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Database Question Common Answer

A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the


HP0002 hypoxia
red blood cells leads to a condition called:-

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is


HP0003 21
approximately:-

the amount of oxygen required by


HP0004 The breathing rate is determined by:-
the body.

HP0005 Blood is pumped around the body by the:- right atrium of the heart

HP0006 Oxygen rich blood:- is found in the right ventricle.

The pumping or discharge chambers of the heart


HP0010 the left atrium and the right atrium
are:-

When measuring blood pressure the lowest reading


HP0012 the systolic pressure
obtained is referred to as:-

A person suffering from sustained low blood


HP0013 dizziness or fainting
pressure may experience:-

the total pressure of the gas mixture


HP0016 In terms of the Gas laws, Dalton's Law states that:- is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures

increases with the consumption of


HP0020 A pilot's susceptibility to hypoxia:-
alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure of


HP0021 Hypoxic hypoxia occurs as a result of:-
oxygen

the time available to recognise the


HP0022 The time of useful consciousness is:- onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action

breathing into a paper bag will


increase the body's level of carbon
HP0024 In order to treat hyperventilation:-
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.
HP0025 Anaemic hypoxia may be caused by:- poor blood circulation

remaining at an altitude which will


Prevention of hypoxia in a non-pressurised aircraft
HP0027 provide an adequate oxygen
is best achieved by:-
pressure gradient.

A consequence of hyperventilation is that there will a shortage of carbon dioxide in the


HP0029
be:- blood

Whilst using oxygen masks passengers should be


HP0033 cautioned against breathing rapidly or deeply in hyperventilation
order to avoid:-

the amount of oxygen in each breath


HP0034 According to Dalton's Law:-
remains constant at any altitude

As altitude is gained the amount of oxygen in each


HP0035 remains constant
breath:-

the period of time a pilot can


HP0036 The "time of useful consciousness" means:- function without oxygen before
losing consciousness

The "time of useful consciousness" at 25 000 ft


HP0038 5 minutes
following rapid decompression is approximately:-

The amount of light which enters the eye is


HP0039 iris
controlled by the:-

In order to correct long sightedness,


HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

In order to correct long sightedness,


HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

HP0041 With reference to the eye, the rods:- are used for peripheral vision

Vision in low levels of illumination or at night is


HP0042 the rods
dependant upon:-

Control over the light entering the eye is exercised iris which expands increasing the
HP0043
by the:- size of the pupil
looking to the side of the object in
HP0045 Good night vision is best achieved by:-
order to focus the object on the rods

HP0046 In order to correct short sightedness, (myopia):- a concave lens is used

change the size of the pupil to allow


HP0048 Accommodation is the ability of the eye:-
more or less light into the eye

During the approach to land on an unfamiliar


HP0050 upward sloping runway a pilot may have a fly a high approach.
tendency to:-

During the approach to land on a very wide


HP0052 fly a low approach.
unfamiliar runway a pilot may have a tendency to:-

semi-circular canals and the


HP0053 The vestibular apparatus comprises the:-
Eustachian tube.

HP0055 Presbycusis is the term used to define:- a decrease in hearing ability with age

HP0058 Vertigo is:- a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at and


Spatial disorientation is usually a temporary
HP0060 believing the aircraft flight
condition which:-
instruments

is associated with the inner ear and


HP0063 Non-conductive, or noise-induced, hearing loss:-
is usually irreversible

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to


HP0065 presbycusis
as:-

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to


HP0065 tinnitus
as:-

is associated with the inner ear and


HP0066 Conductive hearing loss is:-
is always temporary

HP0067 The term tinnitus is used to define:- the natural loss of hearing with age
A method which may be used to help passengers have them fix their eyes in the
HP0069
avoid airsickness is to:- distance on the natural horizon

HP0070 The symptoms of motion sickness include:- pale skin nausea and sweating

The best treatment for a pilot suffering from acute


HP0071 a restful uninterrupted natural sleep
fatigue is:-

If a passenger is observed suddenly suffering from


HP0072 severe chest pains and then collapses, the cause is hypoxia
likely to be:-

HP0073 Fainting is caused by :- lack of oxygen at altitude

HP0075 Following scuba diving, a pilot:- may not fly within 24 hours

If a passenger is observed suffering from mild chest


HP0077 pains, dizziness, breathlessness and a pale hyperventilation
complexion the cause is likely to be:-
The symptoms of low blood glucose (blood sugar),
HP0078 include a sensation of dizziness and shaking. This by eating regularly
can be corrected:-

is best treated by a peaceful and


HP0079 Acute fatigue:-
uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period and


HP0080 Chronic fatigue:- requires a prolonged recovery
period.

Sleep management is an important part of personal


HP0081 fitness and the type of sleep associated with paradoxical sleep.
physical rejuvenation is called:-

The type of sleep associated with brain


HP0082 rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
rejuvenation is called:-

The most common symptoms of carbon monoxide


HP0084 tunnel vision.
poisoning are:-

A leaking aircraft engine exhaust may pose a threat increased amounts of carbon
HP0086
to aircrew and passengers because:- monoxide may enter the cabin
A method of processing information referred to as works independently of the central
HP0089
a closed loop system:- decision maker

Memory which deals with the storage of


HP0091 semantic memory
information in word form is called:-

The short term or working memory is capable of


HP0093 7 types of unrelated information
dealing with a maximum of:-

HP0094 Acute stress is considered to be:- a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined with


The most likely causes of environmental, or
HP0095 variations in temperature and
physical stress in an aircraft are:-
humidity
condition which builds up over a
HP0097 Acute stress is usually a:- short period of time requiring a very
long recovery period.

HP0098 Chronic stress is usually a:- long term condition

“Environmental capture” is an error which is


HP0099 skill-based behaviour
associated with:-

HP0101 A motor programme is:- a skill which is acquired by practice

indicate the pressure of the blood


HP0105 The term “blood pressure” is used to:-
against the walls of the main arteries

Platelets are a type of blood cell which are


HP0106 the formation of blood clots
responsible for:-

Pilots who are suffering from blocked sinuses and


HP0108 continue to fly may be subject to severe pain, and a climb in a non-pressurised aircraft.
even suffer ear damage, particularly during:-

When crossing time zones adjustment of the body is easier when flying from west to
HP0110
clock:- east

the ability to store information in the


HP0112 Semantic memory is the term used to describe:-
form of words language or numbers
A method of processing information which requires
HP0113 an open loop system
feedback to the central decision maker is called:-

The best method for an individual to acquire sleep


HP0116 maintain a normal sleep period
“credits” is to:-

HP0117 Chronic insomnia is often the result of:- disturbed body rhythms.

The tiny air sacs in the lungs which allow oxygen to


HP0118 diffuse into the blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse alveoli
into the lungs are called:-

Adaptation of the eye for night vision may take up


HP0120 30 minutes
to:-

the light rays will be focused on the


It may be impossible to see a distant, faintly lit
HP0121 fovea which contains a
object at night by looking directly at it because:-
concentration of rods

HP0125 Angina is characterised by:- severe chest pains and collapse

A situation in which a pilot makes a correct decision


HP0126 environmental capture
but initiates the incorrect reaction is referred to as:-

require the conscious involvement


HP0129 Skill-based behaviour consists of actions that:-
of the brain

decisions made based on knowledge


HP0130 Knowledge-based behaviour is associated with:-
stored in the long-term memory.

The transfer of oxygen from the lungs to the blood the low levels of oxygen in the
HP0132
is a function of:- blood.

the transfer of oxygen into the blood


HP0136 As the partial pressure of oxygen decreases:-
decreases

the body’s demand for oxygen


HP0137 As the partial pressure of oxygen increases:-
increases

Permanent hearing loss may result from damage to


HP0142 cochlea
the:-
Constant and excessive exposure to loud noise may
HP0144 eventually lead to permanent hearing loss as a cochlea
result of damage to the:-

a natural loss of hearing as a result


HP0145 Presbycusis is:-
of age

Decompression sickness, associated with reduced the formation of bubbles of nitrogen


HP0146
air pressure, is characterised by:- in various parts of the body

With regard to decompression sickness, the pain


HP0147 experienced by the formation of nitrogen bubbles the bends
in the body’s joints is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the itching
HP0148 sensation created by the formation of nitrogen the creeps
bubbles in the skin is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the
HP0150 formation of nitrogen bubbles in the lungs leads to the chokes.
a condition known as:-

In the human ear, angular accelerations are sensed


HP0152 semi-circular canals
by the:-

In the human ear, linear accelerations are sensed


HP0153 otolith or static organ.
by the:-

The purpose of the otolith, or static, organ in the


HP0154 sense linear accelerations
human ear is to:-

According to Boyles Law, providing the as the pressure of a gas increases


HP0155
temperature is constant:- the volume decreases

During a level turn, with no external reference, a


false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a vertigo
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-

During a level turn, with no external reference, a


false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a the coriolis illusion
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-

The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the the body rotating when in fact no
HP0159
sensation of:- rotation is occurring.
The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the
HP0159 tumbling backwards
sensation of:-

At night a stationary light which is stared at for a


HP0161 few seconds may appear to move. This illusion is autokinesis.
known as:-

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at the eye only focuses at a distance of
HP0162
night when:- 1 to 2 metres ahead.

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at


HP0162 a stationary light appears to move
night when:-

Equalisation of the pressure between the outer ear


HP0164 Eustachian tube
and the middle ear is achieved through the:-

The transmission of electrical signals, for


HP0167 conversion into sound, from the ear to the brain is auditory nerve.
achieved via the:-

In an effort to avoid motion sickness a method fix their eyes in the distance on the
HP0169
which may help passengers is to:- natural horizon

An increase in positive “g” may initially result in a


HP0170 grey out
condition known as:-

“Grey out” is a condition which may occur as a


HP0171 positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-

A sudden increase in negative “g” may result in a


HP0172 red out
condition known as:-

“Red out” is a condition which may occur as a result


HP0173 excessive negative “g” manoeuvres
of:-

“Black out” is a condition which may occur as a


HP0175 sustained positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-

the blood rushes away from the


HP0176 During sustained positive “g” acceleration:- head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.

An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the will cause a tingling sensation in the
HP0178
blood:- finger tips.
The term “chunking” is used to define the process transferring information into the
HP0179
of:- long term memory

The condition known as cyanosis is associated


HP0181 high blood pressure
with:-

The ability to make a judgement based on learned


HP0185 cognitive judgment
skills or experience is referred to as:-

Cognitive judgement involves decision making


HP0186 a complex thought process
based on:-

HP0187 Perceptual judgement is judgement based on:- a complex thought process

excessive levels of carbon dioxide in


HP0190 Hypoxia is caused by:-
the body tissues

HP0191 Hyperventilation may be caused by:- too little carbon dioxide in the blood

The ability of the eye to change the curvature of


HP0197 accommodation
the lens in order to focus on an object is called:-

HP0198 Visual acuity is:- the ability of the eye to see clearly
Right

anaemia

21

the level of carbon dioxide in the


blood

left ventricle of the heart.

is bright red in colour

the left ventricle and the right


ventricle.

the diastolic pressure

dizziness or fainting

the total pressure of the gas mixture


is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures

increases with the consumption of


alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure of


oxygen

the time available to recognise the


onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action

breathing into a paper bag will


increase the body's level of carbon
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.
a reduction in the amount of
circulating haemoglobin.

remaining at an altitude which will


provide an adequate oxygen
pressure gradient.

a shortage of carbon dioxide in the


blood

hyperventilation

the proportion of oxygen remains at


21% throughout the atmosphere

decreases.

the time taken by a pilot to


recognise the onset of hypoxia and
take corrective action.

2 – 3 minutes

iris

a convex lens is used

a convex lens is used

are used for peripheral vision

the rods

iris which expands increasing the


size of the pupil
looking to the side of the object in
order to focus the object on the rods

a concave lens is used

change the curvature of the lens in


order to focus on an object

fly a low approach.

fly a high approach.

semi-circular canals and the otolith


organs

a decrease in hearing ability with age

a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at and


believing the aircraft flight
instruments

is associated with the inner ear and


is usually irreversible

presbycusis

presbycusis

is associated with the outer ear and


is either temporary or can be
reversed

ringing in the ears


have them fix their eyes in the
distance on the natural horizon

pale skin nausea and sweating

a restful uninterrupted natural sleep

a heart attack

a reduced flow of blood to the brain.

may not fly within 24 hours

an angina attack

by eating regularly

is best treated by a peaceful and


uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period and


requires a prolonged recovery
period.

slow wave sleep

rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

headaches and nausea

increased amounts of carbon


monoxide may enter the cabin
requires feedback to the central
decision maker

semantic memory

7 types of unrelated information

a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined with


variations in temperature and
humidity

short term condition

long term condition

skill-based behaviour

a skill which is acquired by practice

indicate the pressure of the blood


against the walls of the main arteries

the formation of blood clots

a descent

is easier when flying from east to


west

the ability to store information in the


form of words language or numbers
a closed loop system.

maintain a normal sleep period

long-term stress

alveoli

30 minutes

the light rays will be focused on the


fovea which contains a
concentration of cones

mild chest pains which subside on


resting.

an action slip

operates without the constant


attention of the brain.

decisions made based on knowledge


stored in the long-term memory.

the pressure of the oxygen

the transfer of oxygen into the blood


decreases

the transfer of oxygen into the blood


increases.

cochlea
cochlea

a natural loss of hearing as a result


of age

the formation of bubbles of nitrogen


in various parts of the body

the bends

the creeps

the chokes.

semi-circular canals

otolith or static organ.

sense linear accelerations

as the pressure of a gas increases


the volume decreases

the leans

the leans

tumbling backwards
tumbling backwards

autokinesis.

a stationary light appears to move

a stationary light appears to move

Eustachian tube

auditory nerve.

fix their eyes in the distance on the


natural horizon

grey out

positive “g” manoeuvres

red out

excessive negative “g” manoeuvres

sustained positive “g” manoeuvres

the blood rushes away from the


head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.

will cause an increase in the


breathing rate
combining data to increase the
capacity of the working or short
term memory

hypoxia.

perceptual judgement

a complex thought process

experience.

a decrease in the partial pressure of


oxygen

anxiety caused by a stressful


situation.

accommodation

the ability of the eye to see clearly


Database Question Right

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is


met0001 21%
approximately:-

An aircraft is flying at FL095, OAT +5°C. The


met0006 +9°C.
temperature deviation from ISA is:-

The layer between the troposphere and the


met0008 the tropopause.
stratosphere is called:-

out of an area of high pressure and into


met0009 Air has a tendency to flow from:-
an area of low pressure

met0011 The average height of the troposphere:- is greatest at the equator

the temperature increases with an


met0012 In a temperature inversion:-
increase height

Dewpoint temperature is the temperature at air will become saturated at a constant


met0014
which:- pressure

a steep positive environmental lapse


met0015 Instability in the atmosphere is associated with:
rate

The term "insolation" or "solar radiation" is used to heating of the earth's surface by the
met0017
define the:- sun

In terms of visibility, the difference between fog fog has a visibility of less than 1000
met0019
and mist is that:- metres

met0020 Adiabatic process is the term used to describe:- the cooling of air as it rises and expands

decreases with an increase in


met0021 Relative humidity:-
temperature.

