English (1015CMD303361240012) *1015CMD303361240012* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 02-03-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE : MEQ-I (B)

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

 2 English

Topic : RAY OPTICS (FROM REFRACTION THROUGH CURVED SURFACE), WAVE OPTICS

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 7. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using

blue light instead of red light, the fringes becomes
1. Huygen's principle is applicable to - narrower.
Reason : In Young's double slit experiment, fringe
(1) Only light waves
width is given by relation β = λ D .
(2) Only sound waves d
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) Only mechanical waves Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) For all the above waves (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
2. If the intensity of the waves observed by two is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
coherent sources is I. Then the intensity of resultant (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
wave in constructive interference will be : (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(1) 2I (2) 4I 8. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce
(3) I (4) None of the above on interference pattern, the fringe visibility will be:
3. Ratio of intensity of two waves is 25 : 36. If (1) 1 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.6
interference occurs, then ratio of maximum and 9. In a YDSE with d = 1mm and D = 1m, slabs of
minimum intensity should be: (t = 1 μ m, μ = 3) and (t = 0.5 μ m, μ = 2) are
introduced in front of upper and lower slit
(1) 61 : 11 (2) 5 : 6 (3) 11 : 1 (4) 121 : 1 respectively. Find the shift in the fringe pattern.
4. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit (1) 1.2mm (2) 1.5 mm (3) 1.8 mm (4) 1mm
separation is doubled. This result in
10. In Young's double slit experiment, if monochromatic
(1) an increase in fringe intensity light is replaced by white light :-
(2) a decrease in fringe intensity (1) All bright fringes become white
(3) a half of the fringe spacing (2) All bright fringes have colours between violet
(4) a doubling of the fringe spacing and red
(3) Only the central fringe is white, all other
5. In young's double slit experiment, if the width of fringes are coloured
4th bright fringe is 2 × 10 – 2 cm, then the width
(4) No fringes are observed
of 6th bright fringe will be .......... cm :-
(where the symbols have their usual meanings) 11. When an unpolarised light of intensity I0 is
incident on a polarising sheet, the intensity of the
(1) 10 – 2 (2) 3 × 10 – 2 light which does not get transmitted is :-
(3) 2 × 10 – 2 (4) 1.5 × 10 – 2 (1) I0 (2) I0 (3) Zero (4) I0
2 4
6. In Young's experiment, the distance between the
12. The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°,
slits is reduced to half and the distance between the
what will be critical angle for this :
slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width :
(1) sin – 1 √ 3 (2) tan – 1 3
√
(1) will not change (2) will become half
1
(3) will be doubled (4) will become four times (3) cos – 1 √ 3 (4) sin – 1
√ 3
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13. Assertion :- In a Young's double slit experiment 18. An object is located at 10 cm in front of a
(YDSE), if the screen is move away from the plane convex lens of focal length 12 cm. Find the
of slits, Angular fringe width remains unchanged. position and nature of image-
Reason :- Linear and Angular fringe width is (1) 60 cm real (2) 60 cm virtual
directly proportional to D. (3) 5.45 cm virtual (4) 5.45 cm real
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 19. A thin symmetrical double convex lens of power P
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
is cut into three parts, as shown in the figure. Power
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. of A is:
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
14. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of
blue light. What happens if the blue light is
(1) 2P (2) P (3) P (4) P
replaced by red light :-
2 3
(1) No change 20. The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin
(2) Diffraction bands become narrower and plano-convex lens is 15 cm and refractive index of
crowded together its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be
(3) Bands become broader and farther apart (1) +1D (2) – 2D (3) +3D (4) +4D
(4) Bands disappear 21. A telescope consisting of an objective of focal
15. All fringes of diffraction are of - length 60 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm
is focused to a distant object in such a way that
(1) the same intensity (2) unequal width
parallel rays emerge from the eye piece. If the
(3) the same width (4) full darkness object subtends an angle of 2° at the objective,
16. Light of wavelength 2 × 10 – 3 m falls on a slit of then find the angular width of the image.
width 4 × 10 – 3 m. The angular dispersion of the (1) 12º (2) 24º (3) 28.8º (4) 36º
central maximum will be :
22. Magnification of a compound microscope is 30.
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 180° Focal length of eye piece is 5 cm and the image is
17. An bubble in glass ( μ = 1.5) in situated at a formed at least distance of distinct vision. Find the
distance 3 cm from a convex surface of diameter magnification of objective.
10 cm as shown in figure. At what distance from (1) 5 (2) – 5 (3) 6 (4) – 6
the surface will the bubble appear :
23. A plano convex lens is made of refractive index
1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved
surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is-
(1) 200 cm (2) 100 cm
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm (3) 50 cm (4) 400 cm
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24. The relation between n1 and n2 if behaviour of
light rays is as shown in figure is-
29. Shown in the figure here is a convergent lens
placed inside a cell filled with a liquid. The lens
has focal length + 20 cm when in air and its
material has refractive index 1.50. If the liquid
has refractive index 1.60, the focal length of the
system is-

