116369706ab8-1 Gs-Pre Test 4134 e 2024

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TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2024 – Test – 4134

C
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1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements about the
1. Article 1 states India as Bharat which is Indian Judiciary:
a 'Union of States and Union Territories'.
1. The strength of judges in the Supreme
2. The expression of 'Union of India' is
Court can be increased by Parliament.
wider in extent than the expression
'Territory of India'. 2. The strength of judges in the High
Which of the statements given above Courts can be increased by the President.
is/are not correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Consider the following Directive Principles (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. To minimize inequalities in income,
5. In the context of various political systems
status, facilities, and opportunities
prevailing in the world, consider the
2. To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor following countries:
3. To secure opportunities for the healthy 1. China
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development of children 2. Vietnam
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How many of the above DPSPs were added
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3. Cuba
through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976? gm
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4. Argentina
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(a) Only one

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(b) Only two How many of the above countries are

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(c) All three currently governed by One Party System?

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(d) None (a) Only one

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(b) Only two

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3. Consider the following statements about the

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(c) Only three

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fundamental rights under Article 21 of the

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(d) All four

Indian Constitution:
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1. If it is violated by the State, there is an

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explicit provision in the Constitution for 6. Consider the following statements regarding
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grant of compensation by the State. the Fundamental Rights:

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2. The protection under it can be available 1. Constitutional remedies are not available
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only against arbitrary executive action

if all the rights are violated by the
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and not against arbitrary legislative

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private individuals.
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action.
3. In the Maneka case 1978, the Supreme 2. Some of the Fundamental Rights are not
Court of India recognized the expression self-executory.
‘due process of law’ under Article 21. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 and 2
7. With reference to the Constitution of India, 10. Consider the following statements about the
consider the following statements: Sessions Judge:
1. The Indian Constitution seeks to impart
1. The District judge, when hearing a
more flexibility to a written Federal
Constitution than the Constitution of the criminal case, is known as the Sessions
United States. Judge.
2. Some provisions in the Constitution of 2. The Sessions Judge can sentence a
India can only be amended with the
person to life imprisonment but cannot
ratification of two-thirds of the State
award a death sentence.
legislatures with a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. The Sapru Report of 1945 holds an
important place in the Constitutional history
11. Consider the following pairs:
of India for shaping the key provisions of the
Constitutional Important changes
Constitution because it emphasized the need
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for Amendment
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1. Inclusion of provisions for the protection
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1. 1st @ : Made the right to
of minority rights. Amendment property a legal right
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2. Inclusion of non-justiciable Directive

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Act, 1951 from the fundamental

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Principles of State Policy

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3. Inclusion of non-justiciable Fundamental right

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duties 2. 52nd : A member disqualified

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Select the correct answer using the code Amendment for defection cannot be
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given below.
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Act, 1985 a minister

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(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 and 3 only 3. 77th : Provided reservation in

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(c) 1 and 2 only Amendment promotions to SCs and

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(d) 1 and 3 only

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Act, 1995 STs

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4. 91st : Stipulated the upper

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9. Consider the following statements regarding

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Amendment limit for the number of

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Theocracy:
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Act, 2003 Council of Ministers at

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1. Religious principles often guide political

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decision-making. both central and state

2. State generally supports and promotes a levels
particular religion.
How many pairs given above are correctly
3. Freedom of Religion is guaranteed.
How many of the above statements are matched?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
12. Which political system prioritizes the 15. Which of the following statements is not
protection of individual rights and limits the correct about the remuneration of Judges in
power of government through a written
India?
constitution?
(a) Benevolent Despotism (a) The salaries of the Supreme Court
(b) Autocracy judges are charged on the Consolidated
(c) Constitutionalism Fund of India.
(d) Plutocracy
(b) The pensions of the Supreme Court
13. Consider the following pairs: judges are charged on the Consolidated
Military Exercise India and Associated Fund of India.
Nations
(c) The salaries of the High Court judges are
1.TARKASH : United States of
charged on the Consolidated Fund of the
America
2. Exercise Desert : Iran respective State.
Flag (d) The pensions of the High Court judges
are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
3. Exercise : Egypt
Cyclone-I the respective State.
)
How many of the above pairs are correctly
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16. The "libertarian" political ideology
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matched?
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(a) Only one advocates for:
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(b) Only two
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(a) strong government control over the

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(c) All three

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economy and individual freedoms.