The dewpoint temperature is the temperature at


met0022 becomes saturated
which a particular air mass:-
standing with their back to the wind in
met0023 According to Buys Ballots Law, an observer:- the Southern Hemisphere will have low
pressure on their right.

In the Southern Hemisphere, the wind around a clockwise with the area of lowest
met0024
low pressure blows:- pressure in the centre.

met0027 The Coriolis Force is created by: the rotation of the earth

met0028 A land breeze will be found at coastal areas:- at night

During summer in Southern Africa, the Inter


met0029 Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is generally in the southern hemisphere
located:-

The type of wind which flows upslope during the


met0031 anabatic
day is called:-

met0033 A "trough" is:- a wedge of low pressure

met0034 A sea breeze will be found at coastal areas:- during the day

In a high pressure system in the southern the wind rotates anticlockwise with an
met0035
hemisphere:- outwards and downwards flow.

met0038 Cirrus type cloud refers to:- high thin cloud

The type of cloud which is formed by convection is


met0039 cumulus
called:-

commonly associated with a warm


met0040 Nimbostratus cloud is:-
front

met0041 Cumulonimbus cloud is characterised by:- severe turbulence

On a clear night, light winds and moist air blowing


met0044 radiation fog
over the land will most probably create:-
The ideal conditions for the formation of advection warm moist air blowing over a cold
met0046
fog are:- surface

met0049 Polar maritime air is characterised by:- stable conditions at its source.

The factor most likely to cause a decrease in the


met0050 warming of the air mass from below
stability of an air mass is:-

A cold front approaching South Africa will be


met0051 north westerly winds
characterised by:-

The type of clouds which typically characterise a


met0052 Cumulus and Cumulonimbus
cold front are:-

A front caused by cold air cutting under warm air is


met0053 a cold front.
referred to as:-

cirrus followed by cirrostratus or


met0057 The indications of the approach of a warm front:-
altostratus type clouds.

On landing, an aircraft's altimeter indicates the


airfield elevation of 4500 ft with QNH correctly set.
met0061 During the pre-flight inspection the following the pressure has increased
morning the altimeter indicates 4200 ft. During the
night:-

met0063 The symbol SCT is used to indicate:- 3 to 4 oktas of cloud

met0064 The symbol FEW is used to indicate:- 1 to 2 oktas of cloud

The term CAVOK is used in weather forecasts to visibility 10 km or more and no cloud
met0065
indicate:- below 5000 ft

The information which is provided by the ATIS the airfield's surface wind QNH visibility
met0066
includes:- and runway in use

In winter, an aeroplane which has been parked


met0068 outside during a night with clear skies may expect hoar frost
to be covered with:-

The presence of a coastal low, on the east coast of overcast conditions with light rain or
met0074
South Africa, may be characterised by:- drizzle
The characteristics of the South African summer the presence of moist south easterly
met0075
include:- trade winds

met0077 A common characteristic of a stable air mass is:- the presence of stratiform clouds

With reference to the TAF for Port Elizabeth (FAPE)


on page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft
met0080 3 to 4 oktas of cloud at 1500 ft
that intends landing between 1300 and 1500 local
time would expect:-

With reference to the TAF for Durban (FADN) on


page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft
met0081 140/12.
landing between 1800 and 2000 local time would
expect the surface wind to be:-

With reference to the METAR for Johannesburg the variation in the observed wind
met0083
(FAJS) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:- direction is between 350° and 070°

With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on


met0084 the dew point temperature is 15°
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

The characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass


met0086 cumuliform clouds with rain showers
include:-

met0087 The characteristics of a stable air mass include:- poor surface visibility

The weather condition associated with a surface an increase in temperature with


met0090
temperature inversion is:- altitude.

A concave or almond-shaped cloud which appears


met0093 to be stationary in the vicinity of mountains or hills lenticular cloud
is called referred to as:-

Whilst flying in the vicinity of a mountain range a


met0094 pilot observes formations of static lenticular cloud. considerable turbulence
The pilot should expect:-

In stable conditions, with a strong wind blowing mountain wave turbulence is to be


met0095
over a mountain range or high ridge of hills:- expected

The most hazardous type of thunderstorms to thunderstorms embedded in frontal


met0099
aircraft are:- clouds.
The greatest intensity of a thunderstorm occurs
met0100 the mature stage
during:-

When flying from an area of high pressure to an


met0102 the altimeter will tend to over read
area of low pressure:-

a report of actual weather at an


met0104 A METAR is:-
aerodrome

met0105 A TAF is:- a weather forecast for an aerodrome

met0106 Air density will:- decrease with an increase in humidity

a wind that is changing in a clockwise


met0107 The term veering refers to:-
direction

a wind that is changing in an


met0108 The term backing refers to:-
anticlockwise direction

The flow of air from a high to a low in the southern


met0109 to the left
hemisphere is deflected by the coriolis force:-

met0110 Following the passage of a cold front:- the pressure will begin to rise.

With reference to the Significant Weather Chart 3


initially drizzle from stratocumulus
on page 15 of the Meteorology Manual. An aircraft
met0116 cloud becoming rain towards Cape
intending to fly from Port Elizabeth (PE) along the
Town
coast towards Cape Town (CT) would experience:-

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures


chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0120 115° (T)
wind direction on the Natal North Coast at 5000 ft
is:-

With reference to Station 6 of the Synoptic Station


met0123 Models - 1, on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual. moderate intermittent drizzle
The present weather is:-
With reference to Station 2 of the Synoptic Station
Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
met0125 falling then steady.
The barometric tendency during the past three
hours was:-

With reference to Station 4 of the Synoptic Station


met0126 Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual. thick altostratus or nimbostratus
The medium cloud indicated is:-

With reference to Station 5 of the Synoptic Station


Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
met0127 a fall in pressure of 3 hPa
The pressure change during the past three hours
was:-

With reference to Station 14 of the Synoptic Station


met0129 the visibility is 200 metres in haze
Models - 2 on page 6 of the Meteorology Manual.:-

1225 grammes per cubic metre and


met0131 According to ISA, the sea level density of the air is:-
decreases with altitude

met0132 The term "lapse rate" is used to describe:- decrease in temperature with altitude

In the southern hemisphere the wind is deflected


met0133 coriolis force.
to the left by the:-

In the southern hemisphere an aircraft which is


met0134 flying towards an area of low pressure
being subjected to left drift is:-

The type of cloud which can be expected to form as


clouds with substantial vertical
met0138 a result of a moist unstable air mass being forced
development
upwards is:-

The weather conditions associated with a ridge of


met0139 air which is subsiding
high pressure include:-

Precipitation in the form of rain can be expected


met0142 altocumulus
from:-

Precipitation in the form of light drizzle can be


met0143 stratus or stratocumulus clouds
expected from:-
rain which evaporates before it reaches
met0144 Virga is:-
the surface

met0147 Frontal fog is found Ahead of a warm front

when super-cooled drops of water


met0148 Rime ice may be expected to form on an aircraft:-
freeze on impact

With reference to the METAR for Rand Airport


met0149 the visibility is 2000 meters in mist
(FAGM) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the METAR for Upington (FAUP)


met0150 there is no cloud below 5000 ft.
on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on the visibility is 1000 m with fog in the
met0151
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:- vicinity

With reference to the TAF for George (FAGG) on


light rain temporarily becoming heavy
met0153 page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, the expected
rain between 1200 and 2000 local time
weather includes:-

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures


met0154 chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The ISA+7°C.
temperature at 5 000 ft at S30° E015° is:-

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures


chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0155 221/11
wind direction and velocity (W/V) at 4000 ft at S25°
E015° is:-

is indicated by a rough running engine


met0156 Carburettor icing:-
and a gradual decrease in RPM

Coastal lows along the South African coast are


met0158 a strong flow of air from the interior
generally created by:-

is greatest during clear skies over rocky


met0165 Cooling of the earth's surface during the night:-
or desert areas.

Air at the surface which is forced to rise as a result


met0170 is generally unstable
of convergence:-
A warm, dry wind blowing down a mountain during
met0171 the föhn wind
the day is a typical characteristic of:-

The type of wind which may be experienced at


met0172 a sea breeze
coastal areas during the day is:-

met0174 An anabatic wind:- flows up a slope during the day.

An air mass which is approaching South Africa from


met0179 polar maritime
the Antarctic is classified as:-

forms over the land and remains fairly


met0180 A continental air mass:-
dry throughout.

As a polar maritime air mass passes over South absorb heat in the lower layers and
met0182
Africa during summer it will:- become unstable

rising air and a low pressure system with


met0184 Convergence is associated with:-
instability

met0185 Divergence is associated with:-

When warm air is forced to rise up and over cold


met0186 a cold occlusion will form
air:-

Following the passage of a warm front in South


met0188 back.
Africa, the winds will:-

Following the passage of a warm front in South the pressure will continue to fall but at
met0189
Africa:- a slower rate and then start to rise

Following the passage of a warm front in South


met0190 the pressure will begin to rise
Africa:-

met0191 An occluded front occurs when:- a cold front overtakes a warm front

the anti-cyclonic flow of air from a high


The south westerly buster which affects the coast
met0195 pressure system ridging in behind a
of KwaZulu-Natal (South Africa) is caused by:-
coastal low
there is a well developed high pressure
The Black South Easter is a wind which occurs in system to the west of Cape Town with
met0196
South Africa when:- strong pressure gradients and a long
sea track

met0198
The South African Berg Wind is generally caused a strong high pressure system over
by:- southern Africa

When the standard pressure setting, 1013 hPa, is


set on the subscale of the altimeter of an aircraft
met0199 pressure altitude
on the ground at an aerodrome, the altimeter will
indicate:-

derived by correcting the pressure


met0200 Density altitude is:-
altitude for temperature.

When QFE is set on the subscale of the altimeter of


met0201 an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, the zero
instrument will read:-

When QNH has been set on the subscale of an


met0204 the aircraft's altitude above sea level.
altimeter, the instrument will indicate:-

At temperature up to +25°C in humid


important Carburettor icing may occur:-
air.

The weather conditions associated with South A hot dry wind blowing from the interior
important
African Berg wind includes: to the coast

A tropical continental air mass moving over a cool Lose heat in the lower layers and
important
surface will: become more stable

important hail can be expected to fall from: large cumulonimbus clouds

in the vicinity of thunderstorms and


important Microbursts are most likely to occur:- are characterised by rain shafts,
virga or dust circles
The area which may be found in between two high
important pressure systems and two low pressure systems is Col
called a:

In South Africa, the passage of cold front is The winds backing from north west to
important
characterised by: south west

In South Africa a hot, dry wind blowing from the


important A berg wind
interior to the coast is referred to as:
The volume of the nitrogen in the atmosphere is
important 78%
approximately:

With reference to the Significant Weather Chart 1


on the page 13 of the Meteorology Manual. An Increased cloud cover and lowering
important
aircraft flying from Pretoria (PR) to Nelspruit (NS) cloud base
would experience:

In the southern hemisphere, an aircraft subjected


important Flying towards an area of high pressure
to right drift is:

The mature stage of a thunderstorm is


important The commencement of precipitation
characterised by:

important The dry adiabatic lapse rate is: 3deg C/1000ft

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures


important chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The .+17°C
temperature at 7 000 ft at S25° E030° is:-

With reference to station 9 of the synoptic station


The temperature is 30deg C and the
important models -2 on the page 6 of the meteorology
dew point is -5deg C
manual:

With reference to Station 1 of Synoptic Station


important Models – 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology manual. 1022.0hpa
The QNH is:
The appearance of small rotor clouds on the
important downwind or the lee side of a ridge of high hills or a Severe turbulence
mountain range would indicate:

important Advection fog is most likely to be found: Over coastal areas

High pressure generally forms over the


important During the South African winter: central and the northern interior,
resulting in clear skies

important The relationship between humidity and air Humid air is less dense
density is that:-

High pressure systems over the central


important The characteristics of South African winter include:
and northern interior

The weather experienced on the earth occurs in


important Troposphere
the:
The significance of Ozone layer in the atmosphere
important Acts as a shield against ultra violet rays
is that it:

important Stratus cloud may be formed: Orographically

important During the development of a thunderstorm, the


strong and continues updrafts
cumulus stage is characterised by:-

With reference to the station 15 on the synoptic There is 5 oktas of stratocumulus


important station models-2 on the page 6 of the meteorology formed by spreading between 300 and
manual: 599ft

When flying from an area of low pressure to an


important the altimeter will tend to under read
area of high pressure:-

The weather which is normally associated with a Fine weather with light winds and poor
important
high pressure system includes: visibility

Assuming that the temperature of a dry parcel of An increase in pressure will cause an
important
air remains constant: increase in density

The type of cloud which can be expected to form as


important Stratus
a result of moist stable air flowing up a slope is:-

With reference to the significant weather chart 2


on the page 14 of the meteorology manual, the
important pilot of an aircraft intends to fly a direct track from Would have to remain below 2000ft
Port Elizabeth (PE) to East London (EL). If the
highest ground is 1000ft, the pilot:

Terrestrial radiation with little or no


important A surface temperature inversion is caused by:
wind on a clear night

The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is The formation of anvil shape at the top
important
characterised by: of the thunderstorm

The ideal conditions for the formation of radiation Clear sky, with a light wind and high
important
fog at night are: relative humidity

When the difference between the temperature and


important Low cloud or fog may be expected
the dewpoint is small and reducing:
important The average height of the troposphere is: 11km/ 36090ft

a line which joins places of equal


important An isobar is:-
pressure.

A strong south easterly wind during


the “Cape Doctor” is the name used in South
important summer usually accompanied by clear
Africa’s Cape Peninsula, for:
skies

On a synoptic chart, a line which joins the places of


important Isobar
equal pressure is called:

important Assuming that the pressure of a parcel of air temperature is increased, the density
remains constant as the:- will decrease

On flying overhead an aerodrome at which ground


fog is present, the runway is clearly visible to the
important pilot when looking straight down. Assuming no Reduced
change in conditions, from the final approach the
visibility will appear to have:

important warm air which is forced to ascend


A warm front is created by:-
up and over cold air

important

important
mist has a visibility of more than 1000
metres
Database Question Common Answer

The position which separates the laminar air flow


pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-

In accordance with Bernoulli's theory when air the velocity increases and the
pof0003
flows through the throat of a venturi tube:- pressure decreases

Bernoulli's principle states that if the velocity of air


pof0004 pressure energy must decrease
flowing through a venturi is increased, then the:-

The angle of attack of an aeroplane is defined as at which the wing is mounted on the
pof0005
the angle:- fuselage

The angle between an aerofoil's chord line and the


pof0007 the angle of attack
relative airflow is referred to as:-

pof0008 The lift force produced by an aerofoil always acts:- perpendicular to the relative airflow.