(1) n1 >> n2 (2) n2 > n1

(3) n1 > n2 (4) n1 = n2
25. Microscope is an optical instrument which-
(1) Enlarges the object
(2) Increases the visual angle formed by the (1) + 80 cm (2) – 80 cm
object at the eye (3) – 24 cm (4) – 100 cm
(3) Decreases the visual angle formed by the
30. The chromatic Aberration in lenses becomes due to
object at the eye
(1) Dissimilarity of main axis of rays
(4) Brings the object nearer
(2) Dissimilarity of radii of curvature
26. The length of the compound microscope is 14
cm. The magnifying power for relaxed eye is 25. (3) Variation of focal length of lenses with
If the focal length of eye lens is 5 cm, then the wavelength
object distance for objective lens will be (4) None of these
(1) 1.8 cm (2) 1.5 cm 31. The focal length of lens of refractive index 1.5 in
(3) 2.1 cm (4) 2.4 cm air is 30 cm. When it is immersed in a liquid of
4
27. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is- refractive index , then its focal length in liquid
3
(1) Virtual, erect and magnified will be-
(2) Real, erect and magnified (1) 30 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) Real, inverted and magnified (3) 120 cm (4) 240 cm
(4) Virtual, erect and reduced 32. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose
28. The magnifying power of a telescope can be refractive index is equal to the refractive index
increased by- of the lens. Then its focal length will
(1) Increasing focal length of the system (1) Become infinite
(2) Fitting eye piece of high power (2) Become small, but non-zero
(3) Fitting eye piece of low power (3) Remain unchanged
(4) Increasing the distance of objects (4) Become zero
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33. A convex lens is made up of three different 38. Assertion (A) :- In Young's double slit
materials as shown in the figure. For a point object experiment the two slits are at distance d apart.
placed on its axis, the number of images formed are Interference pattern is observed on a screen at
fixed distance D from the slits. At a point on the
screen when it is directly opposite to one of the
slits, a dark fringe is observed. Then, the
wavelength of wave is proportional to square of
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 distance of two slits.
Reason (R) :- For a dark fringe in YDSE
34. In a parallel beam of white light is incident on a
converging lens, the colour which is brought to intensity is zero.
focus nearest to the lens is (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(1) Violet (2) Red the correct explanation of (A)
(3) The mean colour (4) All the colours together (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
35. If I1
=
4
then Imax
will be :- (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
I2 1 Imin
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) 9 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 1
1 1 9 4
correct explanation of (A)
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) 39. Young's Double Slit Experiment is first
performed in air then in a medium other than air.
36. In YDSE, an interference pattern is obtained for It is found that 10th bright fringe in medium lies
λ = 6000 Å, coming from two coherent sources
where 8th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive
S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen third
dark fringe is formed, then the path difference index of medium is nearly :-
S2P – S1P in micrometer is :- (1) 1.59 (2) 1.78
(1) 0.75 (2) 1.5 (3) 3.0 (4) 4.5 (3) 1.69 (4) 1.33
37. In YDSE, the source is placed as shown in figure 40. Assertion :- When a tiny circular object is placed
with respect to the slit is now moved parallel to in the path of light, a bright spot is seen at the
the plane of the slits so that it is closer to the
centre of shadow of obstacle.
upper slit, as shown. Then,
Reason :- Destructive interference occurs at the
centre of shadow.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(1) the fringe width will increase and fringe Reason is a correct explanation of the
pattern will shift down Assertion.
(2) the fringe width will remain same but (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
fringe pattern will shift up Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(3) the fringe width will decrease and fringe Assertion.
pattern will shift down
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) the fringe width will remain same but
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
fringe pattern will shift down
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41. Yellow light is used in single slit diffraction 46. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave
experiment with slit width 0.6 mm. If yellow light lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together,
is replaced by X-rays then the pattern will reveal :
what will be their resulting power?
(1) That the central maxima is narrower
(1) + 7.5 D (2) -0.75 D
(2) No diffraction pattern
(3) + 6.5 D (4) – 6.5 D
(3) More number of fringes
47. A convex lens of focal length f produces an image,
(4) Less number of fringes
μ times the size of the object; then the distance of
42. Which of the following waves can not be polarised ?
the object from the lens is :- (If the image is real)
(1) Radio waves (2) Ultraviolet waves
(1) ( μ – 1)f (2) ( μ +1)f
(3) Infrared waves (4) Ultrasonic waves
(+ μ − 1)f ( μ + 1)f
43. Assertion :- If the phase difference between the (3) (4)
μ μ
waves emerging from two slits in Young's Double
48. Determine the nature of Lens shown in figure (P)
Slit Experiment is π -radian, the central point will & (Q) (given lenses are made from glass
have maximum intensity. & surrounding medium is air)
Reason :- Phase difference is equal to 2 π times the
λ
path difference.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (1) P → converging & Q → diverging
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (2) P → diverging & Q → converging
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (3) P & Q both converging
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (4) P & Q both diverging
44. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 49. A beam of Light converge at a point P. Now a
'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° Lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam
when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on 12 cm from P. If the lens is a convex Lens of
the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed focal length 20 cm the beam converge at a point:
at an angle of :
(1) -15cm (2) +7.5cm
1 2
(1) sin−1 ( ) (2) sin−1 ( ) (3) -20cm (4) +15cm
4 3
1 3 50. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of
(3) sin−1 ( ) (4) sin−1 ( )
2 4 a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively. If
45. A biconvex lens with equal radii of curvature has the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45,
refractive index 1.6 and focal length 10 cm. then the length of the tube is-
Its radius of curvature will be: (1) 30 cm (2) 25 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 16 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 12 cm
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Topic : SOLUTION, ELECTROCHEMISTRY (TILL TAUGHT), CHEMICAL BONDING

