Question Booklet Series :–

ç'u iqfLrdk J`¡[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :–

ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %&

After Noon
Session
24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)
Time Allowed : 2 Hrs. Total No. of Questions : 100
vuqer le; % 2 ?kaVs ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k % 100

Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. :

vuqØekad- % ................................................... vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k % ...................................................

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters): .....................................................................................................................

vH;FkÊ dk uke%
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj ...................................... d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj ......................................

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET
1. Before commencing to answer, check that you have got correct discipline/post code Question Booklet and it has all the 100
questions and there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in
booklet/mistake by invigilator while distributing, intimate the same to your room invigilator and have it changed. No complaint
in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage.

2. There will be no negative marking.

3. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to
choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only and NOT in the Question
Booklet.

4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be
completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

5. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.
6. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT
allowed inside the examination hall. Do not bring these articles to the examination hall.

7. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other
paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

8. The Question Booklet will be in four series (A, B, C and D). You must write correct Question Booklet Series on your OMR
Answer Sheet.
9. After completion of examination, you are allowed to take away your question paper and your copy of OMR Sheet
(Candidate’s copy) Carbon copy. Handover the original copy of OMR to the Invigilator. If you do not hand over, your
candidature will be cancelled and you will be liable for criminal action.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further questions are bilingual
(Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi Translation version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation
purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
 bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys
fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+sa
1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd vkidks lgh fo|k'kk[kk@in dksM dh iqfLrdk
feyh gS ,oa blesa 100 ç'u gSa vkSj blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh@d{k fujh{kd }kjk ç'u iqfLrdk ck¡Vus esa xyrh rks ugha
gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh@xyrh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa rFkk iqfLrdk cny ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij
ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
2. _.kkRed vadu ugha gksxkA
3. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad ¼1½ ls ¼4½ rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj
lgh gS mldks vks ,e vkj mÙkj i= esa fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A
4. vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy
uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA
5. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA
6. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa
oftZr gSA
7. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls
djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
8. ç'u iqfLrdk ¼A, B, C, ,oa D½ pkj J`a[kykvksa esa gksxhA vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk fy[kuk gSA
9. ijh{kk lekfIr ds i”pkr~ vki viuh ç”u&iqfLrdk ,oa vks-,e-vkj- dh dkcZu dkWih ¼vH;FkÊ ds fy,½ ys tk ldrs gSaA vks-,e-vkj- dh ewy çfr
dks d{k fujh{kd dks lkSai nsaA ;fn vki ,slk ugha djrs gSaA rks vkidh ik=rk fujLr dj nh tk,xh ,oa vki ij vkijkf/kd dk;Zokgh dh tk,xhA
10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsAa ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k
vksojjkbZfVax ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh vuqokn laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxtsz h
laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA
 SECTION–A

1. The sowing time of pearl millet is: 1. cktjk cksus dk le; gS%
(1) June (1) twu
(2) July (2) tqykbZ
(3) August (3) vxLr
(4) September (4) flrEcj

2. The sowing time of berseem is: 2. cjlhe dh cksokbZ dk le; gS%

(1) August (1) vxLr
(2) October (2) vDVwcj
(3) December (3) fnlEcj
(4) February (4) Qjojh

3. Potato seed tubers to be used for sowing should be 3. cksus ds fy, ç;qä vkyw ds dUnks dk 'kks/ku djuk pkfg,%
treated with: (1) ,xzkslku th-,u- ls
(1) Agroson G. N. (2) fFkje ls
(2) Thiram (3) KMnO4 ls
(3) KMnO4 (4) ,jhVku ls
(4) Aretan

4. The seed rate of groundnut is: 4. e¡wxQyh dk cht nj gS%

(1) 100–150 kg/ha (1) 100–150 fd-@gs-
(2) 60–80 kg/ha (2) 60–80 fd-@gs-
(3) 30–40 kg/ha (3) 30–40 fd-@gs-
(4) 20–40 kg/ha (4) 20–40 fd-@gs-

5. The row to row spacing of sugarcane is: 5. xUus dh drkj ls drkj dh nwjh gS%
(1) 75–90 cm. (1) 75–90 lseh-
(2) 45–60 cm. (2) 45–60 lseh-
(3) 30–45 cm. (3) 30–45 lseh-
(4) 20–35 cm. (4) 20–35 lseh-

6. DBW–14 is the variety of: 6. Mh ch MCY;w&14 çtkfr gS%

(1) Rice (2) Wheat (1) /kku dh (2) xsgw¡ dh
(3) Maize (4) Potato (3) eôs dh (4) vkyw dh
7. Maize may be grown during: 7. eôs dks mxk;k tk ldrk gS%
(1) Kharif season (1) [kjhQ esa
(2) Rabi season (2) jch esa
(3) Spring season (3) clar esa
(4) All the seasons (4) gj ekSle esa

8. Which of the following crop produces HCN during 8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl Qly esa xehZ esa ,p-lh- ,u- curk gS%
summer: (1) eôs esa
(1) Maize (2) cktjs esa
(2) Pearlmillet (3) Tokj esa
(3) Sorghum (4) xUus esa
(4) Sugarcane