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure below the
pof0010
will:- wing and increase drag.

On an aerofoil, the point through which the total


pof0014 centre of pressure
lift acts is called the:-

As the angle of attack of an aerofoil in normal level


pof0015 move aft
flight is increased, the centre of pressure will:-

With reference to the lift formula. If an aeroplane's


pof0016 speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack remains be four times greater.
constant, the parasite drag will:-

On an aerofoil, the point through which the total


pof0017 the centre of pressure.
lift force acts is known as:-

there will be a greater increase in


pof0021 If the gross weight of an aircraft is increased:-
induced drag than in parasite drag

In respect of an aeroplane's wing, the term "aspect


pof0023 the wingspan to the wing tip
ratio" refers to the ratio of:-
Whilst maintaining level flight, a decrease in speed
pof0024 induced drag.
will result in an increase in:-

Adverse aileron yaw, (aileron drag), will be most


pof0025 at high speeds
noticeable:-

A design feature which is used to reduce induced


pof0026 the use of a low aspect ratio wing
drag is:-

pof0028 An increase in induced drag can be expected:- when the angle of attack is increased

pof0030 An aeroplane which has a high lift/drag ratio:- will have poor climb performance

pof0031 Induced drag is created by:- an increase in speed

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low


pof0033 have increased longitudinal stability
aspect ratio wing will:-

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low


pof0033 create less induced drag.
aspect ratio wing will:-

When a wing has been given washout, it means be narrower in width at the tip than
pof0035
that the wing will:- it is at the

If, during level flight, altitude must be maintained


pof0037 angle of attack must be increased
whilst reducing speed the:-

During normal level flight a reduction in power will the thrust line acts horizontal to and
pof0039
cause the nose of an aeroplane to drop because:- above the d

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight

The relationship between the four forces in level lift is equal to weight and thrust is
pof0042
flight is that:- equal to dra
In order to maintain elevator control effectiveness, locate the centre of gravity at the
pof0043
when loading an aeroplane it would be better to:- centre of pres

The forces acting on an aeroplane in a climb are so the value of lift is greater than that
pof0044
arranged that:- of weight<

the centre of pressure is located at


pof0045 Whilst maintaining straight and level flight:-
the centre of

During straight and level flight the centre of gravity


pof0047 aft of the centre of pressure
is normally located:-

The total lift produced by the wings during a the vertical component of lift and
pof0049
balanced level turn, must equal:- the centripetal

The total lift produced by the wings during a


pof0049 only the weight of the aeroplane
balanced level turn, must equal:-

A change in pitch will cause an aircraft to rotate


pof0050 lateral axis and centre of gravity
around its:-

A change in bank will cause an aircraft to rotate longitudinal axis and centre of
pof0051
around its:- gravity

During entry into a left hand turn from straight and


correct the adverse yaw created by
pof0054 level flight, rudder is normally applied in the same
lowering the ai
direction as ailerons in order to:-

Ailerons may have to be used to prevent the


pof0055 all turns.
aeroplane from underbanking during:-

If only rudder is applied during straight and level


pof0058 yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive
flight the following will occur:-

In order to reduce the effect of aileron drag, a


pof0059 is differential ailerons
common design feature used:-

increases as the angle of attack is


pof0060 Adverse aileron yaw (aileron drag):-
increased.

Differential ailerons are a means used on some


pof0061 reduce aileron drag
aeroplanes in order to:-
both ailerons travel through a
pof0062 The operation of frise ailerons is such that:-
greater arc up and

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be aerodynamically balance the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- controls

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be reduce the effort required by the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- pilot to operate

During a level turn to the left, the ball of the slip


pof0064 indicator is deflected to the left of centre. This a slipping turn
indicates a:-

The initial effect of uncorrected aileron drag, or cause an initial yaw to the left when
pof0065
adverse aileron yaw is to:- rolling left

pof0066 The use of a Horn balance in an aeroplane:- increases aileron effectiveness

A mass balance, extending ahead of the hinge line,


pof0067 is attached to the leading edge of a control surface increase the control effectiveness
in order to:-

pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch

In order to remove aerodynamic forces from the


so that they remain neutral in
pof0070 controls, balance tabs are adjusted by the pilot in
relation to the con
flight:-

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is move in the opposite direction to


pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- the control surf

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is only move when activated by the


pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- trim control in th

allow an aeroplane to glide at a


pof0074 Application of flap will:-
steeper angle<BR< span>

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- increase the stall speed

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- decrease the stall speed
pof0076 Application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the Lift/Drag ratio

Flaps are provided on many light aeroplanes in decrease the stalling angle of attack
pof0077
order to:- at low speed

Trailing edge flaps are provided on an aeroplane in


pof0078 improve longitudinal stability
order to:-

During a flapless approach to land the nose


pof0079 position of the aeroplane will, in relation to a lower
normal approach with full flap, be:-

pof0080 The application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the stalling angle of attack

pof0081 Application of trailing edge flaps will cause:- an increase in longitudinal stability

pof0082 An aeroplane will stall as a result of:- exceeding the critical angle of attack

will remain constant irrespective of


pof0083 The stalling angle of attack of a particular aerofoil:-
airspeed ban

remains constant regardless of


pof0084 The stalling angle of attack of an aeroplane:-
airspeed or weight

During a turn an aeroplane stalls at a higher IAS because the critical angle of attack is
pof0085
than it does with the wings level:- reached at

During the approach to a power off stall in level control effectiveness decreases at a
pof0086
flight:- steady rate.<

The effect of maintaining engine power at the stall to cause a reduction in the stalling
pof0088
will be:- angle o

The potential of a normal spin to develop into a flat


pof0090 an aft centre of gravity.
spin increases with:-

In order to initiate spin recovery the controls ailerons and elevator are applied
pof0091
should be used in the following manner:- simultaneously.<
A passenger carrying aeroplane is usually designed
pof0094 dynamic stability
to have:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature which may


pof0096 in the pitching plane
be used to improve stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a


pof0097 about the lateral axis
method of improving stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a


pof0097 about the longitudinal axis
method of improving stability:-

pof0098 Directional stability in an aeroplane is achieved:- through the vertical fin.

A design feature used in some aeroplanes to


pof0100 is washout
improve lateral stability:-

The force required by an aeroplane to make it turn called centrifugal force and is
pof0102
is:- produced by the wi

roll then yaw followed by a spiral


pof0104 The primary and further effects of rudder are:-
dive.

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil decrease the pressure below the
pof0106
will:- wing and increase

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure above the
pof0106
will:- wing and reduce dr

During level flight, the centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of
pof0107
normally:- pressure

When lowering trailing edge flaps, the initial effect the centre of pressure generally
pof0111
is that:- moves aft

During a steady climb the arrangement of the four


pof0112 thrust is greater than drag
forces is such that:-

With reference to the figure below, Position B on


pof0113 the minimum drag speed
the total drag curve indicated represents:-
With reference to the figure below, Curve B on the
pof0115 parasite drag
graph indicated represents:-

pof0118 In order to maintain altitude during a turn:- only the power should be increased

The four forces acting on an aeroplane in level an increase in thrust will cause the
pof0119
flight are normally arranged so that:- nose to pitch

Wingtip stalling may be reduced by the


pof0122 washout
incorporation of:-

pof0124 The primary purpose of Fowler flaps is to:- increase the surface area of a wing

the centre of pressure moves aft of


pof0128 At high angles of attack:-
the centre of

If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is decreased the


pof0129
and the:- density will decreas

If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is increased the density
pof0129
and the:- will decreas

pof0130 With regard to humidity and air density:- humid air is less dense

If the temperature of a dry parcel of air is kept an increase in pressure will result in
pof0131
constant:- a decrease

The layer of air in contact with the surface of an


pof0132 the boundary layer
aerofoil during flight is referred to as:-

The portion of the air flow over an aerofoil, in flight,


pof0133 which comes into immediate contact with the skin friction
surface is slowed down due to the effect of:-
The correct operation of a balance tab can be
balance tab remains fixed in the
pof0134 checked before flight by moving the elevator and
same position<BR< span>
observing that the:-
Dust which is on the surface of a wing before flight
pof0135 will often still be there at the end of the flight streamlining
because of:-
The correct operation of anti-balance tab can be
anti-balance tab moves in the
pof0136 checked before flight by moving the stabilator and
opposite direction t
observing that the:-

both wings are at the stalling angle


pof0137 During the autorotation stage of a spin to the left:-
of attack<BR< span>

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the may increase the lift on the
pof0138
application of ailerons to the right:- outboard section of t
In order to prevent the effects of gusts or
manouevring on the structural integrity of an
pof0139 Vne
aircraft, it should not be flown under normal
operating conditions above:-
the resultant of centripetal force and
pof0140 Load factor is the term given to:-
gross weigh

During a balanced, level turn at 60° angle of bank in


pof0141 twice the gross weight
an aeroplane, the load factor is:-

The force required to turn an aeroplane in flight is


pof0142 centrifugal force
called the:-

pof0144 The symbol V in the lift formula refers to:- IAS

In terms of the International Standard Atmosphere 1225 grammes per cubic metre and
pof0147
(ISA), the sea level density of the air is:- remains constant

pof0148 Newton's First Law refers to:- equilibrium.

pof0149 Newton's Second Law refers to:- acceleration

IAS corrected for temperature and


pof0152 True airspeed (TAS) is:-
altitude

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

pof0155 When gliding into wind:- the rate of descent will decrease.
the range can be increased by flying
pof0157 During a glide:-
at a faster s

If power is reduced during a descent but the speed


pof0158 the range will increase.
is kept constant:-

When climbing to clear obstacles in the take-off


pof0160 at the maximum rate of climb speed
path an aeroplane should climb:-

When climbing the maximum height gained in the by climbing at the best angle of
pof0162
shortest distance will be achieved:- climb speed

The position which separates the laminar air flow


pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

When a wing has been given washout, it means have a decrease in the angle of
pof0035
that the wing will:- attack towards the

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight

pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch

During the aerodynamic stage of a spin known as the outer wing is partially unstalled
pof0092
autorotation:- whilst the i

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the


pof0138 may delay the spin recovery.
application of ailerons to the right:-

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

With reference to the figure below, the speed at


pof0163 the best angle of climb speed
point A indicates:-
Right

the transition point TRUE

the velocity increases and the


pressure decreases TRUE

pressure energy must decrease TRUE

between the chord line and the


relative airflow FALSE

the angle of attack TRUE

perpendicular to the relative airflow. TRUE

increase the pressure below the


wing and increase drag. TRUE

centre of pressure TRUE

move forward FALSE

be four times greater. TRUE

the centre of pressure. TRUE

there will be a greater increase in


induced drag than in parasite drag TRUE

the wingspan to the mean


aerodynamic chord. FALSE
induced drag. TRUE

at a high angle of attack FALSE

washout. FALSE

when the angle of attack is increased TRUE

will have a shallow gliding angle FALSE

the pressure difference between the


top and bottom surfaces FALSE

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

create more induced drag FALSE

create more induced drag FALSE

have a decrease in the angle of


incidence towards the wingtip FALSE

angle of attack must be increased TRUE

the centre of gravity is located


forward of the centre of pressure FALSE

lift is less than weight FALSE

lift is equal to weight and thrust is


equal to drag FALSE
have a forward centre of gravity FALSE

the value of lift is less than that of


weight FALSE

the centre of pressure is located


behind the centre of gravity. FALSE

forward of the centre of pressure FALSE

the vertical component of lift and


the centripetal force. FALSE

the vertical component of lift and


the centripetal force. FALSE

lateral axis and centre of gravity TRUE

longitudinal axis and centre of


gravity TRUE

correct the adverse yaw created by


lowering the aileron on the right FALSE
wing

a gliding turn FALSE

yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive TRUE

is differential ailerons TRUE

increases as the angle of attack is


increased. TRUE

reduce aileron drag TRUE


the hinge line of both ailerons is
located slightly aft of their leading FALSE
edges.

reduce aileron drag FALSE

reduce aileron drag FALSE

a slipping turn TRUE

cause an initial yaw to the right


when rolling left FALSE

improves the aerodynamic balance


of the controls FALSE

prevent control flutter. FALSE

be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

to operate in the opposite direction


to the primary control surface to FALSE
which they are attached.

