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3 Ghatnachakra Purvalokan General GEOGRAPHY English 2022
3 Ghatnachakra Purvalokan General GEOGRAPHY English 2022
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I. Indian Geography
General Introduction India is the seventh largest country after Russia, Canada,
USA, China, Brazil and Australia respectively by area and
i. Area the second largest by population. It occupies about 2.4
*India is the seventh largest country in terms of area after percent of the total area of the lithosphere. The mainland of
Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil and Australia India extends between 8º4’ North to 37º6’ North latitudes,
respectively. India has 28 states and 8 Union territories. Its while the tropical zone is stretched between 23º 30' north
total area is about 3287263 sq. km. which is approximately
and south latitudes. Therefore statement 1 & 3 is incorrect.
2.4% of the total land surface of the world.
The latitudinal extension of the whole of India (including
Top 10 largest countries in the world (In area) Andaman & Nicobar Island) lies between 6º45' to 37º 6'
North latitudes. 82º 30' East longitude is used to determine
Russia Indian Standard Time.
Kazakhastan
Canada
USA
2. Where does India rank in the area among the countries
Algeria China
India of the world?
Brazi
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth
Australia (c) Seventh (d) Eighth
Argentina Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
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*As per census 2011, the world’s 17.5% population lives
Ans. (c)
See the explanation of above question.
in India. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India
is roughly about 30 degrees whereas the actual distance 3. India is in size -
measured from north to south extremity is 3214 km and (a) Fifth largest country of the world
that from east to west is 2933 km. *As per the census 2001,
(b) Sixth largest country of the world
there were 6,38,588 villages in India but after 2011 census
(c) Seventh largest country of the world
the number raised to 6,40,932. India’s territorial limit further
(d) None of the above
extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles (about 21.9
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
km) from the coast.
Ans. (c)
1. Which of the following statements are true about India?
Use the code given below to select the correct answer: See the explanation of above question.
1. India is the fifth largest country of the world 4. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
2. It occupies about 2.4 percent of the total area of (a) Total area of India - 3.28 million sq. km.
the lithosphere. (b) Latitudinal extent - 8o4' N - 37o6' N
3. Whole of India lies in the tropic zone. (c) Longitudinal extent - 68o7' E - 97o25' E
4. 82o30' east longitude is used to determine Indian
(d) Number of states in India - 26
Standard Time
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Code :
Ans. (d)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 The total area of India is 3.28 million sq. km. Its latitudinal
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 extent is 8o4' N - 37o6' N and longitudinal extent is 68o7' E -
Ans. (d) 97o25' E. There are 28 states and 8 union territories in India.
Madhya Pradesh
(c) 7 (d) 9
Gujarat Agartalla
tisg
Tropic of
hat
West Bengal
Cancer Northern
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
Ch
Jharkhand latitude
Ans. (b)
See the explanation of above question.
5. The state of India through which Tropic of Cancer
passes is –
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh
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Ans. (b)
The place whose latitudinal position is at a minimum distance
(c) Mizoram (d) Tripura
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2013
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
from the latitude of Tropic of Cancer will be the nearest place
Ans. (b)
to the Tropic of Cancer. The Tropic of Cancer is at 23° 30' N;
divides India into almost two equal parts. Latitudinal position The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states namely
Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
of the towns given in the options is :-
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Manipur lies north
Place Latitude Difference in Position
of the Tropic of Cancer.
(23o 30')
Agartala 23º 50' N –20' 11. Which, among the following places, will have maximum
Gandhinagar 23º19' N +11' day length in the month of June ?
Jabalpur 23º 11' N +19' (a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
Madhya 10
82
place is situated at = 90º + 2 = 172º 30' East.
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Pradesh
rh
ttisga
Odisha
2. How many hours of time difference will be there
Chha
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Explanation according to given facts -
Statement (1) - Longitude of Jabalpur's location is not
Time and 120°E longitude is 120° – 82°30'= 37°30'. Since
the difference of 1 longitude is equal to 4 minutes. So
between those of Indore and Bhopal. the difference in time between them is 37°30' × 4= 150
Statement (2) - Latitude of Aurangabad's is between those minutes (means 2 hours, 30 minutes).Thus, if it is noon at
of Vadodara and Pune. IST meridian, then the local time at 120° East longitude is
Statement (3) - Bengaluru is situated more southward than 12+2:30=14:30.
Chennai.
7. The Indian Standard Time Meridian does not pass
4. Which of the following cities is closest to IST (Indian
through
Standard Time) meridian ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh
(a) Rewa (b) Sagar
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Ujjain (d) Hoshangabad
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
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11. How much is the difference between Indian Standard
Time (I.S.T.) and Greenwich Mean Time (G.M.T.)? (Western)
1 1 Guhar Moti
(a) + 4 hours (b) + 5 hours (Gujarat)
2 2
1
(c) – 5 hours (d) – 4 hours
2
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
45th B.P.S.C (Pre) 2001
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003 (Kanyakumari)
(Southern)
Ans. (b) (Tamil Nadu)
Indira point
(Southern most
on the Mainland) Great Nicobar
See the explanation of above question.
12. If the Sun rises at TIRAP in Arunachal Pradesh at *Westernmost Point - Guhar moti or Guhar mota (in the Kutch
5.00 am (IST) then what time (IST) will the Sun rise region of Gujarat). *Easternmost point - Kibithu (Arunachal
in Kandla in Gujarat? Pradesh).
(a) About 5.30 a.m. (b) About 6.00 a.m.
1. The southern most point of India is-
(c) About 7.00 a.m. (d) About 7.30 a.m.
(a) Kanyakumari (b) Rameshwaram
U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2010
(c) Indira Point (d) Point Calimere
Ans. (c)
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
There is a difference of about 2 hours between Kandla U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
(Gujarat) and Tirap (Arunachal Pradesh) due to the Ans. (c)
longitudinal position of both the cities. Thus, if the Sun rises The four extreme points of India are :
at Tirap (95° 32') in Arunachal Pradesh at 5:00 am (IST) then Southernmost Point - Indira Point (6o 4' N latitudes) is a
the Sun will rise at 7:00 am in Kandla (70° 11'). village in the Nicobar district of Andaman and Nicobar
4. Name the place in India where Bay of Bengal, Arabian vi. Bordering Countries
Sea and Indian Ocean meet.
*The neighbouring countries of India are Pakistan,
(a) Kanyakumari (b) Indira Point Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar,
(c) Nagercoil (d) Rameshwaram Bangladesh, Maldives and Sri Lanka. India has natural as
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 well as man-made boundaries. Indian land boundary touches
Ans. (a) China and Nepal in the north, Afghanistan in the north-west,
Pakistan in the west, Bangladesh and Myanmar in the east and
Kanyakumari, which is the southernmost point of the Indian
Bhutan in the north-east. The border of India with Pakistan
mainland, is the place where Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and
and Bangladesh is man-made.
Indian Ocean meet. Kanyakumari is a part of Tamil Nadu.
*Indian States & UTs sharing boundaries with neighbouring
5. Which one of the following pair of states of India Countries are-
indicates the easternmost and westernmost state? Pakistan - Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan
(a) Assam and Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan Afghanistan - Ladakh
(c) Assam and Gujarat China - Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2015 Bangladesh - Mizoram, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and
West Bengal.
Ans. (d)
Myanmar - Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and
The eastern most state is Arunachal Pradesh and the western Mizoram. Myanmar is also called as the land of Golden
most is Gujarat. Pagoda.
Lad
han
akh China
J&
K
Afg
H.P.
1. Assam shares border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
Pak
Punjab Uttarakhand
Sikkim
Nep ac
un h
ha
l
2. West Bengal shares border with Bhutan and Nepal.
al Ar ades
r
Ut P
Rajasthan
tar
Pr
ad
Bhutan
Assam Nagaland 3. Mizoram shares border with Bangladesh and
esh Bihar Meghalaya
Bangl Manipur Myanmar.
West adesh Tripura
Gujarat Bengal Mizoram Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Myanmar/Burma
Boundary with
Bangladesh (Longest
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
International boundary
of India with any I.A.S. (Pre) 2006
other nation.)
Ans. (a)
The political map of India clearly shows that Assam shares
border with Bhutan and Bangladesh. West Bengal shares
border with Bhutan and Nepal and Mizoram shares border
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Lanka with Bangladesh and Myanmar. Thus all the above three
statements are correct. Hence (a) is the correct answer.
Bhutan - West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and China
l
Assam. Bhutan is also called as the land of thunderbolt. ha
n ac h
u s
*Himalaya in the north, Bay of Bengal in the south-east, Nepa Ar rade
l Bhutan P
Indian ocean in the South and Arabian sea in the south-
west are the natural boundaries of India. *The boundary Assam and
gal
Na
ura
p
Tri
West
zor
Bengal
a draft created by a Britisher Sir Cyril Radcliffe and that is
why the boundary line between India and Pakistan is known
as Radcliffe line. *The McMahon line separates India from 2. Extension of the International boundaries of India
China. Afghanistan is separated from India by Durand Line. along with their neighbouring countries in ascending
*In Sea, Sri Lanka is the nearest neighbour of India. Sri order are
Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea
(a) China, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal
known as the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar. The Palk
(b) Nepal, Pakistan, China, Bangladesh
Strait was named after the then Governor of Madras Robert
(c) Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, China
Palk (1755-63).
(d) Pakistan, Nepal, China, Bangladesh
*Bangladesh forms the longest land frontier (4096.7 km)
with India. Afghanistan forms the shortest land frontier (106 M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
km) with India. Ans. (b)
3. Which one of the following states does not form the 7. In November 1998 Composite Dialogue Process between
border with Bangladesh – India and Pakistan included three contentious issues
(a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura listed below as 1, 2 and 3. Contentious Issues are –
(c) Manipur (d) Mizoram 1. Disengagement of troops
Uttrakhand U.D.A./LDA (Mains) 2007 2. Settlement of boundary dispute
3. Sharing river water.
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2002
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002 B
C
Ans. (c)
n
sta
ki
Pa
West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura are
the Indian states that share their borders with Bangladesh. India
10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: ii. Northern Mountainous Region
List-I List-II Himalaya is the highest mountain range in the World.
A. Deccan Traps 1. Late Cenozoic *Himalaya spreads to a length of 2500 km and forms an arc.
B. Western Ghats 2. Pre-Cambrian Its width is 400 km in Kashmir and 150 km in Arunachal
C. Aravalli 3. Cretaceous Eocene Pradesh. We see more variation in Himalayan heights in the
D. Narmada-Tapti alluvial 4. Cambrian western part than the eastern region.
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deposits
5. Pleistocene
*Himalayas can be divided into 4 parallel structural regions-
1. Trans Himalaya (Tibet’s Region)
Code : 2. Great Himalaya (Himadri)
A B C D 3. Middle Himalaya ( Lesser Himalaya)
(a) 3 5 1 4 4. Outer Sub-Himalaya (Shiwalik)
*Great Himalaya is the oldest range, formed in Oligocene
(b) 3 1 2 5
epoch (25-40 million years ago). Afterwards, middle
(c) 2 1 3 4
Himalaya was formed in mid Miocene epoch (14 Million
(d) 1 4 2 5 years ago) and Shivalik, the earliest one was formed in
I.A.S. (Pre) 1997 Pliocene epoch (5-1.7 Million years ago).
Ans. (b) *Mountain Range situated in the northern part of Himalayas
The correctly matched order is : is called Great or Higher Himalaya or Himadri. It is the most
continuous range which has the highest peaks with an average
The origin of the Deccan Traps - Cretaceous Eocene
height of more than 6000 meters.
Origin of Western Ghats - Late Cenozoic period
Origin of Aravalli Mountain - Pre-Cambrian
Pamirs
du
K ush
Kun
lun
mou
Northern Mountainous
Narmada-Tapi alluvial deposits -Pleistocene period
Hin ntain
Rakaposhi
Ka
Regions
rak
Nanga Mountain ora
La m
11. Rajasthan desert or Thar desert is the expanse of which dd
ha
kh
ran
ge
Za
Ra
sk
Pi
ar
ng
of the following?
r Pa e
ra
Ka
n
nja ila
ge
Sh l sh
iv M
(a) Pliocene
ali ou
kR nta
an in
ge
Evere nga
henju
nd
st Kunc
Na
(d) Oligocene
ills
Ans. (c)
10. Shiwalik series was formed in – The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) spreads across 9
(a) Eozoic (b) Paleozoic states (administrative regions) namely, Himachal Pradesh,
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cenozoic Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
42nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1997 Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura & 2 UTs - Jammu and
Ans. (d) Kashmir and Ladakh and hill regions of 2 states viz. Assam
Shiwalik or outer Himalaya has formed approximately 5-1.7 and West Bengal. On the other hand the expansion of Uttar
million years ago in Pliocene Era means in Cenozoic period. Pradesh lies only in the plain regions. So the Himalayan
Mountain Ranges are not a part of Uttar Pradesh .
11. The altitude of Shiwalik peaks fall in between –
(a) 850 – 1200 Mts (b) 750 – 1100 Mts 15. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
(c) 750 –1500 Mts (d) 750 – 1300 Mts following
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 1. Deep gorges
Ans. (*) 2. U-turn river courses
Shiwalik range, spread over about 2500 km is the southern 3. Parallel Mountain ranges
range of Himalaya. Its average altitude is 900 meter-1100 4. Steep gradients causing landsliding
meter. Although there is regional variation in the height of Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for
the Shivalik ranges. Himalayas being young fold mountains ?
12. The Kumaon Himalaya is situated between which of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
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the rivers?
(a) Indus and Satluj (b) Kali and Tista
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
I.A.S. (Pre) 2012
(c) Satluj and Kali (d) Tista and Brahmputra Ans. (d)
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016
All the above features are said to be an evidence for
Ans. (c)
Himalayas being young folded mountain . Deep gorges ,
The Kumaon Himalaya is situated between the Satluj and U- turn river courses, Parallel Mountain Ranges and steep
Kali rivers. The geographic Himalayas' part between the gradient causing land sliding are very common views on
Indus and Satluj rivers is called the 'Punjab Himalayas', the Himalayas.
Himalayas between the Kali and Teesta rivers as the 'Nepal
Himalaya' and the one between the Teesta and Dihang rivers 16. Examine the map of Jammu and Kashmir given below:
is known as 'Assam Himalayas'. The mountains ranges marked 1,2,3 and 4 respectively:
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situated on the boundary of the North Sikkim district in Sikkim,
India and the Taplejung District in Nepal. The two other peaks
Patkai Range is situated in lower Himalayan ranges. It
originated in the tertiary era. Remaining all ranges/hills are
are entirely situated in Taplejung District. Mt. Everest is the
situated in South and Central India . Thus the latest mountain
tallest mountain in the world above sea surface. The elevation
range is Patkai Range.
of Mount Everest is 8,848 meters (Now 8848.86 m). The peak
is situated in the Himalayas on the border of Nepal and China, 27. Which one of the following states does not lie along
Patkai hills?
which is also known as the Sagarmatha Zone. The Annapurna
(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura
region is an area in central Nepal where some of the most
(c) Manipur (d) Mizoram
popular treks are located. Dhaulagiri Peak is also located in U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015
Central Nepal, west of Annapurna peak. Ans. (b)
24. In comparison to eastern Himalaya the value of height The Patkai hills are situated on India's north-eastern border
of tree-line in western area is :- with Myanmar. The Indian states along Patkai hills are
(a) More (b) Less Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland.
(c) Same (d) Unrelated variable Tripura does not lie along Patkai hills. Mizo hills stretch
through Mizoram and Tripura.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
Ans. (b) 28. Identify the correct west to east sequence of the
following Hilly Castes?
The treeline is the edge of the habitat at which trees are
(a) Khasi-Garo-Naga-Jaintia
capable of growing. The value of tree-line in eastern
(b) Naga-Jaintia-Khasi-Garo
Himalaya and Middle Himalaya lies between 3600 to (c) Garo-Khasi-Jaintia-Naga
3800m,while in western or north western region, it declines (d) Jaintia-Naga-Garo-Khasi
to 3300-3600m. Thus, in comparison to eastern Himalaya U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
the value of height of tree-line in the western area is less. Ans. (c)
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Code :
A B C D
Ans. (d)
Aksai Chin is spread over about 3800 square kilometers in
Ladakh region. It is an Indian territory under the occupation
(a) 1 3 2 4
of China.
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 3 4 2 35. Main resources of Western Himalayan resource region,
(d) 2 1 3 4 are:
(a) Forests (b) Metallic minerals
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2017
(c) Carbonic minerals (d) Atomic minerals
Ans. (a)
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010
List-I List-II Ans. (a)
(Hills) (States) The major natural resources of Western Himalayas are forests.
Garo Meghalaya Forests contribute a major share in the land use of region, covering
Miri Arunachal Pradesh more than 65% of the total geographical area of the region.
Kollai Mallai Tamil Nadu 36. What is the height of Great Himalaya ?
Dalma Jharkhand (a) 8850 M. Above sea level
(b) 8815 M. Above sea level
31. Pir Panjal Range is located/found in-
(c) 8890 M. Above sea level
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) 8860 M. Above sea level
(c) Punjab (d) Uttarakhand Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
The average height of the Great Himalaya is 6000m while the
Pir Panjal Range is located in Middle Himalaya. It is spread height of its highest peak, Mount Everest is approximately
in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir from south 8850 m. Note : Nepal and China Jointly announced the new
east to north west. hight of Mount Everest as 8848.86 meters.
Atal tunnel is across Eastern Pir Panjal range. It connects iii. Mountain Ranges and Hills of
Manali and Lahaul-Spiti Valley. It is 9.02 km long and was South and Central India
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built by Border Roads Organisation (BRO). The tunnel
reduces the distance by 46 km between Manali and Leh and The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of the old
the travel time by about 4 to 5 hours. Strategically, it provides crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. Delhi ridge in
better connectivity to the armed forces in reaching Ladakh. the northwest (extension of Aravallis), the Rajmahal Hills in
the east, Gir Range in the west and Cardamom Hills in the
39. Atal Tunnel is across which one of the following
south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular Plateau.
Himalayan ranges?
Shillong and Karbi-Anglong Plateau seen in the north-
(a) Zanskar
east is a part of the Peninsular Plateau. *This Plateau was
(b) Western Pir Panjal
formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana
(c) Ladakh
land. Broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills are its
(d) Eastern Pir Panjal
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above special features. *It has two broad divisions, namely, the
66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020 Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau. *The part of
Ans. (d) Peninsular Plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river
covering a major area of the Malwa Plateau is known as the
See the explanation of above question. Central Highlands. The Vindhyan Range is bounded by the
40. Consider the following statements: Central Highlands in the South and Aravallis on the north-
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States west. The Aravalli range is a mountain range in Western India
only. running approximately 800 km in the north-east direction
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. across the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan and Haryana, ending
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two states only. in Delhi. It is formed in the Pre-Cambrian era (600-570
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? million years). Its highest peak is Guru-Shikhar (1722m)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only located in Mt. Abu. It is an example of residual mountains.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Residual mountains are remnants of old mountains which
I.A.S. (Pre) 2017 have been worn down by agents of denudation. The examples
Ans. (b) of Residual mountains are Vindhyachal, Aravalli, Satpura,
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Tamil Nadu. *Nilgiri Hills also known as Queen of Hills, is
the meeting point of Eastern and Western Ghats. Dodabetta
Eastern Ghats located in Andhra Pradesh.
Garo Khasi Jayantiya Naga Hills running approximately 800 km in north eastern direction
aw
Ar
ra
lag s
ra
ris s
ha
hc
Hills lai
ama
nd
the oldest?
Nall
Nilgiri Hills
Doddabetta
Javadi Hills
(a) Aravalli (b) Himalayas
n
(c) Satpura (d) Nilgiri
tai
M oun U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017
a lai
nam
An
Cardamom Hills
Ans. (a)
See the explanation of above question.
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Ans. (b)
See the explanation of above question.
10. Which of the following is the highest peak of South
India?
(a) Anaimudi (b) Doda Betta
6. The approximate age of the Aravalli Range is:
(c) Guru Shikhar (d) Mahendragiri
(a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
(c) 570 million years (d) 670 million years
Ans. (a)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2001
Ans. (c) Anaimudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghat in South
India with a height of 8842 feet. The name of Anaimudi
See the explanation of above question. literally translate to "elephant forehead" a reference to
7. Which of the following ranges is the most recent one? resemblance of the mountain to an elephant head.
(a) Aravallis (b) Vindhyachal Range 11. The highest peak of the Indian Peninsula is
(c) The Himalayas (d) The Eastern Ghats (a) Ootacamund (b) Anaimudi
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2018 (c) Dodabetta (d) Mahabaleshwar
Ans. (c) U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
The Himalayan Range is a range of young fold mountains and Ans. (b)
is one of the youngest mountain ranges of the world. Aravalli is Anaimudi is the highest peak (height 2695 metre) of
the oldest range of fold mountains in India. The Eastern Ghats peninsular India. It is located in Idukki district of Kerala.
are older than Western Ghats. The Vindhyachal Mountain It is part of Western Ghat Mountain Range. The height of
Range is a very old mountain range extending mainly in the Dodabetta is 2637 metre, Ootacamund- 2240 metre and
states of Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh. Mahabaleshwar is 1439 metre.
8. Which of the following is the example of ‘Residual 12. 'Kodaikanal' is situated in which hill?
Mountain’ ? (a) Anamalai (b) Bundi
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See the explanation of above question.
at 2,637 metres. Anaimudi is the highest mountain peak
of southern India located in the Anaimalai Hills at 2695
20. Which of the following hills are found where the metres.
Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet? 25. Indian Oceanists discovered a high mountain with a
(a) Anamalai Hills (b) Cardamom Hills height of 1505 meter at the bottom of Arabian sea about
(c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Shevaroy Hills
455 km west South West from Bombay, the mountain
I.A.S. (Pre) 2008
is called-
43 B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1999
rd
(a) Kailash II (b) Raman Sagar mountain
Ans. (c)
(c) Kanya Sagar Parvat (d) Bombay Parvat
See the explanation of above question. 40th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1995
Ans. (b)
21. Doda Betta Peak is situated in :
(a) The Anaimalai Hills (b) The Nilgiri Hills Indian Oceanists have discovered three marine mountain
(c) The Vindhya Range (d) The Satpura Range ranges in which one is located in Indian Ocean basin; Second
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2021 is Sagar Kanya in Eastern Arabian Sea and third one is a
Ans. (b) high mountain with height of 1505 meter at the bottom of
See the explanation of the above question. Arabian Sea about 455 km west south west from Mumbai.
This mountain is named after famous scientist C.V.Raman
22. Which of the following mountain peak is not situated
as Raman Sagar mountain.
in Eastern Ghats?
(a) Gali Konda (b) Salher 26. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) Sinkram Gutta (d) Madugula Konda (a) The Western Ghats are relatively high in their Northern
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2018 region.
Ans. (b) (b) The Anaimudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
40. The hills of Ramgiri are part of this mountain range Godwin
Nanga Parbat Austen Major Peaks of India
(a) Vindhyachal (b) Satpura
(c) Maikal (d) Sahyadri
Badrinath
(e) None of the above Nanda Devi
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2015 Kanchenjunga
Ans. (*)
Saramati
Nokrek
The hills of Ramgiri are located in Chittoor district of Andhra Guru Shikhar Paras nath
Pradesh. It is part of Eastern Ghat or Mahendra Parvat. Apart Blue peak
Dhoopgarh
from this Ramgiri Hills are also located in Maikal Range of Malaygiri
so (b) (c) and (e) can be possible answer. Chhattisgarh Public Kalsubai Mahendragiri
Mahabaleshwar
Service Commission held option (b) as correct in the revised
answer key. Sadle Peak
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is situated on this hill. Parasnath hills is one of the most
important pilgrimage centre for Jains named after Parasnath,
It is located in the Sirohi district of Rajasthan. Kamet and
Trishul mountain peaks are located in the Indian state of
the 23rd Tirthankara. Uttarakhand. *Gosainthan is located in Tibet near Nepal
borders. *Utakmand is situated in Nilgiri Range. *Kodaikanal
iv. Mountain Peaks of South India is located in Palani Hills of Dindigul district
*Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world. It is located of Tamil Nadu (not in Annamalai Hills).
in Nepal. Its height is 8848m. Nepal and China Jointly 1. Where is 'Mount Everest' located?
announced the new hight of Mount Everest as 8848.86 meters. (a) Pakistan (b) India
It is also known as ‘Sagarmatha’ in Nepal. Bachendri Pal (c) Tibet (d) Nepal
was the first Indian Women to reach the summit of Mount M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995
Ans. (d)
Everest in 1984. *Mount K2 is also known as Godwin
Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world located in
Austen, the highest peak of India and Second highest peak
Nepal. Its height is 8848m (29028feet). It is also known as
in the world. It is located in Karakoram range in Ladakh. Its “Sagarmatha” in Nepal.
height is 8611m. *Kanchenjunga (8598m) is the third highest
2. Which of the following is the highest mountain on
peak in the world and the second highest peak of India. It is Earth?
located in the Indian State of Sikkim and Nepal. Nanda Devi (a) Mount Everest (b) Kanchenjunga
(7816m) is the fourth highest peak of India. It is located in (c) Lhotse (d) Makalu
Uttarakhand. This region has been declared as Nanda Devi Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
Ans. (a)
National Park. In 1988, UNESCO recognised it as World
Heritage Site of natural importance. See the explanation of above question.
Guru Shikhar peak, the highest peak in Aravalli Mountain, Kodaikanal lies in Palani Hills of Dindigul district of Tamil
is not given in the options, therefore Kumbhalgarh (1244 m) Nadu not in Anamalai Hills. Palani Hills is connected to
Anamalai Hills in its south and extends north east into
is the highest peak among the given options.
the plains of Tamil Nadu. Similarly, Shimla is located in
17. Which one of the following gives correct sequence of Dhauladhar Range not in Pir Panjal Range. Thus, option (b)
Himalayan peaks in the direction east to west ? and (d) both are not correctly matched.
Zozila Pass is a high mountain pass in Ladakh located on the See the explanation of above question.
Indian National Highway 1 between Uri and Leh. 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below :
8. Nathu La Pass is situated in which state ?
List-I (Mountain Pass) List-II (State)
(a) Arunachal (b) Assam
A. Banihal 1. Himachal Pradesh
(c) Meghalaya (d) Sikkim B. Nathu La 2. Jammu and Kashmir
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 C. Niti 3. Sikkim
Ans. (d) D. Shipki 4. Uttaranchal
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Code :
A B C D
Ans. (c)
Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the Indo-
(a) 1 2 3 4 China border. It is located in Kinnaur district of Himachal
(b) 1 3 4 2
Pradesh not in Jammu and Kashmir. Rest of the passes are
(c) 4 3 2 1
correctly matched with their States.
(d) 3 1 4 2
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 16. What are Kingri-Wingri, Neeti-Mana?
Ans. (b) (a) Passes (b) Rivers
The correct match of Mountain Pass and the corresponding (c) Mountains (d) Religious places
state is as follows. Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Mountain Pass - State Ans. (a)
Bum La - Arunachal Pradesh Kingri-Wingri, Neeti-Mana are passes located in
Jelep la - Sikkim Uttarakhand. Neeti is an important pass of Himalaya
Muling La - Uttarakhand connecting Uttarakhand to Tibet. Mana pass which is also
Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh called as Chirbitiya la or Dungri la is located between India
and Tibet. Deotal lake which is the source of Saraswati
14. Match the list-I and List-II and select the correct
river (tributary of Alaknanda) is situated in this pass.
answer using the code given below :
List -I List-II 17. Which one of the following passes is located in
(Mountain Pass) (State) Uttarakhand ?
A. Mana 1. Sikkim (a) Jelapa (b) Lipulekh
B. Nathula 2. Jammu and Kashmir (c) Nathula (d) Shipki
C. Zozila 3. Himachal Pradesh U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
D. Shipki La 4. Uttarakhand Ans. (b)
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Extra peninsular mountains of India were formed in Cenozoic
Era. Himalayan Ranges are example of extra peninsular
D
mountains of India.
The place marked A, B, C and D in the map are
5. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of
respectively :
Chotanagpur plateau ?
(a) Rift valley region, Chattisgarh plain, Rain shadow
(a) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from
the Damodar. region and Chotanagpur
(b) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc. (b) Chattisgarh plain, Chotanagpur plateau, Rift valley
(c) Development of mining industries and industriali- region, and Rain shadow region
zation. (c) Rift valley region, Chattisgarh plain, Chotanagpur
(d) All of the above. plateau and Rain shadow region
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
(d) Chhattisgarh plain, Rain shadow region, Chotanagpur
Ans. (c)
plateau and Rift valley region
Dhanbad comes under Chotanagpur plateau which is famous I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
for coal mining and has some of the largest mines in India. Ans. (c)
Red soil is found in most of its region which is not useful
for agriculture. Availability of coal, iron, mica etc is not a The place marked 'A' in the map is Narmada and Tapti river's
good reason for population density. rift valley region. The place marked 'B' is Chhattisgarh
plain which is drained mostly by Mahanadi river. The place
6. Chotanagpur Plateau –
marked 'C' is Chotanagpur plateau. The place marked 'D' is
(a) Is a front sloping
a rainshadow area which is part of Western Ghat.
(b) Is a pitfall
(c) Is a foothill 9. Which one of the following districts does not have
(d) Is a plain subland
Dharwar geological formations ?
40th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1995
(a) Munger (b) Rohtas
Ans. (a)
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Marina beach
Kerala Aurovine
Ans. (b)
Tutikorin
Dandakaranya region occupies an area of about 89078 Kanyakumari
India is surrounded by sea on three sides. The length of it's 8. Which of the following Indian states has the longest
total coastline is 7516.6 km. India's coastline consists of Bay sea coast ?
of Bengal in the east, Indian Ocean in south and Arabian Sea (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
in the west. (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
India's coastline extends to nine States and four Union M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995, 2014
Territories. These are – Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
Gujarat – 1214.70km Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2006
Maharashtra – 652.60 km
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2007
Goa – 118 km
Ans. (c)
Karnataka – 280 km
Kerala – 569.70 km See the explanation of above question.
Tamil Nadu – 906.90 km 9. In India, how many States share the coastline?
Andhra Pradesh – 973.70 km (a) 7 (b) 8
Odisha – 476.40 km (c) 9 (d) 10
West Bengal – 157.50 km I.A.S. (Pre) 2008
Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu – 42.50 km Ans. (c)
Lakshadeweep – 132 km
Puducherry – 30.60 km See the explanation of above question.
Andman Nicobar Island – 1962 km 10. During ancient Indian historical geography, the term
The length of mainland India's coastline is 5422.6 km and 'Ratnakara' denoted –
offshore is 2094 km. (a) The Arabian Sea
See the explanation of above question. See the explanation of above question.
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*In Kerala, near Malabar coast lies an archipelago of 12 atolls,
3 reefs and 5 submerged banks with a total of about 36 islands
Minicoy is the second largest island separated from
other islands by 9o Channel. Kavaratti is the capital of
Lakshadweep. The largest island of Lakshadweep is Andrott.
and islets. This archipelago is known as Lakshadweep. The These islands are located at a distance of 220 - 440 km off
name of this archipelago was changed to Lakshadweep in the Kerala coast.
1973, earlier it was known as the Laccadive, Minicoy and
Aminidivi Islands. The distance of the Lakshadweep island
from the state of Kerala (Kochi) varies from 220-440 kms. 2. In which of the following parts of India 'Atolls' are
Lakshadweep is a Union Territory with a total area of 32 sq/ commonly found?
(a) Near Sunderbans (b) Near Khambhat Gulf
kms. *There are 36 islands in the Lakshadweep island group
(c) Near Lakshadweep (d) Near Rameshwaram
and only 10 are inhabited.
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
*The Northern end of Lakshadweep island is called
Ans. (c)
Aminidivi whereas the southern end is called Minicoy.
Minicoy island is separated from the rest of the islands by See the explanation of above question.
90 channel. *Minicoy is the 2nd largest island (4.80 sq/km) 3. Which of the following is a coral island ?
of Lakshadweep. *Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep, (a) New Moore (b) Car Nicobar
located on the Kavaratti Island. The largest island of (c) Andaman (d) Lakshadweep
Lakshadweep is Andrott or Androth (4.90 sq/km). The U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
Elephanta island is located near Mumbai at a distance of Ans. (d)
10 km from the Gateway of India. *Salsette island is in the
state of Maharashtra on India’s West coast. The Metropolis Lakshadweep is a coral island located in the Arabian sea and
of Mumbai and the city of Thane lies on it. its capital is Kavaratti. It is located in South West of India.
*Offshore Island - from the deltaic regions of Ganga to 4. Lakshadweep island is situated –
Eastern and Western coasts of India, to Gulf of Mannar, (a) In South West India
a lot of islands are located. Among these Piram (Gulf of (b) In South India
7. http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
Which one of the following is one of the remotest islands
D. Diu 4. Gulf of Cambay
(Khambhat)
from Indian coast. Code :
(a) Bhatkal (b) Arnala A B C D
(c) Minicoy (d) Henry (a) 1 2 3 4
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013 (b) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (c) (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2
Among the given options, Minicoy is one of the remotest U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
islands from Indian Coast. Bhatkal, Arnala, and Henry come Ans. (b)
in the category of penisular island.
The correct match of islands and their location is as follows:
8. Which one of the following Indian island lies between Island Location
India and Sri Lanka ? Viyant Syodhar - Gulf of Kutch
(a) Elephanta (b) Nicobar Piram - Gulf of Cambay (Khambhat)
(c) Rameshwaram (d) Salsette Dwarka - Coast of Arabian sea.
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 Diu - Coast of Kathiawar.