9. Which of the following soil will have highest water 9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl feêh esa ty /kkj.k {kerk lokZf/kd gksxh%
holding capacity: (1) cyqgh
(1) Sandy soil (2) cyqgh nkseV
(2) Sandy loam (3) nkseV
(3) Loam (4) Dys nkseV
(4) Clay loam

[ A–1 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
10. Calcium and magnesium belong to: 10. dSfY'k;e rFkk eSfXuf'k;e lEcfU/kr gSa%
(1) Primary plant nutrient group (1) çkFkfed ikni iks"kd rRo oxZ
(2) Secondary plant nutrient group (2) f}rh;d ikni iks"kd rRo oxZ
(3) Micro-nutrient group (3) lw{e ikni iks"kd rRo oxZ
(4) Beneficial but not essential group (4) ykHkçn ijUrq vuko';d rRo oxZ

11. The nitrogen content in D.A.P. is: 11. Mh-,-ih- esa ukbVªkstu dh ek=k gksrh gS%
(1) 17% (1) 17%
(2) 15% (2) 15%
(3) 13% (3) 13%
(4) 11% (4) 11%

12. Irrigation water having salt concentration of less than 12. flapkbZ ds fy, ç;qä ty esa yo.k dh lkU/kzrk 0.16 xzke@yhVj ls
0.16 g/litre is: de gksus ij%
(1) Safe for irrigation (1) flapkbZ ds fy, mi;qä gS
(2) Unsafe of irrigation (2) flapkbZ ds fy, vuqI;qä gS
(3) Needs leaching before use (3) ç;ksx ls iwoZ yhfpax pkfg,
(4) None of the above (4) mijksä esa ls dksbZ ugha

13. Ammonium sulphate contains: 13. veksfu;e lYQsV esa gksrk gS%
(1) 15% nitrogen (1) 15% ukbVªkstu
(2) 20% nitrogen (2) 20% ukbVªkstu
(3) 25% nitrogen (3) 25% ukbVªkstu
(4) 30% nitrogen (4) 30% ukbVªkstu

14. The clay percentage in sandy loam soil is: 14. cyqgh nkseV Hkwfe esa Dys dh çfr'kr ek=k gksrh gS%
(1) More than 55% (1) 55% ls vf/kd
(2) 40–55% (2) 40–55% rd
(3) 20–30% (3) 20–30% rd
(4) Less than 10% (4) 10% ls de

15. The most important growth stage of wheat for 15. xsgw¡ esa flapkbZ ds fy, lcls vko';d ØkfUrd voLFkk gS%
irrigation is: (1) rkt ewy tM+ fudyus ds le;
(1) Crown root initiation (2) vf/kdre dYyw QwVus ds le;
(2) Maximum tillesing (3) ruks esa xk¡Bs curs le;
(3) Jointing (4) okfy;k¡ fudyrs le;
(4) Boot leaf stage

16. The most appropriate stage for top dressing of 16. /kku dh Qly esa ukbVªkstu VkiMªsflax ds fy, lcls mi;qä le; gS%
nitrogen in rice crop is: (1) jksikbZ ds le;
(1) Transplanting stage (2) ckfy;k¡ curs le;
(2) Panicle initiation stage (3) Qwy vkrs le;
(3) Flowering stage (4) nkus Hkjrs le;
(4) Grain filling stage

17. Wheat straw contains DCP: 17. xsgw¡ ds Hkwls esa ikP; ØwM çksVhu gksrh gS%
(1) 0.0% (2) 5.0% (1) 0.0 çfr'kr (2) 5.0 çfr'kr
(3) 8.0% (4) 12.0% (3) 8.0 çfr'kr (4) 12.0 çfr'kr

18. Which of the following animal has the longest 18. fuEu esa ls fdl i'kq dk xHkZdky lcls vf/kd yEch vof/k dk gksrk
gestation period: gS%
(1) Cow (1) xk;
(2) Buffalo (2) HkSal
(3) Goat (3) cdjh
(4) Sheep (4) HksaM+

[ A–2 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
19. "Black heart" is a physiological disorder of: 19. ßCySd gkVZÞ ,d nSfgdh; fodkj gS%
(1) Tomato (1) VekVj
(2) Chilly (2) fepZ
(3) Cabbage (3) iÙkkxksHkh
(4) Potato (4) vkyw

20. Sweet potato belongs to which family: 20. 'kdjdUn fdl dqy ls lEcfU/kr gSa%
(1) Euphorbiaceae (1) ;wQksjfc,slh
(2) Araceae (2) ,jslh
(3) Convolvulaceae (3) dkUokY;wyslh
(4) Solanaceae (4) lksysuslh

21. Vegetable rich in vitamin 'C' is: 21. çpqj ek=k esa foVkfeu&lh ik;h tkus okyh lCth gSa%
(1) Tomato (1) VekVj
(2) Cabbage (2) iÙkkxksHkh
(3) Onion (3) I;kt
(4) Capsicum (4) fepZ

