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(Download PDF) Clinical Laboratory Immunology 1st Edition Mahon Test Bank Full Chapter
(Download PDF) Clinical Laboratory Immunology 1st Edition Mahon Test Bank Full Chapter
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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
2) All of the following hypersensitivities are mediated by humoral immune system components except 2)
A) Type I. B) Type II. C) Type III. D) Type IV.
Answer: D
1
8) All of the following are typically associated with anaphylaxis except 8)
A) shock.
B) life-threatening low blood pressure.
C) hives.
D) wheezing and difficulty breathing.
E) arthritis.
Answer: E
9) What is the positive control when doing a skin test for type I hypersensitivities? 9)
A) Auspected allergen B) Histamine
C) Nonsuspected allergen D) Diluent without allergen
Answer: B
10) Which of the following is (are) a contraindication(s) for skin testing for a type I hypersensitivity? 10)
A) Subject cannot discontinue anti-inflammatory medication.
B) Subject has had previous anaphylactic reaction.
C) Subject has active dermatitis in the preferred testing sites.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
11) A subject has been receiving immunotherapy for a type I hypersensitivity. Which test below best 11)
assesses the effectiveness of the treatment?
A) Total IgE levels
B) Skin prick testing
C) Intradermal skin testing
D) Epicutaneous skin testing
E) Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST)
Answer: E
12) Interpret the results of a RAST test conducted as follows (cpm = radioactive counts per minute): 12)
A) The results are invalid because the negative control reaction is incorrect.
B) The specimen reveals an allergy to milk.
C) The specimen reveals an allergy to ragweed and oak pollen.
D) The results are invalid because the positive control reaction is incorrect.
E) The results are invalid because the negative control and positive control reactions are
backward.
Answer: B
13) Each of the following mediates cell damage in type II hypersensitivities except 13)
A) complement opsonization. B) complement lysis.
C) antibody dependent NK cell cytotoxicity. D) T cytotoxic cell activation.
Answer: D
2
14) Each of the type II hypersensitivities below is classified as an autoimmune disease except 14)
A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
B) drug-induced thrombocytopenia.
C) Hashimoto's disease.
D) Goodpasture's syndrome.
E) Graves' disease.
Answer: B
15) Which of the type II hypersensitivities listed is caused by spontaneously produced platelet 15)
antibodies?
A) Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura B) Goodpasture's syndrome
C) Hashimoto's disease D) Graves' disease
Answer: A
16) At the end of a prolonged course of penicillin therapy, a patient experiences hematuria and a 16)
sudden drop in hemoglobin. Which type of hypersensitivity should be suspected?
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV
Answer: B
17) The symptoms associated with serum sickness, a systemic type III hypersensitivity reaction are 17)
A) hemolysis and anemia.
B) rhinitis, wheezing, mucus secretions.
C) fever, joint pain, skin rashes.
D) urticaria.
E) thrombocytopenia and bruising.
Answer: C
18) Complement is an important component of the negative consequence of which hypersensitivity(s)? 18)
(Check all that apply.)
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV
Answer: B, C
19) To try to eradicate cancer in a patient, he is infused with mouse monoclonal antibodies to an 19)
antigen expressed on his cancer. What is the most probable risk of this treatment?
A) A type I hypersensitivity when the mouse antibodies bind to mast cells.
B) A type II hypersensitivity when the mouse antibodies cross-react with human antigens.
C) A type III hypersensitivity if the patient develops anti-mouse antibodies.
D) A type IV hypersensitivity if the antibodies activate cytotoxic T cells.
Answer: C
21) The advanced cavitary form of tuberculosis is a type ________ hypersensitivity. 21)
A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V
Answer: D
3
22) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is 22)
A) manifested with fever, cough, fever, and difficulty breathing.
B) a type IV hypersensitivity.
C) often associated with occupational exposures.
D) follows inhalation of a substantial amount of antigen.
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
23) The ability of which listed organism to induce a cell-mediated inflammatory reaction in the skin 23)
(redness, induration) is exploited to screen for exposure to that organism?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Neisseria gonorrheae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Candida albicans
Answer: D
24) A health care worker began wearing a new brand of latex gloves on Wednesday, Thursday, and 24)
Friday at work. He did not work on Saturday and Sunday or use other gloves of any kind. On
Sunday afternoon, both of his hands developed a red rash that ended at the wrist. The rash was not
present on any other body part. As described, this is most likely a type ________ hypersensitivity.
A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V
Answer: D
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
26) The form of type I hypersensitivity characterized by rhinitis, wheezing, shortness of breath, 26)
and bronchial hyperresponsiveness is ________.
Answer: asthma
27) When a type I hypersensitivity is systemic and life threatening, it is called ________. 27)
Answer: anaphylaxis
28) In the skin test for type I hypersensitivities, the reaction is assessed and recorded within 28)
________ minutes.
Answer: 15-30
29) The two forms of laboratory testing for type I hypersensitivities are measuring levels of the 29)
antibody ________ and the allergen specific ________ test.
Answer: IgE, RAST
4
30) A localized type III hypersensitivity reaction in the skin in which the lesion becomes 30)
inflamed and then necrotic is called an ________ reaction.