move in the same direction as the


control surface FALSE

move in the same direction as the


control surface FALSE

allow an aeroplane to glide at a


steeper angle FALSE

decrease the stall speed FALSE

decrease the stall speed TRUE


reduce the L/D ratio FALSE

increase both the lift and the drag FALSE

increase the value of lift created by


the wing at a particular angle of FALSE
attack and airspeed

higher. FALSE

decrease the lift/drag ratio and


increase the glide angle. FALSE

FALSE

exceeding the critical angle of attack TRUE

will remain constant irrespective of


airspeed bank angle or weight FALSE

remains constant regardless of


airspeed or weight TRUE

because the critical angle of attack is


reached at a higher IAS. FALSE

control effectiveness decreases at a


steady rate. FALSE

to cause a reduction in the stalling


speed FALSE

an aft centre of gravity. TRUE

rudder is applied before elevator FALSE


dynamic stability TRUE

in the pitching plane TRUE

about the lateral axis TRUE

about the lateral axis FALSE

through the vertical fin. TRUE

is dihedral FALSE

called centripetal force and is


created by the wings FALSE

yaw then roll followed by a spiral


dive FALSE

decrease the pressure above the


wing and increase drag FALSE

decrease the pressure above the


wing and increase drag FALSE

located forward of the centre of


pressure TRUE

the centre of pressure generally


moves aft TRUE

thrust is greater than drag TRUE

the minimum drag speed TRUE


parasite drag TRUE

the angle of attack must be


increased FALSE

an increase in thrust will cause the


nose to pitch up FALSE

washout TRUE

increase the surface area of a wing TRUE

the effect of aileron drag will be


more noticeable FALSE

temperature is increased the density


will decrease FALSE

temperature is increased the density


will decrease FALSE

humid air is less dense TRUE

an increase in pressure will result in


an increase in density FALSE

the boundary layer TRUE

skin friction TRUE

balance tab moves in the opposite


direction to the elevator. FALSE

skin friction. FALSE


anti-balance tab moves in the same
direction as the elevator FALSE

the left wing will have a greater


angle of attack than the right wing. FALSE

may delay the spin recovery. FALSE

Vno FALSE

the resultant of centrifugal force and


gross weight during a turn FALSE

twice the gross weight TRUE

centripetal force FALSE

TAS FALSE

1225 grammes per cubic metre and


decreases with altitude FALSE

equilibrium. TRUE

acceleration TRUE

CAS/RAS corrected for temperature


and altitude. FALSE

have no effect on the glide angle FALSE

the glide angle will increase FALSE


application of flap will reduce the
best L/D ratio. FALSE

the rate of descent will increase FALSE

at the best angle of climb speed FALSE

by climbing at the best angle of


climb speed TRUE

the transition point TRUE

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

FALSE

FALSE

be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

the outer wing is partially unstalled


whilst the inner wing is stalled FALSE

may delay the spin recovery. TRUE

have no effect on the glide angle FALSE

the best angle of climb speed TRUE


w
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aa
el
sC
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eo
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ip
m
agn
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ii
acn
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Database Question m
eA
l
n
tici
su
n
eys
acgen0001 If cyclic is moved forward: lw
db
x
eiic
m
rn
n
eo
d
geskv
w
xsee
heli The horizontal stabiliser on the tail boom: h
ric
ed
issev
p
cse
fih
sto
u
m
n
sih
acgen0001 The primary purpose of cowl flaps is to:- rp
h
tevy
ew
reo
ed
ao
srr
rvtd
n
tao
d
eso
ru
The cylinder head temperature gauge sr
acgen0002 ele
usually obtains its reading from:- escai
w
n
h
trd
ch
go
ee
Engine cylinder barrels and heads are
acgen0003 iw
aw
fe
usually fitted with fins in order to:-
n
m
etll
erateu
The most likely cause of the over extension u
riic
h
acgen0005 cn
etd
of an oleo in an undercarriage leg is:- o
o
sth
ir
o
aien
ralti
acgen0006 An over-inflated tyre may result in:- n
eih
n
fstd
cn
elh
tgt
eall
The purpose of a torque link on a h
tp
o
acgen0007 yo
e
nosewheel shock strut assembly is to:- iecw
to
rea
tcnew
al
aeo
taii
h
A semi-monocoque fuselage design is one rsvri
acgen0008 getr
in which:- alen
elo
sp
etc
o
vrtd
h
tef
The most important structural component
acgen0009 eats
of a wing:- w
o
tu
h
si
rp
xeh
o
u tie
The part of a wing to which the ailerons irh
acgen0010 b
and flaps are usually attached is the:- lser
b
sarit.
tt
earyh
irae
acgen0011 Tyre creep may cause:- en
ksey
s.ga
asei
tw
d
p
re
af
m
yrsr
p
.ka
efi
m
rrn
ea
o
ct
m
e
sl
e
b
m
te
iy
t-
rw
m
ee
o
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst taxying ein
acgen0012 p
n
indicates that:- so
r
ce
2
d
to
A fuselage which is constructed to allow s0
acgen0013 u
lh
q

the skin to take some of the load is:- ro
eu
iw
er
an
m
The primary load carrying component of an en gas
acgen0014
aluminium stressed skin wing:- o
d
iti
itrn
sl2
The most likely cause of the under- h
u
acgen0016 extension of an oleo in an undercarriage 5 ep
sct
leg is:- i°rp
to
sn
eau
o
b
o
sr
acgen0017 Tyre creep may be expected to occur:- selrse
ltf
o
m
u
o
o
n
arw
rg
In a Truss, or Girder-type fuselage the main lee
acgen0018
structural component is a: xrb
d
l
yh
Toa
aiD
n
c
The timing of the ignition of the fuel and n u
p
C
b
d
o
acgen0020 air mixture in an internal combustion sro
i
m
engine is arranged to occur:- ted
n
p
h
-u
gr
aep
ir.e
A condition which may occur in only one n giu
h
s
acgen0022 cylinder of an engine as a result of too a d
em
n
is
lean mixture is:- n
gii
p
igh
to
n
Valve overlap in the four stroke engine will io t
n
acgen0031 id
n
o
hp
g
occur between the:-
elru
n
ea
eacn
In a piston engine, the piston will have tsfrcd
acgen0033 passed BDC and be moving towards TDC u io
rs
during:- m
o
u
tp
rn
p
myo
The type of pump utilised in a piston erp
acgen0034 engine to provide high pressure oil w
astee
lubrication is a:- tso
n
h
r
eirsp
d
Lubrication of the main bearings and o
is
lu
acgen0035 kd
o
sm
crankshaft of the engine is provided:- t
ien
u
ap
r
sm
n
.o
Dry sump piston engine lubrication tp
sk
d
acgen0036
systems make use of a scavenge pump to:- rte
ib
sr
b
ao
p
In a wet sump piston engine lubrication u
clk
acgen0037
system:- tkae
es
d
th
o
tl
h
tu
rh
b
o
er
u
i
go
c
d
riu
ef
ecc
ra
eo
o
p
ftm
aia
so
o
asn
tsi
itl
p
A high oil temperature coupled with low oil h p
n
acgen0039
pressure:- erp
o r
o
egfo
rb
savo
en
ifevtl
The oil in a wet sump lubrication system n
gtt
acgen0040 h
ogn
iw
passes through the oil cooler:- ieted
iew
rr
o
en
en
An oil pressure gauge is usually located in tp o
etn
lh
acgen0041 ria
the oil line of a wet sump system:- eeil
h
w
tira
sgid
h
gvs
The purpose of the pressure relief valve in fh leh
ib
acgen0042 u
ld
a lubrication system is to:- en
ro
evp
p
rgleo
p
crs
The temperature of the oil in a wet sump slo et
p
acgen0043 tifp
yn
lubrication system is usually measured:- ash
sitrau
.rs
aem
o
giu
n
kc
n
The function of the distributor in a p
m
gen
ro
acgen0045 ru
magneto is to:- eti
eiste
sh
latgu
o
p
u
The purpose of baffles in an aircraft’s fuel h etrn
acgen0047 tu
ac
tank is to:- eigto
lm
sotd
ihlp
o
u
ein
rym
The purpose of an impulse coupling in a ln
b
gu
o
acgen0049 ap
egyn
magneto is to:
isr
iap
d
n
tan
b
aw
p
The electrical current produced by a o
eo
rit
acgen0050
magneto:- ru
d
tkh
w
ao
iseth
elt
srp
lacd
If the earth wire from a magneto to the tlp
lo
acgen0053 trd
h
u
aircraft structure is broken:- h
rw
ei
atru
efg
n
ris
tw
gn
im
sa
The fuel supply line from the fuel tank to egn au
m
acgen0054 tm
the engine normally:- grea
atfn
gerg
d
slen
o
n
d
tief
In some magneto ignition systems an o
eiragi
acgen0055
impulse coupling is used as a method of:- o rttu
h
rlo
in
ts
o
o
The presence of carburettor icing would be w fet
n
acgen0056 rw
iro
indicated by:- h
ao
itr
elu
tc
r
When the throttle is opened quickly, the gh e
acgen0058 fh
throttle accelerator pump will:- ai
u
cis
m
eau
n
i
p
ln
re
u
d
rtr
ireh
aies
n
tt
ti
o
d
o
ae
efr
ah
h
tet
eh
h
n
aeer
tct
ah
tac
tm
eth
rai
aeb
rn
h
o
vu
b
An accelerator pump is often incorporated eiem ru
acgen0060 o
fn
in a carburettor in order to:- iert
fo
txh
te
An engine which starts to run rough and lu
trt
fru
d
acgen0061 then slowly loses power is probably o
tu
u
suffering from:- irso
ep
terlr
b
i
acgen0063 When leaning the fuel/air mixture:- eu
b
cp
d
tste
iru
o
stcn
ro
u
ead
gia
acgen0064 The application of carburettor heat:- ru
.n
u
eifs
cgr
lee
sy
h
d
acgen0065 Carburettor icing is most likely to occur:- ieo its
vfig
tw
ash
ir
The blade angle of a propeller varies from liaten
acgen0070 vh
lcp
hub to tip in order to:- d
gsel
o
u
m
w
The correct sequence for increasing power n icao
h
g
acgen0074 in an aeroplane with a Constant Speed Unit seeln retir
(CSU) is:- d
clgn
ar
ih
ten
o
eb
n
During take-off in an aeroplane equipped reh tp
al
acgen0076 with a Constant Speed Unit (CSU), it would earse
atm
are
be most beneficial to have:- td
aseal
eitio
tam
rh
ih
n
If an aeroplane, with a fixed pitch aego
i
etn
n
propeller, is placed in a shallow dive so cD
acgen0078 gieC
that forward speed increases with no t.R
o
m
change in power setting, the RPM will:- lfm
fin
h
P
o
rsep
xeM
leu
o
t
After starting an engine black smoke is d
rm
p
at
u
acgen0079 seen coming from the exhaust. This ap
h
rn
h
fylteto
indicates:- ed
yu
u
p
rn
An operational advantage of the alternator eio elw
acgen0083 sr
is that it:- cil
ih
tle
lceh
o
rh
The correct level of electrolyte in a lead
o
acgen0085 acid battery should be maintained by the ao erku
addition of:- b
n
itsrl
cia
One of the advantages of refuelling an tw
u
cd
h
acgen0086 aeroplane with full tanks after flight is aish
ee
that:- cil
lin
m
d
g
ib
xea
t
u
rm
ro
e
erc
.
t
o
p
u
p
m
vr
p
o
a
ld
h
tu
One of the benefits of the DC generator is p
ip
acgen0087 arc
that it:- grg
eeh
o
ce
sto
p
sd
p
en
Control of the voltage output from a DC ru
o
ercv
acgen0089
generator is achieved through a:- erctw
etag
eerso
rm
u
resn
The use of fuel with a lower octane rating tp
acgen0092 than that recommended by the aircraft lra
u
h
ea
manufacturer may lead to:- etsretr
tlei
h
eo
The storage capacity of a battery is usually io
ice-rl
acgen0093 etn
ain
expressed in:- h
fo
h
irA
d
o
ew
ircC
u
A rectifier is required in an alternator in vcu
rs
acgen0099 ap
tiao
order to:- sp
lrh
tu
.e
veert
A reverse current cut-out relay, or circuit eeso
fp
td
acgen0100 breaker, is used in a generator supplied su
rth
electrical system to:- sw
u
go
h
te
h
ierm
The purpose of the engine driven vacuum iei
n
acgen0101 pump used in an aircraft's gyroscopic ad
3
csfb
instrument system is to:- n
lih
w
m
lett
-co
ia
The purpose of the engine driven vacuum iaitl
acgen0102 pump used in an aircraft's gyroscopic n
w
mt5
shlgD
instrument system is to:- eei
o
C
tiln
jo
fe
Over-speeding of vacuum driven gyro rotor n
o
tev
acgen0105 rh
ctce
is prevented by:-
eh
asura
etrl
The suction required to operate vacuum isveo
acgen0106 rr
driven gyroscopes is usually between:- d
o
in
eas
lo
n
tn
d
p
tfjso
tee
A left-zero ammeter is incorporated in an au
td
acgen0108 em
electrical system to:- sgrti
d
etu
h
n
rm
et
iicb
eo
A voltmeter may be incorporated in an n
u
eg
n
acgen0109 d
rftya
electrical system to:-
ityo
r
n
ch
rco
d
aea
tsr
o
o
The instruments that would be affected by eto
u
acgen0112 rlh
.t
a static vent blockage are:-
eo
acr
o
n
vtf
d
ra
ict
vcu
h
eu
ae
rlm
t
b
isp
ac
u
eu
n
t
th
l
o
ee
s
isa
n
If the alternate static vent, located in the ld
tt
aircraft's cockpit, is opened in flight in ih
acgen0113
response to a blocked external static vent, ic
em
the altimeter will:- ae
tta
eie
The instruments which would be affected r
r
acgen0115 by a blockage in both pitot tube and static tc
vent are:- ih
rV
o
eavS
n
d
feI
iart
A blockage of the static vent during a l-ca
ch
acgen0117 satp
ia
descent would cause the ASI to:- ern
ttis
led
aet
ain
trd
u
p
o
A
b
ied
trS
If, during a descent, the static vent cm
aem
acgen0119 aIa
becomes blocked the altimeter will:- ip
sat
ep
irasl
exrn
setu
d
ep
p
sro
If, during level flight, the static vent asescw
io
acgen0121 p
seu
n
becomes blocked the ASI reading will:- o
h
sre
u
d
n
rie
d
rsced
arec
The green arc on an airspeed indicator cth
acgen0124 eta
represents:- o
ic
in
u
rsttn
strh
gb
ii
acgen0126 In a simple airspeed indicator:- eeff
fce
n
tisge
b
td
ep
wd
eled
acgen0127 In a simple airspeed indicator:- td
o
etth
cn
ao
deo
fki
tasr
o
itrh
acgen0128 Calibrated or Rectified airspeed is:- agtsh
n
ean
sp
ei
tegt
io
nierc
acgen0129 True airspeed is:- ccd
sn
atcs
u
p
m
ru
tac
The basic principle of operation of an esu
rn
acgen0130 airspeed indicator is to measure the o
u
n
rd
m
u
rtl
differential between:- em
re
d
n
ep
te.
As altitude is increased the capsule inside tn ico
acgen0136 tt
an altimeter will:-
ao
es
n
ctd
h
d
a
o
sp
fw
p
ero
n
o
er
ss
ai
sp
n
tu
o
irs
io
ei
h
cea
ts
p
ach
rteab
ee
u
sste
sh
ean
As altitude is decreased the capsule inside u em
acgen0137 reao
an altimeter will:-
esp
rae
The presence of black oily deposits in the im ar
acgen0140 firing end cavity of a spark plug would d
n
etp
ae
probably indicate:- eit
tcd
re
During a descent the pressure in the rh
a
acgen0144 capsule of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) d tet
ish
will:- aen
w
ecs
cti
During a climb the pressure inside the case earh tg
acgen0145 seh
of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) will:- ye
ar
stp
t
During a descent the pressure inside the o oeh
ro
acgen0146
case of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) will:- feo
r
ise
stp
n
rm
h
ru
i
The instantaneous vertical speed indicator aesrc
acgen0147 im
(IVSI) utilises an accelerometer to:- steh
ai
n
san
sn
tu
wao
sir
aete
During the initiation of a climb the rctm
tu
acgen0148 accelerometer in an instantaneous vertical rih vu
speed indicator (IVSI) will:- w
igp
xr
m
rin
iietet
eu
d
g-n
h
istrh
An operational problem of the ttse
ih
n
acgen0149 conventional VSI which does not occur in tu n
eyd
the Instantaneous VSI is:- d
rau
u
taecc
n
rh
ae
n
gie
The two properties associated with a p
il
d
acgen0151 n
sV
n
spinning gyroscope are:- etgc
u
p
esh
artl
cetp
e
With reference to the Attitude Indicator or terh ah
s
acgen0154 Artificial Horizon, as an aircraft changes its e.ico u
reu
pitch attitude or bank:- cerso
lsia
tite
lsn
h
n
a.is
The gyroscope used in a direction indicator egtito
acgen0155 ait
is a:- rxa
n
ro
i.u
ien
am
Apparent wander in a Direction Indicator is sarte
acgen0157 ci
lo
caused by:- n
grfo
tya
w
n
Wear in the bearings and gimbals as well raftc
acgen0159
as air turbulence will have the effect of:- o to
n
h
a.’
d
efs
se
e
rea
la
o
rd
n
fte
gh
s
el
n
re
gf
w
t
m
i
o
la
u
ln
n
d
The indications on a turn indicator during a ts
acgen0162 eh
turn to the right whilst taxying are:- t
d
o
h
w
e
If the rotor speed of a turn indicator b
r
acgen0164 ean
increases above normal:-
te
w
el
ted
acgen0166 The turn indicator makes use of a:- h
egsl
en
yse
re
Control of the precession of the gyro in a ato rs
acgen0167 n
turn indicator is achieved by:- h
h
gero
lau
b
e
acgen0168 The needle of a turn co-ordinator shows:- gtal
ied
lo
m
afb
o
sn
afh
cb
lo
ea
acgen0169 The diagram below indicates a:- tw
sd
n
au
l
kn
irat
d
n
p
u
rp
rt
in
h
ga
n
acgen0170 The diagram below indicates a:- egh
n
t
ct
iea
tu
sas
aru
en
The type of gyro used in an attitude tre
acgen0172 fn
.
indicator is:- rh
o
i.e
fx
cg
During take-off the error which may be ety
td
acgen0173 expected from an air-driven Artificial irh
Horizon, or Attitude Indicator:- o
ep
.
n
o
p
ie
During flight the gyro in a Direction rn
acgen0174 res
Indicator aligns itself with:-
tr
-t
io
An aircraft engine is designed to operate irr
gu
on a specific octane rating. Using fuel of a n
acgen0177 n
m
higher octane than recommended may
ies
result in:-
tn
p
iat
o
c
n
e
w
o
h
n
ei
n
su
n
p
tc
sri
ah
elu
so
A manually operated primer pump should sw
s
acgen0179 always be used to prime a cold engine for te
u
h
d
start because:- are
n
eb
eyt
ain
h
When attempting to start an engine which p sgl
ep
acgen0182
has been over-primed or flooded:- io
ian
cp
rn
eao
ec
ln
w
rf
In the southern hemisphere, an aircraft is etei
to maintain a constant heading of 090° (M) m ra
acgen0186 on a magnetic compass. If the aircraft art
se
speed is increased from 80 kts to 110 kts go u
eisn
the compass would:- u
rd
setn
tap
o
n
aiu
tn
d
The deviation error found in a magnetic cto
acgen0187 f
compass:-
atu
ifo
th
sxifh
ce1
When executing a turn from 160° through eo n
d
l
s9
south to 210°, in the southern hemisphere, an d
acgen0189 0
n
sfr
using only a magnetic compass, B141 av°so
heading to roll out on would be:- ia
au
n
clw
lte
ih
uo
th
d
ete
m
n
h
acgen0192 Compass deviation in a particular aircraft:- m rv
eu
fin
o
d
o
tn
al
art
u
tso
m
lo
eh
acgen0195 In comparison to a generator:- re
o
rae
cw
w
o
ali
th
fo
iy
The operating principle of a DC generator lh rl
acgen0197
is that it:- fetc
lo
arb
u
d
an
ei
kvif
d
A hydraulic system operates on the basic ed n
tg
acgen0199 geerr
principle that:-
tctp
eh
ra
eteD
t
The pilot of an aircraft which is equipped h aC
ei
with manifold pressure gauge would be esr
acgen0200
able to identify the presence of carburettor n ei
icing by:- cen
ar
n
itt
egn
o
ai
as
n
A
R
eP
C
ld
.o
M
rw
p
lr
tp
a
elt
ar
u
n
er
esd
ep
lta
o
ii
With reference to the figure below, the o
ft
acgen0201 ra
trailing edge flap type indicated is:-
f1
flt
5
Fyl
o
°o
a
C
w
p
at
lt
h
e
With reference to the figure below, the ear
acgen0203 an
trailing edge flap type indicated is:-
e1
d
fh
x2
li
h
2
la
ga5
p
h
u
p
.e
sg
rtre
acgen0204 The effect of slats is to:-
aa
ap
m
r
tn
im
ad
According to the International Standard gp
u
eti
acgen0205
Atmosphere (ISA) there is a:- ab
les
re
se
According to the International Standard tp
o
cm
acgen0206 Atmosphere (ISA), the density of air at sea u o
fet
level is:- b
fr
o
elu
r1
yn
ac.
Application of “alternate air” in a fuel m
th
acgen0208 u
9
ip
injection system:- o
etb
8
n
o
u
aait°
d
sn
ctcC
o
acgen0210 An aircraft’s pitot tube is usually mounted:- itki
tm
en
/w
itd
ga1
eih
o
n
tt0
acgen0211 Pitot pressure is taken from:- en
tb
ih
d
r0
h
n
ee0
aiea
fi
n
rto
acgen0212 Normal static pressure is taken from:- rfrh
lert
fto
ele
lh
raw
The effect of having two static vents u
eo
rte
acgen0213 located one on either side of an aircraft’s p ew
wirn
fuselage is that:- ailvt
rilae
o
erlti
r
acgen0214 The alternate static valve draws air from:- m ciair
3
arb
vsin
6
iaerp
gn
If the speed of an aeroplane fitted with a ffe0
fixed pitch propeller decreases, but the tralte
acgen0215 9
td
throttle setting remains constant the RPM eio h
0
h
cd
rw
will:- ee
o
u
ff
cli
tske
o
n
ap
d
w
d
m
iu
et
c
.t
i
o
h
p
ew
la
ad
an
rc
n
b
ea
aid
cn
cc
gko
The component of a hydraulic system u
acgen0219 which stores the hydraulic fluid under n
m
pressure is called:- illu
in
yl
g
Loss of pressure in a hydraulic system is ah
acgen0220 o
o
tt
indicated to the pilot:- h
n
n
ao
lcr
vu
ye
In the event that a fuse in an electrical is
acgen0222 n
circuit has blown:- u
o
w
gn
ai
clt
In the event that a circuit breaker in an ale
acgen0223 h
electrical circuit has tripped:- y
h
aa
ifr
get
Control of the precession of the gyro in a fh
d
eu
turn indicator is achieved by:- rs
r
eo
a
the gyro suction gauge will indicate to the tl
o
o
important pilot that normal vacuum system lf
pressure:- ro
w
ts
ih
The function of the diffuser in a carburittor p
n
important ee
is to:- g
e
sd
aa
A rotating propeller will produce a force
important which acts in the opposite direction of the m
ce
rotation. This force is called:- o
o
r
If the rotor speed of a turn indicator la
important it
reduces below normal:-
n
i
gn
The rotation of the earth has the effect of g
important o
causing:-
f
f
An accumulator is incorporated in a
important
hydraulic system in order to:- p
e
r
The purpose of the condenser, or i
important
capacitor, in a magneto is to:- o
d
some aircraft make use of an electrically
important
driven turn indicator because:-

