRIIB receptor, which delivers inhibitory signals into the B cells on
binding the Fc portion of IgG.
(a) A lesion of the internal capsule, just above the crus cerebri,
involving its bend or knee and caudal segment, with or without injury
to the nucleus lentiformis and thalamus, will give rise to the following
symptoms: Complete typical hemiplegia and total hemianæsthesia
on the opposite side of the body; the anæsthesia involves the special
senses as well as the body. Vision is, however, unaffected, unless
the lesion extend far enough back to involve the pulvinar and
fasciculus opticus, when lateral hemianopsia occurs (dark half-fields
on the side opposite the lesion). When this lesion is in the left
hemisphere, sensory aphasia also occurs.
(b) A lesion involving the caudal part of the thalamus and of the
internal capsule. With such a lesion the motor symptoms consist in
transient paralysis, with usually persistent post-paralytic chorea or
ataxia. The sensory symptoms are more marked, and resemble
those produced by lesion (a). It may be determined with some
degree of accuracy whether the lesion be in the thalamus border, or
in the internal capsule near to the nucleus lentiformis by the absence
in the latter case of lateral hemianopsia.
The topography of such lesions is illustrated by Fig. 7.
FIG. 7.
(α) Lesion of the cortical area or centre for smell cannot at present
be diagnosticated. From the results of experiments upon higher
mammals we would expect such a centre to be in the cortex of the
mesal gyri of the temporal lobe.
(β) Lesions of the cortical centre for taste are equally unknown; it is
probably situated in the meso-basal aspect of the temporal lobe.
(δ) The centre for visual impressions is now the best known of any of
the sensory cortical areas. The experimental studies and
pathological results of the last few years have indicated that the
occipital lobe was probably the seat of higher, organized vision (for
form and color). More recent autopsies and re-examination10 of the
subject point to the cuneus and adjacent gray matter as the visual
centre. The anatomical arrangement is, however, peculiar and
complex, in that each cortical visual area receives impressions from
one lateral half of both retinæ, through the fasciculus opticus.
10 E. C. Seguin, “A Contribution to the Pathology of Hemianopsia of Central Origin
(Cortex-hemianopsia),” Journal of Nervous and Mental Diseases, 1886, No. 1.
FIG. 8.
Diagram of Visual Paths, designed to illustrate specially Left Lateral
Hemianopsia from any lesion. L. T. F., left temporal half-field; R. N. F.,
right nasal half-field; O. S., oculus sin.; O. D., oculus dexter; N. T., nasal
and temporal halves of retinæ; N. O. S., nervus opticus sin.; N. O. D.,
nervus opticus dext.; F. C. S., fasciculus cruciatus sin.; F. L. D., fasciculus
lateralis dext.; C., chiasma, or decussation of fasciculi cruciati; T. O. D.,
tractus opticus dext.; C. G. L., corpus geniculatum laterale; L. O., lobi
optici (corpus quad.); P. O. C., primary optic centres, including lobus
opticus, corp. genic. lat., and pulvinar of one side; F. O., fasciculus
opticus (Gratiolet) in the internal capsule; C. P., cornu posterior; G. A.,
region of gyrus angularis; L. O. S., lobus occip. sin.; L. O. D., lobus occip.
dext.; Cu., cuneus and subjacent gyri, constituting the cortical visual
centre in man. The heavy or shaded lines represent parts connected with
the right halves of both retinæ. The reader may place the lesion as he
pleases.
From this level the fibres of the internal capsule again diverge, as
fasciculi whose physiological independence has been well
determined, going dorsad and frontad to certain gyri of the cerebral
cortex where their fibres join ganglion-cells. Three large fasciculi and
corresponding cortical areas are recognized as constituting the
pyramidal tract, strictly speaking: (1) A fasciculus which extends
frontad to the base of the second frontal gyrus where it coalesces
with the precentral, the centre and fasciculus for movements of the
facial muscles of the opposite side; (2) a fasciculus which extends to
the precentral and postcentral gyri, more especially in their middle
part, constituting the centre and fasciculus for movements of the arm
and hand; (3) another fasciculus which goes dorso-mesad, almost
vertically in the brain, to join the ends of the pre- and postcentral gyri
at the top of the hemisphere, and their continuation upon its mesal
aspect known as the paracentral lobule, centre and fasciculus for
movements of the opposite foot and leg. Besides these three great
cortical areas and their connected fasciculi of nerve-fibres, which go
to make up the pyramidal tract, we recognize (4) a cortical centre for
speech movement of the tongue and lips in the base of the left third
frontal gyrus over the fissure of Sylvius (Broca's speech-centre), with
a connected white fasciculus which passes into the elbow of the
internal capsule, and can be traced (by means of secondary
degeneration) into the inner part of the base of the crus and into the
pons, but not to the pyramid. Another probable centre (5), for coarse
lingual movements and for the various movements of deglutition, is
in the folds of the insula, its fasciculus not joining the pyramid.