22. Which one of the following causes "little leaf" of 22. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d cSaxu esa NksVh iÙkh jksx mRiUu djrk
Brinjal: gS%
(1) Nematode (1) lwjÑfe
(2) Mycoplasma (2) ekbdksIykTek
(3) Virus (3) okbjl
(4) Bacteria (4) thok.kq

23. Diamond Back Moth is a important insect of: 23. Mk;eaM ßcSd ekWFkÞ çeq[k dhV gS%
(1) Lady's finger (1) fHkaMh dk
(2) Cauliflower (2) QwyxksHkh dk
(3) Chilly (3) fepZ dk
(4) Sweet Potato (4) 'kdjdan dk

24. Seed rate of tomato is: 24. VekVj dh cht nj gSa%

(1) 400–500 g/ha (1) 400–500 g/ha
(2) 100–150 g/ha (2) 100–150 g/ha
(3) 700–800 g/ha (3) 700–800 g/ha
(4) 50–100 g/ha (4) 50–100 g/ha

25. Edible part of cauliflower is: 25. QwyxksHkh esa [kkus ;ksX; Hkkx gSa%
(1) Leaf (1) iÙkh
(2) Head (2) gsM
(3) Curd (3) dMZ
(4) Inflorescence (4) iq"iØe

26. Pusa Kesar is a variety of: 26. iwlk dslj fdLe gSa%
(1) Radish (1) ewyh dh
(2) Carrot (2) xktj dh
(3) Turnip (3) 'kyt+e dh
(4) Onion (4) I;kt dh

27. Alary muscles are found in: 27. ,yjh isf'ka;k ikbZ tkrh gS%
(1) Cockroach (1) frypêk esa
(2) Frog (2) es<+d esa
(3) Rabbit (3) 'k'kd esa
(4) Earthworm (4) dsapqvk esa

[ A–3 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
28. In insects stomach is a part of: 28. dhVks esa vkek'k; Hkkx gksrk gS%
(1) Fore gut (1) iwokZ= dk
(2) Mid gut (2) e/;kU= dk
(3) Hind gut (3) i'pkU= dk
(4) Proventriculus (4) çksosUVªhdqyl dk

29. UUU is a codon for: 29. UUU fuEu ds fy, ,d dksMksu gS%
(1) Phenylalanine (1) fQukby ,sysuhu
(2) Leucine (2) Y;wlhu
(3) Lysine (3) ykblhu
(4) Arginine (4) vkftZfuu
30. Rht 3 gene in wheat: 30. xsgwa esa Rht thu%
(1) Is a Norin 10 gene (1) uksfju 10 thu gS
(2) Is Tom-Thumb gene (2) Vke&FkEc thu gS
(3) Is irradiation induced gene (3) fdj.ku izsfjr thu gS
(4) Is EMS induced gene (4) EMS izsfjr thu gS

31. Identify high gluten wheat variety: 31. mPp XywVsu xsgwa dh fdLe dh igpku djsa%
(1) NP 852 (1) ,uih 852
(2) Safed Lerma (2) lQsn yjek
(3) Lerma Rojo (3) yjek jkstks
(4) S 307 (4) ,l 307

32. Father of hybrid rice is: 32. ladj pkoy ds tud gSa%
(1) T.T. Chang (1) Vh- Vh- pkax
(2) Longping Yuan (2) ykaxfiax ;wvku
(3) R. Wu (3) vkj- ow
(4) Z. H. Zhang (4) tsM- ,p- >ax

33. The shortest chromosome in maize is: 33. edbZ esa lcls NksVk Øksekslke gS%
(1) Chromosome No. 1 (1) Øksekslkse la[;k 1
(2) Chromosome No. 2 (2) Øksekslkse la[;k 2
(3) Chromosome No. 9 (3) Øksekslkse la[;k 9
(4) Chromosome No. 10 (4) Øksekslkse la[;k 10
34. Hybrid sorting is a method of breeding based on: 34. ladj oxhZdj.k iztuu dh fuEu ij vk/kkfjr ,d fof/k gS%
(1) Conventional techniques (1) ijaijkxr rduhd
(2) Genetic engineering (2) tufud bathfu;jh
(3) Tissue culture (3) Ård laLd`fr
(4) Chromosomal engineering (4) Øksekslkseh bathfu;jh

35. Radish is cross-pollinated due to: 35. ewyh fuEu dkj.k ls ij&ijkfxr gksrh gS%
(1) Gametophytic self-incompatibility (1) tU;w tudh; Lo&vla;ksT;rk
(2) Sporophytic self incompatibility (2) chtk.kq mn~fHkdh; Lo&vla;ksT;rk
(3) Protogyny (3) L=hiwoZrk
(4) Dichogamy (4) fHkUudky iDork

36. A mixture of simple crosses is known as: 36. ljy Øklksa dk feJ.k dgykrk gS%
(1) Multiple cross (1) cgqØkl
(2) Composite (2) la;qDr
(3) Composite cross (3) la;qDr Økl
(4) Multiline (4) cgqjs[kh;