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
11. Kori Creek lies in –
Ans. (c) (a) Gulf of Kutch (b) Gulf of Khambhat
Location of islands given in the options is as follows : (c) Little Rann of Kutch (d) Rann of Kutch
Elephanta Island : It is located at a distance of 10 kilometers U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
from Gateway of India (Mumbai). U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011
Ans. (d)
Nicobar Island : It is located in southeast of Bay of Bengal
between 6º -12º north latitude and 92º-94º East Longitude. The Kori Creek is a tidal creek in the Rann of Kutch region of
It consists of 22 islands. Gujarat. It is a maritime border between India and Pakistan.
sub-regions of Faridabad, Gurugram, Mewat, Rohtak, (North East), Andhra Pradesh (South), Maharastra (West) and
Mahendragarh, Jind and Karnal districts of Haryana sub- *The seven sister states in Northeast India consists of
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram,
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region; Meerut, Ghaziabad, Hapur, Gautam Budh Nagar,
Bulandshahar, Muzaffarnagar, Shamli and Baghpat districts
Nagaland and Tripura. *Assam is surrounded by 7 states
namely West Bengal, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya.
of Uttar Pradesh and, Alwar and Bharatpur of Rajasthan.
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura. The states cover
*According to Registrar general of Home Ministry in terms
a 22,327 square kilometers area which is 0.7% of the total
of Geographical area five largest state in descending order of
area of India. It consists of 1843 square kilometer of river
area are Rajasthan (342,239.00 sq.km), Madhya Pradesh
basin which is 8% of the total area of Manipur whereas
(308252 sq. km.), Maharashtra (307,713 sq. km.), Uttar
92% of the area is hilly and mountainous. *Phumdis are a
Pradesh (2,40,928 sq. km.) and Gujarat (196,244 sq.
series of floating islands exclusive to the Loktak Lake in
km.). *In terms of population five largest states in India are
Manipur state, in north-eastern India. They are made up of
Uttar Pradesh (199812341), Maharashtra (112374333),
heterogeneous masses of vegetation, soil and organic matter
Bihar (104099452), West Bengal (91276115) and Andhra
in different stages of decay. More than 80% of land area of
Pradesh (84580777) respectively. *Uttar Pradesh shares its
Arunachal Pradesh is covered under forestry and more than
boundary with eight states and one Union Territory - Delhi. 12% of its forestry falls under the network of protected areas.
The eight states are Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, *Desert of Rajasthan is the most densely populated desert in
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and the world, with a population density of 83 person/sq.km. It
Bihar. *CurrentlyMadhya Pradesh shares border with five is about 10,000 years old. Here only 40% to 60% of the area
states i.e. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh is suitable for farming. Due to development of the irrigation
and Maharashtra. Bhopal is the capital of Madhya Pradesh. facilities, it has resulted in the increase of the net sown area
*According to Andhra Pradesh re-organisation (amendments) which has adversely affected the extension of pasture area.
Act, 2014, Andhra Pradesh shares boundary with Odisha, In terms of population, Karnataka stands 8th largest while it
Chhatisgarh, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. is 6th largest state in terms of area in India.
Kavaratti Andaman & Nicobar 'Pat Region is located in the Chotanagpur region. This region
ral
Puduchery
a
Trivanantpuram
has high hill peaks. The Maximum part of Chotanagpur plateau
lies in the State of Jharkhand so, the correct answer is (b).
4. Jhumri Telaiya (famous for request of songs on radio)
*Karnataka is known as the ‘Silicon state’ of India as it is a is located in which state ?
hub of Information and Technology companies in India. The (a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand
silicon valley of India is a nickname of Indian city Bengaluru (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal
which is the capital of Karnataka. Malnad (Malenadu) is 47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005
http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
a mountainous region of Karnataka which is covered with Ans. (b)
dense forests. *‘Patland region is found in the Chotanagpur
Jhumri Telaiya is a city in the Koderma district of Jharkhand
region. High hilly peaks are found in this region maximum
State of India.
part of Chotanagpur plateau lies in the state of Jharkhand.
*World famous Kohinoor diamond was found from Kollur 5. Which of the following state is known as the “Kohinoor
of India”
mines of Andhra Pradesh. That is why this state was called as
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
the Kohinoor of India. *Vidarbha is the north-eastern region
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
of the state of Maharashtra. Presently, there are two divisions
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
under this region - Nagpur and Amravati. This region includes
Ans. (a)
Nagpur, Amravati, Chandrapur, Akola, Wardha, Buldhana,
Yavatmal, Bhandara, Gondia, Washim and Gadchiroli district The world famous Kohinoor diamond was obtained from the
of Maharashtra. Kollur mine in Andhra Pradesh. So that the state was called
'Kohinoor of India'.
1. Latur is located in –
6. Most of the topography of Manipur is:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(a) Plain (b) Plateau
(c) Gujrat (d) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Marshy (d) Mountaineous
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
"Latur" is a district in Maharashtra. It is located at height of
Manipur is a landlocked small State in northestern India. The
631 metres above sea level. On September 30, 1993 Latur States covers a 22,327 square kilometers area which is 0.7%
has faced a severe earthquake. of total area of India. It consists of 1843 square kilometers of
2. Vidarbha is a regional name in India and it is a part river basin which is 8% of the total area of Manipur whereas
of – 92% of the area is hilly and mountainous.
35. Among the following cities, which one lies on a Sundarvan Mangroves are found in West Bengal in the
longitude closest to that of Delhi? delta region formed by Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
(a) Bengaluru 39. Which of the following was the capital of Andhra State
(b) Hyderabad when it was made a separate state in the year 1953?
(c) Nagpur (a) Guntur (b) Kurnool
(d) Pune (c) Nellore (d) Warangal
I.A.S. (Pre) 2018 I.A.S. (Pre) 2008
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
Bengaluru is the city which lies on the longitude near to the In an effort to gain a separate state based on linguistic
Delhi because the longitude of Nagpur, Hyderabad, and Pune basis Potti Shriramulu fasted until death in 1952. After
is too far from Delhi. Shriramulu's death, the Telugu speaking areas Andhra
State was carved out of Madras State on 1 October, 1953
36. A particular State in India has the following with Kurnool as its capital city. Later in 1956, Hyderabad
characteristics – was made capital of Andhra Pradesh. Andhra Pradesh was
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes bifurcated in 2014 and a separate state of Telangana was
through Northern Rajasthan. formed. However, in accordance with the Andhra Pradesh
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2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area
Reorganisation Act, 2014 Hyderabad will remain the de Jure
capital of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a period
not exceeding 10 years. The de facto capital city of Andhra
Network in this State.
Pradesh is Amaravati.
Which one among the following States has all the above
characteristics? 40. Which state in the country has the largest number of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam districts ?
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand (a) Madhya Pradesh
I.A.S. (Pre) 2012 (b) Maharashtra
Ans. (a) (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
28o north latitude passes through Arunachal Pradesh and north
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
Rajasthan. Arunachal Pradesh has near about 80% (79.63%)
Ans. (d)
of its area under forest cover and near about 12% (11.68%)
of the forest is protected area. The number of dictricts in the above given States is as follow.
Madhya Pradesh - 52
37. Which state is not part of ‘seven sisters of North- Maharashtra - 36
Eastern states? Tamil Nadu - 38
(a) Meghalaya (b) West Bengal Uttar Pradesh - 75 (71 according to 2011 census)
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tripura Uttar Pradesh has maximum number of districts in India i.e
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2008 (As on February, 2021).
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the following districts of India is the
The seven sister States in Northeast India consist of largest in terms of geographical area?
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya Manipur, Mizoram, (a) Leh (b) Kutch
Nagaland and Tripura. West Bengal is not included in this. (c) Jaisalmer (d) Barmer
43. Out of the four southern states – Andhra Pradesh Imphal is the capital of Manipur while Aizawl is the capital
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares of Mizoram.
boundaries with maximum number of Indian states? 46. Capital of Gujarat is –
(a) Andhra Pradesh only (a) Godhra (b) Baroda
(b) Karnataka only (c) Gandhinagar (d) Ahmedabad
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka 45th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2001
http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
(d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007
Ans. (c)
Gandhinagar is the capital of the state of Gujarat. It is located
Ans. (c)
approximately 23km north of Ahmedabad which is the
Option (c) was correct when this question was asked. After biggest city of Gujarat.
the reorganization of Andhra Pradesh, the scenario of States
47. Capital of Rajasthan is-
and their borders is as follows –
Andhra Pradesh borders with Odisha, Chhattisgarh, (a) Jaipur (b) Udaipur
Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. If the Yaman region (c) Jodhpur (d) Ajmer
of Pondicherry is also taken into consideration the number 45th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2001
of States/Union Territories bordering Andhra Pradesh will Ans. (a)
be six. The capital city of Rajasthan is Jaipur. Jaipur is also known
Karnataka shares boundaries with six States – Andhra as Pink City. Hawa Mahal is situated in Jaipur.
Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala and Tamil
Nadu. 48. Itanagar is the capital of which of the following states?
Kerala shares border with 2 States – Karnataka and Tamil (a) Mizoram (b) Puducherry
Nadu. If the Mahe region of Pondicherry is included the (c) Tripura. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
number of States/Union Territories bordering Kerala will M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990
be three. Ans. (d)
Tamil Nadu shares border with three states-Kerala, Karnataka
Itanagar is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh.
and Andhra Pradesh and including Pondicherry, the number
of States/Union Territories will be four. 49. The capital of the twenty-ninth State of India is
Telangana borders with Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, (a) Hyderabad (b) Vishakhapatnam
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. (c) Panaji (d) Silvassa
Thus presently Karnataka shares border with maximum M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
number of States. Ans. (a)
Diu
Daman
Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu,
Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu &
Dadra and Silwasa Kashmir and Ladakh.
Nagar Haveli
&
Daman and Diu 2. The largest Union Territory of India is –
Yanam
Andhra (Puduchery) (a) Daman and Diu
Pradesh
(b) Puducherry
Kavrati
Andaman
Lakshadweep
Puduchery
and (c) Delhi
Mahe Kerala Karaikal Nicobar Island
(Puduchery) (Puduchery)
Port Blair
(d) Chandigarh
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
Ans. (c)
The area of Union Territories given in the above question in
Four Negrito tribes are found in Andaman Island namely
decreasing order is as follows:
Great Andamanese, Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese. Port Blair
is the capital of Andaman & Nicobar. *Chandigarh and its (Union territory) (Area sq.km)
neighbouring region became union territory on November Delhi - 1483
1, 1966. This is the capital of Haryana and Punjab both. the Puducherry - 490
Area of Chandigarh is 114 km2 and population is 10.55 lakh. Chandigarh - 114
*Dadra and Nagar Haveli was surrounded by the states of Daman and Diu - 111
Gujarat and Maharashtra. It has two parts first one is Dadra Hence, Delhi has the largest area among the Union Territories
and another one is Nagar Haveli. The area of Dadra and Nagar
in the given options.
Haveli is 491sq.km and population is 3.44 lakh (Census :
Note : Delhi is also the largest Union Territory in terms of
2011). Daman and Diu was a Union territory of India. It
has been divided into two parts Daman (the Arabian Sea on population. According to satuation of January 26, 2020 Ladakh
the coastal border of Maharashtra and Gujrat) and Diu (on is the largest Union Territory of India in terms of area.
6. Which one of the following is not a Union Territory? The above map (when the question was asked) is of the Union
(a) Tripura (b) Daman and Diu Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. It lies near the west
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Puducherry coast. Dadra is surrounded by the State of Gujarat and Nagar
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2010 Haveli lies on the border of Maharashtra and Gujarat. The
Ans. (a) capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli is Silvassa.
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11. Which Union Territory of India has the lowest Sex-
Gaddi
Gujjar
Changpa
Himachal
Pradesh
Tharu
Jounsari
Buksa
Ratio as per the 2011, census. Uttarakhand Bhotiya Santhal
Dafla
Sahariya Munda Mismi l
(a) Chandigarh (b) Dadar and Nagar Haveli Mina Tharu
Oraon acha
Arun esh Mikir
Bhil Rajasthan Ho Prad
(c) Daman and Diu (d) Lakshadweep Garasia Tharu
Bihar
Assam Bodo
Merat Tharu Meghalaya
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017 Baiga Manipur
Kuki
Ans. (c) Gujarat
Tharu
Tharu
Tharu
Jharkhand
Lusai
Bhil Tharu
Dafar Chhattisgarh
Union Territories Sex Ratio, Census : 2011 Koli Korba Odisha
Bumiz Agami
Khasi
Bhuiya
(females per 1000 male) Maharashtra
Mariya Khod
Telangana
Barli
1. Puducherry 1037 Yarukala
Koya
Kurgi
2. Lakshadweep 947 Goud
Andhra Banjara
Nilgiri Pradesh
3. Andaman & Nicobar 876
Tonda
4. Delhi 868 Tamil
Kera
Moplah Nadu
la
12. Which of the following is not a union territory? Some of the important tribes of India are as follows-
(a) Goa (b) Lakshadweep Tharu - This tribe resides mostly in the Nainital district
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Chandigarh of Uttarakhand to the Terai regions of U.P. and Bihar. They
believe in Hinduism. One unique feature of this tribe is that
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre), 2010
they celebrate Diwali as a sorrow. They live in joint families
Ans. (a)
and are believed to be descendants of Kirate clan. It is the
Goa is the smallest (According to area) State of India. largest tribal group of the state of Uttarakhand.
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themselves to be descendants of Garhwal rulers of
Rajasthan. Other prominent tribes of the Dhauladhar range
Assam and Mizoram, the tribe practises Jhuming cultivation.
*Toda - They reside on the Nilgiri Hills, and are also known
are Laddakhi, Gujjar, Bakarwal, Lahauli, Bari etc. by the name of Todi or Tuda. They claim themselves to be
*Gond - They are native to Gondwanaland hence they got descendants of Aryans. They mostly practise pastoralism.
the name Gond. The tribe is found in the states of Bihar, Polyandry is prominent among the Todas.
West Bengal, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya *Jarawa - It is the most primitive Tribe of India. They reside
Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Mostly
Telangana and Gujarat. For food resources, the tribe mostly found on the southern and Middle Andaman Islands their area
depends upon hunting and fishing though some shifting of residence is protected by law in our country, hence human
cultivation are also practised. They use very fewer clothes activity is completely prohibited in the region.
in their attire, however, women are very fond of wearing *Onges - They reside in the western Part of little Andaman
ornaments. Animal sacrifice is practiced. The Gond is the island (Andaman & Nicobar group of Islands).
largest tribal group of U.P. *Shompen - The indigenous people of Great Nicobar, part
Bhil - The name Bhil is believed to have been derived from of Andaman & Nicobar islands.
villu or billu, which in the most Dravidian language is the *Sentinels - Andaman & Nicobar islands
word for “bow” in reference to the weapon that, until the *Naga - The Tribe resides in the states of Nagaland, Manipur
Desert times, they seemed almost always to be carrying.) and Arunachal Pradesh. They practise Jhum cultivation and
They belong to proto-Australoid race, and are famous for most of the time are found in naked state.
their Ghoomar dance. They are found in the states of Gujarat, Oraon, Ho, Bhumij, Kharia, Soura, Birhor, Khond, Kharwar,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Asur, Baiga are some other important tribes of Jharkhand.
Tripura, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Rajasthan. Bhil, Meena, Garasiya, Sahariya, Damor, Pateliya are some
Santhal - The tribe is a native of Santhal Pargana hence they other important tribes of Rajasthan.
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Gaddi tribe lives in the Dhauladhar Range of Western
Himalaya which extends in Kangra and Chamba districts
(c) Jaunsaris (d) Tharus
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
of Himachal Pradesh. Gaddi Tribe relate themselves to the
Ans. (a)
dynasty of Garhwal Rulers of Rajasthan. This is one of the
main tribes of Dhauladhar Range which constitute a population Bhoksas, Jaunsaris and Tharus are permanent settlers.
of around 1 lakh. The lifestyle of Gaddi tribe is different from These are all agriculture based tribes. Bhotias tribe reside
other tribes. The Main tribes of Dhauldhaar Range are Gaddi, in hilly regions of Uttarakhand and Terai regions of Uttar
Laddakhi Gujjar, Bakarwal, Lahauli, Bari etc. Pradesh. Bhotias belong to Mongoloid Race. The tribe is
also known for its migratory pastoralist nature.
18. Gaddis are inhabitants of –
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh 23. Bodos are inhabitants of –
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Meghalaya (a) Garo hills (b) Santhal Pargana
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000 (c) Amazon Basin (d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b) 43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994
See the explanation of above question. Ans. (a)
19. Santhals are inhabitant of – Bodo tribe is an ethnic and linguistic group that mainly
(a) Central India (b) Southern India resides in the Garo hill of Meghalaya. Santhal Pargana is
(c) Western India (d) Eastern India a Santhal majority division of Jharkhand.
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1995 24. Garo Tribes are of-
Ans. (d) (a) Assam (b) Manipur
Santhal tribe is one of the main tribes of India. Santhals are (c) Mizoram (d) Meghalaya
indigenous to West Bengal, Bihar, Tripura, Jharkhand and 42nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1997
Odisha. Ans. (*)
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69. Where do the people of Jarawa tribe, who were in the
news recently, reside ?
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
The Jarawa or Jarawa tribe lives in India’s South Andaman Among the 32 tribes of Jharkhand, 8 tribes are included
and middle Andaman Islands region of Andaman and Nicobar in 'primitive Tribe Groups'. They are Asur, Birhor, Birajia,
Islands. They were in news as Court passed an order banning Korwa, Parahiya (Baiga), Sabar, Mal Pahariya and Souriya
the tourist in the areas of Jarawa. Pahariya. 27% population of Jharkhand is tribal. According to
2011 Census, population of primitive tribe groups is 2.23 lakhs.
70. 'Jarawa Tribe' is found in
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya 75. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-
(c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim known for their
(e) Nicobar Island (a) Martial arts in North-East India
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 (b) Musical tradition in North-West India
Ans. (e) (c) Classical vocal music in South India
(d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India
See the explanation of above question. I.A.S. (Pre) 2014
71. In which of the following State/Union territories the Ans. (b)
"Jarawa tribe" resides?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Lakshadweep Manganiyar is a Muslim communities in the desert of
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Andaman and Nicobar Rajasthan which is famous for its musical tradition. They
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Re Exam) (Pre) 2016 are also found in the districts of Tharparkar and Sanghar in
Ans. (d) the Sindh province of Pakistan.
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In Bhunjia tribe the Kitchen called as "Lal Bangala". The
Bhunjia is a numerically small and little known tribe of Orissa
(c) Khas
(d) Todas
Arunachal Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
belonging to the Proto-Australoid racial group. The name
Ans. (c)
'Bhunjia' signifies one who lives on the soil. The Bhunjia
speak a mixed dialect of Baiga and Chhattisghari. Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir
have substantial population of khas tribe. Other options are
79. Which is the scheduled tribe, who makes "Catechu"?
correctly matched.
(a) Binjhwar (b) Dhanwar
(c) Khairwar (d) Majhwar 83. Where does Toda tribe mainly lives?
(e) None of these (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Tamil Nadu
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 (c) Rajasthan (d) Assam
Ans. (c) Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
The scheduled tribe which makes 'Catechu' is Khairwar. As Ans. (b)
Catechu is also called as 'Khair', it is assumed that this tribe See the explanation of above question.
is named as 'Khairwar' because of catechu.
84. Bharmour tribal region is located is
80. Kaathi is a (a) Sikkim
(a) Caste (b) Tribe (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Wooden Art (d) Folk Dance (c) Uttarakhand
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019 (d) Ladakh
Ans. (d) (e) None of the above / More than one of the above
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
Kathi dance is the festival of balahi harijan community in Ans. (b)
nimar region of Hoshangabad to worship the mother power
Parvati and is a very powerful form of the folk theatre of Bharmour Tribal region is located in the state of Himachal
this region. Pradesh. Bharmour was the ancient capital of chamba district.
the following - are most widely spoken languages after Hindi in India.
*European language family - Marathi, Sanskrit, Pali, English, 4. Which of the following was given the classical language
Prakrit, Apabhransa, Hindi, Bangla, Gujarati etc. status in 2014?
*Dravidian Language Family - Telugu, Tamil, Malayalam, (a) Odiya
Kannada, Gond, Oraon, Brahvi etc. (b) Gujarati
*Austric language family - Khasi, Santhali, Mundari, Bhumi (c) Dongari
etc. (the languages are mostly spoken by the tribal people (d) Bangla
of India). Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (a)
1. With reference to India, the terms 'Halbi, Ho and Kui'
Odiya became the sixth language of the country to get
Pertain to
classical language status on 20 Feb, 2014. Classical language
(a) dance forms of Northwest India
status was given to Tamil in 2004, Sanskrit in 2005, Telugu
(b) musical instruments
and Kannada in 2008 and Malayalam in 2013.
(c) pre-historic cave paintings
(d) tribal languages 5. Which one of the following languages belongs to the
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Ans. (d)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2021 Austric group?
(a) Marathi
Halbi, Ho and Kui are the languages of the tribes. The Halbi (b) Ladakhi
(c) Khasi
language is mainly of Bastar, Chhattisgarh, its speakers are
(d) Tamil
the Rajmuria, Halba, Mahar, Parja, Lohra tribes spread from
I.A.S. (Pre) 1998
Odisha to Maharashtra. Ho is the language of the Munda
Ans. (c)
family, which is spoken by tribe like Ho, Munda, Koi etc. It's
main area is West Singhbhum, Jharkhand, while the speakers Languages Family wise grouping of Indian languages and
percentage of total population who receive the languages as
spred from Odisha to Maharashtra. Kui is the language to their mother tongue -
the Dravidian family. It is mainly spoken by the Kui tribe in Languages Languages population Percentage
Kandhamal, Odisha. Families to total
2. Most widely spoken language after Hindi, in the Indian 1. Indo- 1. Assamese, Bengali, 76.86%
sub-continent, is – European
(a) Urdu (a) Indo- Bhili/Bhilodi, Bishnupuriya,
Aryan Dogri, Gujarati, Halabi,
(b) Bengali
Hindi, Kashmiri, Khandeshi,
(c) Telugu
Konkani, Lahnda, Maithili,
(d) Tamil
Marathi, Nepali, Odiya
I.A.S. (Pre) 1993 Punjabi, Sanskrit, Shina,
Ans. (b) Sindhi, Urdu,
Bengali is the most spoken language in the Indian (b) Iranian Afghani/Kabuli/Pashto, 0.0022%
subcontinent after Hindi. Persian
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Manipuri, Maram, Maring,
Miri/Mishing, Mishmi, Mogh,
(a) Brajbhasha, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Awadhi
(b) Awadhi, Maithili, Bhojpuri and Brajbhasha
Monpa, Nissi/Dafla, Nocte,
(c) Brajbhasha, Awadhi, Bhojpuri and Maithili
Paite, Pawi, Phom, Pochury,
Rabha, Rai, Rengma, Sangtam, (d) Maithili, Bhojpuri, Brajbhasha and Awadhi
Sema, Sherpa, Simte, Tamang, I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
Tangkhul, Tangsa, Thado, Ans. (c)
Tibetan, Tripuri, Vaiphei,
In the area marked as ‘A’, Brajbhasha is spoken. In the
Wancho, Yimchungre, Zeliang,
Zemi, Zou. area marked ‘B’, Awadhi is spoken. In the area marked ‘C’
5. Semito- Arabic/Arb 0.01% Bhojpuri is spoken, and in area marked as ‘D’, Maithili is
Hamitic spoken which is the area of North Bihar.
6. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic 8. Which Indian language, is spoken maximum in the
group of India? world after Hindi?
(a) Sino-Tibetan (a) Tamil (b) Bengali
(c) Malayalam (d) Telugu
(b) Indo-Aryan
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
(c) Austro-Asiatic Ans. (b)
(d) Dravidian
According to ethnologue 2021, Bengali Indian language is
(e) None of these the most spoken language in the world after Hindi among
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2015 the given options. There are a total of 267.65 million uses
Ans. (b) of the Bengali language globally.
irathi
Bhag
*The mainstream of Ganga begins at the confluence of Bha-
girathi and Alaknanda in Devprayag. Ganga enters the plain
area at Haridwar, flowing through the north of Rajmahal
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Hills, it finally enters Bangladesh at a place named Farakka.
In Bangladesh, it is known as the Padma. The Padma is
joined by Jamuna (Brahmaputra). Further downstream, the
Padma joins the Meghna river. Here onwards the whole
river system is known as the Meghna River system which
drains into the Bay of Bengal.
*World’s largest Delta (Ganga - Brahmaputra Delta) is The Antecedent river are those streams which originate
formed here by the Hugli river and the Meghna river. prior to the upliftment of land surface of an upland or
*The important left bank tributaries of the Ganga are the mountain but maintain their original course of flow even
Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the after the landmass is uplifted, by cutting through the uplifted
Kosi and the Mahananda. landmass. The Ganga river is an example of antecedent river.
*The Yamuna is the westernmost and the longest tributary *The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above
of the Ganga. It has its source in the Yamunotri Glacier on Badrinath.
the western slopes of the Banderpunch range. It joins the 1. The Ganga river is an example of :
Ganga at Prayag (Prayagraj). (a) The Antecedent Drainage
*The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa and the Ken are the (b) Consequent Drainage System
right bank tributaries of the Yamuna while the Hindan, the (c) Superimposed Drainage System
Rind, the Sengar and the Varuna are its left bank tributaries. (d) Subsequent Drainage System
*The Chambal River originates near Mhow in the Malwa U.P.U.D.A./ L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
Ans. (a)
Plateau of Madhya Pradesh. It flows through a gorge. The
Chambal is famous for its badland topography called the The Ganga river is an examples of antecedent drainage.
4. River Ganga, after entering Bangladesh is known by India's and Asia's first Dolphin Research Centre (NRDC) is
which of the following names ? being set up on the banks of the Ganga river at Patna. One
(a) Lohit (b) Padma of the main threats to the species is loss of habitat due to the
(c) Kaliganga (d) Nabaganga
creation of dams and irrigation projects.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
Ans. (b)
8. Sunderban Delta is formed by the rivers –
After entering Bangladesh, the main branch of the Ganges (a) Ganga and Brahmaputra
is known as 'Padma'. The Padma is joined by Brahmaputra (b) Ganga and Jhelum
river (known as Jamuna). Further, it meets Meghna river (c) Sindhu and Jhelum
(d) Ganga and Sindhu
and is commonly known as Meghna which flows into the
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
Bay of Bengal.
Ans. (a)
5. 'Moribund Delta' is a subdivision of which of the fol-
lowing Delta ? Sunderban Delta is the world largest' delta formed by
(a) Krishna-Godawari Delta the river Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna. Two third of
(b) Mahanadi Delta Sunderban Delta is in Bangladesh while the rest is in India.
(c) Bengal Delta
(d) Cauvery Delta 9. Assertion (A) : The Ganga is a highly polluted river.
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019 Reason (R) : The holier the river, the more
Ans. (c) polluted it is.
The explanation of the above statements is as follows: The Ganga is the most important river of India. It rises in
1. Devprayag is located at the confluence of the Bhagirathi Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in Uttarkashi district of
and Alaknanda rivers. Hence, statement (1) is correct. Uttarakhand. Here it is known as Bhagirathi. It cuts through
2. Rudraprayag is located at the confluence of the Mandakini the Central and the Lesser Himalayas. Bhagirathi meet
and Alaknanda rivers. Hence, statement (2) is also correct. Alaknanda at Devprayag, hereafter it is known as Ganga.
See the explanation of above question. The famous Badrinath temple is situated near the bank of
Alaknanda river while Kedarnath Temple is located near
15. At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the banks of Mandakini river in Uttarakhand.
the Bhagirathi combine to form River Ganga?
(a) Haridwar (b) Rishikesh 19. The longest flowing river in India is-
(c) Rudraprayag (d) Devprayag (a) Mahanadi (b) Godavari
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (c) Ganga (d) Narmada
60th to 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016 40th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1995
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
See the explanation of above question. The length of flowing rivers of India (mentioned in the
question) is given below:
16. With which drainage system or main river is Mandakini
Ganga river – 2525 km
associated ?
(a) Alaknanda (b) Bhagirathi Godavari river – 1465 km
(c) Yamuna (d) Dhauli Ganga Narmada river – 1312 km
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 Mahanadi river – 851 km
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Ans. (a)
Tapti
K Rekha
Mahanadi oel
discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It forms delta near
Pen
gan Wardha
ga
Indravati Paradwip in the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 Km long.
Manjira
Godawari
*The Cauvery : The Cauvery river rises in the Brahmagiri
Kr Bhima
ish
na hills of Kogadu district in Karnataka. It is 800 km long. It
ra
ad
N. Pe
discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal near Tiruchirapalli.
bh
nnar
ga
n
Tu
S. Pennar
Kaveri Its drainage basin covers the states of Kerala, Karnataka,
Vaigai
Tamil Nadu and the Union territory of Puducherry. It forms
the islands of Shivasamudram and Srirangapatna in its way.
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(c) Mahi
Ans. (b)
(d) Sabarmati
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2012
22. Which of the following rivers does not falls into the
Bay of Bengal?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Krishna
(c) Tapti (d) Godavari
See the explanation of above question. Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
18. Westward flowing rivers are – Ans. (c)
(i) Narmada (ii) Tapti
(iii) Rapti See the explanation of above question.
Code : 23. Which of the following rivers of India does not
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) originate from the Western Ghats?
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (a) Godavari (b) Tapti/Tapi
43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1999 (c) Kaveri (d) Kabam
Ans. (a) U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
Ans. (b)
Narmada, Tapti, and Mahi are three major westward-
flowing rivers in India. The Rapti river is the tributary of River Tapti has its source in Central India, in Betul district
the Ghaghara river which flows North- West to South -East of Madhya Pradesh.
direction. So, option (a) is the correct answer.
24. Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into
19. Which one of the following rivers flows towards the two streams and reunites a few miles farther on,
west? thus forming the islands of Srirangappattanam,
(a) Ganga (b) Narmada Sivasamudram, and Srirangam?
(c) Godavari (d) Yamuna (a) Cauvery (b) Tungabhadra
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2003 (c) Krishna (d) Godavari
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000 I.A.S. (Pre) 1996
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
41. Which river forms its delta in Odisha? 45. Consider the following statements:
(a) Godavari (b) Mahanadi 1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
(c) Narmada (d) Tapti 2. There is no west flowing river in Madhya Pradesh.
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Ans. (b) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Mahanadi is a river in eastern India which rises from Sihawa (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
hills in Chhattisgarh and flows eastwards. Traversing over I.A.S. (Pre) 2009
851 Km through Chhattisgarh and Odisha, this river forms Ans. (d)
delta near Paradwip in the Bay of Bengal.
There are three east flowing rivers in Kerala – Kabani River,
42. Amritdhara waterfall is on which river?
Bhavani River, and Pambar River. The Tapti, Mahi and
(a) Maniyari river (b) Mahanadi
Narmada rivers originate in Madhya Pradesh and flow from
(c) Indravati river (d) Hasdeo river
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2019 east to west and empty into the Arabian Sea. Thus, both the
Ans. (d) statements are wrong.
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(a) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(d) Mahanadi
(d) Kargil
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
Ans. (c) Ans. (e)
See the explanation of above question. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers,
Chandra and Bhaga, at Tandi, 8 km southwest of Keylong, in
49. The second largest river basin of India is the Lahaul and Spiti district in the Indian State of Himachal
(a) Mahanadi Basin (b) Narmada Basin Pradesh.
(c) Godavari Basin (d) Kaveri Basin
M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018 53. Consider the following rivers :
Ans. (c) 1. Brahmani
The Godavari has the second largest river basin after the 2. Nagavali
Ganges. Rising from Trimbakeshwar. Its drainage are 3. Subarnarekha
extends over Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
4. Vamsadhara
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Puducherry and
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
Karnataka. The Godavari finally drains into the Bay of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
Bengal. A river basin is the portion of land drained by a
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
river and its tributaries.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2021
50. The longest peninsular river of India is - Ans. (b)
(a) Narmada (b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi (d) Krishna The Brahmani and Subarnarekha rivers originate from the
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2014 Ranchi Platue, while the Nagavati and Vamsadhara originate
Ans. (b) from the Eastern Ghats.
15. Damodar is a tributary of river – 20. Which of the following rivers is most polluted?
(a) Ganga (b) Hooghly (a) Gomati (b) Periyar
(c) Damodar (d) Mahanadi
(c) Padma (d) Swaranrekha
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2006
Ans. (c)
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2008
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008 The most polluted river of India is Damodar river. The
Ans. (b) enormous quantity of pollutants coming out from the
mines, industries, cities and agricultural fields have so much
Damodar river also known as the Sorrow of Bengal, originates degraded the quality of the river water between Giridih and
in the Palamau Hills of Chotanagpur plateau. It flows through Durgapur that it has virtually become a biological desert.
rift valley. It has a number of tributaries such as Barakar, Konar,
21. Rajarappa is situated on the confluence of which
and Jamunia. Its total length is 592 Km. It carries the water of
rivers?
Rupnarayan river and flows into Hoogly, 55 km south of Kolkata.
(a) Damodar - Bhera (b) Damodar - Sherbukhi
16. River Damodar emerges from – (c) Damodar - Barakar (d) Damodar- Konar
(a) Tibbet (b) Chotanagpur Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
(c) Near Nainital Ans. (a)
(d) Western slope of somesar hills
39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994 Rajarappa is a Shakti Peeth temple situated on a hillock at the
Ans. (b) confluence of the Damodar and Bhera (Bhairavi) rivers near
the Rajarappa falls 80 km away from Ranchi. This ancient
See the explanation of above question. temple is dedicated to goddess Chinnamasta.
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Ans. (b)
The correct match is as follows : Mahatma Gandhi Setu is a bridge over the river Ganges
List-I List-II connecting Patna in the South to Hajipur in the North of
Source Region River Bihar. Its length is 5,575 metres. It was officially inaugurated
Brahmagiri Hills - Cauvery in March, 1982. On 15th November, 2016 Asian Development
Verinag Spring - Jhelum Bank and Government of India signed an agreement for the
Mahabaleshwar - Krishna construction of a new bridge parallel to the existing bridge.