The most appropriate method to deal with


important
detonation during flight is to:-
The correct sequence of operation of the
important four strokes of an internal combustion
engine are:-

The primary method of cooling oil in a wet


important
sump system is by:

In the four stroke piston engine, the term


important
valve lag is used to indicate that the:

important Real wander in a gyroscope is caused by:-

Fuel vents are provided in aircraft fuel


important
tanks:

The manually operated engine fuel primer


important pump in a carburettor system will deliver
fuel to

A centre-zero ammeter is incorporated in


important
an electrical system to:

important The blade angle of a propeller is the:-

The supply of electrical power to the


important
engine started motor is a function of:

important An under-inflated tyre may result in:

When the mixture control lever is moved


important
to the full rich position:

important When the fuel/air mixture is richened:

An aircraft is to maintain a constant


heading of 360deg in the southern
important hemisphere, using a magnetic compass.
If the airspeed is increased from 90kts
to 110kts, the compass would:
The production of high voltage current in a
important
magneto is a function of:-

The purpose of baffles in engine


important
compartments is to:-

The purpose of a needle type mixture


important
control in a carburettor is to:

the number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid


important
battery is

important The helix angle of a propeller is the angle:

Ignition of fuel/air mixture in a four stroke


important
piston engine occurs during the:

The most appropriate method to deal with


important pre-ignition in a piston engine during flight
is:

When executing a turn from 300deg


through north to 060deg in the southern
important hemisphere, using only a magnetic
compass, the most appropriate heading to
roll out would be:

During the engine run-ups, prior to take


off, a reading of 2 inches of mercury is
important
indicated on the gyro suction gauge. This
means that the gyro instruments:

important If the pitot tube became blocked in flight:

Counter-weights are attached to the


important
crankshaft of an engine in order to:-

Position error of the static vent can be


important
reduced:

A decrease in the rotational speed of a


important
gyro will have the effect of:-
The control of fuel entering the carburettor
important
is achieved by:

The pressure altitude at an airfield is


important 2800ft and the airfield elevation above sea
level is 2500ft. The QNH is:
Right

Helps generate aerodynamic lift to prevent


tailboom from dipping

control the flow of air over the engine cylinders in


order to maintain the correct operating
temperature.

a cylinder which tests show runs the hottest

improve engine cooling

high air pressure.

excessive tread wear in the centre of the tyre.

keep the nosewheel correctly aligned with the


airframe

the shape and rigidity of the fuselage is provided


by formers and stringers whilst the stressed skin
carries part of the load

is the main spar

rear or auxiliary spar.

the inflation valve to break away from the inner


tube
the torque links are worn or have failed

a semi-monocoque structure

is the main spar

low air pressure

during the normal landing.

longeron

between 20° and 25° before TDC during the


compression stroke

pre-ignition

exhaust and induction strokes

the compression and exhaust strokes.

gear type pump.

by both high pressure oil and splash lubrication.

pump oil from the sump back to the oil tank

oil is stored in the engine sump and distributed


throughout the engine by a pressure pump
are an indication of low oil supply.

before being fed to the engine components

between the pressure relief valve and the sump

maintain a constant oil pressure over a range of


engine power changes

after leaving the oil cooler

provide high voltage to the spark plugs

prevent the fuel from surging about during flight

produce a strong retarded spark usually in the left


magneto for easier starting

is created by a rotating magnet

the engine will continue to run with the magneto


switch in the off position

draws fuel from a position higher than the sump to


allow water or other impurities to settle at the
bottom of the tank

producing a strong retarded spark during the low


RPM of engine start.

the engine starting to run rough and a decrease in


RPM

discharge additional fuel into the venturi


provide extra fuel when the throttle is opened
rapidly.

carburettor icing.

the ratio of fuel to air is reduced

will also richen the mixture because of the higher


air temperature

at the venturi butterfly valve or inlet manifold

ensure that the thrust produced is constant along


the propeller blade

richen the mixture increase the RPM then increase


the manifold pressure setting

a small blade angle

increase

that the mixture is too rich

will still produce electrical power at low RPM

distilled water

full tanks will minimise condensation forming


overnight
does not rely on battery power to bring it on line.

voltage regulator

detonation

ampere-hours.

convert the AC output into DC

prevent the flow of current from the battery to the


generator

remove air from the instrument case

decrease the pressure within the instrument case.

a pressure relief valve which is located just before


the vacuum pump.

3 - 5 inches of mercury

indicate the flow of current from the alternator.

indicate the voltage in the electrical system

the altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed


indicator.
over-read because the cockpit pressure is usually
lower than the outside pressure

the altimeter VSI and ASI

over-read

continue to indicate the altitude at which the


blockage occurred.

remain constant

the normal operating speed range

pitot pressure is fed to the capsule

static pressure is fed to the case.

indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and


position error

calibrated or rectified airspeed corrected for


temperature and density

between static and pitot pressure

expand causing the instrument to shown an


increase in altitude
contract causing the instrument to shown a
decrease in altitude

that oil is slipping past the piston rings and is being


burnt in the combustion chamber

increase

decrease at a slower rate than that inside the


capsule

increase at a faster rate than that inside the


capsule

decrease the static pressure of the capsule during


the initiation of a descent.

cause a rapid decrease in static pressure in the


capsule.

manoeuvre-induced error

rigidity and precession.

the gyro remains in the vertical relative to the


earth.

Horizontal axis gyro

the rotation of the earth

causing real wander of a gyro


the ball should move to the left and the needle
should show a right turn.

the pointer will show a higher rate of turn

rate gyro

the tension of a spring mounted between the


gimbal and the case of the instrument

the rate of turn

balanced turn

slipping turn.

an earth gyro.

is a temporary error in both pitch and roll

a fixed point in space

lead fouling of the spark plugs


the primer is more effective than the throttle
accelerator pump and will pump more fuel into the
venturi as a result

the mixture should be in the full lean position until


the engine fires and then richened slowly to keep
the engine running

show an apparent turn to the south

is caused by local magnetic fields within the aircraft

190°

varies with each heading

the power output of an alternator will be greater at


a lower rpm

it is self-excited and does not require the use of a


battery

when pressure is increased on a confined volume of


fluid the increased pressure will be transmitted by
the fluid

a decrease in manifold pressure


a split flap

a Fowler flap.

allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher angle of


attack and a lower airspeed

MSL temperature of 15°C and lapse rate of


1.98°C /1000 ft up to 36 090 ft

1225 grammes per cubic metre

feeds air from within the engine cowling to the


induction system

directly into the airflow

a tube mounted in the relative airflow

a port located in an area of undisturbed air

position error will be reduced

within the aircraft cockpit.

decrease
an accumulator

a warning light usually red

it should be replaced only once with a fuse of the


same rating

it should be pushed back in only once after allowing


a cooling off period

the tension of a spring mounted between the


gimbal and the case of the instrument

is less than the atmospheric pressure

Allow air to mix with the fuel before it is discharged


into the venturi as the power is increased

torque

the pointer will show a lesser rate of turn

real wander in a gyro

store fluid under pressure and dampen pressure


fluctuations

Control the flow of high voltage current to the


spark plugs

it provides a valuable back-up instrument should


the vacuum pump.