[ A–4 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
37. Which of the following crop yields oil also: 37. fuEu esa ls dkSulh Qly rsy Hkh iSnk djrh gS\
(1) Oat (1) vksV
(2) Barley (2) tkS
(3) Maize (3) edbZ
(4) Jowar (4) Tokj

38. Which character is not required for estimating the 38. pkoy dh iSnkokj dk vuqeku yxkus ds fy, dkSulh fo”ks’krk dh
yield of rice: t:jr ugha gksrh\
(1) Days to maturity (1) ifjiDork ds fy, fnu
(2) Test weight (2) ijh{k.k Hkkj
(3) Number of grains per panicle (3) izR;sd iq’ixqPN esa nkuksa dh la[;k
(4) Number of panicles per unit area (4) izfr bdkbZ {ks= esa iq’ixqPNksa dh la[;k

39. Flex matches with: 39. vkdqapu ¼¶ySDl½ fuEu ds lkFk esy [kkrk gS%
(1) Castor (1) ,jaM
(2) Sesame (2) fry
(3) Safflower (3) dqlaqHk
(4) Linseed (4) vylh

40. Out of the following which one is a variety of soybean: 40. fuEu esa ls dkSu lks;kchu dh ,d fdLe gS\
(1) Sangam (1) laxe
(2) Sita (2) lhrk
(3) Kent (3) dSaV
(4) Bragg (4) czSx

41. Which of the following is maize hybrid: 41. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d edbZ ladj gS\
(1) Tarun (1) r#.k
(2) Kisan (2) fdlku
(3) Jawahar (3) tokgj
(4) Ganga 2 (4) xaxk 2

42. What is the scientific name of black gram: 42. dkys pus dk oSKkfud uke D;k gS\
(1) Phaseolus aurius (1) Qsftvksyl vkSfj;l
(2) Phaseolus mungo (2) Qsftvksyl eqaxks
(3) Pisum sativum (3) ikble lsVkboe
(4) Phaseolus vulgaris (4) Qsftvksyl oYxsfjl

43. Which grain is commonly used for making beer: 43. ch;j cukus ds fy, vkerkSj ij dkSuls vukt dk bLrseky fd;k
(1) Wheat
tkrk gS\
(2) Barley (1) xsgwa
(3) Oats (2) tkS
(4) Jowar (3) vksV~l
(4) Tokj

44. Khaira disease of rice is caused by the deficiency of: 44. pkoy dk [kSjk jksx fuEu dh deh ds dkj.k iSnk gksrk gS%
(1) B (1) B
(2) Fe (2) Fe
(3) Mn (3) Mn
(4) Zn (4) Zn

45. Which element induces disease tolerance in plants 45. ikS/kksa esa dkSulk rRo jksx lfg’.kqrk izsfjr djrk gS\
(1) N (1) N
(2) S (2) S
(3) Ca (3) Ca
(4) K (4) K

[ A–5 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
46. Plants tolerant to high salinity conditions are called: 46. tks ikS/ks mPp yo.krk fLFkfr;ksa ds fy, lgu”khy gksrs gS]a os dgykrs gS%a
(1) Halophytes (1) yo.ke`nksn~fHkn
(2) Hydrophytes (2) tyksfnHkn
(3) Helioplytes (3) vkriksn~fHkn
(4) Xerophytes (4) e#nfHkn

47. Identify the weed of family Gramineae: 47. ikfjokfjd xzkfeuh dh [kjirokj dh igpku djsa%
(1) Phalaris minor (1) QSysfjl ekbuj
(2) Cyperus rotundus (2) lkbihjl jksMUMl
(3) Chenopodium album (3) dhuksiksfM;e ,sYce
(4) Melilotus alba (4) eSyhyksVl ,sYck

48. Late blight is disease of: 48. iNsrh vaxekjh jksx fdlls lacafa/kr gS\
(1) Cauliflower (1) QwyxksHkh
(2) Mustard (2) ljlksa
(3) Potato (3) vkyw
(4) Tomato (4) VekVj

49. The process of development of seed from anther is 49. ijkxdks”k ls cht fodflr fd, tkus dh izfØ;k dgykrh gS%
called: (1) iqatuu
(1) Androgenesis (2) jksxtuu
(2) Pathenogenesis (3) vlaxtuu
(3) Apomixis (4) chtk.kqtuu
(4) Sporogenesis

50. One of the following is the seed borne diseases: 50. fuEu esa ls ,d chtks<+ jksx gS%
(1) Powdery mildew of peas (1) eVj dk pwf.kZy feYM~;w
(2) Loose smut of wheat (2) xsgwa dk vuko`r daM
(3) Rust of lentil (3) elwj dk fdV~V
(4) Cercospora leaf spot of mungbean (4) ewaxchu dh ldksZLiksjk i.kZ fpRrh

51. One of the following belongs the family cruciferae: 51. fuEu esa ls dkSu ikfjokfjd ØwflQsjh ls lacaf/kr gS\
(1) Castor (1) ,jaM
(2) Garlic (2) yglqu
(3) Turnip (3) “kyte
(4) Tomato (4) VekVj