ChotaNagpur Plateau - Subarnarekha Once constructed, the new bridge (9.8 km long) will be the
longest river bridge in India.
39. Assertion (A) : River Kalinadi is an east-flowing
river in the southern part of India. 42. Which one of the following rivers does not originate
Reason (R) : The Deccan Plateau is higher along in India?
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its western edge and gently slopes
towards the Bay of Bengal in the
(a) Beas (b) Chenab (c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
east. U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
Code : I.A.S. (Pre) 2009
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the Ans. (d)
correct explanation of (A) The origin of the Satluj river is located close to Lake Rakastal
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not (lake) in Tibet in the vicinity of the Kailash Mountain Range.
the correct explanation of (A) The Satluj River usually flows from west to south-west
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false itinerary moving into India via the Shipki La Pass located
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true in Himachal Pradesh.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007
Ans. (d) 43. Kopili is a tributary river of :
Kali river rises near Diggi village in Uttara Kannada district (a) Gandak (b) Kosi
of Karnataka. It follows an arch shaped course in west (c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra
direction and flows into the Arabian Sea. The total length of R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010
this river is 184 km. Thus, assertion (A) is wrong. Karwar Ans. (d)
and Kaiga are located at the bank of this river. It is polluted
because of Manganese ore. Kapili river is a tributary of Brahmaputra. Kamrupnagar is
Deccan Plateau is extended from Narmada river to Kumari situated on the bank of this river.
island and from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal. The
44. The catchment area of which of the following river is
average elevation of this plateau above sea level is 600 meter.
maximum?
Western Ghats parallel to the Arabian Sea is high mountainous
region and the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau gently slopes (a) Mahananda (b) Son
towards the Bay of Bengal. All the rivers flowing eastwards (c) Ramganga (d) Gandak
from the Western Ghats follow this slope and fall into the Bay U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017
of Bengal. Thus reason (R) is correct. Ans. (b)
46. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer 49. Which of the following rivers is an example of the
using the codes given below the Lists : superimposed river?
List-I List-II (a) Alaknanda (b) Kosi
(Rivers) (Their Tributaries) (c) Chambal (d) Godavari
A. Krishna 1. Chambal U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
B. Brahmaputra 2. Indravati Ans. (c)
C. Godavari 3. Tista
D. Yamuna 4. Bhima Superimposed stream or river does not follow slopes of the
lithosphere. The stream erodes through rocks and retains its
Code :
course and pattern despite changes in the underlying rocks.
A B C D
Chambal and Son are the best examples of superimposed
(a) 4 3 2 1
rivers in India.
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 50. Sankosh river forms the boundary between –
(d) 3 4 2 1 (a) Bihar and West Bengal
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2013 (b) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (a) (c) Assam and West Bengal
(d) Bihar and Jharkhand
The correct match of rivers and their tributaries is given U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
below: Ans. (c)
(River) (Tributary)
Krishna - Bhima Sankosh river originates in northern Bhutan (where it is
Brahmaputra - Tista known as Puna Tsang Chhu) and flows into Brahmaputra
Godavari - Indravati river near the border of Assam and Bangladesh. It forms the
Yamuna - Chambal boundary between Assam and West Bengal.
52. Which of the following rivers of India crosses the B. Mahanadi ii. Penganga
tropic of cancer twice? C. Damodar iii. Seonath
(a) Mahi (b) Chambal
D. Kaveri iv. Barakar
(c) Narmada (d) None of the above
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016 Code :
Ans. (a)
A B C D
Mahi River crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice. It originates (a) iv ii i iii
in Madhya Pradesh and flowing through Rajasthan, Gujarat
falls in the Gulf of Khambhat. (b) ii iii iv i
Hyderabad is located on the bank of river Musi a tributary 9. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
of the Krishna river, not on the bank of Krishna river. Rest matched :
are correctly matched. (a) Ahmedabad - Sabarmati
(b) Lucknow - Gomti
6. Which one of the following is not correctly matched :
(a) Kota - Chambal (c) Bhubaneswar - Mahanadi
(b) Bhubaneswar - Mahanadi (d) Ujjain - Shipra
(c) Jabalpur - Narmada U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
(d) Surat - Tapti Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999
Ahmedabad is located on the bank of Sabarmati river,
Ans. (b)
Luckow-Gomti river, and Ujjain- Kshipra river. Whereas
Bhubaneswar is the capital of Odisha. It is not located on Bhubaneswar is not located on the bank of Mahanadi. It is
the bank of Mahanadi. It is located on the banks of Kuakhai
located west of the Mahanadi river.
which is part of the delta of Mahanadi River. The famous city
of Odisha "Cuttack" is located on the bank of Mahanadi river. 10. Ujjain is located –
(a) On the bank of River Chambal.
7. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly
(b) On the bank of River Kshipra.
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matched?
City (Location on
(c) On the bank of River Godavari
bank of river) (d) On the bank of River Narmada.
(a) Jabalpur - Narmada U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008
(b) Hyderabad - Krishna Ans. (b)
(c) Kota - Chambal
(d) Nasik - Godavari See the explanation of above question.
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016
11. Match list I with II and select the correct answer using
Ans. (b)
the codes given below the lists :
Hyderabad is located on the bank of Musi river. Vijaywada List I List II
and Srisailam are located on the banks of Krishna. (Town) (River nearby)
8. Match the following – A. Betul 1. Indravati
(A) Cuttack 1. Godavari B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
(B) Ludhiana 2. Kshipra. C. Jabalpur 3. Kshipra
(C) Nashik 3. Mahanadi D. Ujjain 4. Tapti
(D) Ujjain 4. Satluj Code :
Code :
A B C D
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2 (c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992 I.A.S. (Pre) 2007
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
1. Located on the bank of the Tungabhadra River, Hampi was Waterfall of India) Height - 29 M.
the Vijayanagar's capital . It is famous for many temples (ii) Doodhsagar Mandavi River,
like Vinipaksha temple, Vithala temple, and Nandi Statue. Western Ghats of Goa
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2. Pandharpur is a well-known pilgrimage town on the banks
of Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra. (iii) Dhuandhar
and Karnataka
Narmada River,
3. Tiruchirappalli is situated on the banks of the Cauvery Jabalpur (Madhya
River. It was a Citadel of the early Cholas which later Pradesh)
fell to the Pallavas.
(iv) Lansing Meghalaya
13. Which one of the following is not located along the (v) Nohkalikai Meghalaya
Mandakini river ? (vi) Kunchikal Karnataka
(a) Gaurikund (b) Rambara
According to world waterfalls database, the height of
(c) Govindghat (d) Guptakashi
Kunchikal waterfall is 183 m. On this basis, it is no longer
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (c) the highest waterfall in India. Earlier as per the database,
it was the tallest plunge waterfall with a height of 455 m.
Gaurikund, Rambara and Guptakashi are located along
The height of Barahi waterfall as per the new database is
the Mandakini river, whereas Govind ghat is located at the
217 metres. The height of Nohkalikai waterfall increased
confluence of Alaknanda and Lakshman Ganga.
from 335 metres to 340 metres. So as per the new database,
14. Pahalgam in Kashmir is located on the bank of river:
Nohkalikai is the tallest plunge waterfall. The rapid erosion of
(a) Shyok (b) Jhelum
soft rocks as compare to the hard rocks leads to the creation
(c) Lidder (d) Chenab
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above of waterfalls.
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020 Lakes-
Ans. (c) *Vembanad lake is largest lagoon lake of Kerala. Chilika
Pahalgam is located on the bank of river Lidder. It is situated lagoon is a saline water lake at the end of Mahanadi. Nakki
at an altitude of 2,130 m. It is also the starting point of the lake is located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan. *Roopkund
annual Amarnath Yatra. lake is known as Mysterious lake. It is a glacial lake in
an ocean, separated by series of barrier island which lies 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
parallel to shorelines. by using the code given below:
*Wular lake is the largest freshwater lake of India located in List-I (Waterfall) List-II (Rivers)
Jammu Kashmir (Union Territory since 31 October, 2019). A. Dudhsagar 1. Ghatprabha
Dal lake is located in Srinagar (Zabarwan mountain valley). B. Duduma 2. Machhkund
Periyar lake is located in Kerala. Loktak lake is a freshwater C. Gokak 3. Sharavati
lake in Manipur. Keibul Lamjao Park is nearby this lake. D. Jog 4. Mandavi
Code :
1. Hundru falls is formed on –
A B C D
(a) Indrawati (b) Kaveri (a) 4 2 1 3
(c) Subarnarekha (d) None of the above (b) 4 2 3 1
39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994 (c) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c) (d) 2 3 4 1
Hundru fall is located on the course of the Subarnarekha river, U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
It is 45km away from Ranchi. Its height is 98 mt (322 feet). Ans. (a)
2. The Sivasamudram falls is located on the river The correct match of List- I and List- II is as follows :
(a) Cauvery (b) Krishna (Waterfall) (Rivers)
(c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi Dudhsagar - Mandavi (on the border of Goa
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000 and Karnataka)
Duduma - Machhkund (Koraput, Odisha)
Ans. (a)
Gokak - Ghatprabha (Belgaum, Karnataka)
Sivasamudram falls is located on the River Cauvery. Jog - Sharavati (Karnataka)
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with index prvided refers to the distribution of. (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
Ans. (d)
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low pressure over the Indian subcontinent during the summer
season which draws air from the Indian ocean.
Hu
35
rri
Humid Temperature ºC
30
Aug
25 Apr Nov
Oct Sep (a) 22.5oC-25.0oC
20 March
Feb Dec (b) 25.0oC-27.5oC
15 Jan
(c) 27.5oC-30.0oC
et
dW
10
an
(d) 30.0oC-32.5oC
In
5
ld
ten
Co
se
0
20 40 60 80 100
I.A.S. (Pre) 2001
Relative Humidity (Percentage) Ans. (b)
The above diagram is related to the climate of which In the shaded area of the given map, the mean temperature
of the following regions? for the month of July varies between 25oC to 27.5oC.
(a) North –West region of India.
(b) South region of India 13. In which part of India is the daily range of temperature
(c) Central region of India highest?
(d) North East region of India (a) Eastern coastal areas.
I.A.S. (Pre) 1993 (b) Interior areas of Chhattisgarh plain
Ans. (d) (c) Andaman island
(d) Desert areas of Rajasthan.
The above map depicts the climatic condition of North East Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
region of India. Ans. (d)
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(iii) Spring (iv) Rainy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
(b) (iii), (ii), (iv) and (i)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
U.P.R.O. / A.R.O. (Pre) 2021
Ans. (b)
According to Indian tradition, the year is divided into
bimonthly in six seasons as follows :
Seasons Months as per English Calender
Spring March & April
Summer May & June
Rainy July & August
Autumn September & October
Pre-winter November & December
Winter January & February
ii. Rainfall *Another branch of monsoon winds of the Arabian Sea causes
*Generally in India rainfall occurs from the month of June to rainfall to the extensive areas of central India. Thereafter, they
September when south-west monsoon is effective throughout enter the Ganga plains and mingle with the Bay of Bengal
the country. In this period the low-pressure zone of North- branch. The Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon winds causes
When the question was asked option (c) was correct. See the explanation of above question.
According to data of Rainfall Statistics, the correct sequence 10. Which one of the following places has the lowest
of the annual rainfall of the given cities in the year 2019 in
descending order was – rainfall during the South-West Monsoon?
Place Rainfall (mm) (a) Kolkata (b) Mangalore
Kochi (Ernakulum) - 3380.6 (c) Chennai (d) Delhi
Kolkata - 1815.2
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Patna - 906.9
Delhi - 546.9 Ans. (c)
It is notable that the highest rainfall in India occurs at
Mawsynram, Meghalaya. South-western monsoon is active from 1 June to 30
September. Maximum rainfall in India occurs due to this
7. Mango shower is – monsoon. Chennai receives the lowest rainfall from the
(a) Shower of mangoes
south-western monsoon. Chennai receives maximum rainfall
(b) Dropping of mangoes
from north- eastern monsoon.
(c) Rainfall in March-April in Bihar and Bengal
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(d) Crop of mango
43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994
11. Cherrapunji is located in –
(a) Assam (b) Manipur
Ans. (d)
(c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
Mango shower is the name of pre-monsoon showers in M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
Karnataka and Kerala that helps in the ripening of mangoes. 41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996
It is also known as April rains or summer showers. The
Ans. (c)
reason for the Mango showers is the thunderstorms over
the Bay of Bengal. The shower prevents mangoes from Cherrapunji is located in Meghalaya, one of the north-eastern
dropping prematurely. States of India. It has held the record for highest rainfall
8. Among the following places which one gets the least after Mawsynram.
rainfall?
12. The highest rainfall in India occurs in -
(a) Leh (b) Bikaner
(a) Western Ghats, Himalayan Region and Meghalaya
(c) Jaisalmer (d) Cherrapunji
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008 (b) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
Ans. (a) (c) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Vidarbha
According to data Rainfall Statistics of India, 2019 Leh
receives the least rainfall in India. The annual rainfall for M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
the above towns is as follows : Ans. (a)
Leh - 65.5 mm (Lowest rainfall in India)
Bikaner - 300.2 cm The highest rainfall in India occurs in Western Ghats, Eastern
Jaisalmer - 261.3 mm (Lowest rainfall in Rajasthan) Himalayan region and Meghalaya region. These regions
Cherrapunji - 1100 cm (Mawsynram recive the highest receive more than 250cm annual rainfall due to south-west
(2015) rainfall in the world). monsoon.
(b) Quick evaporation of rainwater Jharkhand receives its rainfall during south-west monsoon
(c) Concentration of rainfall during a few months only i.e. June to September.
(d) All the above 17. Consider the map given below –
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994
Ans. (d)
India
In India, 110% of the total rainfall occurs due to south-west
monsoon from June to September. Water from rainfall due
to this monsoon either flows away or evaporates quickly. In
this way, India has to face scarcity of rainfall in the remaining
8 months. That is why besides having 1288.8 mm actual
annual rainfall, it is regarded as a thirsty land.
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Ans. (a)
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region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western
parts of the Indian sub-continent is called Western
*Southern Plateau is relatively more stable yet the seldom
events of low intensity earthquakes in the region raises
Disturbance. It is non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven questions about the stability of Peninsular India.
by the westerlies. Western Disturbance plays an important
*On the basis of data provided by Indian Meteorological
role in bringing moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and
Department and other agencies, Bureau of Indian standards
heavy snow to mountainous regions of Indian sub-continent,
especially in winter. This precipitation has great importance has published the latest version of seismic zone map of
in agriculture, particularly for the Rabi crops. India. Bureau of Indian standards has prepared ‘Earthquake
Resistant Design Code of India, IS - 1893, Part I : 2002
Natural Disasters which is a new edition of seismic zone mapping of India. In
Natural disasters are catastrophic events of atmospheric, this, India has been divided into four seismic zones on the
geological and hydrological origin that can cause fatalities, basis of earthquake intensity - namely Zone 2, Zone 3, Zone
property damage and socio-environmental disruption. 4 and Zone 5. Each zone indicates the effects of an earthquake
*Volcanic eruptions, Earthquakes, Oceanic Vibrations, at a particular place based on the observations of the affected
Droughts, Floods, Cyclones, Soil erosion, Snow avalanches, area and can also be described using a descripture scale
Mud Flows etc. are example of Natural Disasters. Among like Modified Mercalli Intesity Scale or the Medvedev-
these most of the disasters are produced by Natural forces. Sponhever-Karnik Scale (MSK).
But, unwanted activities of human’s increases the intensity of Seismic Zone Intensity
these Disasters. Due to the exploitative activities of human
Zone II (Low Intensity) MSK VI or less, Low Damage
beings, the adverse effects of these disasters has increased.
Risk Zone
*Himalayan mountain is a new fold mountain whose growth
Zone III (Moderate Intensity) MSK VII, Moderate Damage
is still continuing. The collision of the Indian Plate along the
boundary of Nepal formed the orogenic belt that created the Risk Zone
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*Zone III - The IS code assigns zone factor of 0.18 for Zone
III. It covers the the Lakshadweep Islands. This Zone is
followed by Bihar (43). *The flood region of Uttar Pradesh
is divided into high flood prone and low flood prone region.
classified as moderate Damage risk Zone. It covers 30.4% *A cyclone is a large scale air mass that rotates around a
areas of the Country. strong centre of low pressure. They are usually characterized
*Zone II- This IS code assigns Zone factor of 0.10 for Zone by onward Spiraling winds that rotate anti-clockwise in
II. The Zone II is determined by combining the previous the Northern hemisphere and Clockwise in the Southern
Zone I and Zone II. It covers 41.4% of India. Major parts hemisphere.Tropical cyclones are characterised by large
of the peninsular region and Karnataka Plateau fall in this pressure gradients. *The centre of the cyclone is mostly a
Zone. Thus, it does not come under the Zone of High Seismic warm and low-pressure, cloudless core known as the eye of
intensity. the storm. Generally, the isobars are closely placed to each
*Tsunami is a Japanese Word, which constitutes of two of showing high-pressure gradients.
words, ‘tsu’ meaning ‘harbours’ and ‘nami’ meaning Under the influence of gravity, landslide is an activity of
‘wave’. According to High Powered committee on Disaster sliding of rocks and soils along with slopes.
Management Report (2001) of India, it originates from events *The frequency of landslides has been increasing in
like Earthquake in Ocean, Landslide, Volcanic explosion, etc. the Himalayas. Its root cause is increased frequency of
Majority of Tsunami originates from earthquakes that earthquake as well as man-made activities such as the
occur on the ocean floor. Tsunami is also called the ‘Harbour construction of road and dams. There has been large scale
waves’ or ‘Sea waves’. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning mining done for the construction of roads, dams, and
Centre (ITEWC) is established at Indian National Centre for minerals in the Himalayas in recent years. That is why the
Ocean Information Services (INCOIS-ESSO), Hyderabad. frequency of landslides has increased in the Himalayas. *The
It started operating from July 2005. On 26th December, first disaster Management Training Institute of Country
2004, a Tsunami, originated from the Indian Ocean, hit the has been established in Latur, Maharashtra.
Hudhud cyclone struck Andhra Pradesh coast at "Flood Forecast & Warning Organisation" was set up by
Vishakhapatnam in October 2014. Hudhud caused extremely Central Water Commission in 1969 to establish forecasting
heavy rainfall with strong gale wind leading to structural
sites on Inter-State rivers at various flood-prone places in
damage over north Andhra Pradesh. The name Hudhud was
the country. The “National Flood Forecasting and Warning
suggested by Oman.
Network” of Central Water Commission, which comprised of
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Tsunami Warning Center in India is located in
(a) Chennai (b) Vishakhapatnam
328 flood forecasting sites including 22 flood -prone States
& Three / Union territory; maximum in Uttar Pradesh (44)
(c) Hyderabad (d) Port Blair and followed by Bihar (43). The most drought-affected area
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012 is middle east India. Generally, the Cyclones affect-eastern
Ans. (c) coast of India. Central eastern India is most affected by
cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal. Cyclones are
The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) is
generated more frequently in Odisha.
established at Indian National Centre for Ocean Information
Science, (INCOIS - ESSO) Hyderabad. Its operation started 6. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer
from July 2005. using the code given below :
4. Indian Meteorological Department is established at List- I List- II
(a) New Delhi (b) Nagpur (Natural Disaster) (Affected Area/Region)
(c) Jodhpur (d) Pune A. Flood i. Himalayan Zone
B. Earthquake ii. Plains of Uttar Pradesh and
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012
Bihar
Ans. (a)
C. Drought iii. West and Central India Zone
Indian Meteorological Department was established in 1875 D. Tsunami iv. Southern Coastal area of India
under the Ministry of Earth and Science whose Head Office Code :
is situated at Lodhi Road in New Delhi. Indian Institute A B C D
of Tropical Meteorological Institute and deputy director (a) ii i iii iv
office of IMD (Indian Meteorological Department) is (b) i ii iii iv
situated at Pune. Calcutta was the first head office of Indian (c) iv i ii iii
Meteorological Department. The headquarter of IMD was (d) iii i ii iv
later shifted to Shimla in 1905, then to Pune in 1928 and M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
finally to New Delhi in 1944. Ans. (a)
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(iii) Unstable conditions through the troposphere that creates
local disturbance around which a cyclone develops.
(b) Water in the Bay of Bengal has chemicals which help
in the formation of cyclones
(iv) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge. (c) Long chain of the island of Andaman and Nicobar
The most important factor for the tropical cyclone in the acts as launching pad for cyclones
month of May is local temperature variation. The enhanced (d) The conical shape of Bay of Bengal funnels cyclones
but uneven temperature rise over the coastal region generates
North wards when they are formed in the sea
suction to the cyclone and thus cyclone deflects from its
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996
natural path towards the warmer region to gather this extra
Ans. (a)
entropy. It helps in the enlarging the diameter and inland
reach of the cyclone there by intensifying the severity of A cyclone is a large scale air mass that rotates around a
cyclone and the regional vulnerability. Local temperature strong centre of low pressure. They are usually characterized
variation is a fuel to the tropical cyclones for their genesis by inward spiralling winds that rotate counterclockwise
and intensification. in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern
hemisphere.
8. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as The cyclones affect the Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea.
More cyclones get formed in the Bay of Bengal due to low
Assertion and other as Reason :
pressure, generated by high temperature. These cyclones
Assertion (A) : The frequency of landslides has move in anticlockwise direction. There are two definite
increased in the Himalayas. seasons of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean.
Reason (R) : There has been large scale mining One is from May to June and the other from mid-September
to mid-December. May, June, October, and November are
in the Himalayas in recent years.
known for severe storms. The entire east coast from Odisha to
In the context of the above which one of the following Tamil Nadu is vulnerable to cyclones with varying frequency
is correct : and intensity. Hence, Statement (a) is correct.
Eastern coast is more prone to cyclone than western 13. Which among the following states faces a maximum
coast as cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal move natural disaster?
anticlockwise direction and affect whole east coast. Hence, (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha
the statement (A) is correct. Eastern coast of India lies in (c) Bihar (d) Gujarat
zone of northeast trade winds. Thus, both (A) and (R) are U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Ans. (b)
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11. What is 'Ockhi' which has been in the news recently ?
(a) Cyclonic storm that hit India's coast in November 2017
Since Odisha is located on the coast of the Bay of Bengal,
it faces flood and drought more due to cyclones and anti-
cyclones. Thus, Odisha is affected by cyclones, flood, and
(b) The film that won the 'Golden Peacock' Award in the
drought. Therefore, it faces more natural disasters than
International Film Festival held in Goa in November
other States.
2017
(c) The venue in Bangladesh where Asian Archery Cham- 14. The first Disaster Management Training Institution of
pionship was held in November 2017 the country is being established at:
(d) The nearest place in Doklam area where Chinese army (a) Hyderabad ( Andhra Pradesh)
is stationed (b) Bangalore (Karnataka)
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2017 (c) Latur (Maharashtra)
Ans. (a) (d) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
'Ockhi' is a cyclonic storm that hit India's coast in November Ans. (c)
2017. This cyclone was categorised 'extremely severe
cyclonic storm.' The first Disaster Management Training Institute of the
country has been established in Latur, Maharashtra by the
12. Assertion (A) : The Koyna region of Maharashtra is CRPF. Notably, India's first disaster management training
likely to become more earthquake- institute was set up on 29 April, 1957 in Nagpur. Since
prone in near future. Nagpur is not given in the options, the question is based on
Reason (R) : The Koyna dam is located on an old the institute set up by CRPF.
fault-plane which may get activated 15. Which one of the following areas of India does not
more frequently with changes in come under the zone of high seismic intensity ?
water-level in Koyna reservoir. (a) Uttarakhand (b) Karnataka Plateau
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resistant design of structures in Zone V. The zone factor of
0.36 is indicative of effective (zero period) level earthquake
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
in this Zone. It is referred to as the very high damage risk
Ans. (a)
zone. The region of J & K (UT), Ladakh (UT), Western and
Central Himalayas, North and Middle Bihar, North-East
Assertion (A) : The highest concentration of seismic zones
Indian region and the Rann of Kutch fall in this zone.
Zone IV: This Zone is called the High Damage Risk Zone and lies in the Himalayan region in India, is the correct statement.
covers the area liable to MSK VIII. The IS code assigns zone Reason (R) : There are many longitudinal thrust zones in
factor of 0.24 for Zone IV. The Indo-Gangetic basin and the the Himalayas, is the also correct statement. The seismic
capital of the country (Delhi), rest of Himalayas is included activity in the Himalayan region is confined to the plate
in Zone IV. In Maharashtra, the Patan area (Koyananagar)
boundary areas and is associated with a collision and the
is also in Zone no-4.This Zone covers remaining parts of
Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Northern parts of Uttar Pradesh, under-thrusting of the Indian plate beneath the Eurasian
Bihar and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions of plate. The thrust of the Himalaya is now apparently quiescent
Maharashtra near the West coast and Rajasthan. It comprises for large earthquakes, but the foothill show geologically very
17.3% areas of the country.
recent faulting and thrusting on a large scale. So, Both (A)
Zone III: The IS code assigns zone factor of 0.18 for Zone
3. It covers the Lakshadweep islands. This Zone is classified and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
as Moderate Damage Risk Zone. It includes 30.4% areas of 18. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
the country. Cities Seismic Zones
Zone II: The IS code assigns Zone factor of 0.10 (maximum
(a) Bhuj – IV
horizontal acceleration that can be experienced by a structure
in this Zone is 10% of gravitational acceleration) for Zone (b) Hyderabad – I
2. It comprises 41.4 % areas of the country. (c) Srinagar – V
Major parts of the peninsular region and Karnataka Plateau (d) Chennai – II
fall in this Zone. Thus, it does not come under the Zone of U.P.P.S.C. (R.I.) 2014
high seismic intensity. Ans. (*)
The black soil is also called 'Regur' (from the Telugu word
Reguda), cotton soils and tropical Chernozem, etc. This
soil is mainly found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, parts
of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu.
*The black soils are generally clayey, deep, and impermeable.
Geographically, Black soil is spread over 5.46 lakh sq km.
They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when
dried. So during the dry season, these soils develops wide 4. Black cotton soil is also knwon by which of the
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cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of self ploughing. Because following?
(a) Banger (b) Khadar
of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the
(c) Bhur (d) Regur
black soil retains the moisture for a long time.
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016
*The colour of Black Cotton soil is deep black to light black
Ans. (d)
and like the colour of Chestnut. *According to ‘Krebs’ the
Black soil is a mature soil in the formation of which special Black soil is also known as Regur soil. It is a mature soils
and has high water retention capacity. Self-phoughing is a
relief and climate play an important role.
characteristic of the black soil as it develops wide cracks
when dried.
1. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to
the weathering of : 5. Another name for ‘Regur Soil’ is :
(a) brown forest soil (b) fissure volcanic rock (a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) granite and schist (d) shale and limestone (c) Arid soil (d) Mixed red-yellow soil
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
I.A.S. (Pre) 2021
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
See the explanation of above question.
Regur soil or Black soil has been formed due to weathering
6. Regur soil is most widespread in –
of basaltic lava. These types of soil are typical of Deccan trap
(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamil Nadu
(Basalt) region spread over north-west Deccan plateau and
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Jharkhand
is made up of lava flow. They are ideal for growing Cotton.
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000
They cover the plateau of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa,
Ans. (a)
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and extended to Godavari
and Krishna valley. See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
sugarcane, Jute, Cotton, Maize, oilseed, fruits and vegetables.
*Generally loamy soil has 40% sand particles, 40% clay
(c) Alluvial soil particles and 20% silt particles.
(d) Lateritic soil *Types of Alluvial Soil :
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above Khadar - Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by
63rd B.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017 floods annually which enrich the soil by depositing fine silts.
Ans. (c) They always remain fertile.
Alluvial soil is formed by the silt released from the rivers. Bangar - Bangar represents a system of older alluvium
Alluvial soils are divided into two subclasses - deposited away from the flood plains. Its colour is pale
reddish brown and in this nodules are formed at large scale.
1. New Alluvium or Khadar - It is deposited by floods
Bhabar - Bhabar is the gently-sloping coarse alluvial
annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
zone below the Shiwalik Hills where streams disappear into
2. Older Alluvium or Bhangar - It represents a system of older
permeable sediments.
alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. Tarai - The marshy lowland region south of the Bhabar
is called Tarai. The soil of this region is generally rich in
iii. Alluvial Soil nitrogen and organic matter but poor in phosphate. The
*Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river ancient alluvial soil found at higher altitude in this region is
valleys. These soils cover about 11 lakh sq. km or about 33.5% known as Rarh Plain.
of the total area of the country. *The alluvial soil is largely 1. Which one of the following is the most productive soil
found in the Indo-Gangetic plain starting from Punjab in the in India?
west to the West Bengal and Assam in the east. These soils (a) Red soil (b) Black soil
are also found in deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and (c) Alluvial soil (d) Calcareous soil
Kaveri where these are called deltaic Alluvium. Alluvial soils U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014
are formed mainly by Himalayan sediments and Sea retreat. Ans. (c)
Alluvial soil is the largest and the most important soil group 6. The water holding capacity of different types of soils
of India. Covering about 11 lakh sq km or about 33.5% of the decreases in the order :
total land area of the country, these soils contribute the largest (a) Clay > Silt > Sand (b) Clay > Sand > Silt
share of our agricultural wealth. The widest occurrence (c) Sand > Silt > Clay (d) Silt > Sand > Clay
of the Alluvial soils is in the Indo-Gangetic plain starting U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2017
from Punjab in the West to West Bengal and Assam in the Ans. (a)
East. They are also found in deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, The water holding capacity of different types of soils in
Krishna and Cauvery, where they are called deltaic alluvium. descending order is -
Along the coast, they are known as coastal alluvium. Some Clay–silt–sand.
alluvial soils are found in Narmada and Tapi valleys.
Geologically, the alluvium is divided into newer or younger 7. Consider the statements :
Khadar and older Bhangar soils. Geographically, Black soils Assertion (A) : Among various types of soils, clay
are spread over 5.46 lakh sq km while the red soils occupy retains highest amount of water.
a vast area of about 8.7 lakh sq km. Reason (R) : Clay has pore spaces of large size.
3.
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Which one of the following is the most widespread
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes :
category of soils in India? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
(a) Alluvial soils (b) Black soils explanation of (A).
(c) Red soils (d) Forest soils (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(e) None of the these explanation of (A).
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2017 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans. (a) (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
See the explanation of above question. U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2017
Ans. (c)
4. Old Kachhari clay of Gangetic plain is called
Among various types of soil, clay retains the highest amount
(a) Bhabar (b) Bhangar
(c) Khadar (d) Khondolyte of water. Sandy soil has pore spaces of large size. Silt has
41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996 relatively small pore spaces then sandy clayey soil has the
Ans. (b) highest water retaining capacity becuase it has least pore
spaces.
Geologically, the alluvium of the great plain of India is
8. Which soil particles are present in loamy soils?
divided into newer or younger khadar and older bhangar
(a) Sand particles
soils. Bhangar is found on the higher level beyond the reach
(b) Clay particles
of floods. Bhangar soil contains calcareous concretions and
(c) Silt particles
is generally pale reddish brown in colour.
(d) All types of particles
5. Which of the following types of soil has minimum water 53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
retention capacity? Ans. (d)
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Muzzaffarpur, Darbhanga and Champaran?
(a) Black soil (b) Newer alluvium
(c) Older alluvium (d) Red soil
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
Desert Soil - The Desert soil covers an area of near about
63rd B.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
29 million hactares. The rainfall in these areas ranges from
Ans. (b)
50 cm to less than 10 cm. The temperature is very high.
Newer alluvium soil is found in the districts of Muzaffarpur, The avg. temperature of soil is 35oC. These soils are formed
Darbhanga and Champaran. Newer alluvium soil (khadar) in dry climatic condition. They are found in Rajasthan,
is created by the decomposition of debris/silt from the flood Saurashtra (Gujarat), Kutch, Southern Punjab. They
waters bought by the rivers Gandak, Burhi Gandak, Bagmati
contain a low amount of organic matter and nitrogen.
etc., every year. This soil helps in the production of crops
*Legume crops enrich the soils with nitrogen content by
like paddy, wheat, Jute and Sugarcane.
atmospheric nitrogen fixation. Plants contributing to nitrogen
fixation are soyabeans, alpha-alpha, lubins, peanuts,
iv. Soils : Miscellaneous pulses. etc.
Red Soil - Red Soil in India, are formed by weathering of 1. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer
ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks. *The higher using the code given below :
concentration of iron is responsible for the red colour of the List - I (Soil) List - II (State)
Soil. *These soils are found in the region of low rainfall and
A. Alluvial 1. Rajasthan
is obviously more leached than laterite soils (Ferric-red).
The red soils cover a large portion of land in India (near B. Black 2. Uttar Pradesh
about 8.7 lakh sq km). *Red soils are poor in phosphorus, C. Red 3. Maharashtra
nitrogen and lime contents. It is found in Indian States D. Desert 4. Andhra Pradesh
4. Which one of the following crops is grown for improving 8. Karewas soils, which are useful for the cultivation of
Zafran (a local variety of saffron), are found
the soil fertility ?
(a) Kashmir Himalaya (b) Garhwal Himalaya
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Nepal Himalaya (d) Eastern Himalaya
(c) Black Gram (Urd) (d) Sugarcane (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1996 64th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2018
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
The crop of Black Gram (Urd) is grown for improving soil Karewa soil is found in the Kashmir Valley and is used for
fertility. Occasionally, it is also used as fodder. growing local saffron called Zafran.
Clay soil has the highest water retention capacity. Therefore Codes :
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
soil water available to plants is maximum in it. Clay soil has
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
less than 50% silt, 50% clay and some amount of sand. This
(c) only 3 is correct
soil slows air ventilation, due to which it sustains water.