FIG. 9.
Longitudinal (sagittal) Section through the Brain, to show the distribution
of the fasciculi of the internal capsule. Fasciculi of motor tract in dotted
lines, to fronto-parietal convolutions. Fasciculi of sensory tract in full lines,
to temporo-parieto-occipital convolutions: N. C., nucleus caudatus; N. L.,
nucleus lentiformis; T. O., thalamus opticus. 1, level of crus cerebri; 2,
level of pons; 3, level of oblongata. (This diagram is to be used in
conjunction with Fig. 7.)
With respect to the anterior part of the frontal lobe, forward of the
oblique line A B across Figs. 10 and 11, the study of human cases of
destructive injury and disease would indicate that it is not associated
either with the kinesodic or with the æsthesodic systems.
The SYMPTOMS of lesions of the kinesodic system, particularly of the
pyramidal tract, are exclusively motor, consisting of spasm and
paralysis. Contracture of the paralyzed parts follows the paralysis
after a few weeks if the lesion be a destructive one.
(b) Lesion of the facial centre (1) and of its associated fasciculus is
characterized by the occurrence of spasm or paralysis, or of both in
rapid succession, in the facial muscles; their electrical reactions
remaining normal.
(c) Lesion of the brachial centre (2) and of its associated fasciculus
is made known by spasm or paralysis, or by both in succession, in
the hand and arm. In many cases (tumor especially) the first
symptom is clonic convulsive movements of two or more fingers,
extending to other parts of the arm. Such brachial monospasm or
monoplegia is usually accompanied or followed by incomplete
hemiplegia.
(d) Lesion of the crural centre (3) in the paracentral lobule and of its
associated fasciculus of white substance is indicated by priority and
predominance of convulsive and paralytic phenomena in the foot and
leg: a crural monospasm or monoplegia exists with or without
incomplete hemiplegia.
(e) Lesion of the insula and adjacent white substance laterad of the
nucleus lenticularis (5) may be suspected from the rapid or sudden
development of symptoms imitating those of acute bulbar paralysis,
but without bilateral paresis of the body and anæsthesia. Aphasia is
very apt to coexist with the bulbar symptoms if the lesions involve
the left insula, whose frontal folds are continuous with the speech-
centre.
(b) Focal lesions of the caudal part of the frontal lobes, of the insula,
the pre- and postcentral gyri, and other parts of the motor zone are
usually easy of diagnosis. The symptoms of such lesions have
already been detailed when speaking of lesions of the kinesodic
system.
(c) Focal lesions of the parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes of the
brain have the characteristic semeiology of lesions of the æsthesodic
system, considered supra.
FIG. 11.
3. FOCAL LESIONS OF THE BASE OF THE BRAIN, either within the nervous
substance or springing from the dura, and acting by irritation and
pressure upon various parts of the basal aspect of the encephalic
mass.
(a) Diffused bilateral lesions of this class situated frontad of the crura
give rise to more or less distinct symptoms, and a diagnosis is
sometimes possible. (1) Lesions in the vicinity of the sella turcica
and optic chiasm produce symptoms in the optic apparatus very
early, and these remain prominent throughout the illness. These
symptoms are, irregular (at least not lateral) hemianopsia, neuro-
retinitis followed by atrophy of the optic nerve, temporary or
permanent paralysis of one or several ocular nerves. If these exist
without symptoms of lesion of other parts of the brain (reasoning by
the process of exclusion), we may strongly suspect the seat of the
lesion to be in the region named. Other symptoms are paroxysmal
headache and occasional vomiting, epileptiform convulsions (never
Jacksonian in distribution), partial hemiplegia, or general muscular
weakness. By such data we were recently led to the correct
localization of a tumor. (2) If the lesion be farther frontad—i.e. strictly
in the orbital areas of the basis cerebri—anosmia, uni- or bilateral,
usually with hallucinations of smell, will be an early symptom, along
with neuro-retinitis and obscure motor and sensory symptoms
(headache and convulsions more especially).
(2) Unilateral focal lesions of the base of the encephalon from the
crura caudad to the pyramidal decussation.
(β) The lesion occupies the latero-ventral part of the crus. This rare
localization would give rise to direct paralysis of the fourth nerve,
indicated by homonymous diplopia in the lower inner field of vision;
to lateral hemianopsia with dark half-fields opposite the lesion, from
injury to the tractus opticus (vide Fig. 8); and to a mixed motor and
sensory disturbance in the opposite side of the face and body,
without anæsthesia of the olfactory and auditory apparatus. A very
large lesion involving almost the entire crus would probably also
cause direct paralysis of N. iii.