52. In seed technology the term “Ear” means: 52. cht izkS|ksfxdh esa “Ear” “kCn dk vFkZ gS%
(1) Hearing organ (1) Jo.k vax
(2) Type of inflorescence (2) iq’iØe dh fdLe
(3) Type of seed (3) cht dh fdLe
(4) Vigour testing Method (4) vkst ijh{k.k fof/k

53. Ergot is a designated disease of: 53. vxZV fuEu dk ,d ukeksfn~n’V jksx gS%
(1) Wheat (1) xsgwa
(2) Pearl millet (2) cktjk
(3) Mustard (3) ljlksa
(4) Oats (4) vksV~l

54. The designated inseparable crop plant in barley is: 54. tkS esa ukeksfn~n’V vfo;ksT; Qly ikS/kk gS%
(1) Coriander (1) /kfu;k
(2) Linseed (2) vylh
(3) Oats (3) vksV~l
(4) Mustard (4) ljlksa

[ A–6 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
55. Which one of the following is not a phytoalexin: 55. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d QkbbVks,sysfDlu ugha gS\
(1) filSfVu
(1) Pisatin
(2) Mkjfeu
(2) Dormin
(3) Qsft;ksfyu
(3) Phaseollin (4) vkbZiksfe;keSjksu
(4) Ipomeamarone

56. Which one of the following plant diseases is not of 56. fuEu iknih; jksxksa esa dkSulk jksx dodh; mn~xe dk ugha gS\
fungal origin: (1) “osr fdV~V
(2) Hkwjk fdV~V
(1) White rust
(3) ihyk fdV~V
(2) Brown rust (4) yky fdV~V
(3) Yellow rust
(4) Red rust

57. Which one of the following is attributed most for the 57. Hkkjr esa xsgwa fdV~V dh iztkfr;ksa ds fodkl ds fy, fuEu esa ls fdls
development of races of wheat rust in India: lokZf/kd vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) ladj.k
(1) Hybridization
(2) mRifjorZu
(2) Mutation (3) fo’kedsUnzrk
(3) Heterokaryosis (4) iSjkySafxdrk
(4) Parasexuality

58. Which one of the following diseases is favoured by dry 58. fuEu esa dkSuls jksx dks “kq’d e`nk fLFkfr;ksa ls izksRlkgu izkIr gksrk gS\
soil conditions: (1) pus dh Xykfu
(2) ca/kxksHkh dk vknzZziru
(1) Wilt of gram
(3) vkyw dk lkekU; LdSc
(2) Damping off of cabbage (4) vkyw dk pwf.kZy LdSc
(3) Common scab of potato
(4) Powdery scab of potato

59. The development of which one of the following 59. fuEu esa ls dkSuls jksx dk fodkl Nk;k ls izksRlkfgr ugha gksrk\
diseases is not favoured by shade: (1) vkyw dh iNsrh vaxekjh
(2) edbZ dh i.kZ fpRrh
(1) Late blight of potato
(3) eVj dk e`nqjksfey feYM~;w
(2) Leaf spot of maize (4) eVj dk pwf.kZy feYM~;w
(3) Downy mildew of pea
(4) Powdery mildew of pea

60. Which one of the following plant diseases is 60. fuEu ikni jksxksa esa ls dkSulk jksx ukbVªkstu ls ukbVªsV dk iz;ksx
suppressed by applying nitrate form of nitrogen: djus ls “kfer gks tkrk gS\
(1) VekVj dh ofVZflfy;e Eykfu
(1) Verticillium wilt of tomato
(2) edbZ dk fifFk;e ewy foxyu
(2) Pythium root rot of maize (3) pkoy iz/oal
(3) Rice blast (4) xsgwa dk ruk fdV~V
(4) Stem rust of wheat

61. Which one of the following diseases of banana is of 61. fuEu dsyk jksxksa esa ls dkSulk jksx thokf.od mn~xe dk gS\
bacterial origin: (1) dkyk fljk
(2) eksdks jksx
(1) Black tip
(3) iukek jksx
(2) Moko disease (4) xqfPNr pwM+
(3) Panama disease
(4) Bunchy top

[ A–7 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
62. Which type of head is found in preying mantis: 62. ¼djc) dhV½ eSfUVl dk f”kdkj djus ds fy, fdl rjg dk “kh’kZ
(1) Prognathus
ik;k tkrk gS\
(2) Ophisthognathus (1) izksxSUFkl
(3) Hypognathus (2) vkfQlFkksxSUFkl
(4) None of these (3) gkbiksxSUFkl
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

63. Least persistent insecticide is: 63. U;wure fLFkj dkVuk”kh gS%
(1) Aldrin (2) Endosulfan (1) ,sfYMªu (2) ,sUMkslYQhu
(3) Heptachlor (4) Chlordane (3) gSIVkDyksj (4) DyksjMsu
64. Pyrilla belongs to: 64. ikbfjYyk fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS%
(1) Pyralidae (1) ikbjsfyMh
(2) Fulgoridae (2) QYxksfjMh
(3) Cicadellidae (3) lkbdsfMfyMh
(4) Jassidae (4) tSflMh