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(d) None
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(b) limited government intervention and

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14. With reference to personalities associated maximum individual liberties.

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with the making Constitution of India,

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(c) social equality and wealth redistribution.

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consider the following pairs:

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(d) a mix of conservative and liberal

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Personality Their Role in

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Constitution Making policies.

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1. H.V.R. : Chief Draftsman of

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Iyengar the Constitution

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17. Consider the following words/phrases:

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2. Prem Behari : Calligrapher of the

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Narain Raizada Constitution 1. Universal Adult Franchise

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3. Sir B.N. Rau : Legal advisor to the 2. Right to Work

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Constituent Assembly
3. Union Cabinet
4. S.N. : Secretary to the
How many of the above words/phrases
Mukerjee Constituent
Assembly do not find mention in the Constitution of
How many pairs given above are correctly India?
matched?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs (b) Only two
(c) Only three pairs (c) All three
(d) All four pairs (d) None
18. Consider the following activities: 21. Recently, India’s payment system Unified
1. Rainwater harvesting Payments Interface (UPI) and its equivalent
2. Organic farming
network PayNow, were integrated to enable
3. Sawmills
4. Commercial use of wood faster remittances between the two countries
How many of the above-mentioned activities at a competitive rate.

are permitted in the eco-sensitive zones PayNow is a payment system of which of the
(ESZ)??
following nations?
(a) Only one
(a) Nepal
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (b) Singapore
(d) Only four (c) Bhutan
(d) U.A.E
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Millet International Initiative for
Research and Awareness (MIIRA) is an 22. Which of the following are features of the
initiative of the United Nations launched federal government?
on the sidelines of declaring 2023 as the 1. Written Constitution
International Year of Millets.
)
2. Independent Judiciary
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2. MIIRA secretariat will be in Delhi.
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3. Dual sovereignty
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Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct? Select the correct answer using the code
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(a) 1 only given below.

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(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2

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(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(c) 3 only
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20. Which of the following statements is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3

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about Directive Principles of State Policy

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(DPSP)?
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23. With reference to Channapatna toys,

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(a) The idea of DPSP is borrowed from

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consider the following statements:

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Soviet Union Constitution (erstwhile

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Russia). 1. They are a particular form of toys that

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(b) They resemble the ‘Instrument of

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are manufactured in Karnataka.

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Instructions’ enumerated in the

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2. The artisans use ivory wood for making

Government of India Act, 1935.
toys.
(c) They are legally enforceable by the
courts for their violation. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) In Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), correct?
Supreme Court held that the
(a) 1 only
Fundamental Rights can not be amended
(b) 2 only
by the Parliament by enacting the
Constitutional Amendment Acts for the (c) Both 1 and 2
implementation of the DPSPs. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Gross Domestic Climate Risk Report, which 26. Consider the following statements:
is released by Cross Dependency Initiative Statement-I: Additional Surveillance

(XDI) measures
Mechanism (ASM) on securities is levied
(a) The effect on the Gross Domestic
jointly by SEBI and Exchanges with the
Product of a country due to climate
change. intention to protect investors from market
(b) The risk posed to built environment volatility and unusual changes in share price.
across the world due to extreme weather Statement-II: The shortlisting of securities
events.
under ASM is regarded as an adverse action
(c) The percentage of Budget allocation to
against the concerned company/entity.
its Gross Domestic Product(GDP) by
countries in mitigation and adaptation to Which one of the following is correct in
climate change. respect of the above statements?

(d) The risk posed by built environment (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
across the world to natural environment.
)
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correct and Statement-II is the correct
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explanation for Statement-I.
25. Consider the following pairs :
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(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

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Form of Feature
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government correct and Statement-II is not the

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1. Oligarchy : government by a correct explanation for Statement-I.

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small group of very

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(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

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powerful people
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incorrect.
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2. Totalitarianism : seeks to subordinate

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(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

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all aspects of
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individual life to the is correct.