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 59. Which of the approaching axis is not appropriate

to form π -bond by two py-orbitals.
51. Orbitals involved in overlapping that are directional
(1) y-axis (2) x-axis
in nature are :-
(3) z-axis (4) No suitable axis
(1) s only (2) s and p both
60. Which one is polar covalent molecule ?
(3) s, p and d (4) p, d and f
(1) SO3 (2) NaCl (3) H2O (4) F2
52. Which of the following molecule will not exist
61. What is the covalency of silicon in the compound
according to MOT :-
[SiF6]2 – ?
(1) H2− (2) He+2 (3) Be2 (4) B2
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 8
53. Which of the following has lowest C – C bond 62. Which of the following has diagonal hybridisation ?
length : –
(1) P Cl+4 (2) H3O+ (3) NO−2 (4) CO2
(1) C2H6 (2) C2H4
63. p π – d π bonding not occurs between oxygen and
(3) C2H2 (4) Same in all
(1) Phosphours in P4O10
54. In which of the following N is in the sp2
(2) Nitrogen in N2O5
hybridisation state :-
(1) (CH3)3N (2) CH3CONH2 (3) Chlorine in HClO4

(3) CH3CN (4) NO2+ (4) Chlorine in anionic part of solid Cl2O6

55. The hybrid state and oxidation state of ‘O’ atoms 64. Octet rule is not satisfied in -
in H2O2 are respectively : – – (1) CO (2) NO (3) CO2 (4) CO−2
3