Answer: Arthus
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
31) Type I hypersensitivities can occur on the first exposure to antigen. 31)
Answer: True False
34) Immunotherapy or desensitization has most often been applied to treating type I hypersensitivities. 34)
Answer: True False
36) Antithyroglobulin and antithyroid peroxidase antibodies are uniquely associated with Graves' 36)
disease.
Answer: True False
38) The probable cause of contact dermatitis from allergens such as nickel in jewelry is that the 38)
allergens are functioning as haptens.
Answer: True False
39) A positive Mantoux PPD skin test is indicative of a current infection with Mycobacterium 39)
tuberculosis.
Answer: True False
40) Skin testing for previous exposure to microbial antigens may be invalid if the subject is 40)
immunocompromised.
Answer: True False
5
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
42) Describe the T cell alternation that may be responsible for atopy. 42)
Answer: A predominance of Th2 T helper cell activity has been demonstrated in atopy, and
this promotes the production of the cytokines IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10. These
cytokines increase the two most important components of a type I hypersensitivities
—mast cells and IgE. IL-4 promotes antibody class switching to IgE, while IL-3,
IL-4, and IL-10 increase mast cell production.
43) Discuss why percutaneous injection is generally preferred to epicutaneous or intradermal 43)
testing for type I hypersensitivities.
Answer: Tests for type I hypersensitivities must introduce suspected allergens into body sites
that have mast cells. Since the skin is rich in mast cells and is readily accessible, skin
testing for type I hypersensitivities has been used extensively. Epicutaneous or patch
testing does not deliver sufficient antigens to the mast cells for good response, and
intradermal testing is dangerous because it could introduce the allergen
systemically and cause anaphylaxis. Correctly done percutaneous introduction of
the allergen by scratches or pricks into the skin accesses mast cells without inducing
a systemic reaction.
44) Explain the mechanism of hemolytic disease of the newborn as a type II hypersensitivity. 44)
Answer: Type II hypersensitivities are mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies. In the case of
hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother possesses IgG antibodies against fetal
red blood cell antigens. IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetus'
cells. This situation typically occurs when the mother was exposed to foreign red
blood cell antigens via prior pregnancy or transfusion, and the condition is common
in untreated Rh negative mothers who have previously borne Rh positive children.
45) Types II and III hypersensitivities are both caused by IgG or IgM antibodies. Explain how 45)
they are different.
Answer: In type II hypersensitivities antibodies attach to the subject's cells and cause
destruction of those cells via complement lysis, accelerated phagocytosis, and/or NK
cell lysis. In type III hypersensitivities the IgM or IgG antibodies attach to soluble
antigens and form circulating immune complexes. These immune complexes are
capable of depositing onto tissues, and if they activate complement, the tissues are
destroyed.
6
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“Just as we opened fire the enemy comes charging from out the poplars.
Only a few steps they run, and then, as if thunder-stricken, the whole line of
red breeches sinks to the earth. Our aim was good. How quiet the fallen
Frenchmen lie! But soon the hellish racket begins again. In front of us a
machine gun goes ‘tap, tap, tap.’ Whizzing and whirring, the bullets fly
about us.
“Through an opening the men swarm through to the left! The bravest
hurry on in advance. Five or six hang back till their leader roughly grabs
them and kicks them through the hedge opening. There must have been 800
rifles or more! A withering fire tells us that the enemy has discovered our
movements. But we return his fire as we run. Many of our men fall. But, lo!
presently the enemy’s fire begins to dwindle and soon dies down almost
completely. There, what is that? In the midst of the enemy’s line of fire a
tremendous pillar of smoke.
We saw how the French were blown yards high. A terrible thunderclap
reaches our ears. Hurrah! Our artillery!
“Shell after shell buries itself, as if measured with extraordinary
exactitude in the very midst of the French infantry lines. We follow this up
with our own fast rifle fire.
“Now we charge forward to where we can plainly see their faces. The
panic of the enemy was indescribable. Our fellows mow them down. And
now a new hail of shrapnel beats down upon them. Again the red breeches
surge back in wild flight. We fire on the retreating enemy in a cornfield
beyond. Many Frenchmen can be seen falling in the gold cornfield beyond,
never to rise again.”
Works Sixty Years on Propeller.
At the age of seventy-four years, James Henry Miller, of Albany, Ore.,
believes that the ambition of a lifetime is about to be realized. Sixty years
ago, when he first saw a river boat with a stern propeller, Miller made up his
mind to construct a propeller which would not strike the water with such
resistance. He says that his invention, now virtually completed, will
revolutionize river and ocean navigation throughout the world.
The propeller has eight blades, each six feet long and twelve inches wide,
and each working on ratchets, so that the edge of the blade strikes the water
as it enters, falls into propelling position while in deepest water, and
continues to adjust itself as the wheel turns, so that it emerges from the water
edge first. The flat side of the blade never strikes the water. As the wheel
turns, the blades enter and leave the water with as little resistance as a
feathered oar.
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*** END OF THE PROJECT GUTENBERG EBOOK NICK CARTER
STORIES NO. 120, DECEMBER 26, 1914: AN UNCANNY
REVENGE; OR, NICK CARTER AND THE MIND MURDERER ***
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