65. Which one is not a true fly: 65. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d okLrfod eD[kh ugha gS\
(1) Fruitfly (1) QyeD[kh
(2) Blackfly (2) dkyheD[kh
(3) Cotton whitefly (3) dikl”osr eD[kh
(4) Screw wormfly (4) isap d`fe eD[kh

66. Which insect lays eggs in soil: 66. dkSulk dhM+k feV~Vh esa vaMs nsrk gS\
(1) Lemon butterfly (1) uhacw dh frryh
(2) Mango mealy bug (2) vke dk ehyh cx
(3) Cabbage butterfly (3) canxksHkh dh frryh
(4) Gram pod borer (4) pus dk Qyh os/kd

67. Plumose antennae is found in: 67. fiPNdh ,sUVhuk fuEu esa ik;k tkrk gS%
(1) Male mosquito (1) uj ePNj
(2) Female mosquito (2) eknk ePNj
(3) Male butter fly (3) uj frryh
(4) Female butter fly (4) eknk frryh

68. The root borer of sugarcane is scientifically called: 68. xUus ds ewyos/kd dks oSKkfud “kCnkoyh esa dgrs gSa%
(1) Chilo auricilius (1) dkbyks vkfjflyl
(2) Emmalocera depresella (2) bekykslsjk Msfizlsyk
(3) Chilo infescatellus (3) dkbyks bUQSldSVhyl
(4) Raphimetopus oblutella (4) jSfQehVksil vkCywV~;syk
69. The most important pest of mustard at the flowering 69. iq’iu voLFkk esa ljlksa dk lokZf/kd egRoiw.kZ ijthoh gS%
stage is: (1) vkVkeD[kh
(1) Sawfly (2) fcgkj dk jksferk bYyh
(2) Bihar hairy caterpillar (3) ekgWw
(3) Aphid (4) jaftr cx
(4) Painted bug

70. The rice gundhi bug occurs in maximum number in 70. pkoy la;a= esa pkoy dh xa/kh cx fuEu ds nkSjku vf/kdre la[;k esa
rice plant during: iSnk gksrh gS%
(1) Milky stage (1) nwf/k;k voLFkk
(2) Vegetative stage (2) o/kZu voLFkk
(3) Seedling stage (3) jksi.k voLFkk
(4) Newly transplanted crop (4) u, rkSj ij izfrjksi.k voLFkk

[ A–8 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
 SECTION–B

71. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at: 71. vUrZjk’Vªh; eqæk dks’k dk eq[;ky; dgk¡ gS%
(1) Washington (1) okf”kaxVu
(2) New York (2) U;w;kdZ
(3) Geneva (3) tsusok
(4) Paris (4) isfjl

72. Contour lines on a map join places of: 72. ekufp= ij leksPp js[kk,a fdu LFkkuksa dks tksM+rh gSa%
(1) Equal mean atmospheric pressure (1) leku ek/; okrkoj.kh; ncko
(2) Equal average temperature (2) leku vkSlr rkiØe
(3) Equal rainfall (3) leku o’kkZ
(4) Equal height above sea level (4) leqæ Lrj ds Åij leku Å¡pkbZ

73. The capillary action phenomenon of water climbing up 73. ty esa Mwch ,d ldjh uyh esa ikuh ds Åij p<+us dh ty dh
a narrow tube dipped in water is due to: dsf”kdk fØ;k lao`fr dk dkj.k gS%
(1) Surface friction (1) i`’Bh; ?k’kZ.k
(2) Surface tension (2) i`’Bh; ruko
(3) Atmospheric pressure (3) okrkoj.kh; ncko
(4) Differential temperature (4) vody rkiØe

74. A machinist by increasing his normal rate of work by 74. ,d fn, x;s le; esa ,d dkjhxj vius dk;Z dk lkekU; nj
1 1
12 % could produce 15 items more, in a given period 12 % c<+kdj 15 oLrq,a T;knk iSnk dj ldrk gSA ;fn og vius
2 2
of time. How many items can he produce if he works at lkekU; nj ds 80% ij dk;Z djrk gS rks fdruh oLrq,a mRikfnr
80% of his normal rate: djrk gS%
(1) 100 (2) 9 (1) 100 (2) 90
(3) 80 (4) 96 (3) 80 (4) 96

75. The average age of 10 students is 15 years. When 5 75. 10 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh vkSlr vk;q 15 o’kZ gSA tc 5 u, fo|kFkhZ “kkfey
new students joined, the average age rose by one fd, tkrs gSa rks vkSlr vk;q 1 o’kZ ls c<+ tkrk gSA u;s fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk
year. The average age in years of the new students is: vkSlr vk;q o’kks± esa D;k gksxk%
(1) 18 (1) 18
(2) 16 (2) 16
(3) 15 (3) 15
(4) 17 (4) 17