(1) sp2, – 1 (2) sp3, – 2 65. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the
(3) sp3, +1 (4) sp3, – 1 correct order in which the bond order is increasing
in them :
56. Arrange the species according to increasing
order of the no. of lone pair on their central atom (1) C22 – < He2+ < O2 – < NO
from left to right :- (2) He2+ < O2 – < NO < C22 –
(1) XeF2 , ICl3 , SO2 (2) ICl3, SO2 , XeF2 (3) NO < O2 – < C22 – < He2+
(3) SO2, ICl3, XeF2 (4) SO2, XeF2 , ICl3 (4) O2 – < NO < C22 – < He2+
57. Which of the following pairs of species have 66. Which among the given compounds consists of
identical shapes :- polar bonds but have zero dipole moment ?
(1) NO2+ and NO2 – (2) PCl5 and BrF5 (1) PH3 (2) SF4 (3) CCl4 (4) SO2
(3) XeF4 and ICl4 ϴ (4) TeCl4 and XeO4 67. In which species (X – O) bond order is 1.5 and
58. Which of the following does not exist? contain p π -d π bond :-
(1) SF4 (2) OF6 (3) OF2 (4) SF6 (1) SO4 – 2 (2) HCO2 – (3) SO3 – 2 (4) ClO4 –
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68. The shapes of XeF4 , XeF5 – and SnCl2 respectively 73. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with
are :- another 3 litre of 0.5 M NaOH solution, then
(1) Octahedral, Trigonal Bipyramidal and bent molarity of the resultant solution is :
(2) Square planar, pentagonal planar and linear (1) 1.0 M (2) 0.73 M (3) 0.80 M (4) 0.50 M
(3) Tetrahedral, Trigonal bipyramidal and bent 74. Assertion : Mixture of water and nitric acid show
(4) Square planar, pentagonal planar and angular negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Reason : Enthalpy of mixing for above solution
69. The pressure exerted by vapours on the liquid
is greater than zero.
surface in equilibrium with liquid depends upon :-
(a) Temperature (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(b) Nature of liquid is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Surface area (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) & (c) is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (a) & (b) (3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
70. Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X and Y. The (4) Assertion is false and reason is true.
solute X behaves as a univalent electrolyte while the 75. 0.1 M solution of K2SO4 is dissolved to the extent of
solute Y dimerises in solution. Which of the following 90%. What would be its osmotic pressure at 27°C :-
statements are correct regarding these solutions ? (1) 6.89 atm (2) 0.689 atm
(A) The boiling point of the solution of X will be
higher than that of Y (3) 0.344 atm (4) 3.4 atm
(B) The osmotic pressure of the solution of Y will be 76. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the
lower than that of X value of molal depression constant (Kf ) will be
(C) The freezing point of the solution of X will be
(1) Doubled (2) Halved
lower than that of Y
(D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of both (3) Tripled (4) Unchanged
the solutions will be the same 77. If solute and solvent interactions are more than
Select the correct answer from the option given below : solute-solute and solvent-solvent interactions then :-
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D (1) It is ideal solution
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D (2) It is non-ideal solution with positive deviation
71. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL (3) It is non-ideal solution with negative deviation
of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is : (4) Can't predicted
(1) 0.001 M (2) 0.01 M 78. Which of the following is correct about a
(3) 0.02 M (4) 0.1 M solution showing positive deviation ?
72. The relationship between osmotic pressure at (1) Vapour pressure observed will be the less
273K when 10g glucose (P1), 10g urea (P2) and than that calculated from Raoult's law
10g sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250ml of water is (2) Minimum boiling azeotrope will be formed
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P1 > P2 (3) Δ Hmix < O
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) Δ Vmix < O
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79. Two liquids having vapour pressures P1° and P2° in 84. Calculate the weight of non-volatile solute having
pure state in the ratio of 2 : 1 are mixed in the molar molecular weight 40, which should be dissolved in
ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of their moles in the vapour 57 gm octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%.
state would be : (1) 47.2 g (2) 5 g
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 (3) 106.2 g (4) None of these
85. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol
80. Equimolar solution of non-electrolyte in the same
X (Pxo = 150 torr) and 2 mol
solvent have. Y (Pyo = 300 torr) is 240 torr.
(1) Same boiling point and same freezing point In this case :
(2) Different boiling point and different freezing point (1) There is a negative deviation from Raoult's law
(2) There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) Same boiling point but different freezing point
(3) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Same freezing point but different boiling point (4) Can not be decided
81. Two solutions marked as A and B are separated SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
through semipermeable membrane as below. The
phenomenon undergoing. 86. Which is incorrect for hybridisation ?
(1) Number of hybrid orbital is equal to number
of atomic orbital participated
(2) Hybrid orbital have same shape but different
energy.
(3) Hybrid orbital form more stable bonds than
pure orbitals.
(1) Na+ moves from solution (A) to solution (B)
(4) Hybrid orbitals have more directional character
(2) Both Na+ and Cl – moves from solution (A) to than pure orbitals
solution (B) 87. Maximum lone pair on central atom are present in :–
(3) Both Na+ and Cl– moves from solution (B) to (A) (1) ClF3 (2) H2O (3) XeF2 (4) XeO2F2
(4) Solvent molecules moves from solution (A) to (B) The shape of a molecule which has EB5L2 moleculer
88.
82. Substance A tetramerises in water to the extent of formula :-
80%. A solution of 2.5 g of A is 100 g of water {E = Central atom, B = Terminal atom, L = Lone pair}
lowers the freezing point by 0.3°C. The molar (1) Square pyramidal (2) Pentagonal planar
mass of A is (Kf for water = 1.86 K Kg mol – 1) (3) Octahedral (4) Pentagonal pyramidal
(1) 122 (2) 31 (3) 244 (4) 62 89. Select correct statement about CH4.
83. K4[Fe(CN)6] is supposed to be 40% dissociated (1) All the hybrid orbitals of carbon are equivalent
when 1 M solution prepared. Its boiling point is equal (2) All the hybrid orbitals of carbon have 25%, 2s
to another 20% mass by volume of non-electrolytic character
solution A. Considering molarity = molality. The (3) All the hybrid orbitals of carbon are projected
molecular weight of A is at the four vertex of a regular tetrahedron
(1) 77 (2) 67 (3) 57 (4) 47 (4) All statements are correct
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90. Number of molecules or ions which has/have any
bond angle of 120º is : CH3 – , CH3+, NH3, CO3 – 2,
BCl3, PCl5
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
Amongst the following, the total number of
91.
species NOT having eight electrons around
central atom in its outer most shell, is
NH3, AlCl3, BeCl2, CCl4, PCl5 :
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3
92. Among the following which one is a wrong statement :
(1) d π -p π bond is present in SO3
(2) I3+ has bent shape
(3) H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger
than H – N – H bond angle in NH3
(4) HClO4 is stronger acid than HClO3
93. Aluminium phosphate Al(PO4) is 100% ionised in
0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence, Δ Tb/Kb is :
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.015 (3) 0.0175 (4) 0.02
94. 34 g of H2O2 is present in 1120 mL of solution.
This solution is called :-
(1) 10 V (2) 20 V (3) 30 V (4) 40 V
95. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion (A) : Raoult's Law is a special cases
of Henry's Law.
Reason (R) : The partial vapour pressure is directly
proportional to the mole fraction of the concerned
species in solution.
In the light of the above statments, Choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true.
96. Which of the following has been arranged in
order of decreasing freezing point :-
(1) 0.05 M KNO3 > 0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M
sucrose > 0.075 M CuSO4
(2) 0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.075
M CuSO4 > 0.05 M KNO3
(3) 0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04
M BaCl2 > 0.05 M KNO3
(4) 0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.05 M KNO3 > 0.140
M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl2
97. Consider following cases :-
I : 2M CH3COOH solution in benzene at 27°C where
there is dimer formation to the extent of 100%.
II : 0.5 M KCl aq. solution at 27°C, which ionises 100%
Which is/are true statement(s) ?
(1) Both are isotonic (2) I is hypertonic
(3) II is hypertonic (4) None is correct
98. In ideal solution of non-volatile solute B in solvent
A in 2 : 5 molar ratio has vapour pressure 250 mm.
If a another solution in ratio 3 : 4 prepared then
vapour pressure above this solution.
(1) 200 mm (2) 250 mm
(3) 350 mm (4) 400 mm
99. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food
because
(1) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by
a rise in temperature
(2) Heat is more evenly distributed in the
cooking space
(3) Boiling point of water involved in cooking
is increased
(4) The higher pressure inside the cooker
crushes the food material.
100. An ideal solution has two components A and B.
A is more volatile than B, i.e., PAo > PBo and also
PAo > Ptotal
o
. If XA and YA are mole fractions of
components A in liquid and vapour phases, then

(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) XA = YA (2) XA > YA
explanation of A. (3) XA < YA (4) Data insufficient
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Topic : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE (COMPLETE), MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE (UPTO DNA)

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 104. Which statement is correct about given diagram?

