Classroom Contact Programme: Paper-2

Test Pattern
(1001CJA621722004) )1001CJA621722004)
English
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

REVIEW TEST
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023) 20-06-2022
JEE(Main+Advanced) : NURTURE COURSE [PHASE : TOPS, TNPS & I(C)]
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-2 Maximum Marks : 180
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 20 pages and
that all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/20-06-2022/Paper-2
ALLEN
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg =24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140, Cu = 63.5, Ne = 20, K = 39, Mn = 55
Space for Rough Work
E-2/20 1001CJA621722004
Nurture Course/Phase-TOPS, TNPS & I(C)/20-06-2022/Paper-2
ALLEN
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen
and both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in
+4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any
incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s)
will result in –2 marks.
1. In a particular system, the unit of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 10 s respectively.
The unit of force in this system will be equivalent to
1
(A) N (B) 1 N (C) 10–5 N (D) 1 Dynes
10
−−−−−−−
√E −
2
mv
2. If y = where E → Energy, m → mass, v → velocity then y can be :-
√m
−−
(A) Velocity
(B) Momentum
(C) Rate of change of position with respect to time.
(D) Angular momentum
1001CJA621722004 E-3/20
ALLEN
3. A boy is pulling a block by a force of 100N at an angle of 37º to the horizontal. The component of force in:
(A) Horizontal direction is 80N (B) Horizontal direction is 50N

(C) Vertical direction is 60N (D) Vertical direction is 80N
4. Which of the following is a vector ?
(A) Current (B) Acceleration
(C) Distance (D) Linear Momentum
5. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity 10m/sec from the top of a tower of height 15.0 meter.
If air resistance is negligible then time taken by ball to attain a height of 15m
(A) 0 sec (B) 2 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 10 sec
6. The graph in the figure shows the velocity of a body plotted as a function of time. Find out the instant at
which velocity of body = 20 m/s
(A) 9 sec (B) 8 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 5 sec

E-4/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
7. Velocity (in m/s) of a particle moving in a straight line is given by V = (t2 – 2t +1) :
List-I List-II
(P) Velocity (in m/s) of particle at t = 1 sec is (1) 1
Acceleration (in m/s2) of particle at
(Q) (2) 3
t = 5/2 sec is
(R) Time when particle is at rest is (3) 2
Magnitude of average acceleration of particle in
(S) (4) 0
first one second is
(A) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 1 (B) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1

(C) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 1 (D) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2
8. Entries in List–I are representing physical quantities whereas entries in List–II are representing dimensions.
Match the list.
List–I List–II
(P) Strain (1) M1L2T–3
(Q) Power (2) M0L0T0
(R) Torque (3) M1L2T–2
(S) Unit vector (4) M1L1T–2
(A) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 4 (B) P → 2;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4
(C) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 2 (D) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 3
1001CJA621722004 E-5/20
ALLEN
9. Match the column where symbols have their usual meaining :—
List-I (Quantity) List-II (Unit)
(P) Energy density (Energy per unit volume) (1) Dyne/cm2
(Q) Surface Tension (2) kg m–1s–1
(R) Stress (3) Erg/cm2
(S) Coefficient of viscosity η (F = 6πηrv) (4) Pascal
(5) kg m–2s–1
(A) P → 1,4;Q → 3;R → 1,4;S → 2 (B) P → 1,4;Q → 3;R → 2,4;S → 3
(C) P → 2,4;Q → 1,3;R → 3,5;S → 4 (D) P → 1,5;Q → 2,3;R → 1,4;S → 2
10. Two vectors a and b have magnitudes of 6 units and 8 units, respectively. Angle between
⃗
⃗
a ⃗ and b⃗ is θ.
List-I List-II
(P) a ⃗ ⋅ b⃗ = 0 (1) θ=0
(Q) a^ ⋅ b⃗ = 8 units (2) θ=π

π
(R) a ⃗ ⋅ b⃗ = −48 units (3) θ=
4
π
(S) a ⃗ + b|⃗
| = 10 units (4) θ=
2
(A) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3 (B) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 4