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authority
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3. Anarchy : absence of
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27. Virovory Halteria, which is recently seen in

government
news is a/an
How many of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? (a) Cryptocurrency
(a) Only one pair (b) Virus eating organism

(b) Only two pairs (c) Antivirus Software
(c) All three pairs
(d) Non-Fungible Token
(d) None
28. With reference to provisions of the 30. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The creation of All India
Government of India Act 1935, consider the
Services needs a constitutional amendment
following statements: with half of the states ratifying the
amendment.
1. As per the Act, every bill passed by the
Statement-II: All India Services play a
Central Legislature would be subjected significant role in liaison, cooperation, and
coordination in federal relations between the
to veto by the British Crown.
center and states.
2. The Provincial legislatures were Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
conferred jurisdiction over the Police
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
system. correct. and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
3. It removed the distinction between
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
transferred and reserved subjects in the correct and Statement-II is not the·
correct explanation for Statement-I
provinces and the whole administration (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
was entrusted with the ministers incorrect
responsible to the legislature. is correct
)
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How many of the above statements are
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31. How many of the following constitutional
correct? gm
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amendments given below are related to
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changes in the first schedule?

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(a) Only one

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1. 7th amendment
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(b) Only two 2. 12th amendment

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(c) All three 3. 35th amendment

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4. 100th amendment
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(d) None Select the correct answer using the code

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given below.
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(a) Only one

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29. Consider the following: (b) Only two

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(c) Only three

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1. Population control
(d) All four
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2. Preserving natural environment

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32. In the federal system set up by the

3. Voting percentage
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constitution of India, which of the following

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How many of the above may depend on the subjects are under the union list?
1. Citizenship
successful implementation of fundamental
2. Insurance
duties enshrined in the Indian constitution? 3. Census
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one
given below.
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Shumang Leela is a festival associated with 37. Consider the following statement regarding
which of the following states? the amendment procedure for the
(a) Manipur
constitution of India:
(b) Assam
1. The expression “total membership”
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal means the total number of members
comprising the House irrespective of
34. UPNEXT India 2023 Event, which is whether there are vacancies or absentees
recently seen in news is an initiative of
on any account
(a) Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority 2. The expression “present and voting”,
(APEDA) means members who vote for “ayes”, or

(b) Apparel Export Promotion Council “noes” or any abstention from voting by
(AEPC)
a member.
(c) Marine Products Export Development
Authority (MPEDA)
(d) Khadi and Village Industries correct?
Commission (KVIC) (a) 1 only
)
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(b) 2 only
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35. In which of the following cases, the Supreme
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(c) Both 1 and 2
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Court of India held that the Preamble is an

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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integral part of the Constitution?

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1. Berubari Union case, 1960

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2. Keshavananda Bharati case,1973 38. Which of the following statements is correct

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3. LIC of India case, 1995

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about the judicial review of the Indian

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judiciary?
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given below.
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(a) The Constitution defines the term

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(a) 2 only
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(b) 2 and 3 only judicial review as the power of the

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(c) 1 and 2 only

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Supreme Court to examine the actions of

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(d) 1 and 3 only

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the government and determine whether

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they are consistent with the Constitution.

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36. In a proportional representation electoral

system, how are seats in the legislative body (b) Only the Supreme Court of India is a
allocated? court of review.

(a) Based on a winner-takes-all system (c) The scope of Judicial review in India is
(b) According to the proportion of votes
narrower than that of the USA.
received by political parties.
(d) The laws included in the 9th Schedule of
(c) Determined by a panel of judges
(d) Allocated based on the wealth or social the Indian Constitution are exempt from
status of candidates judicial review.
39. With reference to Basavanna, consider the 42. Which of the following is/are the
following statements : applications of "Quasicrystals", which is
1. He was a social reformer during the often seen in the news?
reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king 1. Non-stick frying pans
Bijjala I. 2. Needles for acupuncture
2. He presided over the Sharana movement 3. Razor blades
which attracted people from all castes. Select the correct answer using the code
3. He introduced a new public institution given below.
Anubhava Mantapa to discuss spiritual (a) Only one
(b) Only two
questions of life.
(c) All three
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
43. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two
Statement-I: There have been no
(c) All three
referendums in India since independence.
(d) None
Statement-II: Constitution of India does not
have a specific provision for or against the
40. Which of the following countries have a referendum.
constitutional monarchy? Which one of the following is correct in
1. Canada respect of the above statements?
)
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2. Thailand (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
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3. Norway correct and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code gm
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given below. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

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(a) 2 only correct and Statement-II is not the

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(b) 1 and 3 only correct explanation for Statement-I

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(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 incorrect

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is correct
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41. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India

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talks about the right against self-

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incrimination. In this context, right against

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Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Programme, which

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self-incrimination does not extend to which

is recently launched in 2023 Budget :
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of the following activities?