(d) only 1 is correct
10. Which one of the following particles has less than 0.002 U.P. B.E.O. (Pre) 2019
mm diameter? Ans. (b)
(a) Clay (b) Silt
Usar soil has more pH than 7. There is a severe deficiency of
(c) Fine sand (d) None of the above
bacteria, nitrogen and zinc in this soil. Pyrites, gypsum and
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016
green manure are used for its treatment. This type of land
Ans. (a)
is suitable for cultivation of tolerant paddy varieties like
The diameter of clay is less than 0.002 mm. Silt has a Narendra Shankar Usar Paddy-1, Usar Paddy-2 etc. The use
diameter of 0.002 mm to 0.06 mm and fine sand's diameter of lime is used in the treatment of acidic soil instead of the
is 0.06 mm to 2 mm. treatment of the Usar Soil. So, option (b) is the correct answer.
2. A fertile soil, suitable for growing common crops is
v. Acidic and Alkali Soil likely to have a pH value of :
(a) Three (b) Four
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*The soil pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity in
the soil- The pH below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline.
(c) Six to seven (d) Nine to ten
I.A.S. (Pre) 1993
Generally, the pH value of crop soil is 6.0-7.0. *Acidic soil Ans. (c)
is sedimentary in nature. These have mixed laterite, ferrous
The soil pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity in soils.
red and another red soil group. *These are formed by the
A pH below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline. Soil pH is
humid climate, acidic material and geomorphology. Due to considered a master variable in soils as it controls many
temperature, humid climate and heavy rain, rapid erosion chemical processes that take place. It specifically affects
occurs in soil and increases the rate of leaching in bases. plant nutrient availability by controlling the chemical forms
of the nutrient. Most nutrients that plants need can dissolve
Due to high temperature with heavy rainfall and leaching,
easily when the pH of the soil solution ranges from 6.0 to
acidic soil is formed. 7.0. Thus, option (c) is correct.
*Factors causing acidity in the soil are leaching (due to
3. Which one of the following can be used to make acidic
heavy rainfall), acidic substances, acid forming fertilizers
soil cultivable?
and soluble salts, etc. (a) Lime
Alkali Soil – (b) Gypsum
*Generally, the alkaline soil is found in India in dry and (c) Calcium
wetlands region. They are fromed due to capillary action (d) Vegetable compost
of cations of Mg+2, Na+, Ca++, which is deposited on the M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
surface of the soil. This type of soil is mainly distributed in Ans. (a)
South Punjab, Southern Haryana, West-Rajasthan. *Gypsum Generally, lime is used to make acidic soil cultivable. It is
(CaSO4) is used to change the alkalinity of the soil and notable that excessive alkaline or acidic soil is not good for
remove the sailinity from it. soil health and it is not used for cultivation of common crops.
6. Identify the correct order of the process of soil-erosion Seed modification method would affect crop production but
form the following: not affect soil fertility. Soil fertility can be improved by crop
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully rotation, mixed cultivation and multiple cropping methods.
erosion
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill 9. The rotation of crops is essential for –
erosion, (a) Increasing protein content in plants
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash (b) Getting different crops
erosion
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(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash
erosion
(c) Increasing soil fertility
(d) Maintaining soil moisture
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
I.A.S. (Pre) 2001
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
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(c) Afforestation (d) Increasing number of birds
40th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1995
this region is near about 70%. *Due to high humidity and
temperature, trees are very tall and intensive (dense). They
Ans. (c)
are also called as “Selvas”.
Soil conservation includes all the methods to check soil *There are a different time for leaf fall of different species
erosion and maintain soil fertility. Some of the effective ways of the tree due to which the entire forest is evergreen. The
to prevent soil erosion are – afforestation, contour tillage, tropical evergreen forest in India found is Assam, Kerala,
banning shifting cultivation, etc. West Bengal, Andaman-Nicobar islands, Meghalaya,
13. Soil erosion can be prevented by – Tripura, Mizoram and Western coastal plain.
(a) Heavy rains (b) Deforestation The major species found in the tropical evergreen forest
(c) Afforestation (d) Overgrazing included Cinchona, Rubber, Coconut, Bamboo,
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014 Mahogany, Ebony, etc.
Ans. (c) 2. Tropical Deciduous or Monsoon Forests: *Tropical
See the explanation of above question. deciduous is also called as monsoon forests. Trees shed
their leaves in the dry season to conserve water. The
14. Which of the following practices can help in water
average rainfall in this region is 70-200 cm. On the basis
conservation in agriculture?
of availability of water these forest can be categorised as
1. Reduced on zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field Tropical moist Deciduous forest and Tropical Dry deciduous
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field forest. In India, Tropical Moist Deciduous forests are found
Select the correct answer using the code given below: in the eastern slope of western ghats, north-eastern region
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only of Indian peninsula, Bhabar and Tarai region. *Tree found
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
in these forests are Sal, Teak, Neem, Shisham and Mango.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2017
Ans. (d) Hardwood trees are extreely useful for making furniture.
4. Arid Forest: The Birch tree is found in the Himalayas. The white
*Arid forests are also referred to ‘Tropical Thorn forests’. paper-like bark of the tree was used in ancient times for
They are found in the areas receiving less than 70 cm rain- writing scriptures and texts. It grows up at elevations up to
fall. *It includes semi-arid areas of south-west Punjab, 4,500 meters.
South-west Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
2. Which of the following woods is used for manufacturing
*These forest consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. In
Katha?
these forests, plants remains leafless for most of the year.
(a) Saal (b) Khair
Important species found are babool, ber, wild date palm,
(c) Babool (d) Saaja
khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc.
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990
5. Delta Forest :-
Ans. (b)
*Deltaic forest is also known as mangrove, swampy or
littoral forest. Mangroves grow along the coast in the salt The Kathha is obtained from the wood of Khair. Katha is a
marshes, tidal creeks, mudflats and estuaries. Deltaic forest white substance found in Khair wood. It grows throughout
develops in the deltaic region of Ganga, Godavari, Brahma- India from the Himalayas to the south of India, especially
putra, Krishna river, etc. Sundarban forest is the best example in arid regions.
of deltaic forests.
6. Montane Forests:- 3. In India, which type of forest among the following
In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with occupies the largest area?
increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in (a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
natural vegetation. Mountain forests can be classified into (b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
two types, the northern mountain forest and the southern (c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
mountain forest. (d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
*The Himalayan range shows a succession of vegetation I.A.S. (Pre) 2010
from tropical to tundra. Ans. (c)
See the explanation of above question. 9. Which of the following plants have no flowers?
5. Which one of the following tree is abundant in the (a) Jackfruit (b) Fig
temperate zone of Western Himalayas? (c) Orchid (d) Fern
(a) Pine (b) Deodar U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
(c) Silver fur (d) Blue pine
Ans. (d)
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A (Pre) 2003
Ans. (b) The fern is a vascular plant that reproduces by spores and has
neither seeds nor flowers. These plants are seedless. Thus,
The western Himalayan region extends at an elevation of
1500-2500 meters. Its temperate zone is rich in forests option (d) is the correct answer,
of Deodar, Chir, Pine, other conifers and broad-leaved 10. The alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is
temperate trees. The trees of Deodar is abundant in the found only up to a height of 3000 metres while in the
6.
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temperate zone of western Himalayas than any other plants.
In which one of the following states Cinchona trees
eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000
metres. The reason for this variation in the same
does not grow? mountain range is that :
(a) Assam (b) Kerala (a) Eastern Himalayas are higher than the western
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) West Bengal Himalayas
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010 (b) Eastern Himalayas are nearer to the equator and sea
Ans. (c) coast than the western Himalayas
(c) Eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than
The Cinchona is an evergreen tropical plant. In India, the western Himalayas
evergreen forests are found in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, (d) Eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the
Kerala, Maharashtra, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, western Himalayan rocks
Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
Islands while Chhattisgarh is suitable for Tropical dry and
Ans. (b)
monsoon type forests. The Cinchona tree does not grow in
Chhattisgarh. It is found in Assam, Kerala and West Bengal. Since eastern Himalayas are nearer to the equator and
7. Which one of the following is called 'flame of the sea coast, the snowline in the eastern Himalayas is at a
forest'? higher altitude than the western Himalayas. As a result of this,
(a) Bouhinia variegata (b) Jacaranda mimosafolia there is variation in the height of vegetation in the Himalayas.
(c) Butea monosperma (d) Tectona grandis
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010 11. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and
Ans. (c) Chiru?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas
Butea monosperma is called the “flame of the forest”. It is Chiru is adapted to live in Steppes and semi-desert
known as Dhak or Palash also. Palash (Butea monosperma) areas of cold high mountains
has been declared as the State Flower of Uttar Pradesh. (b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is
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(iii) Major irrigation Projects - More than 10,000 hectares
area is irrigated under these projects. 38% for the need of
Govind Ballabh Pant in March, 1958. It originates from
Harike Dam situated at the confluence of Sutlej and the Beas
irrigation of the country is fulfilled by the Major Irrigation river in Punjab. It is the world’s largest canal projects. Its
total length is 649 km.
Projects.
*Gang Canal is one of the world’s oldest and most developed The canal mainly irrigates Ganganagar, Bikaner, Jodhpur and
canal. It was constructed in the year 1927 by Shri Gang Jaisalmer districts of western Rajasthan. *Under the Gandak
Singh, the then Maharaja of Bikaner. It arose from Hussaini project a 740 meter long barrage was built near the Triveni
Wala, near the river Sutlej from Firojpur. *The Eastern Ghat on Gandak River.
Yamuna canal originates from the left bank of Yamuna from *The construction of Farakka Barrage was done in the year
Tajewala. The length of the main canal is 197 kilometres. 1975 with the aim of stopping the accumulation of Silts of the
This canal system provides irrigation facility to Hindon, Hooghly river. 40,000 cusec water of Gange river was turned
Yamuna Doab's, Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Merrut and towards Hooghly river by canal derived from the right bank
Ghaziabad. After its revival, the canal started functioning of this barrage.
in 1830 A.D. At that time, the water discharged from this *Ten irrigation projects have been completed on the
canal was 800 cusecs. In the meanwhile this was increased to Bharatpujha river and its tributaries of Palakkad district
4000 cusecs. To solve this problem, the Hathinikund barrage in Kerala. Mangalam irrigation project is one of them.
(Haryana) has been constructed above 3 km from Tajewala. *Garland Canal system was proposed by Captain Dinshaw
*The construction of Upper Ganga canal was during the J. Dasthur. Whereas the idea of linking of rivers was first
period of 1842 AD. Sir P.T. Katley was the father of this proposed by irrigation engineer Vishawaswarya. Later, the
project. The water was discharged for the first time on April name of K.L. Rao was added to it. The then Prime Minister
8, 1954 in this canal. It starts from a place called Bhimgoda Atal Bihari Vajpayee inaugurated the development plan
of Haridwar on the right bank of the river Ganga. The length “Hariyali” related to water storage on January 27, 2003.
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level can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Punjab
U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 Ans. (a)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
I.A.S. (Pre) 2011 The state having the largest area under tubewell and well
Ans. (c) irrigation in India in Uttar Pradesh.
Fertilizers/nutrients loss can be reduced by micro-irrigation. 11. In which of the following States, the area under Tube-
In some areas of farming , receding of ground water level well irrigation is the largest?
can be checked by micro - irrigation due to limited and (a) Bihar (b) Haryana
beneficiary use of water. Thus, statement 1& 3 are correct (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
while statement 2 is not correct.
Ans. (c)
7. Life saving or Protective irrigation refers to:
(a) Constant flow of water The net area under irrigation and area irrigated by tubewells
(b) Irrigation at critical growth stage for the above states for the year 2014-15 is as follows –
(c) P.W.P. Irrigation State Net Irrigation Net Area under
(d) Alternate wetting and drying Area Tube-well
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010 (2014-15) irrigation
Ans. (c) (2014-15)
Life-saving or Protective irrigation refers to irrigation at (In thousand Hectare)
P.W.P (Permanent Wilting Point). Permanent wilting point Uttar Pradesh 14389 10183
is the extent at which the moisture is no longer available Punjab 4118 2943
in sufficient quantity for plants to sustain. The irrigation Bihar 2987 1860
becomes compulsory in this situation. Haryana 2974 1818
14. Who is regarded as the Pioneer or Irrigation works in The Farakka Barrage Project with headquarters at Farakka in
South India? Murshidabad, West Bengal was designed to serve the need of
(a) Sir Arthur Cotton (b) Col. Baird Smith preservation and maintenance of Calcutta Port by improving
(c) Lt. Blaine (d) Col. Robert Smith the regime and navigability of the Bhagirathi-Hoogly river
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 systems in 1975. The water-carrying capacity of Farakka
Ans. (a) canal is 40,000 cuses.
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19. Which of the following canal systems irrigate areas of
Bihar?
See the explanation of above question.
24. Indira Gandhi Canal receives its water supply from
(a) Upper Ganga Canal (b) Triveni Canal 1. Beas 2. Chenab
(c) Sharda Canal (d) Eastern Yamuna Canal 3. Ravi 4. Satluj
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Select the correct answer from the code given below :
60th to 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016 Code :
Ans. (b) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Triveni Canal is made for irrigation in northwestern part of (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Bihar. This canal is related to Chandan irrigation project. U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
Ans. (d)
20. Indira Gandhi Canal has its source at :
(a) Gandhi Sagar Dam Indira Gandhi Canal receives its water supply from Satluj,
(b) Bhakra Dam Beas and Ravi.
(c) Harike Barrage 25. Bakingham canal is situated :
(d) Govind Ballabh Sagar Dam (a) On Kalinga Coast (b) On Malabar Coast
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999 (c) On Koromandal Coast (d) On Kutch Coast
Ans. (c) Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
Indira Gandhi Canal originates at Harike Barrage near the Ans. (c)
confluence of Satluj and Beas rivers in Firozpur district of Bakingham canal is a freshwater navigation canal with a length
Punjab. The total length of the main canal system is 649 of 796 km, parallels the Koromandal (Coromandal) coast from
km. Ganganagar, Bikaner, Jodhpur and Jaisalmer districts Kakinand city in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh
of western Rajasthan are mainly irrigated by Indira Gandhi to Viluppuram district in Tamil Nadu. It connects most of the
Canal. natural backwaters along the coast to Chennai port.
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the agricultural sector. It is to be noted that the total water
availability obtained through rainfall in India is about 3880
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999
billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. Ans. (a)
Sardar Sarovar Dam (height - 163 meter) has been
Multi-Purpose River Valley constructed on Narmada river near Navgaon in Gujarat. It
has installed capacity of 1450 M.W. electricity generation.
Projects The beneficiary States of Sardar Sarovar Project are Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. Hence (a) is
i- Narmada Valley Project : the correct answer.
*The Narmada is a fifth largest river of India. In 1945-46, a
2. On which of the following rivers is the Sardar Sarovar
comprehensive programme was drafted for irrigation, produc- Dam being constructed?
tion of electricity and flood management in Narmada Basin. (a) Narmada (b) Chambal
In this project, 30 large, 135 medium and 3000 small dam (c) Sutluj (d) Mahanadi
and barrage on the Narmada and its tributaries was declared U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992
to be constructed. Ans. (a)
*Sardar Sarovar Project has been established at Narmada See the explanation of above question.
River in Gujarat (163 Meter height near Navgaon). It will
3. Which one of the following rivers is associated with
produce 1450 Megawatt of hydro-electricity. Sardar Sarovar Project?
*57% of the electricity produced from this project will be (a) Narmada (b) Tapti (Tapi)
supplied to Madhya Pradesh. (c) Godawari (d) Cauvery (Kaveri)
Beneficiary states from this project are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. Ans. (a)
Medha Patekar founded 'Dharang Rashtra Samiti' in See the explanation of above question.
8. In which one of the following water reservoirs, Harsud ii. Bhakra Nangal Dam
town of Madhya Pradesh has been submerged ?
*Bhakra Nangal multi-purpose project is a joint venture for
(a) Indira Sagar (b) Rani Avanti Bai dam
(c) Sardar Sarovar (d) Mahi Dam Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003 *Under this, two dams have been constructed near Bhakra
Ans. (a) and Nangal on Satluj river. The construction of Bhakra Dam
Harsud town of district Khandwa of Madhya Pradesh was was completed in 1963.
submerged in 2004 due to the construction of Indira Sagar These dams have been constructed 80 km. north of Ambala
Dam. at Sutlej river. The command region of Bhakra Nangal is
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(b) H.P., Punjab, Haryana
(c) Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan
options (d) is the correct answer.
2. Shiva Samundram Hydropower Project is located in-
(d) Haryana, U.P., Rajasthan (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011
See the explanation of above question. Ans. (d)
3. On which river is the Bhakhra-Nangal dam built? See the explanation of above question.
(a) Ravi (b) Indus
3. Cauvery River Water Dispute(CRWD) is related to
(c) Chenab (d) Satluj
which of the following states?
45th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2001
(a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Ans. (d)
(b) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
See the explanation of above question.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Gujarat
iii. Dam at the River Cauvery (d) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka , Kerala and Puducherry
U.P.U.D.A/L.D.A. (Spl.) (Pre) 2010
*Development of Hydroelectricity started in last decade of
Ans. (d)
the 19th century. In 1897, Hydropower plant was planted in
Sidrapong for electricity supply to Darjeeling. It is the oldest Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Puducherry are the States
hydropower plant of India. The second oldest hydropower related to Cauvery River Water Dispute. The Cauvery Water
plant was planted at Shivasamudram on Cauvery river in Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) came up with its final order in
Karnataka in 1902. Shivsamudram is an ancient place. It is 2013, giving 270 TMC(Thousand Million Cubic) water to
located in Cauvery Doab, near about 50 km N-E of Mysore. Karnataka, 30 TMC to Kerala, 419 TMC to Tamil Nadu, and
Here, the water of Cauvery appears to be a great lake due to 7 TMC to Puducherry.
See the explanation of above question. See the explanation of above question.
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Tehri district of Uttarakhand. Bhilangana river flows into
Bhagirathi at old Tehri before the site of Tehri dam. The major
Bhilangana rivers on which Tehri Dam is constructed.
objectives of the project are to impound floodwaters of the viii. Damodar Valley Project
Bhagirathi and the Bhilangana rivers into a large reservoir
behind the dam, generation of hydroelectricity and irrigation *Damodar River is the main tributary of Hugli. It is known as
of agricultural land.The project was cleared by the Planning “Sorrow of Bengal” due to excessive pollution and frequent
Commission of India in 1972 but construction started on floods. Damodar valley corporation was established in
April 5, 1978. 1948. *The dam of Tilaiya, Belpahadi and Maithon has
been constructed on Barakar River which is the tributary of
2. On which of the following rivers, the Tehri Hydro
Power Project has been constructed? Damodar River. *Tilaiya dam is located in Koderma district.
(a) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda Construction of this dam was completed in 1953. *Konar
(b) Yamuna and Bhagirathi dam at Konar river in Hazaribag district is situated 24 km
(c) Kali and Tons east from the confluence of Damodar. It was constructed in
(d) Bhagirathi and Bhilangana the year 1955.
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 *Maithon dam is established at Barakar River. It was
Ans. (d) completed in 1957.
See the explanation of above question. *Panchet hill dam is situated 20 km south of the Maithon
Dam at Damodar River. It was completed in 1959.
3. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri
Under this valley project (Damodar) two canals have been
Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda (b) Bhagirathi started from Durgapur Barrage. The lands of Howrah, Hugli
(c) Dhauliganga (d) Mandakini and Vardhman are irrigated by these canals.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2009 1. Maithon, Belpahari and Tilaya dams are constructed
Ans. (b) on the river-
See the explanation of above question. (a) Damodar (b) Barakar
A B C D
3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) 2 1 3 4
(a) Midnapur Canal : Kangsabati River (Kasai) (b) 1 2 4 3
(b) Tawa Project : Krishna River (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) Mettur Dam : Cauvery River (d) 1 2 3 4
(d) Ukai Project : Tapi River
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
The correct match is as follows:
Correctly matched Canal/Dam/Project with the Rivers are
Hirakud Project - Odisha
as follows:
Midanpur Canal - Kangsabati River Haldia Refinery - West Bengal
Tawa Project - Tawa River Tarapur Nuclear Station - Maharashtra
Mettur Dam - Cauvery River Kudremukh Hills - Karnataka
Ukai Project - Tapi River.
6. Himachal Pradesh dam is now being built over the
Thus option (b) is not correctly matched as Tawa project is
river Sutlej, What is the main purpose of building the
on Tawa River not on River Krishna.
dam?
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (a) To check the flow of silts in Bhakra dam
using the codes given below the lists : (b) To provide water for irrigation in Himachal Pradesh
List-I List-II (c) Fisheries
(Dam) (River) (d) Afforestation in the runoff region
A. Doolhasti 1. Chambal R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992
B. Gandhisagar 2. Chenab Ans. (a)
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of Kerala. It is 138 mts. tall concrete gravity dam. the river forms the boundary between Nalgonda district
of Telangana and Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.
9. Which of the following Hydro projects has been built
by India in co-operation with Bhutan? 11. Which of the following projects is the joint venture of
(a) Dulhasti Dam (b) Loktak Dam Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka :
(c) Chukha Dam (d) Beyas-Siyul Dam (a) Dakshin Gangotri
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992 (b) Nagarjuna Sagar
(c) Silent Valley
Ans. (c)
(d) Telugu Ganga
Chukha Dam Project is located on the upper reaches of Wang U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999
Chu or Raidak river in Bhutan. The height of this dam is 40 Ans. (d)
metre. It's construction started in 1974 as a fully funded unit
Telugu Ganga project is the joint venture of Tamil Nadu, Andhra
of India, which included 60% as grant and 40% as loan. The
Pradesh, Maharashtra and Karnataka. It is a water supply
management of this project was transferred to Bhutan in 1991.
project to provide drinking water to Chennai (Madras) city
70% electricity from this 336 MW project is exported to India.
in Tamil Nadu by using the water of Krishna river.
10. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer
from the code given below : 12. Which city will get water from the Telugu Ganga
Project
List- I List -II
(a) Madurai (b) Madras
(Project) (Location)
(c) Banglore (d) Tiruchirappalli
A. Bhakhra 1. Krishna
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996
B. Hirakud 2. Periyar
Ans. (b)
C. Idukki 3. Mahanadi
D. Nagarjuna Sagar 4. Satluj See the explanation of above question.
19. Kalpong Hydroelectric Power project is located in- The above mentioned dams are located at-
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Farakka Barrage is built across the Ganga River. Main
objective of this barrage is to make Hugli river navigable
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
during dry seasons.
(c) Meghalaya
Ghatprabha Hydroelectric Project is built across river
(d) Sikkim
Ghat prabha in Karnataka.
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
Hirakud Dam Project is built on the river Mahanadi in
Ans. (a)
Odisha.
Kalpong Hydro-Electric Power Project was the first ever Kakrapara project is constructed on the Tapti river in
hydro-electric power project in Andaman and Nicobar Gujarat.
Islands. It is built on river Kalpong. So, option (a) is correct.
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Sardar Sarovar –
Nagarjun Sagar –
Narmada
Krishna
Tehri Dam project
Ramganga Project
- Bhagirathi
- Ramganga
Hirakund Dam – Mahanadi
49. In Uttar Pradesh ‘Rani Laxmibai Dam Project’ has
46. Teesta Low Dam Project (TLDP)-III is proposed along been constructed on the river –
the Teesta river. The site of the project lies in : (a) Ghagra (b) Betwa
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Son (d) Chambal
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003 Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Rajghat Dam Project on Betwa river in Lalitpur is known as
Teesta Low Dam Project (TLDP)- III and IV are related to Rani Lakshmibai Dam Project.
West Bengal whereas the earlier two projects (i) and (ii)
are related to Sikkim. Teesta river originates from Sikkim 50. On which river is Dulhasti Power station situated ?
then it runs downhill through Sikkim and Darjeeling (a) Vyas (b) Chenab
hills then meander along the plains of West Bengal and (c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
eventually enters Bangladesh where it flows and meets river Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
Brahmaputra. Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2006
Ans. (b)
47. “Teesta hydropower project” is located in which state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand Dulhasti is a 390 MW hydroelectric power plant built on
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim Chenab river in Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
51. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Ans. (d)
(a) Dulhasti - Chenab
See the explanation of above question. (b) Indira Gandhi canal - Sutlej
59. Which of the following state/states will be benefitted (River Valley Project) (River)
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by the proposed "Kishau Dam" Project?
(a) Haryana
A. Rihand Project
B. Nagarjun Sagar Project
1.
2.
Godavari
Betwa
(b) Uttarakhand & Himachal Pradesh C. Pochampad Project 3. Rihand
(c) Jammu-Kashmir D. Matatila Project 4. Krishna
(d) Assam Codes :
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 A B C D
Ans. (*) (a) 1 4 3 2
Kishau Dam Project is constructed on river Tons which is (b) 3 2 4 1
a major tributary of river Yamuna and forms the boundary (c) 3 1 2 4
between Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand in most of its (d) 3 4 1 2
region. The water stored in the Kishau reservoir is utilized U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016
for irrigation and power generation. Primary beneficiaries of Ans. (d)
this project are Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh. Other
List-I List-II
States/ Union Territory which is also benefitted from this (River Valley Project) (River)
project include Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Rihand Project Rihand
Nagarjun Sagar Project Krishna
60. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct
Pochampad Project Godavari
answer from the codes given below:
Matatila Project Betwa
List - I List - II
(River Valley Project) (River) 62. Which dam is not for irrigation?
A. Tilaiya Dam 1. Damodar (a) Bhavani Sagar (b) Shivsamudram
B. Panchet Hill Dam 2. Chambal (c) Krishnaraj Sagar (d) Bhakra Nangal
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kg per hectare). Also at India level Puduchery consume the
most (244.77 kg per hectare). On the basis of the data of the
monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase
year 2019-20, the largest fertilizer consumption in terms
in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenom-
of thousand tonnes in five state respectively Uttar Pradesh
enon is not observed in permaculture farming.
(5172.97 thousand tonnes), Maharashtra (2941.29 thousand
tonnes), Madhya Pradesh (2683.39 thousand tonnes), Punjab 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in
(1905.88 thousand tonnes) and Karnataka (1860.91 thousand semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not
tonnes). so easily possible in such regions.
*Balanced fertilizers are used to increase production, to 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permacul-
improve the quality of food grains and to maintain land ture farming but not necessarily so in conventional
productivity. *Seed village concept is a concept based on chemical farming.
a village where a trained group of farmers are involved in
production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs Select the correct answer using the code given below:
of themselves and fellow farmers of the villages and farmers (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
of the neighbouring villages in appropriate time and at an (c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3
affordable cost. I.A.S. (Pre) 2021
*Agmark is a quality certification mark granted by the Ans. (b)
government of India under Agricultural produce (grading The method of agriculture which makes more use of the
and marking) Act, 1937. The scheme is being implemented
resources of nature without misusing or polluting it can be
in India since 1938. Various steps have been taken by the
called sustainable agriculture. In this, agriculture is done by
Government of India for the continuous development of
abopting soil water and naturally made manure and for its
agriculture. Enrichment of sustainable soil fertility through
conservation, crop rotation, covering the soil under mulching
soil health card scheme, increased capacity of water through
the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sinchayi Yojna and improving method, etc. So statement 1, 2, 4 is true. This method is
access to irrigation, organic farming has been provided effective even in dry semi-arid regions, so statements 3 is false.
8. http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
The total number of Agro-ecological zones in India is –
(a) 15 (b) 17
statement (1) is false. It is not true that there is no participation
of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds
of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops,
(c) 19 (d) 20
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016 but they mainly produce high-priced seeds in lower volume.
Ans. (d) So it is only available to few farmers. They supply nearly the
entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables. There is demand-
India is divided into 20 Agro-Ecological Zone. Each supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and
Agro-ecological Zone is uniform in term of physiography,
high volume crop, Thus, only statement (3) is correct.
climate, length of growing period and soil type of macro-level
land use planning and effective transfer of technology. 11. The first Agricultural University in the country was
set up in the year –
9. Assertion (A) : The dry zone of India has a
predominantly agrarian economy. (a) 1950 (b) 1960
Reason (R) : It has large potential for the second (c) 1970 (d) 1980
Green Revolution. U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Select the correct answer from the code given below: Ans. (b)
Code : Govind Vallabh Pant University of Agriculture and
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct Technology is the first agricultural university of India. It
explanation of (A).
was inaugurated by Jawaharlal Nehru on 17 November
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
1960 as the “Uttar Pradesh Agricultural University” (UPAU)
explanation of (A).
in Pantnagar, Uttarakhand (Earlier it was the part of Uttar
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Pradesh). Later the name was changed to “Govind Ballabh
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 Pant University of Agriculture and Technology” in the
Ans. (b) memory of the first Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh.
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productivity in agriculture?
(a) Efficient irrigation
(c) Use of pesticides
(b) Quality seeds
(d) Use of fertilizers
is distributed among member farmers.
At the time of this question, only 12.7% (in 2011-12 it 30. Which of the following green manure crops contains
highest amount of nitrogen?
was 16.1%) area under Pulses agriculture had facilities of
(a) Dhaincha (b) Sunhemp
irrigation. Rest of the area under pulses cultivation is rainfed. (c) Cow pea (d) Guar
So, statement (1) is almost correct. U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
If we look at the agriculture of two decades in 1990-91 the area Ans. (c)
under pulses agriculture was 246.62 Lakh hectare whereas
Cow pea contains the highest amount of Nitrogen (0.49%)
it is reduced to 227.6 Lakh hectare in 2004-05 (28.3 Million
in the given green manures. Sunhemp (0.43%), Dhaincha
Hectare in 2019-20 4th advance Estimates). While at present
(0.42%) and Guar has (0.34%), nitrogen content.
about 23.56% (According to FAO, 2020) of the rice cultivation
31. Balanced fertilizers are used to-
in the top 10 rice producing countries in the world is being
(a) Increase the production
done in India. So statement (2) is not correct which says that
(b) Improve fertilizer use efficiency
share of pulses in the gross cropped area has doubled in the last
(c) Maintain the productivity of the soil
two decades. (d) All of these
India accounts for about 29% of the total area under Rice U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
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cultivation in the world. So statement (3) is also wrong. Rice
occupies about 23.7% (22.33% in 2011-12) of the gross cropped
Ans. (d)
Balanced fertilizers are used to increase the production,
area of India, not 34%. Thus, statement (4) is also wrong.
improve quality of food grains and maintain the productivity
28. The two largest consumers of chemical fertilizers in of the soil.
India are 32. In southern India, the area of high agricultural
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra productivity is found in –
(b) Punjab and Haryana (a) Kerala coast
(c) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu coast
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh (c) Telangana
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009 (d) Vidarbha
Ans. (d) U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004
Ans. (b)
According to data for year 2013-14, the fertilizer consumption
of the given States are – The high agriculture productivity areas in southern India are
State Total fertilizer consumption coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Area of Surat
(Thousand tons) in Gujarat and areas of Satara and Kolhapur of Maharashtra.
Uttar Pradesh 3842.04 Thus answer (b) is correct.
Andhra Pradesh 3119.43 33. The richest state in replenishable groundwater
At present 2019-20, the Three largest consumers of chemical resource is :
fertilizers are as follows – (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh : 5172.97 (thousand tonnes) and Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
(2941.29 thousand tonnes) & Madhya Pradesh (2683.39 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
thousand tonnes).
Ans. (c)
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focusing on horticulture and floriculture
(c) Integrated pest management, integrated nutrient
(c) Regulated market of eggs
(d) Mark of standard Guarantee (Quality Certification)
supply and integrated natural resource management U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
(d) Emphasis on food crops, horticulture and floriculture Ans. (d)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
Agmark is a quality certification mark provided by the
Ans. (c)
Government of India which is under Agricultural produce
Green Agriculture involves the adoption of integrated pest (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937. This Act provides for the
management, integrated nutrient supply, scientific water grading and marking of agricultural and other produce. This
management and use of appropriate crop varieties. plan is being implemented in India since 1938.
See the explanation of above question. The Green Revolution in India was started in 1966-67
6. Who among the following was closely associated with which led to increase in food grain production. The main
the Green Revolution? development was higher yielding varieties of wheat which
(a) Dr. Swaminathan increased the production to 2.5 times. Its credit is given
(b) Kr. Kurien to American Agronomist Dr. Norman Borlaug and M.S.
(c) C. Subrahmaniam Swaminathan of India.
(d) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 10. Which one of the following crops is the highest
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999 beneficiary of the Green Revolution in both production
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2003 and productivity:
Ans. (a) (a) Jawar (b) Maize
(c) Rice (d) Wheat
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is known as “Father of India's Green
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 1994
Revolution” for his leadership and success in introducing and
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2001
further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India.
Ans. (d)
He was closely related to the Green Revolution in India.
Wheat is the highest beneficiary of the Green Revolution in both
7. Green revolution means –
production and productivity followed by rice. The production
(a) Use of green manure
of wheat was 12.3 million tonn before the Green Revolution
(b) Grow more crops
which increased to 69.68 million tonns in 2000-01. In 2020-21
(c) High yield variety programme
(4th Advance Esti.) it was recorded at 109.5 million tonnes. This
(d) Green vegetation
became possible because of the increase in yield per hectare.
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(d) Mexican wheat
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
It does not aim to yield the crop other than used in the Green
Revolution in the beginning. Thus, statement II and IV are
Ans. (d) correct.