Reduce the RPM and richen the mixture.


indution,compression,power,exhaust.

Ram air through an oil cooler

Inlet valve closes after the piston has reached the


BDC

The rotation of the earth

To allow atmospheric pressure to be retained in the


tank as the fuel is used

indution manifold near to the inlet valve.

Indicate the flow of current into and out of battery

angle between the chord line blade and the plane


of rotation.

A solenoid located near the starter motor

Excessive tread wear on the outside of the tyre

The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold will


be increased

The ratio of fuel to air is increased

Continue to show the same reading


a rotating magnet

prevent the fuel from surging about during flight

Regulate the flow of fuel from the float chamber to


the diffuser

24

Between the relative airflow and the plane of


rotation

Compression stroke

Increase the engine cooling and richen the mixture

80deg

Will function erratically

The ASI reading would remain the same in level


flight, irrespective of power changes

prevent damage from vibration

If two interconnected static vents are mounted one


on either side of the fuselage
The needle valve and the float

1003hpa
Database Question

An aircraft is flying from A (32° E) in an westerly direction to B (12° W) along the equator.
nav0003
The aircraft:-

nav0005 On the earth:-

nav0007 Convergency is defined as being:-

nav0010 When applied to an aeronautical chart, the term “topographical chart” means:-

nav0014 The scale of a chart is expressed as 15 cm to 25 nm. As a representative fraction, this is:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-

nav0024 The scale of a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection is correct:

nav0025 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:

nav0026 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:-

On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection, a rhumb line
nav0029
track:-

nav0031 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

nav0032 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East", it means that:-


An aircraft on a cross country flight is to maintain a heading of 290° (M). From the figures
nav0034 extracted from the compass correction card in the figure below, the compass heading to
steer is:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a


nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 360° (M) using
nav0038
a magnetic compass. If the airspeed is decreased the compass would:-

nav0040 Compass deviation:-

nav0045 One kilometre is defined as:-

Overhead HEIDELBERG VOR (HGV), (S26° 42' E028° 18'), en route DURBAN
nav0047 INTERNATIONAL, (S29° 58' E030° 58'), TAS 120, W/V 100/15. The mean magnetic heading
to steer is:-

Overhead PILANESBERG, (S25° 32, E027° 12'), at 0730 UTC, en route MAPUTO, (S25° 55'
nav0049
E032° 34'), FL095, OAT -5°C, RAS 103 kts, W/V 240/10. The ETA for MAPUTO is:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0065
aeronautical chart, indicates:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0070
aeronautical chart, indicates that:-

An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 133 nm, in 1 hour and 12 minutes. If there is a
nav0075
headwind of 12 kts the TAS is:-
Track 183° (T), Heading 209° (M), TAS 110 kts, Groundspeed 118 kts, variation 19° W. The
nav0078
W/V is:-

nav0081 Track 115° (T), Heading 110° (T), TAS 115 kts, Groundspeed 105 kts. The W/V is:

nav0082 Track 184° (T), Drift 5° left, Variation 22°W, deviation 4° West. The compass heading is:-

At 1415 an aircraft was overhead a VOR maintaining radial 215° en route for B, heading
nav0083
210° (M). At 1430, the pilot decides to return to the VOR. The heading to steer is:-

An aircraft is flying from Alpha to Bravo, total distance 96 nm. After flying for 40 nm a fix is
nav0084
obtained which places the aircraft 3 nm right of track. The track error is:-

An aircraft is flying from EAST LONDON, (S33° 03' E027° 50'), to COOKHOUSE NDB, (S32°
nav0086 45' E025° 49'), drift 8°L. The relative bearing required from the COOKHOUSE NDB to
maintain the track is:-

Track 145° (T), W/V 220/20, TAS 125 kts, variation 22°W. The magnetic heading to steer
nav0089
is:-

An aircraft with a TAS of 110 kts, flies from A to B, distance 148nm, in 1 hr 14 mins. The
nav0090
TAS required to fly from B back to A in 1 hr 20 mins is:-

nav0091 FL105, temperature ISA + 1°, RAS 85 kts. The TAS will be:-

Track 002° (T), W/V 315/15, TAS 115 kts, variation 18°W, deviation 2° West. The compass
nav0094
heading to fly is:-

nav0099 Official day is defined as the period:-

nav0102 Sunset is defined as:-

nav0103 Sunrise is defined as:-

nav0104 South Africa uses a standard time factor of:-


nav0106 Aircraft heading 175° (C), variation 18° W, Deviation 4° W. The aircraft’s true heading is:-

nav0108 When compass deviation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

An aircraft is to fly from A to B, distance 235 nm, TAS 90 kts, tailwind 5 kts, cruise fuel flow
nav0111 8.5 USG/Hr, assume 3 USG is required to take-off and climb to cruising altitude and the
reserve fuel requirement is 9 USG. The total fuel required is:-

If the local mean time at airfield A, longitude E018° 45', is 0818 then, if both positions are
nav0112
in South Africa, the time, UTC, at airfield B, longitude E021° 45' will be:-

nav0114 Distance 185 nm, GS 95, fuel flow 6.8 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-

nav0121 Distance flown 88 nm, flight time 43 minutes. The groundspeed is:-

nav0123 W/V 290/15, TAS 90 kts, Track 320° (T). The heading is:-

nav0125 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

Aircraft heading 008° (T), variation 24° W, Deviation 4° West. The aircraft’s compass
nav0129
heading is:-

nav0132 TAS 110 kts, W/V 155/15, Track 085° (T). The drift is:-

nav0167 40 US gallons equals:-

nav0171 Airfield elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0172 Airfield elevation 3000 ft, QNH 1003. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0173 Airfield elevation 4150 ft, QNH 1018. The pressure altitude is:-
nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0184 Using the following information, W/V 220/10, Hdg 176° (T), TAS 100 kts:-

nav0188 W/V 045/12, Track 101° (T), drift 6° right, TAS 95 kts. The groundspeed is:-

nav0195 If official night ends at 0500, the time of sunrise is:-

nav0197 If official night in South Africa starts at 1645 UTC, the local time of sunset is:-

nav0198 If official day in South Africa starts at 0325 UTC, the local time of sunrise is:-

nav0199 If the time of sunset in South Africa is given as 1615 UTC, official night begins at:-

nav0202 The axis about which the earth rotates is between:-

nav0203 The longitude of a position refers to its location:-

nav0206 The reference for the measurement of latitude is:-

nav0208 Convergency:-

nav0213 The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is called:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0214
aeronautical chart, indicates:-
nav0218 Flight time A to B = 1 hour 15 minutes, fuel flow 7.3 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-

The mean magnetic track and distance from BISHO (S32° 55’ E027° 16’) to BURGERSDORP
nav0224
(S30° 58’ E026° 20’) is:-

An aircraft, maintaining a heading of 295° (C), obtains a relative bearing of 345° from an
nav0231 NDB. If the aircraft’s variation is 20° W and deviation is 3° E, the bearing to plot from the
NDB is:-
At 0830 an aircraft was overhead NELSPRUIT (S25° 30’ E030° 55’) on track for
nav0233 PILANESBURG (S25° 22’ E027° 12’). At 0924 the aircraft crosses radial 020 WIV (S25° 50’
E029° 12’). The groundspeed is:-

An aircraft climbs from 2500 ft to 9500 ft at a constant rate of climb of 350 fpm. If the
nav0243
mean climb groundspeed is 85 kts the distance covered during the climb is:-

nav0251 When referring to direction on the earth the quadrantal points are:-

nav0252 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

nav0255 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East":-

nav0256 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West":-

nav0265 Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature ISA +23°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

nav0270 Runway 16 in use, surface wind 270/12. The aircraft would have a:-
The significance of the two standard parallels on a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection
nav0296
is that:-

The type of chart projection which is constructed by placing a cone around an imaginary
nav0299
earth, so that it cuts the earth at two different parallels of latitude is called a:-

The type of chart on which meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude are at 90° to
nav0011
each other is called:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a


nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-

nav0130 TAS 100 kts, W/V 005/15, Track 345° (T). The groundspeed is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-


Right

flying both a great circle and rhumb


line track

a parallel of latitude is a rhumb line

the angle between adjacent


meridians.

that the earth’s features are


represented with a minimum of
distortion

1: 308 833 308833.33333

orthomorphic

orthomorphic

only at the standard parallels.

convergency is constant throughout


the chart but correct only at the
parallel of origin

a rhumb line will cut each meridian


at the same angle

will always cut every meridian at


the same angle

magnetic north is located to the


west of true north

magnetic north is located to the


east of true north
288° (C)

show an apparent turn to the south

continue to show the same heading.

usually varies on all headings in the


same aircraft

one ten thousandth of the distance


from the equator to either pole

160° (M)

0948 UTC

a VOR facility co-located with a


compulsory reporting point

the aerodrome does not have


runway lights

123 kts
306/16

069/14

215° (C)

040° (M)

4.5°.

352°

176° (M)

TAS 121

100 kts

017° (C)

from 15 minutes before sunrise to


15 minutes after sunset

being 15 minutes before the start of


official night

when the very first part of the sun


appears above the horizon

UTC +2
153° (T)

compass north is to the west of


magnetic north.

33 USG

0630 UTC

13.3 USG

123 kts

315° (T).

north east south and west

036° (C)

7° left

151 litres

2500 ft

3300 ft.

4000 ft
2080 ft.

2080 ft.

the track is 172° (T) and the


groundspeed is 93 kts

88 kts

515

1830 LMT

0540 LMT.

1830 LMT.

true north and true south

east or west of the prime meridian

the equator.

is greater at high latitudes than it is


at low latitudes

variation

an isogonal.
9.1 USG

001° (M) and 127 nm.

083°. 83

102 kts

28 nm

045° 135° 225° 315°

360° 090° 180° and 270°

the value of variation must be


subtracted from a true heading to
obtain a magnetic heading
the value of variation must be
added to a true heading to obtain a
magnetic heading

7760 ft.

IAS corrected for instrument and


position errors

4 kt tailwind
they are the points where the cone
of the projection cuts through the
imaginary earth’s surface and
therefore the scale of the chart is
only correct at these points

Lambert conformal conic projection

orthomorphic.

show an apparent turn to the south

86 kts

IAS corrected for instrument and


position errors
Database Question

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
fppa0003
additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
fppa0003
additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.3", weight 2450 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off 280 lbs
fppa0005
of fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 89.2", weight 2470 lbs. During flight the aircraft burns off 173 lbs of
fppa0009
fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG will have:-

fppa0016 Airfield elevation 1200 ft, QNH 1003 hPa. The pressure altitude is:-

fppa0028 An increase in temperature at a particular airfield would have the effect of:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +20°C, pressure altitude
fppa0047
5000 ft, weight 2400 lbs, 10 kts headwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +30°C, pressure altitude
fppa0050 2500 ft, 10 kts headwind, runway length available 1200 ft. The maximum weight for this
take-off is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield pressure
fppa0061 altitude 3000 ft, OAT +30°C, cruising level FL095, OAT 0°C. The distance covered during the
climb is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 8 500 ft, OAT ISA+2°C,
fppa0065
65% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 6 500 ft, OAT +10°C,
fppa0066
60% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 4 500 ft, temperature
fppa0069
ISA. The RPM at 70% power is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 7 500
fppa0071
ft, OAT+5°C, 65% power. The TAS is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
fppa0076
OAT 0°C, 55% power. The TAS is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-13: Range – EconomyCruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
fppa0085
temperature ISA, 55% power. The range with no reserve is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-15: Time, Fuel and Distance to Descend. Cruising pressure
fppa0092 altitude 9 500 ft, OAT -5°C, destination pressure altitude 2 500 ft, OAT +15°C. The time taken
for the descent is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Gross Weight, 25° Flaps, 30° bank. The Indicated
fppa0112
stall speed is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
fppa0113
speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
fppa0113
speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2250 lbs, 25° Flaps, 15° bank. The
fppa0116
Indicated stall speed is approximately:-

fppa0123 300 litres of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

fppa0130 SG 0.73, fuel weight 108 kg. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.8 air nautical miles/litre. If the fuel flow is 7.8
fppa0133
USG/hr the TAS is:-

An aircraft’s performance is 2.0 ground nautical miles/lb. If the fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr
fppa0134
(SG .71), and there is a headwind component of 8 kts the TAS is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr,
fppa0135
tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

fppa0138 The term “utility category” means that an aircraft:-

fppa0139 The maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft is the empty weight of the aircraft:-
An aircraft flies from A to B with 27 USG of fuel on board. The trip fuel is 14 USG and
fppa0140 alternate and reserve fuel is 9 USG. If the holding fuel flow is 6.5 USG/hr, the aircraft could
hold overhead B, without using the reserve fuel, for:-

fppa0146 The maximum ramp weight of an aircraft:-

fppa0148 A stopway:-

fppa0149 A clearway:-

Runway length 1550 metres, displaced threshold 30 metres. The take-off distance available
fppa0150
(TODA) is:-

With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft,
fppa0153 temperature +20°C, 5 kts headwind, take-off distance available 1650 ft. The maximum
weight at which take-off can be made is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the combined weight of the pilot and front
fppa0156
passenger is 145 Kg, the moment/1000 is:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the total fuel loaded in the aircraft is 35 USG,
fppa0160
the moment/1000 is:-

An aircraft in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts, consuming


fppa0171
12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden decrease in the headwind


fppa0177
component. The aircraft:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden increase in the tailwind


fppa0182
component. The aircraft:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has just
fppa0185
landed, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the approach
fppa0187
to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. Airfield elevation 650 ft, QNH
fppa0189
1018, OAT +25°C, weight 2500 lbs, 5 kts tailwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-17: Landing Performance. Airfield pressure altitude 5000 ft, OAT
fppa0202 +32°C, weight 2500 lbs, 13 kts headwind. The landing distance over a 50ft barrier is
approximately:-

Runway 09 threshold 2250 ft, Runway 27 threshold 2200 ft, length 4300 ft. The percentage
fppa0214
slope of runway 27 is:-

fppa0215 The runway length available for take-off:-

Aircraft empty weight 1500 lbs, crew, passengers and baggage 900 lbs, trip and reserve fuel
fppa0218
180 lbs, taxi fuel 5 lbs, maximum take-off weight 2580 lbs. The maximum ramp weight is:-