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1. It is a programme to establish waste-

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1. Obtaining DNA from the accused

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water treatment plants to check river

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2. Voice Samples of the accused

pollution.
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3. Compulsory exhibition of the body of

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2. The programme will be anchored by the

the accused
National Horticulture Board which in
4. Compulsory production of the material
turn will set up Clean Plant Centres
objects
across the country.
given below. correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Apart from the Directives included in Part 47. Consider the following pairs:
IV, there are some other Directives Wildlife Sanctuary State

contained in other Parts of the Constitution.
1. Shendurney Wildlife : Kerala
In this context, which of the following
Sanctuary
Directives is/are not contained in the Part IV
2. Bankapura Wolf Wildlife : Karnataka
of the constitution?
Sanctuary
1. Claims of Scheduled Casts and
Scheduled Tribes to services 3. Kaimur Wildlife : Tamil Nadu
2. To provide adequate facilities for Sanctuary
instruction in the mother-tongue at the How many of the above pairs are correctly
primary stage of education to children matched?

belonging to linguistic minority groups (a) Only one pair
3. Development and promotion of the (b) Only two pairs
Hindi Language
(c) All three pairs
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(d) None of the pairs
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given below.
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(a) 2 only gm
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48. With reference to the Unlawful Activities

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(b) 2 and 3 only

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(Prevention) Act, 1967, consider the

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(c) 1 and 3 only

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following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
a
hy
1. Under this act both Indian and foreign

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46. Consider the following statements regarding nationals can be charged.

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the 'Schengen Zone', which is often seen in 2. It is applicable only to offenses

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the news: committed inside Indian territory.

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1. The area is named after a small village 3. Investigation of cases can be conducted
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in Luxembourg. by officers of the rank of Superintendant

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2. Both European Union (EU) and non-EU

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of Police (SP) or above.

members can be part of 'Schengen Zone'.
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

49. With reference to the Constitution of India, 51. Consider the following statements with
respect to the term ‘Justice’ in Preamble:
consider the following statements:
1. The combination of social, economic,
1. The original Constitution adopted on and political justice denotes what is
November 26, 1949, contained Seven known as ‘distributive justice’.
2. Economic justice denotes the non-
fundamental rights.
discrimination between people based on
2. The objectives resolution was economic factors.
unanimously adopted by the Constituent
correct?
Assembly on January 22, 1947. (a) 1 only
3. The Constitution Assembly of India was (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
dissolved with the commencement of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution of India.
52. Consider the following statements about the
How many of the statements given above are
High Court of India:
correct? 1. The Judges of the High Courts are
(a) Only one appointed by the Governor.
2. The Judges of the High Courts can only
(b) Only two
)
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be removed by the President on the
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(c) All three recommendation of the Parliament.
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3. An eminent jurist can be eligible for
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appointment as a Judge of a High Court.

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correct?
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50. With reference to the act for the Good

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(a) 2 only
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Government of India, consider the following

a
(b) 3 only
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statements: (c) 1 and 2 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It ended the system of double
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Government by abolishing the Board of 53. Consider the following statements regarding
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fundamental duties under Article 51A:

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Control and Court of Directors.

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1. They are inspired by the Constitution of

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2. It did not provide separation of functions

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the United States of America.

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and all the authority for governance of 2. They serve as an aid in the interpretation
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of the Constitution.
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India was vested in the Governor-

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3. If any law is intended to give effect to

General in Council. fundamental duties, such a law can be
Which of the statements given above is/are considered reasonable in relation to
Article 14.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
54. Consider the following statements: 56. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement-I: The 100th Constitutional the Global Partnership for Financial
Inclusion (GPFI):
Amendment was passed to enforce the
1. It is the main implementing organization
exchange of territories between India and
for the International Monetary Fund's
Bangladesh. Financial Inclusion Action Plan.
Statement-II: To resolve such disputes, 2. India and Italy will be the new co-chairs
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides of the GPFI for three years from 2024.
for a constitutional amendment under Article Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
368.
(a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in (b) 2 only
respect of the above statements? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct. and Statement-II is the correct
57. Ultraviolet Transient Astronomy Satellite
(ULTRASAT), a space telescope mission
(b) Both Statement I and Statement-II that is an ultraviolet observatory with a large
correct and Statement-II is not the· field of view is developed by
correct explanation for Statement-I (a) National Aeronautics and Space
)
Administration (NASA)
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(b) Israeil Space Agency (ISA)
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incorrect
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(c) Indian Space Research Organisation
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(ISRO)
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is correct (d) The Japan Aerospace Exploration

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Agency (JAXA)
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55. With reference to British and Indian

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a
hy
Parliamentary systems, consider the

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Statement-I: W20 (Women 20) is an official

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following statements:
engagement group under the G20 which was
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1. British parliamentary system is based on an initiative of India established during its

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the doctrine of the sovereignty of presidency.