101. Match the following :-

Column I Column II
(A) Common cold (i) Scaly lesions
(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae (a) Plasmodium responsible for this.
(C) Pneumonia (iii) Stool, with mucous & blood
(b) Allergic reactions.
(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus
(c) Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti
(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi
(d) Heat and moisture help these to grow
(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin granules
(1) a, b, d only (2) c, d only
(1) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – vi, E – i, F – iii
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iv, E – iii, F – v (3) d only (4) All of these
(3) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – vi, E – iii, F – i 105. When people are healthy they are ?
(4) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – i, E – vi, F – iii (a) More efficient at work
(b) Decreases productivity
102. How many statements are correct for AIDS ?
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(A) Core of HIV has 2 identical molecule of
dsDNA (d) Increases longevity of people
(B) GP120 has complementry sequence for CD-8 (e) Increases infant and maternal mortality
receptors How many statements are correct about healthy
(C) AIDS is caused by HIV people ?
(D) Macrophage become HIV factory after HIV
(1) Two (2) Three
infection
(1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four (3) Four (4) All are correct

103. How many of the below are incorrect about given 106. What is the correct about given chemical compound :-
diagramm ?

(i) It can be present in both RNA and DNA.

(a) Gives antigenic stimulation (ii) It is purine type N-base.
(b) T-cells themselves donot secrete but help B-
(iii) It is nucleoside.
cell produce them
(c) Hydrogen bond present (iv) It is cytosine.
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glycoprotein molecule (1) Only iii and iv (2) Only i and ii
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) Only i and iii (4) Only ii and iv
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107. What is correct about thymidine ?
(1) It is N-base
(2) Ribose + Thymine
(3) Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate
112. In Brassica Campestris [mustard] a ds DNA
having 4.8 kilo bases was found. And on
analyzing it, 800 adenine molecules were found
then how many cytosine molecules will be
present in the DNA sample ?

(4) It is nucleoside (1) 800 (2) 4000

108. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below:- (3) 1600 (4) 3200
113. What will be the number of phosphodiester bond
and N-glycosidic bond in double strand circular
DNA of 100 base pair respectively
(1) 200 – 200 (2) 198 – 200
(3) 200 – 198 (4) 98 – 100
114. There are 20% adenine among the bases in a
(a) (b) DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in length. The
(1) Guanine Cytosine number of pentose, nitrogen base pairs,
(2) Adenine Uracil phosphate groups and hydrogen bonds in this
DNA fragment are respectively
(3) Guanine Thymine
(1) 52, 20, 20, 40 (2) 40, 52, 40, 20
(4) Adenine Cytosine
(3) 20, 40, 52, 40 (4) 40, 20, 40, 52
109. Ribose, guanine, adenine, uracil, phosphate,
115. DNA fragments are :
cytosine, thymine.
How many components in the above list are (1) Negatively charged
common for both DNA and RNA? (2) Neutral
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Either positively or negatively charged
(3) Five (4) One depending on their size
110. If Meselson and stahl's experiment is continued (4) Positively charged
for three generations in bacteria the ratio of 116. What is correct about DNA ?
15N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA in
(1) Diameter is 20 Å
third generation would be :-
(2) In DNA Adenine pairs with cytosine
(1) 0 : 1 : 7 (2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) Helix length of DNA is 34Å
(3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 4
(4) Both 1 & 3
111. N-glycosidic bond in nucleotide is present between :-
(1) Sugar & Nitrogen base 117. In following DNA duplex, how many H-bonds
are present ?
(2) Sugar & H3PO4 5' AGGCTACGT-3'
(3) Between 2 Nucleotides 3' TCCGATGCA-5
(4) Between 2 Nucleosides (1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 23 (4) 24
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118. Total percentage of A and T in DNA is 45%. 122. Identify A,B and C in the given diagram :-
The percentage of 'G' will be :-
(1) 22.5% (2) 27.5%
(3) 45% (4) 55%
119. Given figure represents the DNA double helix
model as proposed by Watson and Crick (1953).
A B C
Select the option that shows correct measurements
of A, B and C. Histone
(1) Histone H1 DNA
octamer
Histone
(2) DNA Histone H1
octamer
Histone
(3) Histone H1 DNA
octamer
Histone
(4) DNA Histone H
octamer