(C) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 (D) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 1
E-6/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Three forces (shown in figure) act on a body simultaneously. What will be magnitude (in newton) of smallest
additional force to make net force along west direction.
2. For motion of an object along x-axis, the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 – 2x.
What is the acceleration at x = 1m. (in m/s2)
3. A star undergoes some mode of oscillation. The frequency ω of oscillation depends upon the properties of
the star such as the density ρ and the radius R. It also depends on gravitational constant G which appears
1
in Newton's law of universal gravitation. ω depends on density as ω ∝ ρx. The value of is:
√x
−
−
4. In a new system of unit speed of light (C), gravitational constant (G) and plank's constant (h) are taken as
fundamental units. The dimension of time in this system is given as, [GαhβCγ] value of (α + β – γ) is given
x
as , find 'x'.
10
1001CJA621722004 E-7/20
ALLEN
5. x and y components of a vector A are 4 and 5 respectively. The x and y components of A
⃗ ⃗
+ B⃗ are 10 and
13 respectively. Find length of B . ⃗
6. In the figure shown, a body is acted upon by three forces such that it is in equilibrium. Find the
magnitude force F (in N).
−
−
1 3
7. If a
| ⃗ =
| b
∣ ∣
⃗
=
– and a
∣
⃗+ b ∣
⃗
= √ , then a ⃗ − b∣∣⃗ is equal to
∣
∣ ∣
√ 2
∣ ∣
2 ∣
8. Given two vectors A x i 2 j 3k and B

⃗
=
^
−
^
+
^ ⃗
= 2^i + ^j + 2xk^ . If vector A⃗ and B ⃗ are perpendicular to each
other and n = 8 x. Then the value of n is.
E-8/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1. Which of the following order is/are CORRECT for indicated property?

(A) O > N > C (Zeff value)
(B) P < S < Cl (number of protons)
(C) s-subshell < p-subshell < d-subshell (value of azimuthal quantum number)
(D) 1st period < 2nd period < 3rd period (number of s-block elements)
2. Atomic number 15, 33, 51 represents following family
(A) Carbon family (B) Nitrogen family
(C) Oxygen family (D) None of these
1001CJA621722004 E-9/20
ALLEN
3. The following statements concern element in periodic table. Which of the following is/are false?
(A) The group 13 elements are all metals
(B) All the elements in group-17 are gases
(C) Most dense metal is tungsten
(D) Bromine is liquid non-metal element at room temperature
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for 19K40 and 20Ca40.
(A) They both form an isobaric pair
(B) Number of electrons satisfying {n –|ℓ × m| > 1} is more for 19K40 as compared to 20Ca40.
(C) Number of filled axial orbitals is same for both.
(D) They both are representative elements.
5. Which of the electronic configuration of the following elements is/are INCORRECT?
(A) 24Cr : [Ar] 4s2 3d4 (B) 44Ru : [Kr] 5s1 4d7
(C) 46Pd : [Kr] 5s2 4d8 (D) 79Au : [Rn] 6s1 4f14 5d10
6. Calculate the maximum number of electrons having quantum number ml = –1 in Mn2+.
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 6
E-10/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
7. List-I List-II
(Set of quantum numbers) (It is possible for)
(P) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –2 (1) Two electrons
(Q) n = 5, ℓ = 2 (2) Six electrons
(R) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (3) One electron
(S) n = 4, ℓ = 0, s = +½ (4) Ten electrons
the correct option is :
(A) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 2;S → 3 (B) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 4
(C) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1 (D) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 1
8. Match the list:
List- I List- II
(Atomic number) (Corresponding elements)
(P) 52 (1) s-block element
(Q) 63 (2) p-block element
(R) 46 (3) d-block element
(S) 37 (4) f-block element
The correct option is

(A) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 2 (B) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1
(C) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 1 (D) P → 3;Q → 4;R → 2;S → 1
1001CJA621722004 E-11/20
ALLEN
9. Match the list:
List- I List- II
(P) 26Fe (1) All electrons are paired
(Q) 2He (2) Last electron enters in d sub shell
(R) 35Br (3) Last electron enters in 's' subshell
(S) 30Zn (4) Last electron enters in p subshell
The CORRECT option is
(A) P → 2;Q → 1,3;R → 4;S → 1,2 (B) P → 3;Q → 1,3;R → 4;S → 1,2
(C) P → 2;Q → 1,3;R → 2;S → 1,2 (D) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 1,3;S → 2
10. Match the list:
List- II
List- I (If ℓ = (0 to n) keeping all other
(Atomic number) rules same, the last electron will
enter in _ _ _)
(P) 7 (1) 2d
(Q) 17 (2) 1p
(R) 21 (3) 3s
(S) 19 (4) 2p
The correct option is