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Parliament. Statement-II: Its primary objective is to

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ensure that gender considerations are

2. Unlike Britain, in India, a person who is
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mainstreamed into G20 discussions.

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not a member of Parliament can also be

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Which one of the following is correct in

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appointed as minister.
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3. Unlike Britain, in India, ministers are

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required to countersign the official acts correct and Statement-II is the correct
of the Head of the State. explanation for Statement-I
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct? correct explanation for statement-I
(a) Only one (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Only two incorrect
(c) All three (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
(d) None
59. Consider the following statements regarding 62. Consider the following countries :
Munich Security Conference : 1. Russia
1. It was an initiative of Germany in 2022 2. Kazakhstan
in reaction to Russian Invasion of
3. Armenia
Ukraine.
4. Uzbekistan
2. The conference is only focused on
5. Belarus
military issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above-mentioned countries
correct? are members of the Collective Security
(a) 1 only Treaty Organisation (CSTO)?
(b) 2 only (a) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only four
(d) All five
60. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: In USA a person is not only a
citizen of the country but also of the 63. Consider the following statements regarding
particular state to which he belongs. National Population Register:
Statement-II: All federal countries have a 1. It is mandatory for every usual resident
system of double citizenship. of India to register in the NPR.
)
om
Which one of the following is correct in 2. It includes both Indian citizens as well as
l.c
ai
foreign citizens.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are gm
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correct?
ti0

di
da
(a) 1 only
y(
be
correct and Statement-II is not the (b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2

a

hy
ad
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ar
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incorrect
fo

ed

is
is correct
al
Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder:

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rs
1. He shall not be entitled for registration

pe

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as a voter.
en
the citizenship provisions in the Indian

m
2. He shall not be entitled to the right to

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constitution:
do
1. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals equality of opportunity in matters of

is
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with the citizenship aspect in India. public employment.

2. Constitution identifies the persons who 3. He shall be eligible to nominated as a
became citizens of India at its member of Rajya Sabha.
commencement i.e. on January 26, 1950. How many of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
65. Consider the following countries: 68. If a court violates the principles of natural
1. Indonesia justice, then it is the most suitable writ to be
granted by the superior courts. It is not
2. Brazil
available against legislative bodies and
3. Mexico private individuals or bodies.
How many of the countries given above Which of the following writs has been
described by the passage given above?
have a presidential form of government?
(a) Quo Warranto
(a) Only one (b) Certiorari
(b) Only two (c) Habeas Corpus
(c) All three (d) Mandamus
(d) None
Statement-I: Preamble was enacted by the
66. In the context of Citizenship rights in India, Constituent Assembly after the rest of the
Constitution was already enacted.
consider the following statements regarding
Statement-II: The Preamble inserted in the
Assam Accord: Constitution at end was to ensure that it was
1. It states that all persons who came to in conformity with the Constitution as
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Assam prior to 1-1-1966 will be
)
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deported to their home country.
ai
2. It was signed during the prime gm
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ministership of Indira Gandhi.

di

da

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(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II ate

be
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correct? correct and Statement-II is not the

a
hy
(a) 1 only correct explanation for Statement-I

ad
ar

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(b) 2 only
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incorrect
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

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s
ti
70. Which of the following statements is correct

en
67. What is the primary objective of a direct

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about the appointment of Judges in High

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democracy?
do
Courts?
is
(a) Ad-hoc judges during the lack of

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(a) To maximize individual liberties and

Quorum can be appointed by the
rights
President of India.
(b) To establish a system of checks and (b) Retired judges can be appointed
balances temporarily by the President of India.
(c) To concentrate power in the hands of a (c) Additional judges can be appointed by
the President of India.
small group of elites
(d) Acting judges can be appointed by the
(d) To involve citizens directly in decision- Chief Justice of the particular High
making through popular votes Court.
71. Consider the following statements with 73. Consider the following statements:
reference to the Article 16 of Indian Statement-I: Norovirus is a viral infection
Constitution: that affects mainly the Central Nervous