123. In the following representation A and B is -

S Strain → injected into Mice → A
(1) A - 3.4 nm, B - 0.34 nm, C - 2 nm R Strain → injected into Mice → B
(2) A - 34 nm, B - 3.4 nm, C - 20 nm (1) A → Mice die (2) A → Mice die
(3) A - 3.4 Å, B - 0.34 Å, C - 20 Å B → Mice live B → Mice die
(4) A - 34 Å, B - 3.4Å, C - 2Å (3) A → Mice live (4) A → Mice live
120. Read the following 4 statement (a-d) How many B → Mice live B → Mice die
of the above statement are right ? 124. The Hershey-Chase experiments show the
(a) Nucleosome contain 200 base pair of DNA following steps chronologically :-
(b) Nucleosome = Binding DNA + Histone
Octamer + Linker DNA + NHC (1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation
(c) 6 Nucleosome units united to form Solenoid (2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending
structure
(d) Histone octamer contain (H2A H2B H3H1)2 (3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending
How many above statement are right ? (4) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 125. Avery, Mcleod and Mccarty worked to determine
121. Which of the following statement is correct with the biochemical nature of transforming principle
respect to heterochromatin ? in griffith's experiment. They found that
(1) Transcriptionally inactive transformation of R-strain of Streptococcus
pneumoniae in S-strain is inhibited by use of :-
(2) Transcriptionally active
(3) Loosely packed (1) Protease (2) RNase
(4) Stain light (3) DNase (4) Lipase
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126. On the basis of Griffith's experiment, which of 130. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate serves the
the following when transferred or injected into dual purpose of ___ and ___ in the process of
mice must result in death of mice? replication of DNA :-
(1) R-II strain (1) Enzyme, substrate
(2) R-II strain (heat killed) + S–III strain (heat killed) (2) Catalyst, substrate
(3) S – III strain (heat killed) (3) Substrate, energy provider
(4) R-II strain + S-III strain (heat killed) (4) Energy, mutage provider
127. DNA being.......is preferred for storage of 131. A DNA molecule, in which both strands have
genetic information and for the transmission of radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in
genetic information..........is better. Fill in the an environment containing non-radioactive
blanks with correct option. thymidine. What will be the exact number of
DNA molecules that contain radioactive
(1) Less stable, DNA
thymidine only in one strand after 3 replications?
(2) More stable, RNA
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Less stable, RNA
132. During replication, the sequence 5'TAGA3'
(4) More stable, DNA
would produce which of the following structure
128. A molecule that can act as genetic material must
(1) 5' ATCT3' (2) 5'UCUA3'
fulfill the traits given below, except:-
(3) 5' GCGA3' (4) 5'TCTA3'
(1) It should be able to express itself in form of
133. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
mendelian characters.
answer using the code given below in the lists.
(2) It should be chemically and structurally List-I List-II
unstable Joins short segments of DNA
a Ligase
(3) It should provide scope for slow changes together.
that are required for evolution DNA
b Cuts protein at specific sequence
(4) It should be able to generate its replica polymerase

129. E. coli bacteria were grown on heavy nitrogen Breaks the hydrogen bonds
c Helicase between complementary pairs
medium for several generation and then transfered
during DNA replication.
to normal or light nitrogen source. What must be
the number of pure heavy DNA molecules after (1) a, b and c are correct
four generations on light nitrogen medium ? (2) a and b are correct but c is false
(1) Zero (2) Two (3) a is correct but b and c are false
(3) Four (4) Eight (4) a and c are correct but b is false
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134. Which of the following is not obtained from the 138. The figure given below shows mode of action of AIDS
plant Cannabis sativa ?
virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E labelled in it.
(1) Hashish (2) Charas
(3) Smack (4) Marijuana
135. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?
(1) Macrophage (2) TH cells
(3) TK cells (4) B-cells
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I )

136.

(1) A-New viral DNA introduced into cell, B-

Identify A, B and C. Viral RNA produced, C-Viral DNA
(1) A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine, incorporated into host genome, D-New
C → Morphine viral DNA, E-New viruses produced
(2) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, (2) A-Viral DNA incorporated into host
C → Heroine genome, B-Viral DNA, C-New viral RNA
introduced, D-Viral RNA produced, E-New
(3) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, viruses produced
C → Morphine
(3) A-Viral RNA introduced, B-Viral DNA,
(4) A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids, C-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome,
C → LSD D-New viral RNA produced, E-New viruses
137. How many statements given below are the examples produced
of 'Naturally Acquired passive immunity ? (4) A-Viral DNA introduced, B-Viral RNA, C-Viral
(a) Interferons which protects non infected cells RNA incorporated into host genome, D-New
from further viral infection viral DNA produced, E-New viruses produced
(b) The foetus receives some antibodies from their 139. How many of the following is/are mode of
mother through placenta during pregnancy transmission of AIDS ?
(c) Colostrum secreted by mother during the initial (a) Sexual contact with infected person.
days of lactation has abundant IgA antibodies to (b) By sharing food
protect the infant (c) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(d) ATS (Anti-tetanus serum) provides temporary (d) By sharing infected needles
protection in case of injuries and burns (e) Mosquito bites
(1) one (2) two (1) Five (2) Four
(3) three (4) four (3) Two (4) Three
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140. Identify the plants (A), (B) and (C) shown below 143. Consider the following structure of B-DNA and choose
and select the right option giving their function & the correct statement with respect to K, L, M and N :–

site of action :-

(1) The component of "M" is sugar and phosphate

Plants Function Site of Action which forms steps of ds DNA
(1) (A) Cannabinoids Hallucinogen Central nervous system (2) The "K" is the diameter of DNA which
remain almost constant throuout the DNA
(2) (B) Datura Stimulant Circulatory system
(3) The component of "L" is N bases which is
(3) (B) Coca plant Stimulant Gastrointestinal tract never be a 5 methyl uracil

(4) (A) Opium plant Depressant Central nervous system

(4) The "N" is helix length, which is 0.34 nm in length
144. Identify A & B in the given diagram of nucleotide:-
141. Identify the following molecule shown below with
their nature and occurrence from the given table.