In the decade of 1970, the introduction of high yielding 16. Select the component of the Green Revolution by using
varieties of seeds and the increased use of chemical fertilizers the given code :
and irrigation is termed as Green Revolution in India. The 1. High-yielding varieties of seeds
credit for Green Revolution is given to Norman Borlaug 2. Irrigation
(in Global context) and M.S. Swaminathan (in the Indian 3. Rural Electrification
context). The main crop used in Green Revolution was 4. Rural roads and marketing
Mexican Wheat recieved from Borlaug's International Maize Code :
and Wheat Improvement Center based in Mexico. (a) Only (1) and (2) (b) Only (1),(2) and (3)
14. As a result of `Green Revolution' the yield per hectare (c) Only (1),(2) and (4) (d) All four
of wheat touched the record figure of : 48 to 52nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2008
th
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water were left out. Thus it led to regional disparities. Thus,
Reason (R) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation
Round Revolution
Pink Revolution
Production of Potato
Production of Prawn/Onion
of (A). Grey Revolution Production of Fertilizers
Red Revolution Production of Meat/ Tomatoes
18. Rainbow Revolution is related with –
(a) Green-revolution (b) White-revolution 20. Pink Revolution is associated with –
(c) Blue-revolution (d) All the above (a) Cotton (b) Garlic
48th to 52nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2008 (c) Grapes (d) Onion
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
On 28 July 2000, the new National Agricultural Policy was
Pink Revolution is associated with Onion.
announced by the Central government. In this policy the
Other important Revolutions are as follows –
concept of Rainbow Revolution was introduced. The various
colours of the Rainbow Revolution indicate various farm Black Revolution - Petroleum.
practices such as Green Revolution (Foodgrains), White Red Revolution - Tomato and Meat
Revolution (Milk), Yellow Revolution (Oilseeds), Blue Blue Revolution - Fisheries
Revolution (Fisheries), Red Revolution (Tomatoes),Golden Yellow Revolution - Oilseed
Revolution (Fruits), Grey Revolution (Fertilizers) and so on. 21. The Black Revolution is related to the
Thus, the concept of the Rainbow Revolution is an integrated (a) Fish production (b) Coal production
development of crop cultivation, horticulture, forestry, (c) Crude oil production (d) Mustard production
fishery, poultry, animal husbandry and food processing (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
industry. 60th 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Ans. (c)
from the codes given below : See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (c) Rabi crops are agriculture crops sown in winter between
October & November and harvested in the spring season
On the basis of seasons, the crops in India have been divided
between March & April. The Rabi crops include Wheat,
into three types. Barley, Oats, Grams, linseed, Mustard (Oilseed) etc.
Kharif crops: The Kharif crop is the summer crop or
monsoon crop in India. Kharif crops are usually sown with 6. Rabi crops are sown :
the beginning of the first rains i.e in June- July and harvested (a) From October to November
in October - November. (b) From December to March
9. Which one is an example of "Parallel Cropping"? Three largest wheat producing states, when this question was
(a) Potato + Rice (b) Wheat + Mustard asked, were – Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. According
(c) Cotton + Wheat (d) Sorghum + Potato to 2021-22 Economic Survey data, in 2020-21 (4th AE) three
largest producers of wheat are –
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
(i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Madhya Pradesh (iii) Punjab.
Ans. (b)
14. The highest wheat-producing state of India is-
In Parallel cropping, two crops are selected which have
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab
different growth habits and have a zero competition between
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
each other and both of them express their full yield potential.
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
Among the given options, wheat with mustard is an example
Ans. (d)
of parallel cropping.
See the explanation of above question.
10. Cash Crop does not consist –
(a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton 15. Production of wheat is highest in the state of –
(c) Jute (d) Wheat (a) Punjab (b) Haryana
39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994 (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (d) U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2013
Cash crops include Sugarcane, Cotton, Jute, Tobacco, Ans. (c)
Banana, Oilseeds etc and Wheat, Rice etc. are food crops. See the explanation of the above question.
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(a) Europe
(c) South America
(b) South-East Asia
(d) None of the above
are:
(a) rainfall above 100 cm, temperature above 25° C
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015 (b) cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
Ans. (b) (c) rainfall below 100 cm, temperature below 25° C
(d) warm and dry climate during the entire crop period
Rice originated in South-East Asia. Rice requires temperature
I.A.S. (Pre) 1994
above 25oC and an average rainfall above 100 cm.
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following plant is not helpful in nitrogen
Rice is a Kharif crop which requires an average temperature
fixation? of 25°C and high humidity with the annual rainfall of
(a) Gram (b) Pea above100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the
(c) Bean (d) Paddy help of irrigation. Thus (a) is the correct answer.
(e) None of the above
6. Which one of the following is a Kharif Crop ?
Chattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
(a) Lentil (b) Linseed
Ans. (d)
(c) Mustard (d) Soyabean
Gram, Pea, Bean, contain symbiotic bacteria called U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004
Rhizobium within nodules in their root system that helps in Ans. (d)
Nitrogen Fixation. Paddy cultivation results into emission
of Methane gas, which is responsible for global warming. On the basis of seasons, crops in India are mainly divided
in 3 types.
3. Which of the following crop is transplanted? (i) Kharif – Rice, Jowar, Maize, Cotton, Soyabean,
(a) Mustard (b) Rice Groundnut, Millet, Ragi, Bajra, Jute etc.
(c) Wheat (d) Maize (ii) Rabi - Wheat, Peas, Pulses, Mustard etc.
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017 (iii) Zaid - Muskmelon, Watermellon, cucumber, Bitter
gourd, Sunflower etc.
Ans. (b)
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19. Jaya, Padma and Krishna are improved varieties of
which of the following cereals ?
varieties are PHB-71, Ganga, Suruchi, KRH-2, Sahyadri-4
etc.
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
24. The proper seed Ratio for transplanting of basmati
(c) Barley (d) Maize
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 rice is
Ans. (a) (a) 40-50 kg/ha (b) 20-30 kg/ha
(c) 15-20kg/ha (d) 5-10 kg/ha
See the explanation of above question. U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014
20. 'Aman' rice is grown during Ans. (c)
(a) April-May (b) June-July
(c) November-December (d) May-June The proper seed ratio for transplanting of Basmati Rice is
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011 15-20 Kg per hectare.
Ans. (b)
25. Consider the following statements and choose the
Varieties of Rice Time of Harvesting correct code to answer –
1. Aman June- July (sowing) to Assertion(A) : Punjab is a major exporter of rice.
November- December Reason(R) : This state leads in the rice production.
(Harvesting)(winter crop) Code:
2. Aus or Kar May-June (sowing) to (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
September explanation of (A).
October(Harvesting) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(Autumn Crop) explanation of (A).
3. Boro or Dalua November-December
(c) (A) is false but, (R) is true
(sowing) to March-April
(d) (A) is true but, (R) is false
(harvesting)(Summer
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2001
Crop)
Ans. (d)
CA–200 General Studies Indian Geography
Punjab is one of the major rice-producing States in India and 29. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated
land for which one of the following crops has remained
exports rice to other states of India. According to Economic
more or less stagnant?
Survey 2021-22, during the year 2020-21 (4th AE) West
(a) Rice (b) Oilseeds
Bengal is the leading/largest producer of rice followed by
(c) Pulses (d) Sugarcane
Uttar Pradesh at second place and Punjab is the third largest
I.A.S. (Pre) 2010
rice producing state. Thus, assertion (A) is true but reason
Ans. (a)
(R) is false, when the question was asked. Now option (a)
stands correct as per data. Crop Cropped Area (In Million Hectares)
2010-11 2019-20 2020-21 (4th AE)
26. Which among the following states is the largest
producer of rice in India ? Rice 42.9 43.7 45.1
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh Oilseed 27.2 27.1 28.8
(c) West Bengal (d) Kerala Pulses 26.4 28 28.8
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 Sugarcane 4.9 4.6 4.9
Ans. (c) The above data shows that the total cropped area for rice
cultivation has remained stagnant. Cropped area of other
See the explanation of above question.
crops has increased.
27. Which one of the following organisms can serve as a
biofertilizer for rice crop? 30. The states which account for more than half of the total
(a) Blue-green algae rice production in India are –
(b) Rhizobium (a) West Bengal, Punjab, Tamilnadu and Odisha
(c) Mycorrhizal fungi (b) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Andhra
(d) Azotobacter Prdesh
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Ans. (a)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2000 (c) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Assam
(d) Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Odisha.
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2009
Blue-green algae, Azospirillum, Phosphobacteria, Azolla,
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
etc. are used as biofertilizers for rice crop.
Ans. (b)
28. Assertion (A) : The Eastern coast of India produces West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Andhra Pradesh
more rice than the Western coast. account for more than half of the total rice production in
Reason (R) : The Eastern coast receives more
India.
rainfall than the Western coast.
Code : 31. Arrange the following states of India in the ascending
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true individually and (R) is the order of their rice production :
correct explanation of (A) 1. Andhra Pradesh
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not 2. Punjab
the correct explanation of (A) 3. Tamil Nadu
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false 4. West Bengal
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
I.A.S. (Pre) 2003 (a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans. (c) (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
The western coast receives more rainfall than the eastern U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003
coast because the western coast is narrower than the eastern Ans. (d)
coast and has high altitude mountain than eastern coast. The When the question was asked option (d) was correct but
reason for rice production being more in the eastern coast is according to the data for the year 2019-20 the current status
its suitable climate, soil and rainfall. is as follows :
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in areas having over 100 cm annual rainfall.
34. Which one of the following states is having largest area
Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh
under hybrid rice cultivation?
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
(c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (e)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014
Ans. (d) According to figures of Agriculture Statistics at a Glance,
Uttar Pradesh has the highest are under the cultivation of the 2020 top 5 Rice production (2019-20) states in India are West
given hybrid rice. Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
35. In India four major producers of rice are – 38. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the
(a) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Odisha irrigated areas during Zaid ?
(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Assam (a) Arhar and Gram (b) Moong and Urad
(c) West Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh (c) Rice and Millets (d) Maize and Groundnut
(d) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004 Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Moong and Urad are the crops which are mainly grown in
At the time when this question was asked four major
the irrigated areas during Zaid.
producers of rice were-West Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh
and Andhra Pradesh. But According to the current data of 39. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in
the year 2019-20 (4th AE) the four states are as follows-West India in the last five years, consider the following
Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh. statements:
36. Arrange the following state of India in descending 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
order of their rice production and select the correct 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than
answer from the codes given below : that of oilseeds.
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Cash Crops
in 1912 in Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu). On 1 April 1969, it was
made a part of ICAR.
*According to International Sugar Organization (ISO), India
*Cotton is a second major commercial crop of India. It is is the largest consumer of Sugar in the world and Europe
raw material for cotton textile industry. Cotton belongs to Union is second, while China is in third place. The first sugar
the Malvaceae Family. There are two major varieties of
mill was established at Pratappur in Deoria district of Uttar
cotton found in the world. (i) Old world cotton (ii) New
Pradesh in 1903.
world cotton
*Highest productivity of sugarcane is found in South India.
*Cotton is the indigenous plant of India. It is also mentioned
The amount of Sucrose content is also much largest in the
in the ancient text such as Rigveda and Manusmriti. India is
sugarcane of this region. According to International Sugar
the first country in the world where hybrid cotton has been
Organization (ISO) India is the largest (in the Year, 2019)
developed which resulted in enhanced production. *Black
producer of sugar in the world followed by Brazil (Second)
soil is most suitable for its cultivation. The temperature
& Europe Union (third) in the world.
ranging between 25oC-35oC, 210 Frost Free day, clear
The sugar industry is second largest Industry based on
sky, bright sunshine and annual rainfall of 75-100 cms are
agriculture after the textile industry in India.
favourable conditions for its cultivation.
North-Western and western India are major producing regions 1. "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is
of cotton. *According to Economic Survey 2021-22, the three injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days
leading states in cotton production are (in 2020-21)- and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A
1. Maharashtra (9.59 MT) light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is
2. Gujarat (7.27 MT) ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop." Which
3. Telangana (5.99 MT) one of the following is that crop?
*Maharashtra is majorly covered under black soil which is (a) Cotton (b) Jute
most suitable soil for cotton cultivation. Cotton is known as (c) Sugarcane (d) Tea
White gold in Maharashtra. *Cotton cultivation in Madhya I.A.S. (Pre) 2020
Pradesh is done on the western side of the state e.g. Plateau Ans. (a)
3. http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
The largest producer of cotton in India is – Ans. (c)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2003
When the question was asked option (d) was correct. The According to data of the year 2020-21, 4 largest sugarcane
percentage of irrigated area of its net sown area (2015-16) producing states are – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
of the given crops is as follows – and Bihar. Thus, option (a) is correct.
(Crop) Irrigated Area 16. What is the correct sequence of the states in descending
(Percentage)
order of production of sugarcane in 2013 ?
Sugarcane 93.44 (a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Haryana, U.P.
Wheat 87.90 (b) U.P., Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana
Rice 60.06 (c) Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, U.P.
Oilseed 36.88 (d) U.P., Karnataka, Maharashtra, Haryana
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
13. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four Ans. (b)
sugarcane producing states in India is:
(a) Maharashtra, U.P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh See the explanation of the above question.
(b) U.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh 17. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(c) Maharashtra, U.P.,Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
According to the figures of the year 2015-16. The leading Uttar Pradesh is known as the ‘Sugar Bowl’ of India.
sugar producing states were – 26. Which one among the following States of India is called
(1) Maharashtra, (2) Uttar Pradesh, (3) Karnataka, (4) Tamil 'Sugar Bowl'?
Nadu, (5) Andhra Pradesh. According to the data of the year (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
2020-21, Uttar Pradesh is at the top in sugar production while (c) Bihar (d) Haryana
Maharashtra is at the second place. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above.
23. Which of the folowing statements is/ are correct 64th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2018
Ans. (a)
regarding sugar Industry?
1. India accounts for more than 15% of the total Uttar Pradesh is called the sugar bowl of India. It is the largest
sugar production of the world. producer of sugarcane in India.
2. Sugar Industry is the second largest Agricultural
27. The first Sugar Mill in India was set up in 1903 at
base industry in India. (a) Pratapgarh (b) Pratappur
3. India is the biggest consumer of sugar. (c) Mawana (d) Balrampur
4. India is the largest producer of sugar. U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Code : Ans. (b)
(c) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
The first Sugar Mill was set up in India in 1903 at Pratappur
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
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Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
in Deoria district of Uttar Pradesh.
28. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of
the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
As per global data of November, 2021 issued by U.S.
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
Department of Agricultural, the world's total production of
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
sugar was 181 million tonnes of which Brazil produced 36.00
3. Longer crushing season
million tonnes sugar while India's share was 34.70 million
4. Cheap labour
tonnes out of the total sugar production. Brazil exported 12.6
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
million tonnes sugar. Sugar Industry is the second largest (a) 1, and 2 (b) 2 and 3
agriculture-based industry in India after cotton. When the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
question was asked India accounts for 15.8% of the world's U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
sugar production. Thus, statement (1) and (2) are correct. Ans. (c)
Brazil is the largest producer of sugar not India.Thus,
The factors which facilitated the locational shift of the sugar
statement (4) is incorrect. India is the largest consumer of
industry from North India to South India are per acre higher
sugar. Thus, statement (3) is also correct.
yield of sugarcane, higher sucrose content of sugarcane and
24. Sakkar Nagar is an important sugar producing centre longer crushing season.
of
(a) Haryana (b) Andhra Pradesh 29. Breeding work on sugarcane is being done at –
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh (a) Lucknow
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008 (b) Shahjahanpur
(c) Shravasti
Ans. (b)
(d) Coimbatore
Sakkarnagar is an important sugar producing centre located U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
in Andhra Pradesh (now in Telangana). Ans. (d)
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(c) 18 months (d) 24 months
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A . (Spl) (Mains) 2010
horizontal and continues to grow and mature into a
peanut. For the cultivation of Peanut, the soil must have
Ans. (c) the enrichment of the gypsum.
Adsali Sugarcane planting is mainly done in low rainfall area *According to 2020-21 (4th A.E.) figure, the three leading
of Maharashtra. Planting is done in the month of July-August Ground nut producing states in India are –
and it takes 16-18 months to get riped. 1. Gujarat (4.13 Million Tonnes)
32. Co. 1148 is an important variety of 2. Rajasthan (1.93 Million Tonnes)
(a) Wheat (b) Cotton 3. Tamil Nadu (0.94 Million Tonnes)
*Soyabean is a good source of protein in addition to the
(c) Maize (d) Sugarcane
food oil. Favourable condition for soyabean cultivation
U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017
are temperature ranging between 15-250C, average annual
Ans. (d) rainfall of 40-60 cm and loamy soil with a ph ranging
Co. 1148 is an important variety of sugarcane. between 6-6.5.
*Soyabean is cultivated as Kharif crop generally sown
in June and harvested in October. This crop requires
33. Among the following, which one is the least water-ef-
irrigation 3 to 4 times.
ficient crop?
*According to data SOPA for, 2021 in India, 5.56
(a) sugarcane (b) Sunflower million hectare area of Madhya Pradesh is cropped under
(c) Pearl millet (d) Red gram soyabean which is 51.23% of total cropping area of
I.A.S. (Pre) 2021 Soyabean in India.
Ans. (a) *The three leading producer states of Soyabean as per
economic survey 2021-22, In the year 2020-21 (4th A.E.)
The least water efficient crop among the given option are–
is sugarcane, i.e., maximum water is required to grow 1. Maharashtra (6.20 Million tonnes)
sugarcane. 2. Madhya Pradesh (4.61 Million tonnes)
CA–208 General Studies Indian Geography
3. Rajasthan (1.09 Million tonnes) 4. Yellow Revolution is related to –
*Mustard is also a major oilseed crop. It is a Rabi crop. (a) Pulse production (b) Paddy production
For the cultivation of mustard the temperature ranging (c) Fish production (d) Oil-seed production
between 15-250C and an annual rainfall of 75-100 cm is U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2014
required. Ans. (d)
It is sown in the month of October-November and
See the explanation of above question.
harvested in the months of February-March.
*According to the Economic Survey 2021-22 data, in the 5. Which is the most suitable crop for dryland farming?
year 2020-21 (4th A.E.), Rajasthan is first in Rapeseeds (a) Sugarcane (b) Jute
and Mustard Production in India followed by Madhya (c) Wheat (d) Groundnut
Pradesh (2nd) and Haryana (3rd). The major varieties of 45th B.P.S.C.(Pre) 2001
mustard are pusa bold, Pusa, Jai kisan and Varuna. Ans. (d)
Pitambari is a species of yellow mustard (RYSK-05-02). Dryland agriculture refers to growing of crops entirely under
1. Which of the following is the oilseed crop? rainfeed condition. Groundnut is the most suitable crop for
dryland farming. It is a tropical plant requires a long and
(a) Masoor (b) Lobia
warm growing season. It grows well in area receiving 50 to
(c) Sunflower (d) Barseem
125 cm. of well distributed rainfall during growing season.
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2003
Dryland farming is a type of dryland agriculture which is
Ans. (c) suitable for the cultivation of crops in areas receiving rainfall
Main oilseed crops produced in India are Groundnut, above 75 cm.
Mustard, Coconut, Soyabean, Castor seeds, Cotton 6. 'Pegging' is a useful phenomenon in –
seeds, Linseed and Sunflower. Hence, option (c) is the (a) Sugarcane (b) Sweet potato
correct answer. (c) Groundnut (d) Tapioca
2. http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
Yellow Revolution is related to –
Ans. (c)
U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010
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*Most productive state of gram in India is Madhya Pradesh.
The NPK ratio for Pulse crop is 0 : 1 : 1, 1 : 2 : 2 or 1 : 2 : 3.
Reason (R)
not of protein.
: There is a priority in demand of
pulses.
1. With reference to pulse production in India, consider
In the reference of the above, which of the following is
the following statements:
correct :
1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and
(a) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the correct
rabi crop.
explanation of (A).
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of
pulse production. (b) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct
3. In the last three decades, while the production explanation of (A)
of kharif pulses has increased, the production of (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
rabi pulses has decreased. (d) (A) is wrong , but (R) is correct
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2009
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ans. (a)
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
India has a shortage of pulses but there is no shortage of
I.A.S. (Pre) 2020
sources of protein. In India shortage of pulses is due to the
Ans. (a)
high demand although India is a leading producer of pulses
Urad is tropical climate crop, it is a kharif crop in North in the world. Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
India and both Rabi and Kharif season crop in South India. are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Production of Moong in the year 2016-17 is 14 of the total
pulses. The percentage remains around the same in other years 5. The largest pulses producing state in India -
also. Hence, Statement 2 is false. In the last three decades, there (a) Andhra Pradesh (b Bihar
has been a marginal [negligible] increase in the production of (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Kharif crops, which that of Rabi pulses has increased by about U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
150 percent. Hence, Statement 3 is also false. Ans. (c)
See the explanation of above question. 1. Which state is the largest ‘silk’ producing state ?
(a) Bihar (b) Chattisgarh
16. ‘Bahar’ is a popular variety of – (c) Karnataka (d) Assam
(a) Pea (b) Groundnut
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
(c) Pigeon pea (d) Gram
Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (c) According to year 2019-20 data, Karnataka is the leading
producer of mulberry silk, with 44.1% of the total mulberry
See the explanation of above question.
silk production of the country. This is notable that out of total
17. The leafless variety of pea is –
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(a) Arkel
(c) Aparna
(b) Azad Pea-I
(d) L-116
raw silk production in the country 31.1% is produced by the
State of Karnataka. Andhra Pradesh ranks second producing
22.2% of the total raw silk production of the country.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (c) 2. The country, which is the largest silk producer in the
world, is
'Aparna' is a new high- yielding, leaf-less variety of pea.
(a) India (b) China
(c) Brazil (d) Japan
'Silk' (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
64th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2018
* India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
after China. Ans. (b)
* Mulberry Silk, Tasar Silk, Muga Silk and Eri Silk are China is the largest producer of silk in the world followed
four types of natural Silk produced in India. by India.
* Chemically silk is made up of a protein secreted by cat-
erpillar famously known as Silkworm. These Silkworms 3. Which of the following States of India produces
thrives on some special plants and they develop a cocoon maximum silk yarn?
like protective layer around them for their survival. (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab
*Life cycle of Silkworm consists of four stages:- (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Egg, Caterpillar, Pupa, Moth. U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017
* To obtain silk the silkworms are prevented from reaching Ans. (d)
the moth stage by killing the larva putting them into boiling
Karnataka is the largest producer (2019-20) of silk yarn.
water so as to save the Cocoon from breaking, from which the
India is the second largest producer of silk after China.
commercially important continuous fibre of Silk is obtained
However, India has the unique distinction of being the
which is used for weaving Silk clothes.
*According to the data released in the annual report of the only country producing all the five kinds of silk namely
Central Silk Board, 2019-20, Karnataka is the largest silk Mulberry, Eri, Muga, Tropical Tasar and Temperate Tasar.
In India, mainly two varieties of Coffee are produced – 8. Consider the following statements:
Arabica and Robusta. India produces only 3.4% of total 1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
coffee produced in the World and Karnataka is the largest 2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing
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coffee producing state in India. Due to its better taste, there is
a high demand in foreign countries. The average temperature
region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of 15oC to 18oC annually is required for better growth of
coffee plants with an essential average rainfall of 150 to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
250 cm. For the cultivation of coffee, slopy mountainous (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
region and lava or loamy soil is best suitable. According to I.A.S. (Pre) 2008
the 2020-21 data for coffee production in India, Karnataka Ans. (d)
accounts for 70.5%, Kerala (20.7%) & Tamil Nadu (5.4%)
Chikmagalur district of Karnataka is famous for the
of total production of coffee.
4. Which of the following Indian state has been the largest production of Coffee and not for Sugar. In India, Coffee was
coffee producing state – first time grown here. Mandya district of Karnataka is famous
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka for Sugar not Coffee. Hence (d) is the correct answer.
(c) Tamilnadu (d) Kerala
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Mains) 2010 9. Which one of the following coffee-growing areas is
Ans. (b) not in Karnataka?
(a) Chikmagalur
See the explanation of above question.
(b) Coorg
5. Largest producer of coffee in India is – (c) Baba Budangin
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
(d) Pulneys
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2003 66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002 Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) The Pulneys hill range is situated adjacent to the popular
See the explanation of above question. Kodaikanal hill resort in Tamil Nadu.
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Option (c) was the correct answer when this question was
asked. According to 2020 data, major tea exporting, countries
At present main crop cultivated in Barak Valley is Rice
whereas Sugarcane is the second most important crop
of the world are as follows : produced here. Since Rice has not been given in option,
(1) Kenya (575,509 tonnes) Sugarcane would be the most appropriate answer.
(2) China (348,815 tonnes)
(3) Sri Lanka (285,087 tonnes) 11. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched.
(4) India (210,486 tonnes) List I List II
(Crop/Plantation) (Largest producer state)
7. In an area with an annual rainfall of more than 200
(a) Jute West Bengal
cms and sloping hills which crop will be ideal?
(b) Tea Assam
(a) Jute (b) Cotton
(c) Sugarcane Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tea (d) Maize
(d) Rubber Himachal Pradesh
U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2010
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
For the cultivation of tea, sloped hills with an annual rainfall India is the world's 4th largest producer of natural rubber.
of 150 to 200 cm is required. This is an ideal condition for Kerala accounts for around 75.69% of the total rubber
the production of tea. production in the country.
8. What is Green Gold ? 12. The largest producer of rubber in India is
(a) Coffee (b) Gold (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Paddy (d) Tea
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1999
Ans. (d)
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004
Green Gold is a variety of tea.
Ans. (c)
Indian Geography General Studies CA–219
The largest producer of rubber in India is Kerala. 75.69% of total * Gujarat is the largest producer of tobacco among all states
of India. According to figures of the year 2018-19, 43.41%
rubber production in India is produced by Kerala as per 2018-19
of tobacco production of India takes place in Gujarat.
(p) data. Ernakulam, Kottayam , Kozhikode and Kollam are the
*According to figures of the year 2018-19 major tobacco
major rubber producing districts of Kerala. According to data producing states of India are -
for the year 2020, India Rubber Board is the 4th largest producer Gujarat (331.56 thousand tonnes), Andhra Pradesh (140
and second in consumption of rubber globally. thousand tonnes, Karnataka (71.57 thousand tonnes).
*States having the largest area of land under tobacco
13. In India the state which produced the largest amount
cultivation in India (in 2018-19) are: Gujarat (177.41 thousand
of Rubber (2013)
hectares), Andhra Pradesh (88.00 thousand hectares), Kar-
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala nataka (83.70 thousand hectares) and Uttar Pradesh (26.00
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014 thousand hectares).
Ans. (d) *According to the Agricultural Ministry of India, top three
Coconut producing states in the year 2019-20 (3rd AE) are :
See the explanation of above question. 1. Kerala (36.11%), 2. Karnataka (29.34%), 3. Tamil Nadu
14. Which of the following states in India is famous for (18.55%). Kerala is the highest producer of Coconut in India.
rubber cultivation? * Globally Indonesia, India and Philippines are major Co-
(a) Karnataka (b) Odisha conut producing countries in 2020.
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala * Many types of Spices are grown in ‘Kerala’ that is why it
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 is also called as ‘Garden of Spices;
Ans. (d) * According to figures of the year 2019-20 (3rd A.E.), Mad-
hya Pradesh is the top producer of spices.
See the explanation of above question.
*From ancient times, Kerala is famous in the world for its
15. Which among the following is the largest rubber production of spices.
producing state in India ? *Cloves are the flower-buds of medium–sized evergreen
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(a) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
plant of Eugenia caryophyllata family. It is a variety of
spicies having medicinal significance too. According to
U.P.P.S.C. (R.I.) 2014 the figures of the year 2020-21 (AE), clove is cultivated in
Ans. (c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Andaman & Nicobar
Islands group.
See the explanation of above question. * According to final figures of the year 2020-21 (AE), top
16. Which one of the following States is the leading three States in Areca production are - Karnataka (950
producer of rubber in India? thousand metric tonnes), Kerala (92.59 thousand metric
(a) Tamil Nadu tonnes) and Assam (50.04 thousand metric tonnes).
(b) Kerala *Top three Cashew producer states (in 2019-20 3rd A.E.)
(c) Karnataka of India are-
(d) Andhra Pradesh Maharashtra (181.14 thousand tonnes), Andhra Pradesh
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above (115.39 thousand tonnes) and Odisha (110.00 thousand
63rd B.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017 tonnes)
Ans. (b) * Black pepper is also known as black gold. It thrives in a
hot and humid climate, annual rainfall around 200 cm and
See the explanation of the above question. hilly sloped with altitude ranging between 1100 to 1300
meters. It requires an average annual temperature between
(iii) Other Plantation Crops 15ºC to 30ºC.
* In the year 2019-20 (Provisional) top three spice producer
*According to agriculture ministry plantation crops includes-
states of India are 1. Madhya Pradesh (3075.9 thousand Met-
Coconut, Areca, Cocoa, Cashew and Palm. Whereas ac- ric tonnes), 2. Rajasthan (1058.9 thousand Metric tonnes),
cording to commerce ministry plantation crop includes Tea, 3. Gujarat (1009.9 thousand Metric tonnes).
Coffee and Rubber. So Coconut, Areca, Cocoa, Cashew, * According to figures of 2020 India is the 4th largest pro-
Palm, Tea, Coffee and Rubber are Plantation crops of India. ducer of Black Pepper after Vietnam, Brazil and Indonesia.
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Globally, Indonesia, India and Philippines are the largest
producers of coconut.
(a) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
10. Among the following spices, India is a leading producer U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2011
of – Ans. (b)
1. Black-Pepper 2. Cardamom Due to the cultivation of several spices, Kerala is known as
3. Cloves 4. Ginger the 'garden of spices'. According to data for 2019-20 (P), the
Select the correct answer from the following code :
leading producer of spices is Madhya Pradesh.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4 15. A state known to be as ‘Spice Garden’ is –
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010 (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
Ans. (*) (c) Tami Nadu (d) Gujarat
Among the given spices, India led in the production of Black- U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2013
pepper and ginger when this question was asked, whereas U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Mains) 2010
leading producer of cardamom is Guatemala and leading Ans. (a)
producer of cloves is Indonesia. Therefore, none of the given See the explanation of above question.
code is correct. According to FAO (2020) top four pepper
16. Cloves are obtained from –
(pipper spp.) producing countries are – Vietnam, Brazil,
(a) Roots (b) Stem
Indonesia and India.
(c) Fruits (d) Flower- bud
11. Which of the following States is the largest producer R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1999
of cardamom and pepper in India?
Ans. (d)
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Goa
Cloves are the flower- buds of medium-sized evergreen plant
(c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018 of Eugenia Caryophyllata Family. Clove is a variety of spice
Ans. (c) which is also used in medicines.
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Odisha (110.00 thousand tonnes). Maharashtra was also the
leading producers of cashewnut during 2014-15.
See the explanation of above question.
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It aims to increase the production and productivity of Banana
and plantation through mission mode and strategic research
be between 1st and the 3rd century yet the author is unknown.
10. The state of India, which has the largest share in food-
approaches. grain production, is –
7. In the map given below four areas are differently shaded, (a) Punjab (b) Haryana
three of which indicate cereal crops production areas (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
and one indicates non-cereal crop production area. U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2003
INDIA Ans. (d)
According to the data released in 2020-21 (4th A.E.), Uttar
Pradesh is the largest food-grain producing State in India with
its share of 18.89 percent. In this regard Madhya Pradesh
Crop
Production
(10.36%) is the second and Punjab (9.65%) is the third largest
Area producer of food grain in India.
False smut is a disease found in Rice and can cause up to 25. What was the estimated production of foodgrains in
44% of grain loss. India for the year 2011-12?
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (c)
C-4 plants ( species ) are the economically important crops
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
I.A.S. (Pre) 2014 of Maize, Sugarcane etc. Whereas Rice, Wheat, Cotton and
Ans. (d) Tobacco etc are the plants of C-3 category.
Maize is used for the production of starch powder and starch 38. Arrange the following states of India in descending
products like dextrin and cyatex. Also oil of maize can be order of their maize production and select the correct
used for biodiesel. By using maize, various types of alcoholic answer from the code given below –
beverages as corn whisky (American– wine) and choweime 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Bihar
(Brazilian beer) are produced. 3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan
35. Maturity period of the Maize crop is : Code :
(a) 40 days (b) 60 days (a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 140 days (d) 110 days (c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 1999 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
Maize is the largest produced and consumed crop after rice
and wheat in India. Maize is grown throughout the year in The correct sequence of States in descending order of their
almost all States of the country. The maturity period of maize maize production, when this question was asked, was –
Andhra Pradesh > Karnataka > Rajasthan > Bihar. As per
in different climatic zones is usually 90 to 150 days.
2020-21 (4th A.E.) data, three leading maize producers are
Varieties grown in winter take longer time compared to
– Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh & Maharashtra.
varieties grown in summer and spring. According to Indian
Agriculture Research Council, the maturity period of maize 39. Shaktiman-I and Shaktiman-II are the genetically
is as follows – modified crops of :
(a) Only Rice and wheat (a) United States of America (b) Great Britain
(b) Only Rice, wheat and pulses (c) Singapore (d) Japan
(c) Only Rice, wheat, pulses and oilseeds Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses and vegetables. Ans. (d)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2010 In the question period Mandua (Koda) grain in Uttarakhand
Ans. (b) is exported mostly to Japan. Food products made of Mandua
are in high demand in foreign countries.
The main objective of the National Food Security Mission
is to increase production of rice, wheat and pulses through 72. Consider the following crops of India
area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable 1. Groundnut
manner in identified districts of the country restoring soil 2. Sesame
fertility and productivity at individual farm level; creation 3. Pearl millet
of employment opportunities and enhancing farm level Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/
economy (i.e., farm profits) to restore confidence among crops?
farmers. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under
I.A.S. (Pre) 2012
subsistence farming ?
Ans. (d)
(a) Coarse Cereals and Rice
Groundnut, Bajra (millet) and sesame are cultivated in dry
(b) Cotton and Tobacco
areas. Irrigation of these crops is totally dependent on rain.