1. It prohibits discrimination both by the system in children below 6 years.
State and private individuals. Statement-II: The virus is capable of
2. Parliament can not prescribe residence surviving low temperatures and is highly
as a condition for employment or contagious.
appointment in a state or union territory. Which one of the following is correct in
3. The Court can not issue the mandamus respect of the above statements?
to provide reservation or promotion.
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
)
om
(c) All three
l.c
ai
(d) None
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incorrect
di

da
y(

be
1. Charaideo Moidams are known as the

du
is correct
a
‘Pyramids of Assam' because it contains

hy
ad
ar
sacred burial grounds of Ahom kings

ra
fo
74. In the context of representative democracies

ed
and queens.
is
al
in the world, the term gerrymandering refers

on
2. Charaideo city was the original capital

rs
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to
of the Ahom Kings.
s
ti
en
(a) practice of allowing citizens to vote on

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3. Charaideo city was built by Chaolung

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proposed changes to district boundaries.

do
Sukhapa who was the founder of the

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(b) system of appointing judges to oversee

Ahom dynasty.
the redistricting process.
(c) manipulating district boundaries to gain
correct?
(a) Only one an unfair political advantage.
(b) Only two (d) legal and ethical practice used to
(c) All three maintain the integrity of district
(d) None boundaries.

75. Consider the following pairs: 77. Consider the following statements:
Alternate Definition
Statement-I: Each state of India has its own
Dispute
Resolution High Court.
(ADR)
Statement-II: The Constitution of India
Mechanism
1. : It is a non-binding procedure states that there shall be a High Court for
Arbitration in which an impartial third each state.
party assists the parties to a
dispute in reaching a Which one of the following is correct in
mutually satisfactory and respect of the above statements?
agreed-upon settlement of the
dispute. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. : It is a binding procedure in correct and Statement-II is the correct

Conciliation which an impartial third party
assists the parties to a dispute
in reaching a mutually (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
satisfactory agreement on a
settlement of the dispute.
3. : It is a non-binding procedure correct explanation for statement-I
)
Negotiation of dispute resolution without
om
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the intervention of any third
ai
incorrect
gm
party. @
How many of the above pairs are correctly
95

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matched?
di
is correct
da
(a) Only one pair

y(
be
(b) Only two pairs

du
(c) All three pairs

a
hy
78. Which of the following best describes the

(d) None
ad
ar
term "Communication Hotline" in

ra
fo
76. Consider the following pairs with regard to

ed
International relations?
the Office of Registrar General of India
is
al
on
(RGI): (a) Restriction or blockade of Internet data

rs
pe
1. It is mandatory to secure the approval of

flow between two countries.
s
ti
the Office of the RGI for the inclusion of

en
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any community in the Scheduled Tribe (b) The communication channel was opened
cu
list.
do
by United Nations in disputed or war-

is
2. It comes under the Ministry of Home

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Affairs. torn regions.

3. It gives estimates of fertility and
(c) Open and Interoperable communication
mortality using the Sample Registration
System. Network access agreement between two
countries.
correct?
(a) Only one (d) A special and direct phone line between
(b) Only two the heads of government in different
(c) All three
(d) None countries.
79. Consider the following provisions in the 82. With reference to the Indian Independence
Constitution of India: Act 1947, consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental Rights 1. This act introduced an interim
2. Directive Principles of State Policy Constitution to be in effect until the day
3. Fundamental Duties of independence.
4. Fifth Schedule 2. As per this act, Constituent Assembly
How many of the above provisions of the was made a fully sovereign legislative
Constitution provide for the formation/ body.
promotion of Co-operative Societies? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All Four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Jaipur Declaration, which is recently seen in
news is associated with which of the 83. Which of the following countries have a
following objectives? written constitution?
(a) To achieve responsible use of artificial 1. Israel
)
om
l.c
intelligence in the military 2. USA
ai
(b) To end AIDS in children by 2030 3. France
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(c) To achieve long-term goal of safety and Select the correct answer using the code
ti0
di
security of Railway organizations given below.

da
y(
(d) To achieve the conservation and (a) 1 and 2 only

be
du
restoration of one trillion trees within (b) 3 only

a
hy
this decade (c) 2 and 3 only

ad
ar
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ra
fo
81. Which of the following statements about the

ed
is
al
seat of the Supreme Court is not correct? 84. Which of the statements given below is not
on
rs
(a) The Constitution declares Delhi as the correct regarding the procedure for an
pe
s
seat of the Supreme Court. amendment to the Constitution?