A B

Molecule Nature Occurrence 1 Phosphodiester bond I Glycosidic bond

2 Phosphoester bond II Glycosidic bond
(1) Uracil Nucleotide Found in RNA
3 Phosphoester bond III Hydrogen bond
(2) Uridine Nucleoside Found in both RNA and DNA
4 Hydrogen bond IV Glycosidic bond
(3) Uridylic acid Nucleotide Found in RNA 145. Read the following four statement (A-D) :-
(4) Uridine Nucleoside Found in t-RNA
(A) Backbone of DNA is formed by sugar and
phosphate.
142. Uridylic acid contains :- (B) DNA and RNA have similar pyrimidine bases.
(C) There are three hydrogen bonds between G and
(1) Ribose + uridine + phosphate
C in DNA molecule.
(2) Ribose + uracil + phosphate (D) At each step of ascent, strand of DNA turns 36°.
How many of the above statements are right?
(3) Uridine + phosphate
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) Both (2) & (3) (3) Two (4) One
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146. Strand X in the diagram shows a small part of a 148. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiment of:-
nucleic acid molecule of volvox.
(1) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they
worked with E.coli
(2) Frederick Griffith, he worked with
Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they
worked with Bacteriophage
Which pair of the following strands are (4) Hershey and Chase, they worked with
Complementary to strand X? bacteriophage and bacteria
149. Find out the correct match from the columns I, II
and III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Proven that DNA
Messelson Bacterio- replication is
(I) (a) (i)
and Stahl phages semiconservative
in bacteria
Proved that DNA
Hershey in chromosomes
(II) (b) Vicia faba (ii)
and Chase also replicate
semiconservatively
Transformation
(III) Griffith (c) E.coli (iii)
principle
Streptococcus Proof that DNA is
(IV) Taylor (d) (iv)
pneumoniae genetic material
(1) I-c-ii, II-a-iii, III-d-iv, IV-b-i
(1) I and III (2) II
(2) I-a-i, II-b-iii, III-d-iv, IV-c-ii
(3) I and III (4) III and IV
(3) I-c-i, II-a-iv, III-d-iii, IV-b-ii
147. Beads on string structure in chromatin is :-
(4) I-b-iv, II-c-ii, III-a-i, IV-d-iii
(1) Known as nucleosome and is made up of
150. A bacterium containing 100% radioactive N2
acidic histone protein. bases is allowed to replicate in a medium
containing non-radioactive bases. After one
(2) Made up of 200 bp of DNA wrapped round of duplication the result would be :
around positively charge histone. (1) All individual would be identical to parents
(3) Common in prokaryotes and is known as (2) All individual would be radio-active but the
nucleoid percentage of radioactivity in DNA would be 50%
(3) Only 50% individual would be radioactive
(4) Made up of RNA and non histone protein
(4) All individual would be similar to parents
rich in lysine and arginine. but different among themselves
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Topic : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE (COMPLETE), MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE (UPTO DNA)

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 158. PMNL - neutrophils are included in which barrier:-

(1) Physical
151. Age of adolescence is :-
(2) Cytokine
(1) 15-21 years (2) 12-18 years
(3) Cellular-phagocytic
(3) 10-16 years (4) 18-25 years
(4) Cellular-non phagocytic
152. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from coca
plant Erythroxylum coca, native of :- 159. Rejection of transplanted organ is prevented by
(1) South America (2) Africa regular use of :-
(3) Australia (4) China (1) Cyclosporin (2) Calcitonin
153. Which one of the following is not included in (3) Thrombin (4) Pyroxin
innate immunity ? 160. The disease characterised by sustained high fever
(1) Mucosa (2) Secretions and stomach pain and may lead to perforation of
(3) Cytokines (4) Lymphocytes intestine. This disease may be :-
154. The first antibody during primary immune (1) Dysentery
response is ?
(2) Cholera
(1) IgG (2) IgM (3) IgA (4) IgD
(3) Amoebic dysentery
155. Allergy is due to the release of :
(4) Typhoid
(1) Histamine
161. Which of the following is causative agent of malaria ?
(2) Serotonin
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(3) Certain chemical from mast cells
(2) Plasmodium
(4) All of the above
(3) Trypanosoma
156. Morphine is a :
(4) Leishmania
(1) Hallucinogen
162. The substance that causes addiction of tobacco is :
(2) Depressant and fast body functions
(1) Nicotine (2) cocaine
(3) Sedative and pain killer
(3) Caffeine (4) opium
(4) Chemical that accelerates dopamine transport
163. Which of the following is a protozoan disease ?
157. In which of the following disease steroid is
(1) Malaria (2) Amoebiasis
useful in treatment ?
(3) Trichomoniasis (4) All of these
(1) Asthma
164. An antibody is represented as:-
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Psoriasis (1) H2L4 (2) H3L3
(4) All (3) H4L4 (4) H2L2
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165. Gametocyte during life cycle of Plasmodium are 171. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering
developed in :- from acquired immuno deficiency syndrome.
Which diagnostic technique will you recommend
(1) RBC of mosquito for its detection ?
(2) Stomach of mosquito (1) WIDAL (2) ELISA
(3) Liver of man (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
(4) RBC of man 172. Viral-RNA Viral DNA, A is :-
166. Most feared property of malignant tumor is : (1) Integrese
(1) Rapid divisions (2) Protease
(2) Presence of contact inhibition (3) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Uncontrolled divisions (4) All of the above