(c) Tea and Coffee
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(d) Vegetables and Fruits
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
73. Consider the following crops of India
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
Ans. (a)
3. Pigeon Pea
Coarse cereals and rice are mostly produced under Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and
subsistence farming. green manure?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only 2
69. The stem of ginger which grows in the soil and stores
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
food is called-
I.A.S. (Pre) 2012
(a) Bulb (b) Rhizome Ans. (d)
(c) Rhizophora (d) Corm
Cowpea, Green Gram and Pigeon Pea are used as fertilizer,
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1996
fodder and pulses. By using green fertilizer of Arhar in one
Ans. (b) hectare land, 40 kg of nitrogen is obtained Union Public
The stem of ginger which grows in the soil and stores food Service Commission has taken (a) as the correct answer.
is known as Rhizome. 74. Among the following states, which one has the most
70. Which of the following is a cereal grain product : suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large
(a) Oatmeal (b) Sago variety of orchids with a minimum cost of production
(c) Soya flour (d) Arrowroot and can develop an export-oriented industry in this
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2002 field?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (a)
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Cereal grain product, oatmeal is used as food by people and I.A.S. (Pre) 2011
also as fodder for cattle. Ans. (b)
76. With reference to organic farming in India, consider The northern part of Gujarat is arid and semi-arid and in
the following statements. its central part, cultivation of cotton crops is done on large
1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' scale. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food
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(NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and
directions of the Union Ministry of Rural
crops in Gujarat.
79. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a
Development. vegetable or animal food, but recently it's cultivation
2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products has assumed significance. Which one of the following
Export Development Authority' (APEDA) statements is correct in this context?
functions as the Secretariat for the implementation (a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture
of NPOP. of biodegradable plastics
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State. (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? of shale gas
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 antihistamines
(d) It is a source of high-quality biodiesel
I.A.S (Pre) 2018
I.A.S. (Pre) 2014
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National The Guar or Cluster bean is an annual legume and the source
Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. of guar gum. Guar as a plant has a multitude of different
Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Agriculture and Processed functions for human and animal nutrition but its gelling
Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is agent containing seeds (guar gum) is today the most useful.
the implementing agency for the NPOP. The APEDA was Demand is rising rapidly due to the industrial use of guar
established by the Government of India under the Agricultural gum in hydraulic fracturing (oil shale gas). About 80% of
and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority world production occurs in India and Pakistan.
Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. Hence
80. Consider the following statements:
statement 2 is correct. In the year 2016, Sikkim became Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading pro-
India's first fully organic state. Hence statement 3 is correct. ducer of fish in India.
CA–238 General Studies Indian Geography
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well-developed The excellence of cotton is based upon its fibre length.
fishing industry along the sea Length of best cotton fibre is more than 5 cm. This variety
coast. is found in south-eastern shore of United States of America
Select the correct answer from the code given below : and West Indies. The fibre length of medium variety of
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct cotton varies in the range of 3.75 cm to 5cm. Its production
explanation of (A) is done in Nile River Valley, Central Asian Republics of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Tajikistan, Kazakhastan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan and
explanation of (A) also in the United States of America. Length of small cotton
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false fibre is less than 2.5 cm and its major producing countries
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true are Brazil and India. Mesocarp is included in edible part of
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 apple. Commission had held option (d) as the correct answer
Ans. (c) of this question.
When this question was asked West Bengal was the largest 83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
producer of fish in India. It produced the largest amount of (a) Storage quality of apple is reduced due to the
fresh-water fish in the country. 90% fish production here is deficiency of Calcium.
obtained from inland water sources. Here, the development of (b) West Bengal is the largest vegetable producing state
fish industry has not taken place near the seashore as much in India.
as it is developed inland. So, (A) is true, but (R) is false. (c) Linseed oilseed crop can be grown throughout the
According to 2019-20 data, the largest producer of freshwater
year.
fish is Andhra Pradesh, whereas the largest producer of
(d) Third generation pesticide was first proposed by C.M.
seawater fish is Gujarat. The largest producer of fish (fresh
Williams.
+ seawater) is Andhra Pradesh.
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
81. Identify the correct sequence of the following states in Ans. (c)
terms of fish production in descending order:
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(a) Gujarat, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Wheat, Barley, Linseed, Rapeseed, Mustard and Gram, etc.
are Rabi crops. They are sown during October – December
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and harvested during the month of April-May.
(d) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala. 84. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2015 (a) Bihar State is the highest producer of lac in India.
(b) Planning Commission has divided India into Agro
Ans. (c) Climatic Regions.
When the question was asked option (c) was correct answer. As (c) Kunchikal waterfall is located in the Karnataka State
per 2019-20 data by the Department of Animal Husbandry, of India.
Dairying and Fisheries, leading fish producing states in (d) Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of rice in India.
India are – U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
(1) Andhra Pradesh (41.74 Lakh tonnes)
Ans. (*)
(2) West Bengal (17.82 Lakh tonnes)
(3) Gujarat (8.59 Lakh tonnes) Option (a) and (d) both are incorrect. Option (a) of the
(4) Odisha (8.18 Lakh tonnes) question was correct in that situation when Jharkhand
(5) Tamil Nadu (7.57 Lakh tonnes) was part of Bihar. In 2013-14, in terms of Lac production,
Jharkhand is the leading producer, with a share of 50.83
82. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
percent and Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(a) The fibre length of cotton is 1-5 cm.
(b) Boron is a micro nutrient. are at second, third and fourth position respectively. 92
(c) Recommended dose of fertilizer (kg/ha) for Pusa percent of India’s lac production takes place only in these
Basmati Rice is N(120), P(60), K(60). States. West Bengal is the largest producer of Rice in India.
(d) Edible part of apple is mesocarp. Therefore, U.P.P.S.C. will have to remove this question from
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 evaluation. U.P.P.S.C. actually had opted option (d) as the
Ans. (a) correct answer.
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the answer.
1. The statement given in option (a) says the pulse crop which
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
I.A.S. (Pre) 2014
does not fix nitrogen from atmosphere is Rajma. According Ans. (d)
to different research, Rajma has different nitrogen fixation.
According to the report published by National Horticulture
Scientific World Vol. 9. No. 9, July, 2011.
Red Kidney bean (Phaseolus Vulgari) a kind of annual Board, major areas of arecanut production in India are Kerala,
leguminous crop, native to China is locally called Rajma in Assam, Karnataka, and Tripura. District Kinnaur is located
Nepal. It is cultivated as a crop or intercropped with other in Himachal Pradesh. Therefore pair (1) is not matched
crops. It is also nitrogen-fixing crop with the symbiosis correctly. In India major producers of Mango are Andhra
of Rhizobium i.e. R. leguminosarum bv. Phaseoli form Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, West
nodulation and fixes atmospheric nitrogen symbiotically. Bengal, Odisha and Maharashtra. Mewat district is located
Ali and Lal 1992
in Haryana, therefore it is clear that pair (2) is also not
Unlike other pulses, rajma is inefficient in symbiotic nitrogen
matched correctly Major producers of soyabean in India are
fixation. Nodulation is poor in rajma.
In option (d) it has been given that UPAS-120 is a variety of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh
Gram. UPAS-120 is a variety of Arhar, not Gram. The official and Karnataka, but Coromandel is not known for soyabean
web site of the Ministry of Agriculture has shown UPAS-120 production. Thus all the given pairs are not correctly matched.
as a variety of Arhar. Hence, option (d) is also not correct.
89. India’s contribution to the world's fruit production is–
Commission has accepted (d) as the correct answer.
(a) 20% (b) 25%
87. Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(c) 10% (d) 15%
(a) Kaushal is a variety of Rice.
(b) First Agricultural University in India was established U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
in the year 1960. Ans. (d)
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Rajasthan. The cows breed found in Rajasthan are
Tharparkar, Rathi, Kakarange, Sahiwal, Lal Sindhi,
the top and Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh were placed at
second and third place respectively. Whereas in the context
Gir, Nagauri, Harayanvi, Malvi and Mewati. *Sahiwal of cattle stock, the top three states are West Bengal, Uttar
cow breed is mainly found in Sindh province of Pakistan.
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Its milking capacity is quite high.
1. Stock Farming is –
There are many breeds of buffalo. It mainly includes Murra,
(a) Growing of 2-3 crops at the same time
Bhadawari, Zafara badi, Suttari, Mahsana, Nagpuri, Neeli, (b) Breeding of animals
Pandharpuri etc. (c) Crop rotation
*In India, maximum sheep are found in Telangana. The best (d) None of the above
quality of sheep breed of the country are found in the valley U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
Ans. (b)
of Kashmir, Kullu, Chamba and Kangada.
*Goat is known as the “cow of poor”. Milk, meat, leather Stock farming is the practice of keeping livestock farm.
and wool are obtained from the goats. In India, they are the Animal Husbandry is the scientific management of animal
livestock. It includes various aspect such as feeding, breeding
main source of meat (About 35%). The highest milk yielding
and disease control. Thus (b) is the correct answer.
breed of goat in India is Jamana Pari. It is also considered
as good for both milk and meat. It producer 2.5-3.0 kg milk 2. Largest density of the number of cattle in per 100
hectare gross cultivable land is in –
everyday.
(a) Bihar (b) Haryana
In India, the white revolution was started in July, 1970 with
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
the launch of operation flood-I Plan. Dr. Verghese Kurien I.A.S. (Pre) 1994
is known as the father of the white revolution in India. Ans. (a)
India is ranked first in terms of milk production (2020). Dr. Varghese Kurien was the father of India’s White
America is at second place. In India, Uttar Pradesh was Revolution, which helped India emerged as the largest milk
at first place, and Rajasthan is at the second place during producer in the world.
2018-19.
13. White Revolution is related to –
White revolution is related to milk. In order to increase the milk
(a) Egg production
production, operation flood was started in 1970-80 (1st phase).
(b) Milk production
Its second phase started in 1981-85 and third phase was
during 1985-1996. Indian Dairy Corporation was established (c) Wheat production
at Anand (Gujarat) in the year 1970, which was established (d) Fish production
to flourish Operation Flood. National Dairy Development U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
Board was established in 1965, whose mentor was Dr. Ans. (b)
Varghese Kurien. See the explanation of above question.
10. What is 'Operation Flood" associated with? 14. Who among the following is associated with 'White
(a) Flood Control Revolution'?
(b) Irrigation Project (a) P.J. Kurien (b) Varghese Kurien
(c) Storage of Foodgrains (c) M.S. Swaminathan (d) M.S. Raghunathan
(d) Milk Production and Distribution M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
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Ans. (d)
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1998 Ans. (b)
See the explanation of above question.
See the explanation of above question.
15. National Dairy Research Institute is located at –
11. Which one of the following states recorded the highest (a) Jhansi (b) New Delhi
milk production in 2011-12 ? (c) Ludhiana (d) Karnal
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
(c) Gujarat (d) Punjab Ans. (d)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
National Dairy Research Institute is located in Karnal,
Ans. (a)
Haryana. The institute was awarded the status of Deemed
States given in the options and their milk production during University in the year 1989.
2011-12 and 2018-19 is given below –
16. Which of the following is not a breed of Rajasthan?
States Milk Production (thousand tonnes)
(a) Tharparkar (b) Rathi
(2011-12) (2018-19)
(c) Hallikar (d) Mewati
Uttar Pradesh 22556 30519
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
Rajasthan 13512 23668
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
Gujarat 9817 14493
Ans. (e)
Punjab 9551 12599
Rajasthan state has three native cattle breeds viz Rathi,
12. Who is known as the father of India’s ‘White Tharparker and Nagori, having great deal of endwance.
Revolution’? Hallikar is a breed of cattle native to the state of karnataka.
(a) Dr. Varghese Kurien Mewati, also known as kesi, is a breed of Haryana.
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Pradesh. Dharwar system of Rocks : They are named
Dharwar system because they were first studied in Dharwar
and Lead are metallic minerals. Silver is commonly found in
acidic igneous rock mixed with lead zinc, copper etc.
region of Karnataka. The Dharwar system is rich in ferrous
and non-ferrous minerals.
B. Metallic Minerals
6. In which of the following parts of India are the largest
reserves of mineral resources found? i. Iron-Ore
(a) West (b) South
*Iron Ores in India are majorily found in Dharwar rock
(c) North (d) South East
system. Dharwar Rock System is economically most
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 important rock system found in India.. There are four major
Ans. (d) regions of iron ore production in India-
Largest mineral resources in India are found mainly in the (1) North-East (Jharkhand and Odisha)
region from South East to North Eastern belt. Chota Nagpur (2) Central India (Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh and
plateau, Dandakaranya plateau and Odisha plateau are located Maharashtra)
in this region. Largest mineral resources are located in the
(3) Peninsular India (Karnataka and Goa)
peninsular region. This is known as heart-place of Indian
(4) Other Regions (Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Kerala,
minerals. Plenty of coal, iron, mica, copper and bauxite, etc.
are found here. Gujarat, Haryana and West Bengal)
*The high-quality iron ore (Hematite and Magnetite) is
7. The maximum prosperity of minerals is in:
explored from Bailadila Mine of Chhattisgarh. Bailadila
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu Mine is the largest mechanized mine of India. Iron
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010 ore explored from this mine is exported to Japan from
Ans. (a) Vishakhapatnam Port.
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Rajasthan, Kerala, Gujarat,
Haryana, West Bengal.
and Goa etc. Magnetite which is comparatively low-quality
iron ore is found in the states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
This is notable that at the time when this question was asked, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu etc.
Jharkhand was part of Bihar. Hence, the correct answer
11. Out of the following types of iron ore, a reserve of which
would be (d). type is largest in India?
7. Which mineral is found in Nathra-ki-Pal area of (a) Haematite (b) Magnetite
(c) Siderite (d) Limonite
Rajasthan?
(e) None of these
(a) Iron ore (b) Copper
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
(c) Lead and Zinc (d) Manganese
Ans. (a)
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2008
Haematite type of ores has the largest iron ore reserve in
Ans. (a)
India. According to IMYB Report, 2019 the total resources
Nathra-Ki-Pal area of Rajasthan is famous for Iron Ore. of Haematite in the country is around 22486965 thousands
tonnes as of 1 April, 2015.
8. Bailadila mines are related to which mineral –
(a) Iron ore (b) Coal
(c) Manganese ore (d) Mica 12. Which of the following is one of the ore of iron mineral?
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015 (a) Chromite (b) Malachite
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2006 (c) Bauxite (d) Hematite
Ans. (a) Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
Ans. (d)
Bailadila mines are situated at Dantewada district of
Chhattisgarh. These are famous for iron-ore. See the explanation of above question.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 monopoly in zinc and lead production. Asia's best zinc
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct and lead reserves are located in Rampur Agacha region of
U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010 Bhilwara district. Hindustan Zinc Limited has established
Ans. (c) a super smelter machine with the help of Britain which is
used to melt zinc and lead. Other reserves of zinc and lead
According to IMYB Report, 2019. Most abundant reserves
in Rajasthan are- Zawar region (Udaipur), Rajpur Debari
of Iron Ore (Haematite + Magnetite) are found in Karnataka,
region (Udaipur), Dungarpur, Alwar, Banswara and Sirohi.
Odisha, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh respectively. In terms of
production 2018-19 (P), Odisha is at the first place. India is 2. Rajasthan has near monopoly in –
the fourth largest (2018, P) producer of iron ore in the world. (a) Copper (b) Mica
(c) Zinc (d) Dolomite
Therefore it is clear that option (c) is correct.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (c)
ii. Zinc
See the explanation of above question.
*Zinc is generally found in the combined form with lead
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iii. Silver
from the sulphides of Zinc. It is used to prevent rusting in
iron, making an alloy, Electrode, Motor parts, dry battery, etc.
*The State of Rajasthan has a monopoly in the production *Silver is generally found in a combined form with Lead,
and reserves of Zinc. Zinc and Copper from acidic igneous rocks. As per the
*Best quality Zinc and Lead reserves of Asia are found in figures of 2019-20 (P), Rajasthan is the largest producer
Rampur Agucha region of Bhilwara District. *Zawar of Silver. *Second leading state is Karnataka. According
region (Udaipur District) in Rajasthan is the largest zinc to Indian Mineral yearbook 2020, deposits of silver are
producing area in India. Other deposits of zinc in Rajasthan found in Rajasthan (87%), Jharkhand (5%), Andhra Pradesh
are - Rajpur Debari region (Udaipur), Dungarpur, Alwar, (3%), Karnataka (2%), Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Banswada, and Sirohi. Odisha, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra.
*Minor deposits of zinc in India are found in Bhotang region *Zawar Mines is famous for silver production in Rajasthan.
(Sikkim), Riyasi (Jammu and Kashmir), Almora and Tihri- *Kolar and Hutti Gold Mines is famous for gold deposits
Garhwal (Uttarakhand). in Karnataka.
*Hindustan Zinc limited has established Super Smelter
1. In which of the following states of India, silver is not
system which works for the melting of zinc and lead with
found?
the help of Britain in Rampur Agucha region.
(a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh
1. Asia's best zinc and lead reserves are available in – (c) Gujarat (d) Jharkhand
(a) Rajpur Dariba of Rajsamand District 43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1999
(b) Delwara of Udaipur District Ans. (c)
reserves are found in Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Andhra (a) Kesali (Mandala) (b) Dalli Rajahara (Durg)
Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Odisha, (c) Bailadila (Bastar) (d) Malajkhand (Balaghat)
Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra. Thus, M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
Balaghat
Singhbhum See the explanation of above question.
Chandrapur
3. With which mineral production is Malaj Khand
Bay of
Arabian Bengal associated?
Sea Guntoor Copper zones
Chitradurgh
(a) Lignite (b) Copper
Karnool
Hasan
Andaman
&
(c) Diamond (d) Iron Ore
Nicobar
group of M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
Lakshdweep Islands
(India) Ans. (b)
Sri
Lanka
See the explanation of above question.
6. Consider the following pairs in context of the mineral Copper Fields State
resources of India – Chandrapur – Maharashtra
Mineral 90% Natural reserve Hasan – Karnataka
1. Copper Jharkhand Khamman – Andhra Pradesh
2. Nickel Odisha Khetri – Rajasthan
3. Tungsten Kerala Thus, option (a) is correct.
Which of the pair(s) above is/are correct?
9. At which of the following places the Copper Industry
(a) Only 1 and 2
is located?
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3 (a) Tarapur (b) Titagarh
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Ranchi (d) Khetri
I.A.S. (Pre) 2010 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans. (b) 60th to 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (d)
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According to IMYB Report 2019, 53.81% of copper reserve
is found in Rajasthan. 93% of natural reserves of nickel is See the explanation of above question.
found in Odisha. 42% of natural reserves of Tungsten is found
10. In which of the following areas given in the map, was
in Karnataka. Thus, option (b) is correct.
the deposit of copper found by the atomic minerals cell
7. Malanjkhand in Madhya Pradesh is the leading of the department of Atomic Energy?
producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) Iron ore (b) Manganese
(c) Copper ore (d) Bauxite
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
Ans. (c)
Malanjkhand is an open pit copper mine located in Balaghat
(Madhya Pradesh). It is the leading producer of Copper Ore
in India.
8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List- I List- II (a) 1 (b) 2
(Copper Fields) (State) (c) 3 (d) 4
A. Chandrapur 1. Maharashtra I.A.S. (Pre) 1999
B. Hasan 2. Andhra Pradesh Ans. (d)
C. Khamman 3. Rajasthan Copper deposits were found out in 1999 in southern
D. Khetri 4. Karnataka Karnataka.
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*Bauxite is an ore of Aluminium. Its colour varies from
white-pink to red depending on the quantity of iron content.
'Indian Mineral Year Book 2019', three leading producers
of Bauxite are –
(i) Odisha
*Bauxite is found in the laterite rocks of the tertiary period. It
(ii) Jharkhand
is mainly used in the production of Alumina and Aluminium.
(iii) Gujarat
Originally Bauxite is Hydrated Aluminium Oxide.
*As per the figures of the year 2019 IMYB, Odisha is the 2. Two leading producers of Bauxite in India are –
(a) Jharkhand and Gujarat
largest producer (65.07%) as well as the state having largest
(b) Gujarat and Odisha
reserves of Bauxite (51%).
(c) Odisha and Maharashtra
*Bauxite in Orissa is obtained from the rocks of Khondalite (d) Odisha and Jharkhand
ranges. This is found in Koraput and Raigarh region. *In U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl.) (Pre) 2010
Gujarat, it is mainly found in Dwarka and Devbhumi. Ans. (b)
Lohardaga, Gumla, Latehar are the major bauxite regions When the question was asked option (b) was correct answer.
of Jharkhand. According to Indian Bureau of Mines, a leading producer
*Leading Bauxite producing states as per the figures of of Bauxite during 2018-19 (P) were – Odisha (65.07%),
2018-19 (P) are- Jharkhand (10.18%), Gujarat (9.21%) and Chhattisgarh
1) Odisha (15413642 Tonnes) (6.47%).
2) Jharkhand (2412484 Tonnes) 3. Which of the following industries uses bauxite as a
3) Gujarat (2181064 Tonnes) principal raw material?
4) Chhattisgarh (1532600 Tonnes) (a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
5) Maharashtra (1424864 Tonnes)
The only tin producing State in India is Chhattisgarh. All the 47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005
companies related to Tin mining (1-Public sector, 5-Private U.P.P.C.S. (Spl.) (Mains) 2004
sector) are located in the Dantewada district. U.P.P.C.S. 2001
3. In which district of Chhattisgarh, Bauxite ore is avail- M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990
able? Ans. (a)
(a) Raipur (b) Durg
According to Indian Mineral Year Book 2020, Andhra
(c) Kondgaon (d) Dhamtari
Pradesh was the Biggest producer of Mica. Total production
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
of Mica in Andhra Pradesh comes from Nellore district only.
Ans. (c)
2. What is Marble?
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(a) Sedimentary rock (b) Felsite rock
(c) Metamorphic rock (d) Igneous rock
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
Ans. (c)
Marble is a metamorphic rock that is formed when limestone
is subjected to heat and pressure of Metamorphism. It is
composed primarily of the mineral calcite (CaCO3) and
usually contains clay mineral such as mica, quartz, pyrite,
iron oxides and graphite.
3. Marble is –
(a) Re-crystallized limestone
(b) An igneous rock
(c) Sandstone
(d) Formed from changes of organic matters to inorganic
one *Raniganj coalfield of West Bengal is situated in upper
Damodar valley which is the largest and the most important
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
coalfield of India.
Ans. (a)
*Coal is found in a variety of forms depending on the degree
See the explanation of above question.
of compression and the depth and time of burial. *There are
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Ans. (b)
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016 Ans. (b)
According to Energy Policy report, (Plannnig Commission),
See the explanation of above question. the petroleum reserves in India will be depleted in 22 years,
Gas reserves in 30 years and Coal reserves in 80 years.
5. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/char- According to IMYB Report, 2019 about 326495.63 million
acteristics of Indian coal? tonnes of coal resources upto 1200m depth have been
1. High ash content established in the country as on 1 April, 2019 of the total
2. Low sulphur content resource share, the share of prime coking coal is 5313.06
3. Low ash fusion temperature million tonnes, medium-coking is 27983.54 million tonnes
Select the correct answer using the code given below – & semi-coking is 1707.52 million tonnes and non-coking
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 coal is 291491.51 million tonnes.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
I.A.S. (Pre) 2013
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)?
Ans. (a)
Assertion (A) : According to Geological Survey
Coal in India is found exclusively in two areas : (i) Gondwana
of India the total reserve of all
region and (ii) Kalp region. The coal of Gondwana region is
grade coal in India is 293.50
of high grade. The quantity of ash is less and thermogenic
billion tonnes.
power is high whereas the coal of the third Kalp region is
of inferior quality. It is rich in sulfur and therefore not used Reason (R) : More than half of total proved
for certain Industries. Most of India's coal is obtained (about reserve of coal of the country is
90%) from the Gondwana region. Most bituminous coal is found in two State - Jharkhand
found here, it has low amount of sulfur. and Odisha.
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Ans. (c)
See the explanation of above question.
Chota Nagpur industrial region is extended in Jharkhand,
North Odisha and West Bengal and is famous for its heavy
metallurgical industry. The discovery of coal in the Damodar
17. Two leading Coal producing states in India are –
Valley is the main reason for the development of this region.
(a) Jharkhand and Odisha
(b) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh 21. Jharkhand's share in total coal production in the
(c) Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh country, is :
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh (a) 40% (b) 45%
U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010 (c) 47% (d) 49%
Ans. (b) Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
Ans. (*)
Option (b) is the correct answer when the question was asked.
Now the correct answer is option (a). According to the data, Jharkhand's share in total coal
production in the year 2018-19 (P) was 18.48%. None of
18. The correct sequence in descending order of the
the option are correct.
following state in terms of the proved coal reserves, as
per the report of the Ministry of Coal as on 1-4-2014 22. Three leading producers of Coal in descending order
is: are–
(a) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh (a) Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand
(b) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand (b) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
(c) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh (c) Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(d) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
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of 1.61 billion tonnes of coal. Raniganj coalfield is located
in the Bardhaman district of West Bengal. Coal mining in
(c) Ranchi (d) Lohardaga
53 to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
rd
30. Talcher is the famous coal field of See the explanation of above question.
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh
35. Jharia coalfield is located in which of the following
(c) Bihar (d) Odisha
states?
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha
Ans. (d)
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
See the explanation of the above question. U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2014
Ans. (c)
31. The contribution of Chota Nagpur in production of
coal, is approx : See the explanation of above question.
37. Which State has the largest reserves of Lignite Coal 41. Assertion (A) : The inter-state movement of coal form
(a) Gujarat (b) Kerala a major component of inter-state traffic
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu handled by railways.
U.P.P..C.S. (Mains) 2011 Reason (R) : Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields are
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Ans. (d)
According to Minerals Year Book 2019, there are total of
major source of coal supply to the
northwestern states.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
45.759 billion million tonnes of reserves of Lignite coal
in India. In this total reserve, the State of Tamil Nadu has Code :
a maximum (79%) share with 36.23 billion tonnes of coal (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
reserve. explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
38. Which of the following do not have a major reserve of explanation of (A).
Lignite? (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Jharkhand (d) Puducherry U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017 Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields are a major source of coal supply
Lignite is popularly known as brown coal. It is formed due
to north-western states and the supply of inter–state coals
to decay of vegetations, metamorphism and other geological
is handled by Railway. They form a major component of
processes over thousands of years. Lignite is characterised by
handling inter State traffic. Thus, both (A) and (R) are true
high moisture content, low ash content and low heating value.
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
According to IMYB Report 2019 Lignite deposit is found
in the state of Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala, Gujarat, 42. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of –
Rajasthan and Jammu & Kashmir etc. But Jharkhand does (a) Copper ore
not have lignite reserves. (b) Iron ore
Numaligarh Re-
offshore region of Andhra Pradesh. Reliance is the first (2000) finery Limited
private company of India which is exploring natural gas
17 Managalore Karnataka Mangalore
up to 6000 metre deep in ocean surface in offshore region. (1995) Refinery and
*According to Hydrocarbon DG (Directorate General), Petrochemicals
Limited
ONGC has estimated 187.5 TCF Gas reserves in 5 Basin.
(1) Cambay 18 Tatipaka (2001) Andhra Oil and Natural
(2) Ganga Valley Pradesh Gas Commission
2. The leading producer of petroleum in India is: 6. In which State is the Lunej petrol producing area
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat located?
(a) Assam (b) Mumbai–High
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Gujarat
U.P.P.C.S. (GIC) 2010 Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2006
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004 Ans. (d)
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Ans. (b)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003 In Cambay Basin Lunej area, oil is found in sedimentary
rocks of the tertiary period. The estimated reserves are 30
At the time when the question was asked, Gujarat was the million tonnes of crude oil. The total production includes
about 15 lakh tonnes of oil per year and 8-10 lakh cubic
leading producer of petroleum. As per the data of [2019-20
metres of natural gas per day.
(P)], the sequence of petroleum producing States is given
below– 7. Navgam oil field is located in –
(State) Crude Quantity ( In thousand tonnes) (a) Assam (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh
Rajasthan – 6653
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2013
Gujarat – 4707 Ans. (b)
Assam – 4093
Navgam oil field is located in Gujarat. Other oil fields in
3. Which one of the following states is the largest producer Gujarat are Ankleshwar, Kalol, Bakrol, Mehsana.
of petroleum in 2013-14 ?
8. Where was the first oil well drilled in India?
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat (a) Digboi (b) Makum
(c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Naharkatiya (d) Lakwa
(e) None of these U.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2015 Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) In India, the first oil well was drilled in the area of Makum
See the explanation of above question. in upper Assam on 26th March, 1867. The depth is 118 feet
(35.5m). Initially, the commission has mentioned option (b)
4. Among the following countries, which was the highest as the correct answer which was later changed to option (a)
crude oil supplier to India during 2017-18? in their revised answer key, which is wrong.
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Barauni oil refinery is an Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
refinery situated in Bihar. There is no oil refinery in Koyna.
(c) During 1990's and 2000's
(d) During 1970's and 1980's
Mathura oil refinery (Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.) is in Uttar 56rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
Pradesh. Visakhapatnam Oil refinery (Hindustan Petroleum Ans. (d)
Corporation Ltd.) is in Andhra Pradesh. Hence option (b) is First oil/energy crisis occurred during the year 1973 when
the correct answer. oil exporting countries (OPEC) suddenly increased the oil
price four times. In India, industry and transportation was
11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
developed in such a way that demand for petroleum was
(a) Haldia - Odisha
increasing rapidly. Hence, due to the rise in petroleum prices,
(b) Jamnagar - Maharashtra
there was a huge oil crisis during 1970-80.
(c) Numaligarh - Gujarat
(d) Panagudi - Tamil Nadu 15. The Noonmati Oil refinery is located in the State of
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 (a) Assam (b) Bihar
Ans. (d) (c) Gujarat (d) West Bengal
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
Haldia is a city in West Bengal.
Ans. (a)
Jamnagar is a city located on the Western coast of India in
Gujarat in the Gulf of Kutch. Petroleum company, Reliance Noonmati suburb of the city of Guwahati, Assam, is known
Industries has established the world's largest oil refinery here. for the first oil refinery to be commissioned by the then Indian
The Numaligarh Refinery is located at Morangi, Golaghat Oil Company Ltd., now Indian Oil Corporation, listed as one
district, Assam, owned by Numaligarh Refinery Ltd., a Joint of the fortune 500 companies. Guwahati Refinery was started
22. In which of the following State of India 'Koyali' 25. 14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J.V. Blocks, 2 Nomination Blocks
petroleum refinery is located? and 4 C.B.M. Blocks are related to :
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(a) Assam
(c) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
(a) Gypsum belt (b) Gold belt
(c) Petroleum Exploration (d) Lignite belt
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2010
U.P. R.O/A.R.O. (Mains) 2016
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J.V. Blocks, 2-Nomination Blocks and
Koyali refinery is located at Koyali, Vadodara district in
4 C.B.M. Blocks are related to petroleum exploration. They
Gujarat. have potential oil and gas field which has been allotted to
23. Commercial production of Mineral Oil has started different companies under the New Exploration Licensing
recently in which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, Policy (NELP). NELP was applicable for all contracts entered
by Government (between 1997 to 2016). In March 2016,
2, 3 and 4 in the rough map given below:
Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)
replaced the New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP),
which was in existence for 18 years.
26. 'Hydrogen Vision- 2025' is related to –
(a) Warehousing of petroleum products
(b) Euro-I and Euro-II norms for vehicles
(c) 'Green House' effect
(d) None of the above
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004
Ans. (a)
'Hydrogen Vision-2025' is related to warehousing of
petroleum products.
CA–270 General Studies Indian Geography
27. To insulate the country from disruptions in supply 31. Choose the correct option representing the following
of crude oil, India has established "India Strategic pipelines Transports in decreasing order of their
Petroleum Reserves Ltd". It will construct underground lengths?
storages at three places. Identify the place which has 1. Salaya-Koyali-Mathura pipeline
not been selected for the purpose.
2. Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur gas pipeline
(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Mangalore
(c) Padur (d) Ankaleshwar 3. Jamnagar-Loni (LPG) pipeline
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008 4. Kandala-Bhatrinda pipeline
Ans. (d) (a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
To ensure energy security, the Government of India had (c) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 (d) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1
decided to set up 5 million metric tonnes of strategic crude oil Chattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
storages at three locations namely Visakhapatnam, Mangalore Ans. (c)
and Padur (near Udupi). These facilities are being managed Correct order is : Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur > Kandala-
by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL). Bhatrinda pipeline > Jamnagar-Loni (LPG) pipeline >
Ankleshwar is not included in this.
Salaya-Koyali-Mathura pipeline.
28. The oil exploration in India is undertaken by –
32. Recently, in which part of India, Reliance Industries
(a) Hindustan Petroleum (b) Indian Oil Corporation
Limited has explored a huge amount of natural gas?
(c) Oil India Ltd. (d) All of the above
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004 (a) Badmer region
Ans. (c) (b) Bombay high region
(c) Andaman and Nicobar region
Among the companies given in the question, oil exploration
(d) Coastal Andhra region
in India is undertaken by Oil India Ltd. In addition to this,
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd. (ONGC) is a key player
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in the field of oil exploration in India. Ans. (d)
29. HBJ pipe line transports natural gas from: Krishna Godavari Basin is a peri-cratonic passive margin
(a) Ankleshwar (b) Kalol basin in India, spread across more than 50,000 sq. km in the
(c) South Basin (d) Godavari Basin Krishna river and Godavari basins in Andhra Pradesh. The
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 site is known for the D-6 block, where Reliance Industries
Ans. (c) discovered the biggest natural gas reserves in India in 2002.