(A) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 1 (B) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4
(C) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1 (D) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 4
E-12/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
1. For La, period number – group number + number of unpaired electrons = ?
2. What is the group of element (unu) in modern periodic table.
3. Number of statements which is/are correct as per Slater's rule?
(i) Zeff increases with increase in atomic number always
(ii) Isodiapher species have same value of |(p-n)|
(iii) The value of Zeff is more for Mg than Na
(iv) The value of σ is more for Mg than Na
(v) The value of Zeff is higher for Na as compared to Na+
(vi) Zeff is higher for Cl– as compared to Cl
⎛
Nuclear charge ⎞
4. The ratio of is know as z/e ratio. The number of elements/ions with z/e ratio
⎝ Number of electron ⎠
greater than 1 (z/e > 1) from the following list are :

Na, Na+, Cl, Cl–, Fe+2, Fe+3, Li+, K+, Cs+1, F–, Zn+2.
5. According to slater's rule, how many maximum electrons have same value of Zeff. in Cr atom.
6. Find the total number of orbitals present in ‘M’ shell of an atom.
7. Find total number of orbitals in which electron density is observed along any of the axis (x or y or z),
px, py, pz, dxy, dxz, dyz, dz 2 dx 2 y 2 .
, −
8. In multielectronic atom, maximum number of degenerated orbitals present in 3rd shell.

1001CJA621722004 E-13/20
ALLEN
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−−−− −−−−−−−−−−−
1. – −−−−
–
−−−−−−
–
If x = √2 + √3√2 + √3√2 + √3. . . ∞ terms, then which of the following is/are ture ?
–
(A) x4 – 3x2 – 4 √ 3x – 2 = 0 (B) x4 – 7x2 + 4 = 0
–
(C) x4 – 3x2 – 4 √ 3x – 4 = 0 (D) x4 – 7x2 + 2 = 0
2. There are three sets A, B & C such that n(A) = 12, n(B) = 10, n(C) = 11, n(A ∩ B) = 5, n(B ∩ C) = 5, n(C ∩ A) = 3.
If universal set n(U) = 28, then which of the following is/are true ?
(A) Maximum possible value of n(A ∪ B ∪ C) is 23
(B) Maximum possible value of n(A ∩ B ∩ C) is 3
(C) Minimum possible value of n(A ∪ B ∪ C) is 20
(D) Minimum possible value of n(A ∩ B ∩ C) is 0
E-14/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
3. If (x – 1)3 + (y – 2)3 + 6 (x – 1) (y – 2) = 8 then which of the following can be true ?
(A) x2 + y2 = 13 (B) x2 + y2 = 1 (C) x + y = 3 (D) x + y = 5
( x 2 − 25) (x + 3)
4. If S is the set satisfying the inequality ⩽ 0 and x ∈ R, then which of the following
( x − 1) 2
is/are ture ?
(A) (–2, 2) ⊂ S (B) (–2, 2) ⊄ S (C) (–∞, –5] ⊂ S (D) 5 ∈ S
5. If equations E1 & E2 are given as below -
E1 : ||x| – 3| = 5 & E2 : |x2 – 5|x| – 4| = 10, then
(A) Number of solutions of E1 is 2 (B) Number of solutions of E1 is 4
(C) Number of solutions of E2 is 8 (D) Number of solutions of E2 is 6
–
6. If 1 + i is a root of equation x2 + bx + c = 0 and 2 3 is a root of equation x2 + dx + e = 0 where b, c ∈ R
+√
−
−−
and d, e ∈ Q i ( 1 , then which of the following is/are true
= √− )
(A) d + b = –6 (B) c + e = 3 (C) b + c = 0 (D) d + e = –3