ti
en
m
(b) The Constitution authorizes the (a) A private member can propose an
cu
do
President of India to appoint any other amendment bill to the constitution.

is
Th
place as the seat of the Supreme Court. (b) The introduction of a constituion
(c) The provision of declaration of the any amendment bill does not require prior
other place as the seat of the Supreme permission of the president.
Court is only optional and not (c) The constitutional amendment bill can
compulsory. be discussed in a joint sitting of two
(d) No court can give any direction either to houses for discussion.
the President or to the Chief Justice to (d) The President must give assent to
appoint any other place as a seat of the constitutional amendment bill passed by
Supreme Court. the parliament.
85. Consider the following Directive Principles 88. Amrit Dharohar Scheme which is announced
contained in the Part IV of the Indian in the 2023 Union Budget aims to
Constitution: (a) Facilitate the transition towards a low
1. Equal justice and free legal aid Carbon Economy.
2. Organisation of village panchayats (b) Promote alternative fertilizers and
3. Living wage for the workers balanced use of chemical fertilizers.
4. Participation of workers in the (c) Establish 500 new 'Waste to Wealth'
management of the industries Plants
How many of the above given Directive (d) Promote values of local communities in
Principles are based on the Gandhian conserving Wetland Ecosystem.
ideology?
(a) Only one 89. In the context of Citizenship in India, which
(b) Only two of the following are the modes of acquiring
(c) Only three citizenship as prescribed by 1955
(d) All four Citizenship Act?
1. Birth
86. Consider the following statements with 2. Descent
reference to the FIR and Charge Sheet: 3. Registration
1. FIR is a preliminary report while the 4. Naturalisation
charge sheet is a final report. 5. Incorporation of Territory
)
om
2. FIR is prepared by the investigation Select the correct answer using the code
l.c
given below.
ai
officer while the charge sheet is
prepared by the victim of the crime. gm
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
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95
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only

3. FIR is filed in the police station while a
ti0
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

di
charge sheet is filed in court.

da
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
y(

be
du
correct?
a
90. Consider the following Fundamental Rights

hy
(a) Only one

ad
mentioned in the Indian Constitution:

ar
(b) Only two

ra
1. Equality before law and equal protection

fo
(c) All three

of laws (Article 14)
ed
(d) None
is
2. Protection in respect of conviction for

al
on
offences (Article 20)

rs
pe
87. Consider the following statements with

3. Right to elementary education (Article
s
ti
respect to 'Quo-Warranto' writ:

en
21A)
m
1. It is issued by the court to enquire into

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4. Freedom to manage religious affairs

do
the legality of claim of a person to a

(Article 26)
is
public office.
Th
5. Right of minorities to establish and

2. It can be sought by any interested person
administer educational institutions
and not necessarily by the aggrieved
(Article 30)
person. How many of the above given Fundamental
Which of the statements given above is/are Rights are available to both citizens of India
correct? and foreigners?
(a) 1 only (a) Only two
(b) 2 only (b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All five
91. Consider the following statements: 93. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement-I: Viceroy Canning nominated Agriculture and Processed Food Products
three Indians to the central council–the Raja Export Development Authority (APEDA):
of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir 1. It is an apex organization under the
Dinkar Rao. Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Statement-II: The Indian Councils Act 1861 2. Most agricultural products along with
provided for the first time the association of marine products are covered under
Indians with the executive councils. APEDA.
Which one of the following is correct in Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
)
om
94. Which of the following are generally
l.c
ai
gm
considered duties of citizenship?
@
95
1. Paying taxes
ti0
incorrect
di
2. Defending the country

da
y(

be
3. Owning property
du
is correct
a

hy
ad
ar
given below.
ra
92. Consider the following constitutional

fo
(a) 1 only
ed
is
features:
al
(b) 1 and 2 only

on
rs
1. Doctrine of Sovereignty of Parliament

pe
(c) 2 and 3 only

s
ti
2. Presence of a nominal Executive

en
(d) 1, 2 and 3
m
cu
3. Dissolution of the lower house of the

do
is
Parliament
Th
95. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar which of