HBJ pipeline transport natural gas from the South Basin
33. Most of the production of Natural gas in India comes
which is situated at the coastal area of Bombay High.
from :
30. Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) Gas Pipeline has (a) Andhra Pradesh Coast
been constructed by which of the following authorities? (b) Gujarat Coast
(a) Gas Authority of India Limited (c) Bombay High
(b) Oil India Limited (d) Tamil Nadu Coast
(c) Indian Oil Company U.P.U.D.A/L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
(d) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
A huge mass of India's natural gas production comes from
Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) gas pipeline has been
the western offshore regions, particularly the Bombay High
constructed by Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) to
Complex. The onshore fields in the State of Assam, Andhra
transport gas. It is 1750 Km long and connects Hajira in
Maharashtra to Bijaipur in (M.P.) and Jagdishpur in (U.P.). Pradesh and Gujarat are also major producers of natural gas.
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is a peri Cratonic passive margin in India spread across more
than 50,000 sq.km.
mineral, State, Sandstone & Other Dimension Stone, Talc,
Soapstone and steatite.
36. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas *The only producer of Asbestos as per the data of the year
resources found? 2013-14 is Andhra Pradesh, whereas its largest reserve is
1. Cambay Basin found in Rajasthan. (1.04.2015) No Production of asbestos
2. Cauvery Basin was reported in 2019-20 as well as in the previous year
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin and no reporting mines in 2019-20 as well as in preceding
Select the correct answer using the code given below: year. *Metamorphic rock is a result of the transformation
(a) 1 and 2 only of existing rock, in a process called metamorphism.
(b) 3 only *Metamorphic minerals are formed under high temperature
(c) 2 and 3 only and pressure. Garnet is associated with Metamorphism.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Five leading states in Manganese production as per the
I.A.S. (Pre) 2016 figures of the year, 2018-19 (P) are-
Ans. (d) 1. Madhya Pradesh (944 Thousand Tonnes)
Shale Gas resources are found in numerous basins with 2. Maharashtra (761 Thousand Tonnes)
organic-rich shales. In India, four priority basins are Cambay, 3. Odisha (464 Thousand Tonnes)
Krishna-Godavari, Cauvery and Damodar Valley. Thus all 4. Karnataka (332 Thousand Tonnes)
the given codes are correct and (d) is the correct answer. 5. Andhra Pradesh (293 Thousand Tonnes)
37. Which is not a fossil fuel? *Manganese is mainly found in Balaghat and Chhindwara
(a) Coal (b) Wood district of Madhya Pradesh and, Bhandara and Nagpur
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Cerium. It is found in large quantity in the coastal areas of
Kerala. *Large reserves of diamond bearing Kimberlite
Ans. (c)
Bellari located in Karnataka is famous for iron ore mining.
tracte have been discovered in Payalikhand and Behradin Iron ore and manganese are mined in Chitradurga. Bhilwara
in Raipur district of Chhatisgarh. (Rajasthan) is famous for copper mining. Manganese ore
Mineral Production in India (2019-20, P) deposits in Rajasthan are found in Banswara, Udaipur and
Minerals First Second Third Pali, Katni is known for mining of Bauxite in Madhya Pradesh.
Bauxite* Odisha Jharkhand Gujarat
2. Which one of the following statements is ture?
Chromite* Odisha ----- -----
(a) Odisha is the largest producer of Chromite in India.
Coal* Chhattisgarh Odisha Jharkhand
(b) Karnataka is the largest producer of Silver in India.
Graphite* Odisha Jharkhand Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh has largest reserve of Bauxite in India
Limestone Rajasthan M.P. Andhra
Diamond M.P. ----- ----- (d) Odisha has largest reserve of Manganese in India
Manganese* M.P. Maharashtra Odisha U.P. B.E.O. (Pre) 2019
Ans. (a)
Crude oil Rajasthan Gujarat Assam
Natural Gas Assam Rajasthan Tripura According to figure of IMYB, 2019, Odisha has a monopoly
Cooper Ore* M.P. Rajasthan Jharkhand of Chromite production. Rajasthan is the top silver producer
Iron Ore* Odisha Chhattisgarh Karnataka in India. followed by Karnataka. There are no stand alone
Gold Karnataka Jharkhand ----- mines of silver in India. It is extacted from Zawar mines in
Silver Rajasthan Karnataka ----- Rajasthan along with copper lead and zinc ores. The largest
* = IMYB : 2019 Bauxite reserves are not in Andhra Pradesh but Odisha.
*According to data published by Indian Bureau of Mines in Andhra Pradesh close behind.
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in India is Andhra Pradesh. Whereas the largest reserve
of Asbestos is in Rajasthan. As the question is related to
Ans. (c)
Quartzite is a nonfoliated metamorphic rock composed
production thus, no answer is correct.
almost entirely of quartz. It forms when a quartz-rich
5. Consider the following statement :
sandstone is altered by the heat, pressure and chemical
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana belts.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. activity of metamorphism. These conditions recrystallize
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. the sand grains and the silica cement binds them together.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? The result is a network of interlocking quartz grains of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 incredible strength. Marble is a metamorphic rock that
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
forms when limestone is subjected to the heat and pressure
I.A.S. (Pre) 2013
Ans. (b) of metamorphism while slate is a metamorphosed rock made
from the sedimentary rocks.
Petroleum and Natural gas is found in the sedimentary rocks
of the tertiary plate. Gondwana belts belong to the upper 8. Match List-I (Ores) with List-II (State where they are
Palaeozoic and Mesozoic periods and the Dharwar rocks mined) and select the correct answer using the codes
belong to the late Archean period. Both these rocks are of given below the lists:
a much older period and consist of mostly metamorphosed List- I List- II
rocks and thus very poor in petroleum and natural gases.
A. Manganese 1. Madhya Pradesh
Hence, both statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Kodarma lies
B. Nickel 2. Odisha
in Jharkhand and is quite famous for its mica. That is why
C. Lead-zinc 3. Rajasthan
it is called as 'Mica City of India'. Thus, only statement 2 is
D. Asbestos 4. Andhra Pradesh
correct and the right answer is option (b).
The correct match of Minerals with their centres is as follows: 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(Centre) (Minerals) using the codes given below the lists:
Makum - Coal List- I List- II
Dallirajhara - Iron Ore (Iron Ore zone) (State)
Koraput - Bauxite A. Badam Pahar 1. Jharkhand
Chitradurg - Manganese B. Dalli-Rajhara 2. Odisha
21. Which of the following is not correctly matched? C. Kudremukh 3. Chhattisgarh
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(a) Amguri
(b) Lanjigarh
- Petroleum
- Bauxite
D. Noamundi
Code :
4. Karnataka
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Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2002
Ankleshwar oilfield is located about 80 km south of Vadodara
and nearly 160 km south of Khambhat in the Bharuch district
Nellore, located in Andhra Pradesh, is famous for the of the State of Gujarat.
production of Mica and Copper not for Manganese. Thus, Dalli Rajhara is home of iron ore captive mines for Bhilai
option (c) is not correctly matched. Steel Plant, the largest integrated steel plant in India.
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Kodarma district of Jharkhand is known for Mica. Copper
using the codes given below the lists : is largely obtained from Khetri- Singhana, Kho-Dariba &
List- I List- II Bhan- goni mines.
(Minerals) (Mining area) Thus, option (b) is correctly matched.
A. Graphite 1. Bellary 28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
B. Lead 2. Didwana using the codes given below the lists:
C. Salt 3. Rampa List- I List- II
D. Silver 4. Zawar (Minerals) (Areas of Production)
Code : A. Iron Ore 1. Khetri
A B C D B. Copper 2. Keonjhar
(a) 3 4 2 1 C. Coal 3. Kodarma
(b) 1 4 2 3 D. Mica 4. Korba
(c) 3 1 4 2 Code :
(d) 2 3 1 4 A B C D
I.A.S. (Pre) 1998 (a) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a) (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(d) 4 2 3 1 using the codes give below the lists:
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994 List- I List- II
Ans. (a) A. Copper 1. Kochi
B. Gas plant 2. Auraiya
Panna, located in Madhya Pradesh, is famous for its diamond C. Aluminium 3. Korba
mines. Iron ore deposits of Chhattisgarh are associated with D. Petroleum 4. Khetri
the rocks that are known to contain high-grade iron ores Code :
(Hematite). Major iron ore regions are Rajnandgaon, Durg, A B C D
Dantewada, Bastar & Bilaspur, High-grade bauxite ore is (a) 4 2 3 1
found in the plateau region of Sarguja, Durg, Raigarh and (b) 1 2 3 4
Bilaspur districts in Chhattisgarh. Coal deposits are found (c) 4 3 2 1
from Sidhi, Shahdol, Chindwada and Betul districts in (d) 3 4 1 2
Madhya Pradesh. U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2002
Ans. (a)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes give below the lists: According to the given options, the correct match is as
List- I List- II follows :
A. Coal 1. Kudremukh Copper – Khetri
B. Copper 2. Zawar Gas Plant – Auraiya
C. Iron Ore 3. Khetri Aluminium – Korba
D. Silver 4. Talcher Petroleum – Kochi
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in Lalitpur. The heavy mineral sand deposits in Kerala contain an
assemblage of Ilmenite, Rutile, Leucoxene, monazite,
41. Where are diamond mines in India?
Zircon and Sillimanite. The state possesses one of the world
(a) Karnataka (b) Uttar Pradesh
class deposits of mineral sand in the coastal tracts between
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
Neendakara and Kayamkulam. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014
Ans. (c) 45. Which of the following occurs at Coastal beaches of
Kerala?
Panna is a beautiful town located in Madhya Pradesh. It is
(a) Beryllium (b) Uranium
the biggest centre of diamond mining in India. Here, mines
(c) Thorium (d) Monazite
of diamond are located in Panna & Satna district of Madhya
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992
Pradesh.
Ans. (*)
42. In which one of the following districts, has large reserves
Monazite minerals are found in Kerala's coast. Thorium and
of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the Uranium is also found in Monozite minerals.
recent past?
(a) Hoshangabad (b) Raipur 46. Which of the following Mineral occurs in Kerala
(c) Sambalpur (d) Warangal abundantly?
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007 (a) Tin (b) Manganese
Ans. (b) (c) Mica (d) Monazite
U.PU.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
Large reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite tracts have
Ans. (d)
been discovered in Payalikhand and Behradin in Raipur
district and Tokapal in Bastar. See the explanation of above question.
6. The correct sequence of energy sources in order of The place where there is no thermal power station is
their share in the power sector in India is : marked:
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(a) Thermal > Hydro > Nuclear > Wind
(b) Thermal > Nuclear > Hydro > Wind
(a) 1
(c) 3
(b) 2
(d) 4
(c) Hydro > Nuclear > Thermal > Wind
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
(d) Nuclear > Hydro > Wind > Thermal
Ans. (b)
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2014
U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010 The place marked '2' in the map is Srisailam where a
Ans. (*) hydroelectric power station is located in Telangana, not a
thermal power station. The place marked "1" is Ukai thermal
The correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share
in power sector in India is as follows: power station in Gujarat, "3" is Korba thermal power station
As on 28 February, 2022 Energy production is: Thermal in Chhattisgarh and "4" is Obra thermal power station in Uttar
235928.72 MW), Hydro (46524.52 MW), Wind (40129.78 Pradesh. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
MW) & Nuclear (6780 MW). Thus, there is no proper
9. The Neyveli thermal power plant is fed by :
sequence of energy source obtained according to given
(a) Gondwana coal (b) Tertiary coal
options.
(c) Quaternary coal (d) Cambrian coal
7. The superthermal electricity plant established by I.A.S. (Pre) 1993
National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) in West
Ans. (b)
Bengal is situated at :
(a) Asansol (b) Bairakpur The Neyveli thermal power plant is located at Tamil Nadu.
(c) Chandranagar (d) Farakka It is the first lignite-fired thermal power station in South
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992 East Asia. Lignite is tertiary coal. Thus, option (b) is the
Ans. (d) correct answer.
C. Mettur 3. Karnataka A B C D
D. Wankbori 4. Tamil Nadu (a) 4 3 1 2
Code : (b) 2 1 4 3
A B C D (c) 3 4 1 2
(a) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 3 4 2 U.P.P.C.S. (Spl.) (Mains) 2008
Ans. (*)
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3 According to the given options, the correct match of rank
I.A.S. (Pre) 2005 installed thermal power capacity and concerned States is
Ans. (b) as follows:
According to the given options, the correct match of Thermal State Rank in installed thermal
power station and concerned States is as follows : power capacity as on 28.2.2022
(Power station) (State) Maharashtra - First (27063.08 MW)
Kothagudem - Andhra Pradesh (2520 MW) Uttar Pradesh - Second (25882.14 MW)
Raichur - Karnataka (coal-based 7 units of Gujarat - Third (23643.41 MW)
210 MW and 1 Units of 250 MW) West Bengal - Fourth (14277.08 MW)
Mettur - Tamil Nadu 15. Average All-India Thermal Plant Load Factor (PLF)
Wanakbori - Gujarat (coal-based) in recent years has been varying between –
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Ministry of Environment, forest and climate change for the
coastal regulatory area. This nuclear Power Plant is located
(c) 4% (d) 5%
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
in Bhavnagar district of Gujarat. *Jaitpur Nuclear Power Ans. (b)
station in India is proposed in cooperation with Areva See the explantion of above question.
company of France in Ratnagiri Maharashtra.
For the Nuclear energy Heavy Water Plant is required. 4. India is self-sufficient in the supply of –
*Thal heavy water plant is located in Maharashtra. (a) Uranium
*Manuguru heavy water plant is located in Telangana. (b) Thorium
*There are seven heavy water plants in the country. These are (c) Iridium
Baroda (Gujarat), Hazira (Gujarat), Kota (Rajasthan), Thal (d) Plutonium
(Maharashtra), Manuguru (Telangana), Talchar (Odisha) U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
and Tuticorin (Tamil Nadu). *Nuclear Power Corporation U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
Limited is the joint ventures of NTPC and NPCIL. *NPCIL U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
has 51% stake in Nuclear Power Corporation Limited and Ans. (b)
49% of NTPC. It was established in January 2011. Uranium is the most significant nuclear mineral used as
1. In which place was the first Nuclear Power Station nuclear fuel. Thorium is extracted mostly from monazite.
established in India? These reserves are found in monazite coastal sand of Kerala,
(a) Kalpakkam (b) Kota Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. Minor occurrences
(c) Tarapur (d) Narora of Thorium deposits have been noticed in Bihar, Karnataka,
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2014 Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh also. Hence, India is self-sufficient
Ans. (c) in the supply of Thorium.
*Hydroelectricity in India is one of the major sources of 3. Rana Pratap Sagar Hydro-electricity Project on
energy. Hydroelectricity is generated by fast flowing water, Chambal River is located in the State of:
which is a renewable resource. It is most easier to develop (a) Madhya Pradesh
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hydroelectricity in mountainous areas. At first Hydroelectric
plant in India was established in 1897-98 near a place named
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Sindrapong in Darjeeling district of West Bengal. Now India
(d) Chhattisgarh
has a number of multi-purpose projects like the Bhakra
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation, the Kopili Hydel
project etc producing hydroelectric power. 66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
Ans. (b)
The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is a gravity masonry dam, built
on the Chambal River at Rawatbhat in Rajasthan.
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Gurugram in Haryana. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 8. Which one of the following is the main area for
production "Tidal Energy".
4. For which one of the following Satara is well known ?
(a) Gulf of Bengal
(a) Thermal Power Plan (b) Wind Energy Plant
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Hydro-electric Plant (d) Nuclear Power Plant (c) Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2005 (d) Gulf of Kutch
Ans. (b) U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
Ans. (c)
Chalkewadi wind energy project in Satara (Maharashtra) is
developed for generating electricity. Five hundred windmills India has a long coastline with the estuaries and gulfs where
tides are strong enough to move turbines for electrical power
are put up all along the plateau to generate electricity.
generation. The total identified potential of tidal energy is
5. Which among the following ranks first in wind power about 9000 MW. West Coast Gulf of Cambay has a production
generation? capacity of 7000 MW, Gulf of Kutchh has 1200 MW capacity
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra and Sundarban has the capacity of less than 100 MW.
(c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
9. Most potential area for tidal energy in India is?
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
(a) Madras
Ans. (a)
(b) Cochin
In the context of wind power generation, Tamil Nadu (c) Visakhapatnam
(9857.67 MW) is at first position, after that Gujarat (9043.82 (d) Bhavnagar
MW) holds the second rank. As Tamil Nadu is not mentioned U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
in given options so option (a) would be the correct answer. Ans. (d)
Gujarat (41688.94), 3. Tamil Nadu (35507.09), 4. Karnataka The great deal of electricity in remote areas and less investment
in distribution system etc. are prime roadblocks to these losses.
(29907.80).
15. The power plant of Manikaran based on geothermal
12. In India, per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was –
energy is in the State of
(a) 300 kg. of oil equivalent
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) 360 kg. of oil equivalent
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) 243 kg. of oil equivalent (c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) 343 kg. of oil equivalent (d) Uttarakhand
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011 Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
CA–296 General Studies Indian Geography
The power plant of Manikaran based on geothermal energy 19. Which is not a renewable resource ?
(a) Energy of water
is located in the Parvati Valley on river Parvati, Northeast
(b) Energy of Sun
of Bhuntar in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh. The (c) Energy of Earth
area is well known for its hot springs. The hot springs in the (d) None of the above
valley temperature range between 320C to 960C. The hottest M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
one is at Manikaran at 960 which is boiling temperature at that Ans. (d)
altitude (3000 m). The location spread over a 45 km stretch Renewable sources are those that are replenished by the
from West to East with thermal springs at Kasol (760C), environment over a relatively short period of time. These
Manikaran (960C), Khirganga (490C) and Pulga (440C). The type of resources renew so fast that it is regenerated by the
electricity is generated by these sources of thermal springs. time we use it completely. Solar energy, the energy of water,
the energy of earth, wind energy are all renewable source of
16. The power plant at Manikaran, based on geothermal
energy. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
energy, is located in the State of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh 20. Which one of the following States is a leading producer
of solar energy in India?
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Telangana (b) Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(d) Uttarakhand (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
The power plant at Manikaran based on geothermal energy Karnataka tops the list of states with the highest installed
is located in Parvati valley on river Parvati in Kullu district solar power generation capacity in the country. It has
of Himachal Pradesh. a total installed capacity of about 7346.85 MW (as on
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17. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Hot springs Location
28.02.2021). As per Ministry of New and Renewable energy
(as on 28.02.2022) Rajasthan (10687.58 MW) ranked first
(a) Manikaran - Himachal Pradesh in the installed solar power generation capacity followed by
(b) Jwalamukhi - Jammu and Kashmir
Karnataka (7573.32 MW) and Gujarat (6377.56 MW).
(c) Anhoni - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tapta Pani - Odisha
21. Which of the following States of India have the higher
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2015
Ans. (b) opportunities for the development of wind power?
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Punjab
Jwalamukhi is a town and municipal council in Kangra
(b) Bihar and Jharkhand
district of Himachal Pradesh. Among the 51 Shaktipeeth,
(c) Tamil Nadu and Gujarat
Jwalamukhi Devi Temple is situated here. Thus, option (b)
(d) Rajasthan and Odisha
is not correctly matched.
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
18. Which of the following source of energy is not a Ans. (c)
commercial source?
(a) Petroleum According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(b) Atomic Energy Government of India, the total wind power capacity in the
(c) Natural Gas country is 302.25 GW at 100 meters above ground level and
(d) Biogas 695.50 GW at 120 meters. According to this, the states (in
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2013
GW) with more potential for development of wind energy
Ans. (d)
from the given options are as follows :
Coal, petroleum, natural gas and atomic energy are commercial
(State) (100 meters above (120 meters above
sources of energy also known as non-renewable and traditional ground level) ground level)
resources whereas wind, solar, biomass, geothermal, tidal and Gujarat 84.43 142.56
hydropower energy sources are non-commercial sources of Rajasthan 18.77 127.75
energy, also known as renewable non-traditional resources. Tamil Nadu 33.80 68.75
1. Korba in Chhattisgarh has importance for – The Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd. (BALCO) is located in
(a) Aluminium industry (b) Copper Korba district, Chhattisgarh, Hindustan Aluminium Company
(c) Mica (d) Steel Ltd. (HINDALCO) is located in Pipari village (Renukoot)
in Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. National Aluminium
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2001
Company Ltd (NALCO) has units in Bhubaneswar,
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994
Odisha. It is Asia's largest, integrated aluminium complex,
Ans. (a)
encompassing bauxite mining, alumina refining, aluminium
Korba district is located in Chhattisgarh. Various prominent smelting and casting, power generation, rail and port
industrial units are situated here, which are as follows : operations. Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL) is located at Khetri,
Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd. (BALCO) Kolihan in Rajasthan. HCL is the only vertically integrated
Korba Super Thermal Power Plant. copper producer in India, engaged in a wide spectrum of
Minimata Bango Hasdeo Project activities ranging from Mining, Beneficiation, Smelting,
BALCO Captive Plant Refining and Continuous Cast Rod manufacturer.
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copper manufacturing company, is a subsidiary of the Aditya
Birla Group. The Hindustan Aluminium Corporation Limited
was established in 1958 by the Aditya Birla Group. In 1962,
the company began production in Renukoot in Uttar Pradesh
producing 20 thousand metric tons per year of aluminium
metal and 40 thousand metric tons per year of alumina. On
15 May 2007, the acquisition was completed with Novelis
share- holders by HINDALCO.
The Indian Aluminium Company Ltd. (INDAL) is an
integrated plant having three units at different places. Its three
smelting units are located at Alupuram (Kerala), Hirakud
Odisha, and Belgaum (Karnataka).
National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) has
units in Odisha at Angul and Damanjodi (Koraput). It was
incorporated as a public sector enterprise by the Ministry of
Mines, Government of India in 1981.
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(a) Panipat
(c) Chandigarh
(b) Sonipat
(d) Lucknow
Ans. (a)
Heavy Engineering Corporation Ltd., is one of the leading
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016
suppliers of capital equipment in India for steel, mining,
Ans. (a)
railways, power, defence, space research, nuclear and
The country's first artificial rubber plant was set up at Panipat
strategic sectors. It also executes twin key projects from
(Haryana). It was founded by 'Indian Synthetic Rubber
concept-to-commissioning. Set-up in the year 1958 in Ranchi,
Private Limited'.
HEC has acquired expertise in its field through its more than
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer half a century's experience.
using the codes given below the lists:
Hindustan Machine Tools Limited, formerly Indian Tool, is
List- I List- II
a state-owned manufacturing company under Department of
(Centre) (Industry)
Heavy Industry, Ministry of Heavy Industries. The company
A. Kankinara 1. Carpet
B. Virudhnagar 2. Jute manufactures tractors, watches under its watch division and
C. Channapatna 3. Cotton Textile industrial machines and tools mainly under its Praga division.
D. Bhadohi 4. Silk It has a workforce of 2,806 with manufacturing units locations
Code : at Bangalore, Pinjore, Kalamassery, Hyderabad and Ajmer.
A B C D Hindustan Aluminium Company Ltd. (HINDALCO), a
(a) 1 2 3 4 subsidiary of the Aditya Birla Group, is located in Pipari
(b) 2 3 4 1
village (Renukoot) in Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh.
(c) 4 3 2 1
Fertilizer Corporation of India Limited is a Public Sector
(d) 3 2 1 4
Undertaking in India under the administrative control of
U.PU.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010
Ans. (b) the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals and
9.
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Which among the following industries is an ancient
Code :
A B C D
industry in India? (a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 1 3 4 2
(a) Jute (b) Cotton Textile
(c) 1 3 2 4
(c) Tea (d) Sugar
(d) 3 1 4 2
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
The first cotton mill in India was established in 1818 at Fort According to the given options, the correct match is as
Gloster near Kolkata but was a commercial failure. The follows:
second cotton mill in India was set up by KGN Daber in 1854 Zari Batua - Bhopal
and was named Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company. Bhairavgarh - Ujjain
10. Consider the statements : Handicrafts of Bagh - Dhar
Assertion (A) : Sugar industry is more developed Sarees of Chanderi - Ashoknagar
in South India. 12. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
Reason (R) : Per hectare production and quantity (a) Badla (Water-bottle) - Jaipur
of juice of sugarcane is higher in the (b) Masuria Sari - Kota
southern states. (c) Namda - Jodhpur
Codes : (d) Marble Carving - Tonk
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2008
explanation of (A). Ans. (b)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Masuria Sari is related to the Kota district of Rajasthan. Other
explanation of (A). pairs are not correctly matched.
The first fertilizer plant of India was established in Sindri 32. India's largest petrochemical factory is situated in the
(then Bihar now Jharkhand) in 1951 as public sector state of :
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal
undertaking. After that, the fertilizer plant was established
(c) Assam (d) Tamil Nadu
in Nangal (Punjab).
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
29. Nepanagar is related to which of the following Ans. (a)
industries? The largest petrochemical factory is located in the state of
(a) Fertilizer (b) Newsprint paper Gujarat in India.
(c) Sugar (d) Woolen textile
33. Steel Authority of India was established in the year :
M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
(a) 1965 (b) 1971
Ans. (b)
(c) 1974 (d) 1956
Nepanagar is an industrial township in Burhanpur district of U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006
Madhya Pradesh. The township is famous for its Newspaper Ans. (*)
print. During the second five-year plan, three new integrated steel
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30. The biggest fertilizer factory of India in the cooperative
sector is situated at
plants were established with foreign collaboration. These were
Rourkela (Odisha), Bhilai (Chhattisgarh) and Durgapur (West
Bengal). These public sector undertakings were under the control
(a) Phulpur (U.P.) (b) Hazira (Gujarat)
of Hindustan Steel Limited. Steel Authority of India Limited
(c) Haldia (West Bengal) (d) Siwan (Bihar) was established in 1973 for the management of these plants.
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010
Ans. (a) 34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
The biggest fertilizer factory of India in the cooperative sector
(a) Amlai - Chhattisgarh
is situated at Phulpur (Prayagraj, U.P.).
(b) Ballarpur - Maharashtra
31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (c) Brajrajnagar - Odisha
using the codes given below the lists: (d) Rajahmundry - Andhra Pradesh
List- I List- II U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
A. Brajraj Nagar 1. Cement Ans. (a)
B. Kaimur 2. Fertilizer The correct match of paper industry centres and their states
C. Haldia 3. Petrochemical are as follows:
D. Phulpur 4. Paper Amlai - Madhya Pradesh
Code : Ballarpur - Maharashtra
A B C D Brajrajnagar - Odisha
(a) 1 2 3 4 Rajahmundry - Andhra Pradesh
(b) 3 4 1 2 35. The state having the maximum number of paper mills is
(c) 4 1 3 2 (a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2008 U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
Indian Geography General Studies CA–311
In the given options, Uttar Pradesh has the maximum number 38. Consider the following statements :
of paper mills (115). While Gujarat (127) has the maximum 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power
number of paper mills in India. to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold
36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as mines.
Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) : 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Assertion (A) : Ahmedabad is the largest centre of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
cotton textile industry in India. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Reason (R) : Ahmedabad is located in Major (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
cotton growing region of India, so I.A.S. (Pre) 2018
it has no problem of raw materials. Ans. (d)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
As per the new mining law - Mines and Minerals (Development
Codes :
and Regulation) Amendment Act 2015–non-coal mines have
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
to be auctioned by the respective state governments. In the
explanation of (A)
state of Andhra Pradesh, there are known deposits of gold-
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
bearing quartz rocks. The state government (Andhra Pradesh)
explanation of (A) has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false Australian Indian Resources Ltd. to commence mining at
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true Kurnool. Hirabuddini is a gold mine in Jharkhand. Bhilwara
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2020 iron ore mine is located in Rajasthan.
Ans. (d)
39. Assertion (A) : Cotton textile industry is spread
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Mumbai is the largest centre of Cotton Textile Industry all over India though cotton is
in India.Ahmedabad is located in India's major cotton produced in only a few parts.
production area, it does not face any raw material problem. Reason (R) : Its raw material does not loose
Hence, based on appropriate interpretation, it can be said that weight during manufacturing.
statement (A) is false, but reason (R) is correct. Which one of the following is the correct choice?
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is also correct.
37. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton (b) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
yarn in the country. What could be the reason? (c) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.
1. Black Cotton soil is the predominant type of soil (d) Assertion and reason, both are wrong.
in the state. R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2013
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available. Ans. (a)
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons? In India, cotton is mainly produced in black soils. Some of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the important centres such as Ahmedabad, Solapur, Nagpur,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Coimbatore and Indore are located in the areas of large scale
I.A.S. (Pre) 2010 cotton cultivation. Thus, cotton is produced in only a few
Ans. (b) parts of India. It is equally important to note that cotton is a
pure raw material, in the sense that it does not lose its weight
Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn
in the process of manufacturing and the slight loss in weight
in the country. Presence of numerous spinning mills, skilled is more than compensated by the use of sizing materials. The
labour force, cheap hydroelectricity availability etc. are main cotton textile industry is spread all over India. Maharashtra,
factors for good production. Tamil Nadu is not a predominant Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh etc. are
area of black cotton soil. Hence, only statement 2 is correct. prime centres of cotton textile centres.
using the codes given below the lists: 44. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
List- I List- II matched?
(a) Koyali - Gujarat
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(Industry)
A. Silk textiles
(Centre)
1. Jawahar Nagar
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Numaligarh
- Andhra Pradesh
- Assam
B. Petrochemicals 2. Talcher (d) Manali - Tamil Nadu
C. Fertilizers 3. Mysore U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
Ans. (b)
D. Pharmaceuticals 4. Rishikesh
Code : The correct match is as follows –
A B C D (Location) (State)
Koyali - Gujarat
(a) 2 1 3 4
Nagapattinam - Tamil Nadu
(b) 3 1 2 4 Numaligarh - Assam
(c) 3 2 4 1 Manali - Tamil Nadu
(d) 4 3 2 1 Note : Nagapattinam is located in Tamil Nadu, not in Andhra
U.P.P.C.S. (GIC) 2010 Pradesh. Manali is an Industrial area and a zone in Greater
Chennai Corporation and located in Thiruvallur district in
Ans. (b) the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
According to given options, correct match is as follows : 45. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(Industry) (Centre) (a) Muri - Jharkhand
Silk textiles Mysore (Karnataka)
(b) Alwaye - Kerala
Petrochemicals Jawahar Nagar (Gujarat)
Fertilizers Talcher (Odisha) (c) Dharmapuri - Odisha
Pharmaceuticals Rishikesh (Uttarakhand) (d) Koyali - Gujarat
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010
43. Match items in the List-I with those in the List-II and Ans. (c)
select the correct answer using the codes given below
Dharmapuri is located in Tamil Nadu. All other options are
the lists:
correctly matched.
Indian Geography General Studies CA–313
46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists: using the codes given below the lists:
List- I List- II List- I List- II
(Industrial Unit) (Distinguished Person) (Area of Work)
A. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. 1. Bangalore A. B.V. Rao 1. Automobiles
Manufacture
B. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. 2. Bhubaneswar
B. C.K. Prahlad 2. Fisheries Economy
C. Indian Farmers Fertilizers 3. Kalol
C. John Kurien 3.InformationTechnology
Co-operative Ltd.
and Software
D. National Aluminium 4. Sonepat D. Kiran Karnik 4. Poultry Farming
Company Ltd. 5. Management Science
Code : Code :
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 (a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 3 1 5
(d) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 5 2 3
I.A.S. (Pre) 2000 I.A.S. (Pre) 2005
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
According to given options, correct match is as follows :
Atlas Cycle Ltd. is located in Sonepat. Bharat Earth Movers
B.V. Rao Poultry Farming
Ltd. is located in Bangalore. Indian Farmers Fertilizers Co-
operative Ltd. is located in Kalol and National Aluminium C.K. Prahlad Management Science
Company Ltd. is located in Bhubaneshwar. John Kurien Fisheries Economy
Kiran Karnik Information Technology
47. What is Diamond Park ? and Software
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(a) These are the national parks developed by the Central
50. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the
Environment Ministry on hilly areas of India.