With reference to Figure 2-3: CG Range and Weight of the Aeroplane Manual. Empty weight
fppa0220 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and instructor 350 lbs located at 77.8 inches, fuel 180 lbs
located at 93 inches. The aeroplane:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and front passenger 350 lbs located
fppa0221 at 77.8 inches, fuel 210 lbs located at 93 inches, aft passenger 100 lbs located at 116.6
inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-
A loaded aircraft's CG is 91.0", weight 2400 lbs. A passenger weighing 160 lbs located in a
fppa0224 front seat (arm 77.8") changes place with a passenger weighing 100 lbs located in a rear
seat (arm 116.6"), the pilot loads an additional 50 lbs of fuel (arm 93.0”). The new CG is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 500 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0240
temperature +10°C, the required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0241
temperature +15°C, the take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-24: Landing Distance. Weight 2400 lbs, airfield elevation 2650 ft,
fppa0256
QNH 1018 hPa, temperature +24°C, the landing distance to clear 50 ft is:-

Aeroplane empty weight 1380 lbs, CG 84.5 inches, pilot and front passenger 310 lbs located
fppa0266 at 77.8 inches, fuel 275 lbs located at 94 inches, aft passenger 80 lbs located at 116.5 inches,
no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-

fppa0284 Runway length 1020 metres, stopway 30 metres. The landing distance available is:-

Runway length 1150 metres, stopway 30 metres, displaced threshold 25 metres. The
fppa0286
landing distance available is:-

fppa0287 The presence of a permanently displaced threshold:-


fppa0288 The presence of a stopway:-

Runway 31 threshold 725 ft, Runway 13 threshold 800 ft, length 3400 ft. The percentage
fppa0292
slope of runway 13 is:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: Flaps Up Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 4090 ft, QNH
fppa0305 1016 hPa, OAT -2°C, weight 2360 lbs, zero wind. The take-off distance required over a 50 ft
barrier is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 1410 ft,
fppa0309 QNH 1010 hPa, temperature +24°C, weight 2340 lbs, 7 kts headwind. The take-off distance
required over a 50 ft barrier is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield elevation
fppa0314
2410 ft, QNH 1010 hPa, temperature ISA, cruise pressure altitude 8500 ft,

With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 2 500
fppa0326
ft, temperature ISA +4°C, groundspeed 111 kts, headwind 9 kts. The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
fppa0330
temperature is standard, TAS 110 kts. The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-12: Range – Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
fppa0338
temperature ISA +5°C, the range with no reserve is 620 nm. The % power is:-

An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 225 nm, GS 100 kts, fuel flow 8.5 USG/hr. Taxi, take-off
fppa0377
and climb fuel is 3.3 USG. If the total fuel on board is 35 USG, the reserve fuel is:-

fppa0381 Aquaplaning is more likely to occur on a wet runway at:-

fppa0382 A factor which may increase the possibility of aquaplaning is:-

fppa0383 The basic empty weight of an aircraft is:-

The empty weight of an aircraft including unusable fuel, full oil and fixed equipment is
fppa0397
referred to as:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, 2400
fppa0403
RPM. The fuel flow is:-
With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, 2500
fppa0405
RPM. The % BHP is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
fppa0407
2400, the range is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 1000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0411
temperature +10°C, 5 kt headwind. The take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4500 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0414 temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, zero wind. The take-off distance required to clear 50
ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0415 temperature +30°C, dry, grass runway, 5 kts headwind. The take-off distance required to
clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0416 temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, 2 kts tailwind. The take-off distance required to clear
50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0420
temperature +15°C, dry, grass runway, 10 kts headwind. The required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
2400, the range is:-
Right

89.0"

87.7"

moved forward

1500 ft

increasing the density altitude

2490 RPM

2380 RPM

117 kts
103 kts

25 minutes

54 KIAS

48 KIAS

48 KIAS

48.5 KIAS

476 lbs

148 litres

109 kts

120 kts

plus crew, passengers, baggage and


any cargo
37 minutes

is the maximum take-off weight of


the aircraft plus taxi fuel

includes the stopway

1550 metres

24.8

19.5

7.5 USG/hr

attempt to land after the point at


which the heavy aircraft landed
1290 ft

1.16% up

2585 lbs

may be operated in the utility


category

85.87 inches

885 ft

2265 ft

86.01 inches

1020 metres

reduces the landing distance


available
will not affect the landing distance
available

2.2% down

1700 ft

0.75

0.65

0.65

high groundspeeds

under-inflated tyres

the empty weight of an aircraft


including unusable fuel, full oil and
fixed equipment

the basic empty weight

7.5 gph
2428 ft

2650 ft

2306 ft

1223 ft
Database Question

LAW0002 “Day” is the period between:-

LAW0003 The period of validity of a Class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40 is:-

LAW0004 A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft:-

LAW0008 No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic shall be
LAW0011
reported as soon as possible to the:-

For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000 ft above
LAW0017
the ground by day, the required weather minima is:-

Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is required for all
LAW0022
flights operating above:-

An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall, unless otherwise
LAW0024
instructed by ATC:-

The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without conforming
LAW0028
to the traffic pattern is:-

The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area at an
LAW0029
aerodrome indicates that:-

LAW0031 "Night" is the period between:-

LAW0033 No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

A private pilot, who is not the holder of an instrument rating, may not act as a flight crew
LAW0034
member if, prior to each flight, their flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed:-
The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an
LAW0035
Aerodrome Traffic Zone is:-

The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under VFR
LAW0037
includes:-

Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below 1500 ft above


LAW0040
the surface following a line feature:-

LAW0043 To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes shall mean:-

LAW0045 The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates that:-

An aircraft is to maintain a track of 344° (T), drift 6° right, Variation 20° W, high ground 4300
LAW0046
ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is:-

Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall circle over, or
LAW0047
do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than:-

LAW0049 The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least:-

If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of an
LAW0051
intercepted aircraft, this means:-

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control


LAW0052
clearance. The amendment:-

LAW0055 For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light:-

LAW0056 A pilot-in-command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR flight operations:-

Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the
LAW0057
surface and at no time above more than:-

When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of
LAW0058
landing the:-
A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by night, unless
LAW0061
such pilot has carried out at least:-

LAW0065 A night rating is valid for:-

LAW0069 A applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less than:-

"Date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or reissuing of a
LAW0076
licence, certificate or rating means:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
LAW0079
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
LAW0080
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome
LAW0082
indicates:-

LAW0083 An aircraft which is taxying across the apron:-

The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate medical
LAW0085
requirements and standards of the certificate:-

When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is overtaking a


LAW0087
slower aircraft at the same height and heading:-

Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or advisory
LAW0088
airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least:-

LAW0089 A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept:-

LAW0090 A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC approval, within a:-

LAW0091 An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or operator for a period of:-
LAW0092 In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-

LAW0096 Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a minimum of:-

LAW0099 The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within:-

An incident involving an aircraft within the Republic shall be reported as soon as possible to
LAW0104
the:-

The pilot-in-command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the Republic, shall
LAW0105
report such accident as soon as possible to the:-

If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
LAW0106 South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
LAW0106 South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -

The pilot-in-command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is


LAW0107
available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft:-

LAW0109 An air traffic service flight plan shall be filed for:-

In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be carried is
LAW0110
equal to at least:-

An aerodrome that is not equipped with night flying facilities may not be used by an aircraft
LAW0112
to take-off and land by night:-

LAW0115 In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-

LAW0118 A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:-

For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations the relevant
LAW0120
entries in a pilot's logbook must be made within:-
In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within one class
LAW0122
rating:

Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to be used by
LAW0124
an intercepted aircraft and the intercepting aircraft is:-

An aircraft, operating VFR, is maintaining a track of 359° (M). Another aircraft, also VFR, is
LAW0126
maintaining a track of 180° (M). The two aircraft:-

Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum height at which
LAW0128
an aircraft may be flown is:-

LAW0133 Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be found:-

LAW0134 "Cloud ceiling" means:-

LAW0136 An applicant for a night rating must have completed:-

An applicant for a private pilot licence (aeroplane) who is also the holder of a glider pilot
LAW0137
licence may:

LAW0139 To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome a series of white flashes means:-

LAW0144 Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:

LAW0148 An aircraft which has been involved in an accident may be moved:-

LAW0150 The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes:-

The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of the
LAW0200
summary of his or her logbook at least:-

LAW0202 A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change of postal address within:-
Common Answer Right

15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes


after sun after sunset

twenty four months twenty four months

on which a co-pilot is not a requirement on which a co-pilot is not a requirement

within 72 hours following blood donation within 72 hours following blood donation

appropriate aviation authority of the appropriate aviation authority of the


country in which the accident occurred country in which the accident occurred
and the Commissioner and the Commissioner

5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft 5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft
ho horizontally and 500 ft vertically

1 500 ft AGL 1 500 ft AGL

if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the
rig right of the railway line

2000 ft. 2000 ft.

landings are prohibited landings are prohibited

15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes


before sunr before sunrise

within 72 hours of blood donation within 72 hours of blood donation

1000 hours during the preceding 12


100 hours during the preceding 30 days.
months
5 km 5 km

an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch
showing the time in hours minutes and showing the time in hours minutes and
seconds seconds

shall fly to the right of the line feature shall fly to the right of the line feature

taxi clear of landing area in use taxi clear of landing area in use

aircraft are required to land take-off and aircraft are required to land take-off and
taxi taxi on runways and taxiways only

FL075. FL075.

3000 ft above the surface 3000 ft above the surface

every 5 years every 5 years

“follow me to a landing terrain” “follow me to a landing terrain”

may not be applied by the pilot without may not be applied by the pilot without
ATC appro ATC approval

is required is not required

within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least
60 600 ft and visibility at least 1 500 m

3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the
aircr aircraft

the aircraft at the lower level has right of the aircraft at the lower level has right of
way way
three take-offs and landings by night
three take-offs and landings by night
within the 90 days immediately preceding
within the
the flight

as long as the pilot licence of the holder of


12 months
the rating is valid
10 hours of instrument flight time at least
10 hours of instrument flight time at least 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night and a
5 tak dual night cross country of not less than
150 nm
the date on which the application is
the date on which the application is
received in the prescribed form by the
received in
Commissioner

400 hours during the preceding 90 days 400 hours during the preceding 90 days

1000 hours during the preceding 12 1000 hours during the preceding 12
months. months.

shall give right of way to a vehicle which is shall give right of way to a vehicle which is
tow towing an aircraft

must furnish proof to the designated


may not exercise the privileges of the medical body or institution that he or she
licence un has recovered from the decrease in
medical fitness.

shall pass the aircraft on the right shall pass the aircraft on the right

30 minutes before departure 30 minutes before departure

in the aircraft flight folio. in the aircraft flight folio.

control zone (CTR) control zone (CTR)

5 years calculated from the date of the last 5 years calculated from the date of the last
entr entry therein.
a flight from a manned aerodrome to an
a flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone where no other
aerodrome controlled or advisory airspace will be
entered during the flight

3 hours as pilot-in command in the 3 hours as pilot-in command in the


preceding 6 mon preceding 6 months

6 months of passing the theoretical 6 months of passing the theoretical


knowledge exam knowledge examinations

Commissioner or an air traffic service unit Commissioner or an air traffic service unit

Commissioner Commissioner

two consecutive periods each of three two consecutive periods each of three
months months

two consecutive periods each of three


a single period of six months
months

in excess of 120 minutes. in excess of 120 minutes.

a flight between two aerodrome traffic


a flight from an unmanned aerodrome to
zones even though no controlled or
an aerodro
advisory airspace will be entered en route

5% or three whichever is the greater 10% or three whichever is the greater.

unless the pilot-in-command is familiar


except in an emergency
with the

a flight crossing an international boundary


a flight crossing an FIR boundary
even though no landings will be made

permission from the appropriate authority permission from the appropriate authority
is obta is obtained

7 days 7 days
the pilot must undergo differences or the pilot must undergo differences or
familiarisat familiarisation training

1215 MHz 121.5 MHz

could be at the same flight level. could be at the same flight level.

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within


500 ft above the ground or water
2000 ft

in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and
NOTAMS. NOTAMS.

the height above the surface of the base of


the height above the surface of the base of
the lowest cloud below 20000 feet
the l
covering more than half the sky

10 hours of instrument instruction of


10 hours of instrument instruction of
which not more than 5 hours may have
which not mo
been acquired in an approved FSTD.

be credited with a maximum of 10 glider


be credited with a maximum of 10 glider
hours towards the issue of the private pilot
hours towa
licence.

land at this aerodrome and proceed to the land at this aerodrome and proceed to the
apron apron

the data is printed on paper at least every the data is printed on paper at least every
90 day 90 days

only if authority to move it has been only if authority to move it has been
granted by granted by the investigator in charge.

an electrical torch for each crew member an electrical torch for each crew member

every 12 months every 12 months

14 days 14 days
Database Question

hpof0005 The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as the angle:-

hpof0015 As the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:-

With reference to the lift formula. If the speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack
hpof0022
remains constant, the lift will:-

hpof0026 A design feature which is used to reduce induced drag is:-

hpof0029 Washout is incorporated in some blade designs in order to:-

hpof0044 The effect of blow-back (flap-back) is to:-

hpof0045 The coning angle is determined:-

hpof0049 In a turn, rotor thrust need to overcome:

hpof0053 Rotor drag (rotor torque) is that force which acts:-

When a helicopter, maintaining a constant height above ground whilst hovering, is


hpof0057
subjected to translational lift:-

hpof0061 The correct method of recovering from retreating blade stall is to:-

Translating tendency in a helicopter with anti-clockwise rotating rotor blades is


hpof0064
corrected by:-

When power is applied, a helicopter with an anti-clockwise rotating main rotor will
hpof0065
tend to:-
hpof0070 Lowering the collective lever will:-

hpof0086 Lead-lagging (dragging) is:-

hpof0090 Lateral stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0092 During autorotation:-

hpof0097 If high rotor RPM is experienced during autorotation from high altitude:-

hpof0098 Directional stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0101 The effect of the driven, or propeller region during autorotation is to:-

hpof0110 The effect on a helicopter's performance of an increase in humidity is:-

With reference to the figure below, when the cyclic control is operated so as to create
hpof0125
an increase in the pitch angle of the rotor blade in position B, the rotor disc will:-

As the angle of bank during a level turn is increased, additional engine power must be
hpof0129
applied in order to:-
hpof0134 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

If you need to descend quickly (another aircraft coming toward you), what's the best
hpof0162
way to do so?

hpof0164 In comparison to a straight climb, during a climbing turn:-

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:-


Common Answer Right

between the chord line and the between the chord line and the
relative airflow relative airflow

move forward move forward

be four times greater be four times greater

washout. washout.

reduce induced drag reduce induced drag

reduce the helicopter's forward reduce the helicopter's forward


speed speed

by the combined effect of the by the combined effect of the rotor


centripetal force and the rotor thrust thrust and centrifugal force.

vertical component of lift and


centripetal/centrifugal force/gross
weight

in the plane of rotation and opposite


perpendicular to the relative airflow
to the direction of blade travel.