76. It is an industrial process of producing ammonia by 76. mRçsjd dh mifLFkfr esa ;g gkbZMªkstu ds lkFk ukbZVªkstu dh vfHkfØ;k
the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen in the presence }kjk veksfu;k cukus dk ,d vkS|ksfxd çØe gS%
of a catalyst: (1) lkYos çØe
(1) Solvay Process (2) cs;j çØe
(2) Bayer Process (3) gScj çØe
(3) Haber Process (4) cslsej çØe
(4) Bessemer Process

77. Name one famous poet of Delhi Sultanate who was 77. fnYyh lYrur dk ,d çfl) dfo ftls ßfgUnqLrku dk rksrkÞ dh
adorned with title of “The Parrot of Hindustan”: mikf/k ls uoktk x;k%
(1) Zia–Uddin Barani (1) ft+;k&míhu cjkuh
(2) Utbi (2) mRch
(3) Alberuni (3) vycs:uh
(4) Amir Khusro (4) vehj [kqljks

78. The World Yoga Day will be celebrated on: 78. fo”o ;ksxk fnol fdl fnu euk;k tk;sxk%
(1) December 21 (2) June 21 (1) fnlEcj 21 (2) twu 21
(3) November 14 (4) None of these (3) uoEcj 14 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

[ A–9 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
79. Sixty men can build a wall in 40 days, but though they 79. 60 O;fä ,d nhokj 40 fnuksa esa cuk ldrs gSaA ;|fi os dk;Z ,d
begin the work together, 5 men quit every ten days. lkFk gh vkjEHk djrs gSa] 5 O;fä çR;sd 10 fnu ij NksM+dj pys
The time needed to build the wall is: tkrs gSaA rks nhokj cukus esa fdruk le; yxsxk%
(1) 47.5 days (1) 47.5 fnu
(2) 45 days (2) 45 fnu
(3) 49.5 days (3) 49.5 fnu
(4) 51 days (4) 51 fnu

80. Gudia purchased a watch at 9/10th of its selling price 80. xqfM+;k us ,d ?kM+h blds foØ; ewY; ds 9/10 nj ij [kjhnk ,oa blds
and sold it at 8% more than it selling price. Her gain is? foØ; ewY; ls 8% T;knk ij csp fn;kA rks mldk ykHk fdruk gqvk\
(1) 18% (1) 18%
(2) 20% (2) 20%
(3) 10% (3) 10%
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
81. After getting two successive discounts, a shirt with a 81. nks Øfed NwV nsus ij ,d deht dk ewY; 105 #- gks tkrk gS tc
list price of Rs. 150 is available at Rs. 105. If the second fd mldk vafdr ewY; 150 #- gSA ;fn nwljk NwV 12.5% gS rks
discount is 12.5%, find the first discount: igyk NwV gksxk%
(1) 22% (1) 22%
(2) 20% (2) 20%
(3) 25% (3) 25%
(4) 15% (4) 15%

82. The lengths of the sides of an isosceles triangle are in 82. ,d lef}ckgq f=Hkqt dh Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr 3:3:5 gS A cjkcj
the ratio 3:3:5. The lengths of the equal sides of the Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ 6.6 lseh- gS A bl f=Hkqt dk ifjeki gksxk &
triangle is 6.6 cm. What is the perimeter of the triangle? (1) 24.2 lseh-
(1) 24.2 cm (2) 25.0 lseh-
(2) 25.0 cm (3) 23.5 lseh-
(3) 23.5 cm (4) 24.0 lseh-
(4) 24.0 cm

83. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink 83. 36 O;fä;ksa ds lewg esa] 16 yksx dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa tc fd 9 yksx
while 9 take only cold drink not green coconut drink. dsoy dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa] ukfj;y ikuh ughaA bl lewg esa fdrus
How many persons in this group take only green O;fä ,sls gSa tks dsoy ukfj;y ikuh ysrs gSa] dksYM fMªad ugha ¼çR;sd
coconut drink but not cold drink. (Every person take O;fä fMªad ysrk gS pkgs og dksYM fMªad gks ;k ukfj;y ikuh ;k nksuksa½%
drink either cold drink or green coconut or both):
(1) 27
(1) 27 (2) 25
(2) 25 (3) 20
(3) 20 (4) 22
(4) 22

84. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice- 84. jk’Vªifr ,oa mi&jk’Vªifr pquko esa gqbZ ernku fooknksa dk fuLrkj.k
Presidential elections are settled by: fdlds }kjk fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Central Election Tribunal (1) dsUæh; pquko fVªcquy
(2) Joint Committee of Parliament (2) laln dh la;qä lfefr
(3) Election Commission of India (3) Hkkjr dk pquko vk;ksx
(4) Supreme Court of India (4) Hkkjr dk loksZPp U;k;ky;

85. In a camp, 95 men had provisions for 200 days. After 5 85. ,d f”kfoj esa] 95 O;fä;ksa ds fy, 200 fnuksa ds Hkkstu dh O;oLFkk
days 30 men left the camp. For how many days will the FkhA 5 fnuksa ds i”pkr~ 30 O;fä f”kfoj NksM+dj pys x,A vc cpk
remaining food last now? gqvk Hkkstu fdrus fnuksa rd pysxk\
(1) 180 (1) 180
(2) 285 (2) 285
(3) 139 (3) 139
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