How many of the above are the essential the following is a ‘novel feature’ of the
features of the Parliamentary government as Indian Constitution?
provided under the Constitution of India? (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(a) Only one (b) Provisions of National Emergency
(b) Only two (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) All three (d) Indestructible Nature of Indian
(d) None Federation
96. With reference to the Citizenship Act 1955, 98. Consider the following statements about the
in which of the following cases the contempt of court:

1. Wilful disobedience of any judgment of
citizenship of a person can be deprived by
the court is a criminal contempt.
the government? 2. The consent of the Attorney General of
1. If a citizen has, within five years after India is mandatory when a private
registration or naturalization, been citizen wants to initiate a case of

contempt of court against a person.
imprisoned in any country for two years.
3. At present, there is no separate legal law
2. If a citizen has been ordinarily residing dealing with contempt of court.
out of India for seven years How many of the above statements are
correct?
continuously.
(a) Only one
3. If a citizen has shown disloyalty to the
(b) Only two
Constitution of India. (c) All three
Select the correct answer using the code (d) None
)
om
l.c
given below.
ai
99. gm
Consider the following statements:
@
(a) 1 and 3 only
95
Statement-I: The Fazl Ali Commission

ti0
di
(b) 2 and 3 only

da
accepted the theory of ‘one language-one

y(
be
(c) 1 only state’ in principle.

du
a
hy
Statement-II: The Commission viewed that

(d) 1, 2 and 3
ad
ar
the unity and integrity of India was a prime

ra
fo
consideration.
ed
is
97. Project 39A, recently seen in the news, is

al

on
rs
pe
associated with: respect of the above statements?

s
ti

en
(a) Indian Navy’s 30 years plan for

m
cu
correct. and Statement-II is the correct

do
indigenous nuclear submarine

is

Th
construction. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(b) criminal reforms advocacy group. correct and Statement-II is not the·
(c) a target of doubling India’s nuclear
capacity by 2039.
incorrect
(d) an aim to eliminate lymphatic filariasis (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
by 2039 is correct

100. Consider the following personalities:
1. Sucheta Kriplani
2. Usha Mehta
3. Captain Lakshmi Sahgal
4. Begum Aizaz Rasul
5. Annie Mascarene
How many of the above leaders were part of
the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
)
om
l.c
ai
gm
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ti0
di
da
y(
be
du
a
hy
ad
ar
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ed
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on
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VISIONIAS

Test Booklet Series

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2024 – Test – 4134

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(a) Only one

(b) Only two How many of the above countries are

(c) All three currently governed by One Party System?

(d) None (a) Only one

(b) Only two

3. Consider the following statements about the

(c) Only three

fundamental rights under Article 21 of the

(d) All four

1. If it is violated by the State, there is an

grant of compensation by the State. the Fundamental Rights:

only against arbitrary executive action

and not against arbitrary legislative

2. Inclusion of non-justiciable Directive

Act, 1951 from the fundamental

Principles of State Policy

3. Inclusion of non-justiciable Fundamental right

duties 2. 52nd : A member disqualified

Act, 1985 a minister

(b) 2 and 3 only 3. 77th : Provided reservation in

(c) 1 and 2 only Amendment promotions to SCs and

(d) 1 and 3 only

Act, 1995 STs

4. 91st : Stipulated the upper

9. Consider the following statements regarding

Amendment limit for the number of

Act, 2003 Council of Ministers at

1. Religious principles often guide political

decision-making. both central and state

(a) strong government control over the

(c) All three

economy and individual freedoms.

(b) limited government intervention and

14. With reference to personalities associated maximum individual liberties.

with the making Constitution of India,

(c) social equality and wealth redistribution.

consider the following pairs:

(d) a mix of conservative and liberal

Personality Their Role in

Constitution Making policies.

1. H.V.R. : Chief Draftsman of

Iyengar the Constitution

17. Consider the following words/phrases:

2. Prem Behari : Calligrapher of the

Narain Raizada Constitution 1. Universal Adult Franchise

3. Sir B.N. Rau : Legal advisor to the 2. Right to Work

How many of the above-mentioned activities at a competitive rate.

(a) 1 only given below.

(c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

20. Which of the following statements is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3

about Directive Principles of State Policy

23. With reference to Channapatna toys,

(a) The idea of DPSP is borrowed from

consider the following statements:

Soviet Union Constitution (erstwhile

Russia). 1. They are a particular form of toys that

(b) They resemble the ‘Instrument of

are manufactured in Karnataka.