(4) Metastasis 173. Which of the following is the infective stage of the
malarial parasite (plasmodium) for mosquito :-
167. Heroin is
(1) Gametocyte (2) Merozoite
(1) Diacetyl morphine
(3) Sporozoite (4) Trophozoite
(2) Triacetyl morphine
174. IgA antibodies present in colostrum provides
(3) Tetra acetyl morphine
which immunity to the infant ?
(4) Mono acetyl morphine
(1) Innate
168. Which drug interferes with the transport of dopamine ?
(2) Acquired active natural
(1) Morphine
(3) Acquired passive artificial
(2) Heroin
(4) Acquired passive natural
(3) Charas
175. Which is a primary lymphoid organ :-
(4) Cocaine
(1) Bone marrow and spleen
169. Which of following antibody can cross the placenta?
(2) Spleen and thymus
(1) IgA (2) IgG
(3) Bone – marrow and tonsils
(3) IgM (4) IgD
(4) Thymus gland and bone marrow
170. Which response is responsible for the kidney
176. Health is defined as :-
graft rejection :-
(1) Wealth
(1) Humoral immune response
(2) Absence of disease or infirmity
(2) Cell mediated immune response
(3) Weight of body according to height
(3) Response by physical barriers
(4) State of complete physical mental and
(4) Response by physiological barriers social well being
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177. Interferons are a type of cytokine barriers 183. Disease which is shown in the figure spreads through : -
secreted by :-
(1) Virus infected cells
(2) Cells adjacent to virus infected cells
(3) Cells adjacent to bacteria infected cells
(4) Bacteria infected cells
178. Which of the following is not a component of
innate immunity? (1) Contaminated food and water

(1) Interferons (2) Phagocytes (2) Using towel of infected individual

(3) Skin (4) Antibodies (3) Through the bite by female mosquito vectors

179. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from – (4) Droplet infection

(1) Inactivated viruses 184. Which of the following is not caused due to
alcohol drinking ?
(2) Transgenic yeast
(1) Amnesia
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(2) Gastritis
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Emphysema
180. The rupture of RBC is associated with release of
(4) Psychosis
a toxic substance .......... which is responsible for
the chill and high fever? 185. Good humor hypothesis of health was given by ?
(1) Hippocrates
(1) Gametocyte (2) Sporozoite
(2) Louis pasteur
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Haemozoin
(3) William Harvey
181. Which of the following are not the common
symptoms of typhoid :- (4) Edward Jenner
(1) Weakness SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )
(2) Loss of appetite
186. An incorrect statement is :-
(3) Constipation
(1) DNA polymerases on their own cannot
(4) Intestinal blockage initiate the process of replication
182. The light chain and heavy chain of antibody are (2) Replication may initiates randomly at any
joined with the help of :- place in DNA
(1) H – H bond (3) In eukaryotes, DNA replication takes place
(2) S – S bond at S phase of cell cycle
(3) Ionic bond (4) A failure of cell division after DNA
replication results into polyploidy
(4) Phosphodiester bond
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187. If heavy DNA of E.coli was allowed to grow for 194. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained
60 minutes in N14 medium, then what would be from –
the ratio of light and heavy DNA :- (1) Papaver somniferum
(1) 6 : 0 (2) 3 : 1 (2) Taxus baccata
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 (3) Cinchona officinalis
188. Which of the following bacterial diseases affects (4) Cannabis sativa
alveoli of the lungs ? 195. Persons who take drugs intravenously are much
(1) Tetanus (2) Pneumonia more likely to acquire serious infections like :-
(3) Typhoid (4) Plague (1) AIDS
189. Father of Immunity (2) Hepatitis-B
(1) Edward Jenner (2) Louis Pasteur (3) Cancer
(3) William Harvey (4) Hippocrates (4) Both (1) and (2)
190. Physiological barriers that prevent microbial 196. Cancer is caused due to activation of A to
growth exclude :- B and/or inactivation of C. Identify the A, B & C.
(1) Mucosa in urinogenital tract (1) A-Oncogene, B-Proto-oncogene,
(2) Acid in stomach C-Tumor suppressor gene

(3) Saliva in mouth (2) A-Proto-oncogene, B-Oncogene,

C-Tumor suppressor gene
(4) Tears in eyes
(3) A-Tumor suppressor gene, B-Oncogene,
191. Elephantile legs are observed in a disease caused
C-Proto-oncogene
by ?
(1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria (4) A-Halplotype, B-Onc-gene, C-Opt.-gene
(3) Rhinovirus (4) Dengue virus 197. Active immunity is induced by :-
192. Anxiety, Shakiness, nausea and sweating are (1) Ready-made antibodies and natural infections
feature of :-
(2) Colostrum and vaccines
(1) Addiction (2) Dependence
(3) Natural infections and vaccination
(3) Drug withdrawl (4) Drug abuse
(4) Ready made antibodies and colostrum
193. This is a diagram of ringworm of face. Which is
not related with the disease? 198. X-rays and gamma rays are :-
(1) Ionising radiation
(2) Non-ionising radiation

(1) Microsporum (2) Epidermophyton (3) Visible radiation

(3) Wuchereria (4) Trichophyton (4) Both (1) and (2)

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199. Secondary lymphoid organs shows : 200. Techniques useful for detection of cancers of
(1) Origin of lymphocyte internal organ which uses X rays are :-
(1) MRI and CT scan
(2) Maturation of lymphocyte
(2) Only MRI
(3) Proliferation of lymphocytes
(3) CT scan
(4) Interaction of antibody with lymphocyte (4) Biopsy

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2024 - 2025)
ENTHUSE ADV. COURSE 1(B) : MEQ
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE

P RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
03
05-05-2024
04-03-2024 C CHEMICAL KINETICS
TO
04-05-2024

B ORIGIN & EVOLUTION

PHASE - MEQ
1015CMD303361240012 02-03-2024
 English 23
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MEQ
02-03-2024 1015CMD303361240012
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