1001CJA621722004 E-15/20
ALLEN
7. List-I contains equation & List-II contains number of solutions of the given equations
List-I List-II
(P) x2 – 4|x| + 3 = 0 (1) 0
(Q) x2 + 4|x| – 5 = 0 (2) 1
(R) x4 – 3x3 + 2x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, x ∈ R (3) 2
(S) x2 – y2 = 18 and x, y ∈ N (4) 3
(5) 4
(A) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 (B) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(C) P → 5;Q → 3;R → 3;S → 1 (D) P → 3;Q → 5;R → 5;S → 3
8. If equation x2 + 2x + 3 = 0 has roots α & β, then
Match List-I with corresponding values in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) α2 + β2 (1) 8
(Q) α3 + β3 (2) 6
3
(R) α + 3α2 +5α + 11 (3) 10
4
(S) β + 2β2 + 15 (4) –2
(5) 4
(A) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 1 (B) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 2
(C) P → 5;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 3 (D) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 3;S → 4
E-16/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
9. Match the entries in List-I with corresponding values in List-II :
List-I List-II
2 + √–3 + √2 − √–3
−−−−−− −−−−−−
(P) √ (1) 2
10 + 6√–3 + √ 10 − 6√–3
−−−−−−−− −−−−−−−−
3 3
(Q) √ (2) 1
−−−−−−−
– –
2 –2
−−−−−−−−−−−−−− −−−
(R) √ 6+√
−−
12
−√
−−
24
−√ +√ − √ 8 3 (3) √ 6
−−−−−−− −−−−–
−−− –
4 2 3
√ + √ −√ + √ 3 2 2 –
(S) ( ) (4) √ 3
−−−−−−− –
√ − √5 2 6
–
(5) √ 2
(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 2 (B) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1

(C) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 5 (D) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4
10. If f(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d such that f(1) = –1, f(2) = –2, f(3) = –3 & f(4) = –4, then match the List-I
with corresponding values in List-II :
List-I List-II
(P) a+b+c+d (1) 35
(Q) f(5) (2) 19
(R) b (3) –51
(S) c (4) 24
(5) –2
(A) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4 (B) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4

(C) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1 (D) P → 5;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3
1001CJA621722004 E-17/20
ALLEN
1. For the system of equations
2y2 + xy – x2 = 0
x2 – xy – y2 + 3x + 7y + 3 = 0,
the sum of all real values of "y" satisfying above equations is _____
2. The number of integral values of "b" for which the quadratic equation x2 – 2x + b2 – 4b – 4 = 0 has distinct
real roots, is equal to
1
3. If R(x) be the remainder when polynomial x5 + x3 + x2 – x + 3 is divided by x3 – x, then value of R ( )
2
is equal to
4. The number of ordered pair (x, y) satisfying the equation xy – 3x – 2y – 6 = 0, where x, y ∈ I, is equal to -
x y z y z x
5. Let x, y, z be non zero numbers such that + + = 6 and + + = 8, then value of
y z x x y z
3
x y 3 z 3
( ) +( ) +( ) is equal to _____
y z x
6. If A = {3, 6, 9, ..., 99} & B = {2, 4, 6, ..., 100}, then value of n(A – B) is equal to ______
−−−
7. 2 −−−−−−− −−−
2 −−−−−−−
If √4x + 5x
− −√ 2− −4x = 3x 2 x−, then real positive value of x satisfying given equation is ______
2√−
8. In a class of 100 students 78 speak Hindi, 76 speak English and 72 speak Tamil, then least number of students
who speak all the three languages is _______
E-18/20 1001CJA621722004
ALLEN
1001CJA621722004 E-19/20
ALLEN
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................
FORM NO. .............................................
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
number of the candidate, and that question
and shall abide by them.
paper and ORS codes are the same.
____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA 324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
E-20/20 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 1001CJA621722004

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Classroom Contact Programme: Paper-2

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Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Space for Rough Work

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

(A) Horizontal direction is 80N (B) Horizontal direction is 50N

(A) 9 sec (B) 8 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 5 sec

(A) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 1 (B) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1

(Q) a^ ⋅ b⃗ = 8 units (2) θ=π

(A) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3 (B) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 4

Space for Rough Work

8. Given two vectors A x i 2 j 3k and B

1. Which of the following order is/are CORRECT for indicated property?

The correct option is

The correct option is

greater than 1 (z/e > 1) from the following list are :

8. In multielectronic atom, maximum number of degenerated orbitals present in 3rd shell.

(A) d + b = –6 (B) c + e = 3 (C) b + c = 0 (D) d + e = –3

Space for Rough Work

(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 2 (B) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1

(A) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4 (B) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4

Space for Rough Work

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

FORM NO. .............................................

Space for Rough Work

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