the collective lever must be lowered the collective lever must be lowered
to maintain height to maintain height

lower the collective lower the collective

applying the left anti-torque pedal. moving the cyclic to the left

yaw to the right which must be yaw to the right which must be
corrected with the left pedal corrected with the left pedal
simultaneously decrease the blade simultaneously decrease the blade
angle all the rotor blades by the angle all the rotor blades by the
same amount same amount

the forward or aft movement of a the forward or aft movement of a


blade in the plane of rotation blade in the plane of rotation

rolling plane rolling plane

collective is used to control rotor collective is used to control rotor


RPM RPM

the collective pitch lever should be the collective pitch lever should be
raised to reduce it raised to reduce it

yawing plane. yawing plane.

produce rotor drag which opposes


provide a good rotational force.
the rotor RPM

to decrease the lift to decrease the lift

tilt aft tilt left

compensate for the increased


counter the increased centrifugal
induced drag because of greater
force
blade angles
TAS corrected for instrument and IAS corrected for instrument and
position errors. position errors

Cyclic forward, Collective down,


Reduce engine power

the rate of climb will remain the


the rate of climb will reduce
same.

lift is greater than weight lift is less than weight


Database Question

A loaded helicopter's CG is 96.4", weight 2100 lbs, MAUW 2150 lbs. One passenger
fpph0004 weighing 180 lbs seated in the rear (arm 86.6") disembarks. The pilot decides to add an
additional 10 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 94.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 97.3", weight 2150 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off
fpph0005
165 lbs of fuel (arm 94.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 93.0", weight 1950 lbs. A late passenger, weighing 175 lbs is
fpph0010 seated in a rear seat (arm 86.6"), 30 lbs of baggage is loaded into the forward baggage
compartment (arm 70.5"), MAUW 2180 lbs. The new CG is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 40 kg/sq m. The maximum


fpph0012
weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 0.6 m x 0.5 m is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 15 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0014
weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 2 ft x 1.5 ft is:-

A decrease in a helicopter's take-off and climb performance can be expected when there
fpph0018
is:-

fpph0021 Airfield elevation 1800 ft, QNH 1010. The pressure altitude is:-

fpph0023 The symbol Vy is used to indicate the:-

fpph0027 If the temperature at pressure altitude 9500 ft is ISA +7°C the outside air temperature is:-
With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0034 Manual. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) 100 kts, the Indicated Airspeed (IAS) is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0040
Manual. Indicated Airspeed (IAS) 97 kts, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Density Altitude Chart of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0049 Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature ISA +20° C, the density altitude is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0054 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3500 ft, temperature +25° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0055 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature +25° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0059 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, gross weight 2270 lbs. The maximum
allowable temperature is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0062 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2000 ft, temperature +20° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0066 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, gross weight 1900 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0067 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, gross weight 2050 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature for hovering is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0068 Performance Manual. Gross weight 1950 lbs, the maximum pressure altitude for lift off
on a standard day is:-
With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0069 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 1500 ft, temperature ISA +19° C, the gross weight
is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0070 Performance Manual. Helipad elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023, gross weight 2150 lbs, the
maximum allowable temperature for lift off is:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0071
Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature +30° C, the Vne is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0075 Manual. Pressure altitude 5500 ft, the maximum temperature for a Vne of 105 KIAS is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0080
Manual. Temperature 0° C, Vne 108 KIAS, the pressure altitude is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-7: Maximum Normal Operating Speed (VNO) of the Helicopter
fpph0089 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 6000 ft, temperature ISA -3° C, the Vno is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter


fpph0092 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +35° C, pressure altitude 2000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter


fpph0095 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 4000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter


fpph0096 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 2000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum take-off power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter


fpph0099 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 1000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-
With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance
Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 6500 ft
fpph0103
to a pressure altitude of 1500 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance


Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 8000 ft
fpph0104
to a pressure altitude of 4000 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0111 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 30° and the wind
speed is 20 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0113 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 60° and the wind
speed is 25 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0115 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 20° and the wind
speed is 15 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-

After loading passengers and baggage the pilot has 175 lbs available for fuel. If the SG is
fpph0121
0.71 the volume of fuel in USG which can be loaded is:-

fpph0122 SG 0.73, fuel weight 105 kg. The volume of fuel in US Gallons is:-

fpph0126 SG 0.71, fuel weight 240 lbs. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

fpph0127 34 USG of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

A helicopter achieves a performance of 12 ground nautical miles/USG. If the fuel flow is


fpph0131
48 lbs per hour (SW 6lbs/USG) the groundspeed is:-
A helicopter achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5
fpph0135
USG/hr, tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

A helicopter has a total moment of 182465 (lbs/inches) with a centre of gravity of 94.5
fpph0137
inches. The weight of the aircraft is:-

fpph0145 A helicopter has consumed 18.5 USG at 7.3 USG/hr, GS 100. The distance flown is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 20 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0161
weight which can be loaded in a box measuring 2 ft x 2 ft and weighing 12 lbs is:-

A helicopter in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts,


fpph0171
consuming 12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

During the climb out after lift-off a helicopter encounters a sudden decrease in the
fpph0179
headwind component. The helicopter:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has
fpph0186
just taken off, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the
fpph0187
approach to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

fpph0191 The symbol Vne is used to define the:-

fpph0193 The total weight of a loaded helicopter may be determined by:-


fpph0169 A helicopter burns 18 USG of fuel in 2 hours 18 minutes. The fuel flow is:-

fpph0190 The symbol Vno is used to define the:-


Common Answer Right

98.32" 97.22"

97.57" 97.57"

92.55" 92.17"

12.0 kg 12.0 kg

35 lbs 30 lbs

a high temperature combined with a a high temperature combined with a


high density al high density altitude

1890 ft 1890 ft

best rate of climb speed best rate of climb speed

+3°C +3°C
104 kts 104 kts

97 kts 94 kts

4800 ft 4500 ft

2180 lbs 2180 lbs

2300 lbs 2260 lbs

+20 °C +20 °C

2100 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C +15° C

+20° C +15° C

5000 ft 5000 ft
2150 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C, +25° C,

106 KIAS 106 KIAS

+30° C +30° C

7500 ft 7500 ft

106 KIAS 106 KIAS

23.7” 23.7”

22.9” 22.9”

23.4” 24.5”

23.6” 23.6”
3.5 nm 3.5 nm

2.75 nm 2.75 nm

10 kts 10 kts

22 kts 22 kts

5 kts 5 kts

29.5 USG 29.5 USG

33 USG 38 USG

153 litres 153 litres

204 lbs 204 lbs

100 kts 96 kts


106 kts 120 kts

1931 lbs 1931 lbs

253 nm 253 nm

78 lbs 68 lbs

7.5 USG/hr 7.5 USG/hr

will start to overshoot will start to undershoot

attempt to land before the point attempt to land before the point
where the heavy a where the heavy aircraft lifted off

remain above the heavier aircraft’s


remain below the heavier aircraft’s
flight path and land after the point
flight path
at which the heavy aircraft landed

never exceed speed never exceed speed

dividing the total moment by the dividing the total moment by the
centre of gravity centre of gravity
7.8 USG/hr 7.8 USG/hr

maximum structural cruising speed maximum structural cruising speed


at which a helicopter may be flown at which a helicopter may be flown
Database Question

What the 'distress' signal?

Which airspace has the following separation rules? IFR flights are separated from IFR and
VFR VFR is separated from IFR VFR receives traffic information about other VFR

In class C airspace. . .

How long is a flight plan that has not being activated, valid for?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

Choose the correct order

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

What direction is the wind related to, when it's direction is given from the tower?

What is the callsign for the "Area Control Centre" unit/service?

How soon must a flight plan be filed, when not in flight?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the right you you, it
means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

How much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?


When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

If you lose radio communications, how many times must you transmit 'blind' transmissions?

What quality would a strength 5 transmission be?

What does QNH refer to?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the left you you, it
means. . .

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the transponder code for an emergency?

What squawk code is used to indicate radio failure

What is the 'urgency' signal?

What quality would a strength 3 transmission be?

When must you notify ATC when your ETA's change?

SAR/Normal

What will the altimeter show when QNE is set?


What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

The semi-circular rule shall apply when flying at...

What does QFE refer to?

When must the IDENT button be used?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with on a flight
plan?

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Choose the correct order

The VHF Navigation band is. . .

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Which one of the following is correct?

What type of airspace my only be entered with permission?

If you required assistance, what letter would you lay your signal strips to look like.

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Control" unit/service

For which airports may SAR/Normal be filed?


The equipment on board you aircraft is: VHF RT/F, ADF, VOR ILS and mode C transponder.
What would you put on the flight plan under equipment?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

What would you squawk if your radio fails?

What does QFE refer to?

What is the meaning of the word AFFIRM

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with on a flight
plan?

What is a 'distress' condition?

Where is flight level zero?

What does QNE refer to?

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Flight Information Service" unit/service?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms extended, bent at the elbows and is moving them up and down
from chest height to head height it means. . .
How soon must a flight plan be filed, when in flight?

What is the direction is a standard circuit?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Confirm"?

What type of airspace may never be entered?

What is the transponder code for unlawful interference?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A white dumb-bell displayed in a signal area at an airfield means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

ow much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?

Which one of the following is correct?

If a marshaller has his arms extended sideways and is slowly moving them up to his head
until they cross, it means. . .

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

Which airspace only allows IFR flights?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?


Alerting services is provided by ATSUs to all aircraft requiring

For a flight requiring an ATS Flight plan, at least how long prior to departure must the flight
plan be filled

referring to the picture above, FAR082 has an upper limit of

Select the correct statement

Select the correct order of priority (most to least) for the categories of the messages below:
1. Flight regularity messages
2. metereological messages
3. flight safty messages
4. direction finding messages
5. urgency messages
6. distress messages

in accordance with the geodetic reference system, to convert Local South African time to
UTC, one must

The route designator R987D found on an aeronautical chart indicates

Standard equipment "S" as entered in item 10 of an ATS flight plan represents which of the
following

in VMC, flights intended to land at a point beyond 25nm from any aerodrome with a
published transition altitude must observe a height of

An aircraft with QNH Set on its altimeter, will have its vertical position indicated as

Which of the following would be classifies as a Clas A airspace

Select the correct defenition which refers to the stadard setting of 1013.2 hpa

an aircraft with a standard altimeter setting set on subscale window, will have its vertical
position indicated as
Select the 3 official Search and Rescue phases

The defenition of "Classes of airspace" within the Republic can be found in

Select a factor affecting the range of VHF transmissions

Which of the following would be classified as Class C Airspace

A pilot on a VFR Cross Country flight to a controlled aerodrome, experiences radio failure
outside of a controlled airspace, unless otherwise published in the AIP, the pilot should

The term "Confirm" used in radiotelephony is best described as meaning that

If Search and Rescue was requested on a ATS Flight plan to an uncontrolled aerodrome,
when will the Search and rescue be cancelled

when is it mandatory to file an ATS Flight Plan

select the mandatory reporting points in a circuit at acontrolled airfield

when should a pilot change the altimiter setting from the local QNH to 1013.25hpa

when can SAR/NORMAL be indicated in item 18 of a flight plan

The term "VHF" refers to which of the following

in an attempt to correct a suspected radio failure, a pilot should check

Aerodrome Control shall be responsible for issuing information and instructions to aircraft
under its control in order to achieve

The semicircular rule is based on an aircraft flying a


Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:
Class C, controlled airspace established around an aerodrome for the protection of IFR
flights, which extends from ground level to a specific upper limit

referring to the picture above, FAD129, has an upper limit of

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

Which of the following best describes an airspace where ATC may make use of rader to
provide positive control to aircraft

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

According to the AIP, when shall a pilot report position

As stated in the AIP, the official methods to file an ATS flight plan are via

When the number of passengers for your flight is not yet known at the time of filing an ATS
flight plan, which designator should you place in Item 19

The aeronautical abbreviation "FIR" denotes

When can SAR/NIL be indicated in item 18 of the flight plan

Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:


A controlled airspace which extends from a specific lower limit to a specific upper limit
and is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the viccinity of one or more
major aerodromes
Right

MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

Class C

IFR flights are separated from IFR and VFR

60 minutes after estimated time of departure

Let me know that you have received and understood this


message.

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

CTA

Magnetic

Control

30 minutes before departure

Follow me to a landing terrain

QNH

Park in this bay

5km
All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

Twice

Perfectly readable

Height above mean sea level.

Correction

The take off and landing direction, which is along the bar
towards the crossbar.

Follow me away from a prohibited area

Proceed with your message

7700

7600

PAN-PAN-PAN

Readable with difficulty

A change of 3 min

Can only be filed for flights where the destination is controlled

Pressure Altitude
Correction

1 500ft AGL and above

Height above airfield elevation.

When instructed to do so by ATC.

The take off and landing direction, which is along the bar
towards the crossbar.

Flight levels

Altitude

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

108 - 117.975 MHz

Altitude

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC

Restricted

Tower

Controlled Airports
S/C

Let me know that you have received and understood this


message.

All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

7600

Height above airfield elevation.

Yes

Flight levels

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent


danger and/or requiring immediate assistance.

1013.2hPa pressure level

Height above the 1013.2 pressure level.

Proceed with your message

Radio

Park in this bay

QNH

Move Straight Ahead


10 minutes before entering controlled or advisory airspace.

Left

Have I correctly received the following ...? or Did you correctly


receive the message?

Prohibited

7500

Correction

Aircraft may only use the runways and taxiways

QNH

5km

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC


Search and Rescua (SAR)

30 minutes

FL105

a VFR pilot flying on a magnetic of 090 may elect to fly at FL075


to conform to the semi-circular rule

6,5,4,3,2,1

subtract 2 hours from local time to obtain UTC

an advisory route

VHF Radio, ILS, ADF, and VOR

3000ft as the transition level

Altitude

All controlled airspace FL200 and above

the altimetre subscale setting in hectopascals to obtain flight


levels

Flight Level
Uncertainty, Alert and Distress phase

The AIP's and SARCARS

Aircraft Altitude

All controlled airspace below FL200

remain cleared of controlled airspace and land at an unmanned


aerodrome

I wish to verify the last transmission or instruction from the


transmitting party

When the pilot notifies ATC

for a flight for which alerting action is required

downwind and final approach

on the climb passing through the transition altitude for that


area

only when the destination is a controlled

Very High Frequency

The colume control, selected frequency, and aircraft electrical


system

A safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic

magnetic track
CTR

7500ft AMSL

TAS changes by 5% or more

TMA

ETA changes by 3 mins or more

When flying in controlled advisory airspace or on a flight for


which alerting action is being provided

Telephone, facsmile or internet

TBN

Flight Information Region

only when the destination is an uncontrolled

TMA

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