[ A–10 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
86. If ‘A ` B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A 86. ;fn ^A ` B* dk vFkZ gS A B dk firk gS] ^A @ B* dk vFkZ gS A
is the mother of B’, ‘A ! B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, B dh ekrk gS] ^A ! B* dk vFkZ gS A B dh ifRu gS] rks fuEufyf[kr
then which of the following means ‘T is the esa ls fdldk vFkZ gS fd T U dh nknh gS%
grandmother of U’?
(1) T @ R ` y ! U
(1) T@R`y!U (2) T @ S ` U ! y
(2) T@S`U!y (3) T @ R ! S ! U
(3) T@R!S!U (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these

87. Which of the following rivers divide Aravalli Ranges: 87. vjkoyh ioZr foLrkj dks dkSu lh unh i`Fkd djrh gS%
(1) Narmada & Tapti (2) Narmada & Sone (1) ueZnk ,oa rkIrh (2) ueZnk ,oa lksu
(3) Narmada & Luni (4) None of these (3) ueZnk ,oa ywuh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

88. In a certain code ‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’ and 88. fdlh fuf”pr dksM esa ^PAISE* dks ^QBJTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gS
‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’. How will ‘TRANGLE’ be ,oa ^CEASE* dks ^DFBTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gSA rks mlh dksM esa
coded in the same code? ^TRANGLE* dks D;k dksM fd;k tk;sxk\
(1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF
(3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF

89. As per the constitutional provisions, who has the 89. laoS/kkfud çko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj /ku fo/ks;d ikfjr djus ds fy, fdls
absolute and ultimate powers regarding the passing of iw.kZr% ,oa vUrfre vf/kdkj feyk gqvk gS%
money bills: (1) yksd&lHkk
(1) The House of the people (2) jkT;&lHkk
(2) The Council of States (3) yksd&lHkk dk lHkkifr
(3) The speaker of the House of the people (4) jkT;&lHkk dk insu v/;{k
(4) The Ex- officio Chairman of the Council of states
2
90. If the total surface area of a cube is 864cm square, find 90. ;fn ,d ?ku dk dqy i`’Bh; {ks=Qy 864 cm gS rks ?ku dk vk;ru
the volume of the cube: gksxk%
3 3 3 3
(1) 1728 cm (2) 1624 cm (1) 1728 cm (2) 1624 cm
3 3 3 3
(3) 144 cm (4) 1684 cm (3) 144 cm (4) 1684 cm

91. What is the control unit’s function in the CPU: 91. lh-ih-;w- ¼CPU½ esa dUVªksy ;wfuV dk D;k dk;Z gS%
(1) To transfer data to primary storage (1) vkadM+ks dks çkFkfed HkUMkj.k esa LFkkukUrfjr djuk
(2) To Store program instructions (2) çksxzke funsZ”kksa dk HkUMkj.k
(3) To perform logic operations (3) rkfdZd dk;Zokfg;k¡ djuk
(4) To decode program instructions (4) çksxzke funsZ”kksa dks MhdksM djuk

92. Which of the following medium is used between CPU & 92. CPU dh lalk/ku “kfä dks c<+kus ds fy, CPU vkSj RAM ds e/;
RAM to speed up the processing power of a CPU? dkSu&lk ek/;e ç;qä gksrk gS%
(1) Virtual Memory (1) vkHkklh; Le`fr
(2) D RAM (2) D RAM
(3) Flash Memory (3) ¶yS”k Le`fr
(4) Cache Memory (4) dS”ks Le`fr

93. Find the missing number. 93. foyqIr la[;k Kkr djsaA

(1) 512 (2) 125 (1) 512 (2) 125

(3) 256 (4) 315 (3) 256 (4) 315

[ A–11 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon
DIRECTIONS: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in the following question.
funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A
94. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½
x xx
x xx
94. (1) (2) (3) (4)

GENERAL ENGLISH

95. Identify the incorrect sentence among the alternatives

(1) The patient died before the doctor arrived.
(3) The Indian team defeated the Australian by an innings.
(2) You, Shashi and I have finished our studies.
(4) Few men are free from fault.

96. Find out the correctly spelt words.

(1) Bouquete (2) Bouquet
(3) Boqquet (4) Bouquette

DIRECTIONS: The following question select the word which is the exact opposite from the words given below.

97. RELINQUISH
(1) Renounce (2) Deny
(3) Possess (4) Abdicate

98. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

One who is vowed to unmarried life.
(1) Widower (2) Bigot
(3) Celibate (4) Bayonet

99. He led me ................ the green lawn to the palatial building

(1) Upon (2) Across
(3) Along (4) On

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, choose the grammatically correct phrase to complete the sentence:

100. I wouldn’t do that if I ................ you.

(1) Was (2) Were
(3) Am (4) Would be

[ A–12 ] 24_Sr. Trainee (Agriculture)

After Noon