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(b) These are the places where refineries have been List- I List- II
established. (Person) (Organization)
(c) These are the industrial zones which have been created A. V.R.S. Natrajan 1. Bharat Heavy
to promote manufacturing and export of diamonds & Electricals Limited
synthetic jewellery and ornaments B. A.K. Puri 2. Air India
(d) These are the centres where huge power projects are C. V. Thulasidas 3. Maruti Udyog Limited
established. D. Jagdish Khattar 4. Bharat Earth Movers
Limited
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
5. Indian Space Research
Ans. (c)
Organization
Diamond Park is the industrial zones which have been Code :
created to promote manufacturing and export of diamonds A B C D
and synthetic jewellery and ornaments. (a) 2 3 5 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
48. Granite Polishing Industry of JSMDC is located at – (c) 2 1 5 3
(a) Tupudana (Ranchi) (b) Madhupur (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) Pakur (d) Seraikela I.A.S. (Pre) 2005
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
According to given options, correct matching is as follows –
Granite Polishing Industry of Jharkhand State Minerals Person Organization
Development Corporation is located at Tupudana (Ranchi). V.R.S. Natrajan – Bharat Earth Movers
Bishrampur Graphite project is located in Palamu. Limited
A B C D Code :
(a) 1 2 3 4 A B C D
(b) 2 1 4 3 (a) iv iii ii i
(c) 4 3 2 1 (b) i iv iii ii
(d) 3 4 1 2 (c) ii i iv iii
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (d) iii ii i iv
60th to 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016 Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
The correct match is as follows – According to given options, correct match is as follows :
(Place) (Industry) (Industry) (Location)
Bengaluru - Aircraft Fertilizers – Sriganganagar
Korba - Aluminium Glass – Jaipur
Jamshedpur - Iron & Steel Cement – Udaipur
Malaikhand - Copper Synthetic silk – Kota
of India Delhi
28. Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute, Jhansi
Institute Equivalent University of the Indian Council of 29. Indian Institute of Agricultural Biotechnology, Ranchi
Agricultural Research 30. Indian Institute of Horticultural Research, Bengaluru
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi 31. Indian Institute of Natural Resins and Gums, Ranchi
• National Dairy Resarch Institute, Karnal 32. Indian Institute of Pulses Research, Kanpur
• Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Izatnagar 33. Indian Institute of Soil Sciences, Bhopal
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47. Indian Institute of Maize Research, New Delhi
48. Central Agroforestry Research Institute, Jhansi
4. National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning,
Nagpur
49. National Institute of Agricultural Economics and Policy 5. National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources, Karnal
Research, New Delhi 6. National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources, Lucknow
50. Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley Research, Karnal
51. Indian Institute of Farming Systems Research,
Directorate
1. Directorate of Groundnut Research, Junagarh
Modipuram
2. Directorate of Soyabean research, Indore
52. Indian Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad
3. Directorate of Rapeseed & Mustard Research, Bharatpur
53. Indian Institute of Oilseeds Research, Hyderabad
4. Directorate of Mushroom Research, Solan
54. Indian Institute of Oil Palm Researcvh, Pedavegi, West
5. Directorate on Onion and Garlic Research, Pune
Godawari 6. Directorate of Cashew Research, Puttur
55. Indian Institute of Water Management, Bhubaneshwar 7. Directorate of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants Research,
56. Indian Institute of Rice Research, Hyderabad Anand
57. Central Citrus Research Institute, Nagpur 8. Directorate of Floricultural Research, Pune, Maharashtra
58. Indian Institute of Seed Research, Mau 9. Directorate of Weed Research, Jabalpur
59. Indian Agriculture Research Institute, Hazaribagh, 10. Project Directorate on Foot & Mouth Disease,
Jharkhand Mukteshwar
60. National Institute for Plant Biotechnology, New Delhi 11. Directorate of Poultry Research, Hyderabad
12. Directorate of Knowledge Management in Agriculture
National Research Centre (DKMA), New Delhi
1. National Research Centre for Banana, Trichi 13. Directorate of Coldwater Fisheries Research, Bhimtal,
2. National Research Centre for Grapes, Pune Nainital
CA–320 General Studies Indian Geography
Council of Scientific and A. Central Drug Research Institute
B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
Industrial Research (CSIR) C. National Institute of Ocean Technology
1. Advanced Materials and Processes Research Institute, D. Temperate Forest Research Centre
Bhopal Code :
2. Central Building Research Institure, Roorkee A B C D
3. Centre for Cellular Molecular Biology, Hydrabad (a) 4 3 2 6
4. Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow
(b) 4 5 1 6
5. Central Electrochemical Research Institute, Kraikudi
(c) 2 3 4 5
6. Central Electronics Engineering Research Institute, Pilani
(d) 1 6 2 3
7. Central Food Technological Research Institute, Mysuru
I.A.S. (Pre) 1998
8. Central Glass Ceramic Research Institute, Kolkata
Ans. (a)
9. Central Institute of Medicinal Aromatic Plants, Lucknow
10. Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research, Dhanbad The Central Drug Research Institute is situated in Lucknow
11. Central Leather Research Institute, Chennai which is marked as "4" in the map. National Atlas and
12. Central Mechanical Engineering Resarch Institute, Thematic mapping Organisation is situated in Kolkata
Durgapur marked as "3" in the map. National Institute of Ocean
13. Central Road Research Institute, New Delhi Technology is situated in Chennai, marked as "2" on the map
14. Central Scientific Instruments Organisation, Chandigarh and Temperate Forest Research Centre is situated in Shimla
15. Fourth Paradiagm Institute, Bengaluru which is marked as "6" on the map.
16. Central Salt Marine Chemicals Research Institute,
Bhavnagar 2. The second scientific research station of India on the
17. Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology, Delhi Antarctica continent called 'MAITRI' was established
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18. Institute of Himalayan Bioresource Technology,
Palampur
in 1988. The main task of this research centre is –
(a) Geologic mapping (b) Weather forecast
19. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology, Kolkata (c) Marine Biology (d) Satellite transmission
20. Indian Institute of Chemical Technology, Hyderabad R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992
21. Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun Ans. (c)
22. Indian Institute of Integrative medicine, Jammu
According to the official website of National Centre for
23. Indian Institute of Toxicology Research, Lucknow
Antarctic and Ocean Research, Maitri is dedicated to
24. Institute of Microbial Technology, Chandigarh
25. Institute of Minerals and Materials Technology, conducting researches on diverse disciplines including earth
Bhubaneswar science, glaciology, atmospheric science, communication,
26. National Aerospace Laboratories, Bengaluru medicine, human physiology and cold region engineering.
27. National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow
3. The 3rd Indian Research Centre had been founded in
1. Match the following Research Institutes A, B, C and D Antarctica by the name of :
with their respective location labelled as 1 to 6 in the
(a) Saraswati (b) Bharati
given rough outline map :
(c) Anveshan (d) Yamnotri
India U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
6 Ans. (b)
5
4 The 3rd research centre in Antarctica was established in 2012
3 with the name of Bharti. India's first station in Antarctica
(Dakshin Gangotri (1983-84) was abandoned in 1990-91
1
2 after it was submerged in ice. It was succeeded by the 'Maitri',
which was set up in 1988-89.
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Ans. (d)
The International Crops Research Institute for Semi-
Ans. (c)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2016
Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is an International Non-Profit The headquarter of Central Insitute for Arid Horticulture
Organization that undertakes scientific agrarian researches (CIAH) is located on National Highway No -15 (Bikaner-
for development in South Asia & Sub-Saharan Africa. The Sri Ganganagar Road) 10 km away from Bikaner city in
ICRISAT headquarter is in Patancheru near Hyderabad. Bikaner, Rajasthan.
7. The Place where Central Dryland Research Institute 12. National Academy of Agricultural Research Management
exists is : is located at :
(a) Bangalore (b) New Delhi (a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad
(c) Jhansi (d) Hyderabad (c) Kolkata (d) New Delhi
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Pre) 2008 U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA) National Academy of Agricultural Research Management
is a National Research Institute under the Indian Council of (NAARM) is located at Hyderabad.
Agricultural Research (ICAR) established in Hyderabad. 13. 'National Institute of Agriculture marketing' is located
8. Where is the Central Research Institute for Dryland at
Agriculture (CRIDA) located? (a) New Delhi (b) Jaipur
(a) Hyderabad (b) Hissar (c) Hisar (d) Bhopal
(c) New Delhi (d) Rajkot U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015 Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is
See the explanation of above question. located at Jaipur.
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Uttarakhand.
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
in 1962. The Institute got established in the year 1974 as an
autonomous body of the Ministry of Labour and Employment,
Government of India. The Institute was renamed in 1995 in
from the codes given below the lists : honour of Shri V.V. Giri, former President of India. The
List -I List-II Institute is located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
A. National Environment 1. Rajahmundry 20. In which of the following place is Indian Vegetable
Engineering Research Institute situated?
B. Central Food Technology 2. Nagpur (a) Agra (b) Kanpur
Research Institute
(c) Lucknow (d) Varanasi
C. Central Potato Research 3. Shimla
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017
Institute
Ans. (d)
D. Central Tobacco Research 4. Mysuru
Institute Indian Institute of Vegetable Research is located in Varanasi.
Code : All India Co-ordinated Research Project (AICRP) on
A B C D vegetable crops (VC) was started during the IVth 5 year
Plan in 1970-71 to provide a national grid for multi-location
(a) 2 3 4 1
testing of the vegetables. AICRP was established on vegetable
(b) 2 4 3 1
crops during the year 1971 at the Indian Agriculture Research
(c) 3 4 2 1 Institute (IARI), New Delhi. The AICRP was elevated to the
(d) 1 2 3 4 distinction of Project Directorate of Vegetable Research in the
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016 year 1986. The headquarter of the same was located at IARI,
Ans. (b) New Delhi. However in the year 1992, the headquarter was
shifted to Varanasi from New Delhi. The institute was further
The correct match of List-I with List -II is as follows : elevated to Indian Institute of Vegetable Research (IIVR) by
National Environment - Nagpur offering the status of National Institute under Indian Council
Engineering of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in the year 1999.
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(c) Pune (d) Izzatnagar
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990
The Central Institute of Sub-tropical Horticulture (Formerly
Known as Central Mango Research Institute) is located at
Ans. (b)
Lucknow.
The National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is situated at
28. The Headquarters of 'Indian Bureau of Mines' is at –
Karnal in Haryana.
(a) Ranchi (b) Ahmedabad
24. National Dairy Research Institute is established at – (c) Nagpur (d) Mysore
(a) Karnal (b) Hisar U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010
(c) Anand (d) Jaipur Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (a) The headquarters of Indian Bureau of Mines is located at
Nagpur. The Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) established
The National Dairy Research Institute is a premier institute
in 1948, is a multi-disciplinary government organisation
for Dairy Research located in Karnal district of Haryana. It
under the Ministry of Mines, engaged in the promotion of
has been accorded the status of Deemed University in the
year 1989. conservation, scientific development of mineral resources
and protection of the environment in mines. IBM has 4
25. The Indian Institute of Pulses Research is located at –
zonal offices and 13 regional offices. The primary mission
(a) New Delhi (b) Varanasi
(c) Kanpur (d) Lucknow of Indian Bureau of Mines is to promote systematic and
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015 scientific development of Mineral resources of the Country
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010 (both onshore and offshore), through regulatory inspections
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 of the mines, approval of mining plans and environment
Ans. (c) management plans to ensure the minimal adverse impact on
The Indian Institute of Pulses Research is located at Kanpur. the environment.
30. Where is the Indian Diamond Institute established Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar University of Horticulture and
(a) New Delhi (b) Surat Forestry is located in district Solan, Himachal Pradesh. It is the
(c) Mumbai (d) Jaipur first university of its kind in Asia with an exclusive mandate of
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013 education, research and extension in horticulture and forestry.
Ans. (b) The university was established on December 1, 1985 and is
The Indian Diamond Institute is a Government of India named after the first Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh.
sponsored autonomous higher school of learning in the fields
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.
of diamonds, gems and jewellery in India. It was established
List- I List- II
in 1978. The Institute is located in Surat, Gujarat.
(Organisation) (Location)
31. The location of the National Dairy Development Board
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
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is at –
(a) Anand (b) Gandhi Nagar
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam
Limited
2. Kamptee
33. Where is Indian Grassland and Fodder Research In- Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited Hyderabad
stitute located? Institute of Military Law Kamptee
(a) Kota (b) Jhansi Institute of National Integration Pune
The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research (IISR) is located U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
at Lucknow. The institute was established in 1952. Ans. (d)
The Indian Metorological Department was established in
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Kolkata in 1875, later shifted to Shimla in 1905 then to Pune
using the codes given below the lists:
in 1928 and finally to Delhi in 1944.
List- I List- II
A. Central Rice Research 1. Jhansi 39. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
Institute is located in :
B. Directorate of Farming 2. Bhopal (a) Dehradun (b) Hyderabad
System Research (c) New Delhi (d) Kolkata
C. Indian Institute of Soil 3. Cuttack M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
Science Ans. (d)
D. National Centre for Agro- 4. Meerut
On 18th August, 1956, the National Atlas Organization was
Forestry Research
established under the Geography Department of Kolkata
Code :
University. Professor S.P. Chatterjee was its founder director.
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(a)
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
In 1978 the name of the Organization was changed to the
National Atlas and Thematic Organization (NATMO). It
(b) 1 2 3 4 works under the administrative control of Department of
(c) 4 3 1 2 Science & Technology of the Government of India. The
(d) 2 1 3 4 headquarters is in the CGO building in Salt Lake (Bidhan
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 Nagar), Kolkata.
Ans. (a) 40. Which of the following does not have the 'National
The correct match of lists mentioned in the question is as Museum of Natural History'?
follows : (a) Mysore (b) Hyderabad
Central Rice Research Institute - Cuttack
(c) Bhuvaneshwar (d) Bhopal
Directorate of Farming System - Meerut
Research U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Indian Institute of Soil Science - Bhopal Ans. (b)
National Centre for Agro-Forestry - Jhansi The National Museum of Natural History was established in
Research New Delhi on 5th June, 1978. The NMNH has extended its
38. Arrange the following Indian Meteorological geographical range by establishing Regional Museums of
Headquarters in Chronological order of their Natural History (RMNH) in many parts of the country such
establishment and select your correct answer from the as Southern Region (Mysore), Central Region (Bhopal) and
codes given below : Eastern Region (Bhubaneswar). Two more museums are
A. New Delhi B. Kolkata being established in Western Region (Sawai Madhopur) and
C. Shimla D. Pune North-Eastern Region (Gangtok).
Transport
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47. The National Centre of Organic Farming (NCOF) is
situated at 1. Road Transport
(a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
*Since the Indus valley civilization in India, there has been an
(c) New Delhi (d) Ghaziabad
ancient tradition of road construction. Grand Trunk Road (Old
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
Mughal Road) connected all major cities of northern India
Ans. (d)
from Dhaka to Lahore. At present, the road network in India is
National Centre of Organic Farming (NCOF) is situated about 63.72 lakh km which is the second largest road network
at Ghaziabad, with 9 regional centres at Bangalore, in the world. As per the National Transport Development
Bhubaneswar, Panchkula, Imphal, Jabalpur, Nagpur, Policy Committee road transport carries about 90% of the
Gandhinagar, Ghaziabad and Patna. total passenger traffic and 69% freight traffic. *Nagpur Plan
48. In which of the following cities, the 'Centre for Social (1943) divided the roads of India into four sections.
Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation' is located in India? (i) National Highways (ii) State Highways
(a) Dehradun (b) Prayagraj
(c) Nagpur (d) Bhopal (iii) District Roads (iv) Village Roads.
U.P. B.E.O. (Pre) 2019 *National Highways are the most important road systems
Ans. (b) in the country, which are being constructed and maintained by
The 'Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation' is the public work department and National Highway Authority.
located at Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh). It is important to note *In the year 2017-18, as per the Basic Road statistics of India
that the Forest Research Institute is also located at Dehradun, till 31 March, 2018 the total length of National Highways
(Uttarakhand). Indian Institute of Forest Management is in is 126350 km, which was only 2.03% of the total length of
Bhopal and National Environmental Engineering Research
roads in the country as on 31st March, 2019. But about 40%
Institute is in Nagpur.
traffic of the entire country of the road transport is done by
CA–328 General Studies Indian Geography
the National Highways. There are 599 National Highways connects Ahmedabad, Bangaluru, Bhubaneshwar, Jaipur,
in the country. Kanpur, Pune, Surat, Guntur, Nellore, Vijayawada and
Visakhapatnam. This project was started by the government
in the year 2001. *East-West Corridor connects Silchar
(Assam) to Porbandar (Gujarat) and North-South corridor
connects Srinagar to Kanyakumari. They cross each other
in Jhansi (Uttar Pradesh). *Pradhan Mantri Bharat
Jodo Pariyojana (PMBJP) is an ambitious project of the
Government of India which is related to the development
of Highways.
*Under this project, tourist destinations and economically
important sites were linked to the four-lane road on the basis
of the BOT (Built Operate Transfer). *Construction and
maintenance of the state highway is done by the concerned
State Public Work Department (PWD). These roads connect
all the major towns and cities of the state. *According to
basic road statistics 2017-18, states leading in state Highways
are - 1. Maharashtra (38,999 km), 2. Karnataka (19,521
km), 3. Gujarat (17,201 km), 4. Rajasthan (15,085 km),
5. Andhra Pradesh (13,604 km). The length of the state
highway in Uttar Pradesh is approximately 7201 km.
Note: As per the notification issued by the Ministry of Mumbai-Pune expressway is India’s first 6-lane path
Transport and Highways on March 05, 2010, the longest expressway. It starts from Kalamboli in Mumbai, travels a
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National Highway of India is NH-27 E.W., which started from
Porbandar in the State of Gujarat connecting Bamanbore,
long journey of 94.5 km near Dehu Road in Pune.
*Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana was started on
Morvi, Samakhiali, Radhanpur, Palanpur in the state of December 25, 2000. The primary objective of the PMGSY
Gujarat, Pindwara, Udaipur, Mangarwar, Chittaurgarh, Kota, is to provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road, to
Baran in the state of Rajasthan, Shivpuri, Ganj in the State the eligible unconnected habitations in the rural areas with a
of Madhya Pradesh, Jhansi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Faizabad, population of 500 persons and above in plain areas. Jawahar
Gorakhpur, in Uttar Pradesh, Gopalganj, Pipara Kothi, Tunnel passes through the Banihal pass of the Pirpanjal
Muzaffarpur, Darbhanga, Forbesganj, Araria, Purnia in the range in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. *The
State of the Bihar, Dalkola, Islampur, Shiliguri, Jalpaiguri, length of the National Highways at present (31 March, 2019)
Mainaguri, Dhupgari, Falakata, Sonapur, Salasabari, in the in the major states of the northeast is as follows- Assam (3909
state of West Bengal, Bongaigaon, Bijini, Potachar kuchi, km), Arunachal Pradesh (2537 km), Manipur (1750 km),
Nalbari, Dishpur, Nagaon, Lumding, Haflong and terminating Nagaland (1548 km), Mizoram (1423 km), Tripura (854 km)
at its junction with NH-37 near Silchar in the State of Assam. and Sikkim (463 km). *Some of the highways of the country
New NH-7 connect Fazilka to Mana. connecting neighbouring countries have been declared as
*Acording to National Highway Authority of India, international Highways. Such as Lahore-Amritsar-Delhi,
the highest length of National Highway is found in Dhaka-Kolkata, Barahi-Kathmandu.
Maharashtra (17757 km). Thereafter Uttar Pradesh (11737 1. The share of Road Transport in total transport of
km), Rajasthan (10342 km) and Madhya Pradesh (8772 India is–
km) stand at second, third and fourth place respectively. (a) 100% (b) 80%
*Golden Quadrilateral project of India interconnects (c) 60% (d) 40%
Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. Its total length is U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014
5846 km. Apart from this, the Highway development project Ans. (b)
About 65% of freight and 80% passenger traffic is carried by the 5. National Highway 4 does not pass through :
roads (when the question was asked), but presently 67% freight (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
& 90% passenger traffic are carried by roads. (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010
2. In total there are how many National Highways in Ans. (*)
India and approximately what is their total length?
See the explanation of above question.
(a) 34 and 16,000 kms. (b) 44 and 24, 000 kms.
6. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 54 and 32,000 kms. (d) 64 and 40,000 kms
National Highway Cities Connected
45th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2004 1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
Ans. (d) 2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata
When this question was asked the number of National 3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Highways in India was 64 and length 40,000 kms. According
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
to recent data 31 March, 2019, the number of national
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
highways is around 599 and the total length is 132500 I.A.S. (Pre) 2014
kilometres. Ans. (d)
3. Which is the longest National Highway of India? When this question was asked, NH 4 links Mumbai to
(a) National Highway 1 (b) National Highway 2 Chennai. NH 4 passes through Thane, Pune, Kolhapur,
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(c) National Highway 8 (d) National Highway 7
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
Bangalore, Chittoor, etc. Hyderabad does not lie on its way.
Hence, pair 1 is not correct.
NH6 begins from Hazira (Gujarat) and ends at Kolkata.
Ans. (d) The NH6 passes through the cities of Surat, Dhule, Jalgaon,
Bhusaval, Akola, Amravati, Nagpur, Bhandara, Durg, Raipur,
When this question was asked, NH-7 is the longest National
Mahasamund, Sambalpur, Kolkata. Mumbai does not lie on
Highway in India. It covers the North-South Corridor (Uttar
its way. Hence, pair 2 is also not correct.
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, NH 15 connects Samakhiali in Gujarat with Pathankot in
Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu) and it is officially listed as Punjab and passes through Pathankot, Amritsar, Kotkapura,
running over 2,369 km from Varanasi to Kanyakumari, while Bhatinda, Ganganagar, Bikaner, Jaisalmer and Barmer.
1375 km long highway NH-8 connects Indian capital Delhi Ahmedabad and Jodhpur both are not on its way. Hence
to Mumbai. The Delhi-Kolkata Road is known as National option (d) is correct.
Highway 2. It is one of the busiest road networks in India. 7. Which one of the following states has the largest
NH-1 expands from Delhi to Amritsar. Presently NH-27 EW Kilometres of National Highways in India :
is the longest National Highway in India. (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
4. National Highway No. 4 passes through : U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000
(a) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Goa Ans. (d)
(b) Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka According to the then data of National Highways Authority
(c) Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala of India, Uttar Pradesh (8487 kilometres) has the maximum
(d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka Tamil Nadu length of National Highways in India. At present 31 March,
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2003 2019, Maharashtra has the maximum length (17,757 km.)
Ans. (d) of NH in India & Uttar Pradesh stands second at 11,737 km.
9. Which State of India has the maximum length of state 13. 'Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna' is related to:
Highways? (a) Communication
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (b) Social Integration
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra (c) Linking of Rivers
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Ans. (d)
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010 (d) Development of Highways
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
Ans. (d)
See the explanation of above question.
Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is an ambitious
10. Which development is associated with Golden scheme of Indian Government, which is related to the
Quadrilateral? development of highways. Under this project, tourist places
(a) Highways and economically important places will be connected
(b) Harbor by corridors built on BOT - (Build, Operate, Transfer)
(c) Power Grids principle.
(d) Tourism Networks
14. The proposed East-West and North-South Express
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
Highways cross at :
Ans. (a)
(a) Gwalior
The Golden Quadrilateral Project relates to the highway. (b) Jhansi
Under this project, 4 metropolitan cities of the country were (c) Bhopal
being connected by road. (d) Sagar
11. Golden Quadrilateral Project of India joins U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999
Ans. (b)
(a) Delhi–Mumbai–Chennai–Kolkata
(b) Delhi–Jhansi–Bengaluru–Kanyakumari East-West Corridor connects Silchar to Porbandar and the
(c) Srinagar–Delhi–Kanpur–Kolkata North-South Corridor links Srinagar to Kanyakumari. They
(d) Porbandar–Bengaluru–Kolkata–Kanpur cross each other at Jhansi (Uttar Pradesh). That is why Jhansi
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 is considered as the junction of North-South and East-West
Ans. (a) Corridors.
18. Arrange the following cities located on the North-South 21. Which one of the following cities is not connected by
corridor in a sequence from North to South. National Highway No. 3.
Select the correct answer using codes given below: (a) Agra (b) Bhopal
A. Nagpur B. Agra (c) Dhule (d) Gwalior
C. Krishnagiri D. Gwalior U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2001
Code : Ans. (b)
(a) B, D, A and C (b) A, B, D and C
When this question was asked, National Highway No. 3 was
(c) B, C, A and D (d) D, B, C and A
a major Indian National Highway that runs through the States
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (a) of Uttar Pradesh (26 km), Rajasthan (32), Madhya Pradesh
The North-South corridor is the largest ongoing highway (712 km) and Maharashtra (391 km) in India. Shivpuri,
project in India. It is the second phase of the National Guna, Biaora, Maksi, Dewas, Indore & Julwania in Madhya
Highway Development Project (NHDP). The correct Pradesh, and Dhule, Nashik, Thane in Maharashtra are along
option from North to South are Agra, Gwalior, Nagpur and the NH3. NH 3 runs for a distance of 1161 km. It does not
Krishnagiri. Hence (a) is the correct answer. pass through Bhopal.
28. Which of the following National Highways has the 31. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
longest length in Madhya Pradesh? (a) Haldia - Allahabad - National Waterway
(a) NH-3 Agra-Gwalior-Dewas-Bombay (Mumbai) (b) Nasik -Pune - National Highway-50
(b) NH -7 Varanasi-Rewa-Jabalpur-Salem (c) Durgapur-Kolkata - Express Highways
(c) NH-12 Jabalpur-Bhopal-Jaipur (d) Hyderabad - Headquarter of South
(d) NH-26 Jhansi-Sagar-Lakhnadon Central Railway
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2002
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
NH 3 (Old Nomber) has the longest length in Madhya Pradesh National Waterway (NW1) is expanded from Haldia to
(712 Km) in given options. Its total length is 1161 kms. Allahabad (Prayagraj). NH - 50 was located between Nasik
& Pune NH-50 and NH-3 is currently known as NH-60.
29. Which of the following statements about the National Durgapur - Kolkata is interlinked with Express Highway -2
Highways Development Project are correct? Old NH-2, now contained new NH-19GQ and NH-44NS.
(a) It connects Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata. The Headquarter of South Central Railway is situated in
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(b) Its total length is 5,846 km.
(c) The North-South corridor connects Srinagar and
Secunderabad not in Hyderabad. Thus, option (d) is not
correctly matched.
See the explanation of above question. 7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
3. The first railway line in India was started in the year – matched?
(a) 1856 (b) 1853 Railway Zone Headquarters
(c) 1856 (d) 1855 (a) North-Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990 (b) South-Eastern Railway : Bhubaneshwar
Ans. (b) (c) Eastern Railway : Kolkata
(d) South-East Central Railway : Bilaspur
See the explanation of above question.
4.
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The width between two rails of Broad gauge is –
Ans. (b)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2006
Rail transport in Bihar started in the year 1860-62 when East First rail route goes from Balotra to Munabao via Badmer
India Company laid the main lines of Railway going from
and Second rail route goes towards South till Bhuj.
banks of the Ganges to Kolkata. According to the data of
2015-16 the length of the railway line in Bihar is 3730.57 13. Even though the Railways are the most pervasive
km. Currently, Indian Railway has been divided among 17 mode of transport in India, it is road transport which
zones (Headquarters). Among these headquarters of Indian received the maximum impetus in most of the post-
Railway in Bihar, only the East Central Railway located at independence period. Which of the following are the
Hajipur. Hajipur Headquarters started functioning since 1 reasons for this?
October, 2002. Of the 17 railway zones in India, the lines 1. Railways are cheap to operate but the associated
of 5 Headquarter's passing through Bihar, are as follows : capital costs are very high.
1. North East Railway 2. Eastern Railway 2. Given the geographic spread of human settlements,
3. South-Eastern Railway 4. North-Eastern Railway it is unrealistic that the railways alone can serve
5. East Central Railway. the needs of transport.
Sikkim is the only State and Andaman and Nicobar is only 3. The per unit (tonne/km) cost of transport is cheaper
Union Territory where there are no railway. in the road compared to rail transport.
11. Where is the Headquarters of North-Central Railway 4. Given the indivisible nature of the Railways, it is
Zone situated? not always convenient for the population to avail
(a) Allahabad (b) Jabalpur it with the same ease as private cars, buses or two-
(c) Bhopal (d) Delhi wheelers.
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Ans. (a) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
The per unit (tonne/km) cost of transport is not cheaper in (b) Odisha & West Bengal
the road compared to rail transport. Hence, statement 3 is (c) Tamil Nadu & West Bengal
incorrect. Other statements are true. (d) West Bengal & Punjab
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Pre) 2008
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Ans. (a)
from the codes given below :
List- I List- II In given options, Kapurthala in Punjab and Perambur in
A. Rail Coach Factory 1. Bangalore Tamil Nadu are the States, where passenger rail coaches are
B. Wheel and Axle Plant 2. Perambur manufactured widely.
C. Diesel Locomotive Works 3. Kapurthala 17. Where is the Railway Staff College located?
D. Integral Coach Factory 4. Varanasi (a) Madras (b) Vadodara
Code : (c) Allahabad (d) Hyderabad
A B C D U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
(a) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (b)
(b) 4 3 2 1 The National Academy of Indian Railways formerly Railway
(c) 1 3 4 2 Staff College is a centralised training Institute for Group
(d) 3 1 4 2 A and Group B officers of Indian Railway. It is located in
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008 Vadodara.
Ans. (d)
18. In which industry is Sal Wood used mostly?
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The correct match of lists mentioned in the question is as
follows:
(a) Paper
(b) Matches
Rail Coach Factory – Kapurthala (c) Kaththa
Wheel and Axle Plant – Bangaluru (d) Railway Sleepers
Diesel Locomotive Works – Varanasi M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995
Integral Coach Factory – Perambur Ans. (d)
15. The Diesel Rail Locomotive is manufactured at – The wood of the sal tree is very hard, heavy, strong and brown
(a) Chittaranjan coloured. The wood is resinous and durable, that is why it
(b) Manduadih is used in making of railway sleepers. In Malaya, ships are
(c) Jamshedpur made up of sal wood.
(d) Perambur
19. The fourth railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2,
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
3, 4 on the rough outlie map of Gujarat are respectively.
Ans. (b)
Chittaranjan Locomotive Works – Electric locomotive- 1950
(Chittaranjan)
Diesel Locomotive Works – Diesel Electric locomotive, 1961
(Manduadih, Varanasi)
Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company Ltd.
(Jamshedpur) - Steam Locomotive-1948
Integral Coach Factory (Perambur, Chennai) - Rail Coaches-1955
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
First CNG train was launched on Rewari-Rohtak section of See the explanation of above question.
Northern Zone. It is based on the dual fuel system– diesel 25. Which one of the following sets of states benefits the
and CNG. Introduction of CNG train will reduce greenhouse most from the Konkan Railway?
gas emission and also the consumption of diesel. (a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
22. Which of the following States became the first State (c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
where the railway track was made on the PPP model? (d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
(a) Kerala I.A.S. (Pre) 1998
(b) Gujarat Ans. (a)
(c) Karnataka
See the explanation of above question.
(d) Maharashtra
26. Konkan Railway does not connect :
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
(a) Belgaum (b) Madgaon
Ans. (b)
(c) Ratnagiri (d) Udupi
Gujarat is the first State where the Railway track was U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
made on PPP (Public-Private Partnership) model. The Ans. (a)
Gandhidham–Tuna–Tekra rail line, built under PPP model
The Konkan Railway does not connect Belgaum, while
was commissioned on 14 July, 2015. It was built by Kandla Madgaon, Ratnagiri and Udupi are connected by the Konkan
Port Trust. Railways.
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(d) Marmugao is in Karnataka
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1993
Union Territory Pondicherry (Now Puducherry) has three
sub-areas in addition to main area, which were ruled by
French, till 1954 and is now a Union Territory. The areas
Ans. (c)
mentioned by A, B, C and D are given below.
Correct location parts given in the question are matched as A - Mahe
below: B- Karaikal
Haldia - West Bengal C - Pondicherry
Paradip - Odisha D - Yanam
Kandla - Gujarat 16. In India which one of the following is not a natural
Marmugao - Goa harbour?
Thus option (c) is correctly matched. (a) Kandla (b) Chennai
(c) Paradip (d) Mumbai
14. Which one of the following ports of India handles the
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
highest tonnage of import cargo?
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2007
(a) Calcutta
Ans. (b)
(b) Kandla
Chennai is the oldest and biggest artificial harbour of India.
(c) Mumbai
It mainly handles petroleum products, fertilizers, iron-ore
(d) Visakhapatnam
and general cargo.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2000
Ans. (b) 17. Which of the following are the natural ports of India?
1. Chennai
Kandla port is the main harbour of India. Kandla handles
2. Cochin
the highest tonnage of import cargo and export cargo in the 3. Tuticorin
year 2014. 4. Vishakhapatnam
http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3 Pradesh?
(a) Kakinada (b) Nellore
(a) Machilipatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakhapatnam
(b) Chennai ,Tuticorin, Vishakhapatnam, Machilipatnam (c) Ongole (d) Vizianagaram
(c) Tuticorin, Chennai, Machilipatnam, Vishakhapatnam U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010
(d) Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Machilipatnam Ans. (a)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2013 Kakinada is harbour city of Andhra Pradesh. Kakinada Port
Ans. (c) comprises of Kakinada Anchorage Port, Kakinada Deep
Water Port, Kakinada Fishing Harbour and Ship-Breaking
(i) Tuticorin (Tamil Nadu)
Unit. It is an intermediate port of Andhra Pradesh. Andhra
(ii) Chennai (Tamil Nadu) Pradesh is having about 1000 km long coastline with 2
(iii) Machilipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) intermediate ports and 10 minor ports.
(iv) Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
21. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough
19. Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and outlne map of India is a riverine port?
D in the given map with the names of those ports and
India
select the correct answer using the codes given below
the names of the ports :
Names of Ports
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
3 Mangalore
4. Tuticorin
5. Veraval
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 32. Which is the largest natural port in India?
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using the codes given below :
List- I List- II
(a) Cochin
(c) Tuticorin
(b) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
A. Alleppey i. Tamil Nadu Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
B. Ennore ii. Odisha Ans. (d)
C. Paradip iii. Kerala See the explanation of above question.
D. Kakinada iv. Andhra Pradesh 33. India's 13th major port is going to be set up in which
Code : State?
A B C D (a) Kerala
(a) iii i ii iv (b) Gujarat
(b) ii iii i iv (c) Maharashtra
(c) iii i iv ii (d) Tamil Nadu
(d) iii iv ii i (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
The correct match of seaports with their respective state is India's 13 th major port will be set up at Vadhavan in
as follows : Maharashtra. It will be developed on "landlord model"
(Sea Port) (State) (where infrastructure is leased to private firms or industries
Alleppey – Kerala and chemical plants).
Ennore – Tamil Nadu 34. National Waterway-1 connects :
Paradip – Odisha (a) Kottapuram to Kollam
Kakinada – Andhra Pradesh (b) Sadiya to Dhubri
36.
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Which of the following parts of Ganga river is
Bihar in February 2004.
40. The twelfth major port of India handling coal is being
declared as 'National Water Ways'? developed near –
(a) From Haridwar to Kanpur (a) Chennai (b) Paradip
(b) From Kanpur to Prayagraj (c) Kakinada (d) Vishakhapatnam
(c) From Narora to Patna U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2007
(d) From Prayagraj to Haldiya U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016 Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) Twelfth major port coal operator in India is built in Ennore
near Chennai. Ennore is the first incorporated port of the
The National Water way or NW-1 or Ganga - Bhagirathi -
country.
Hooghly river system runs from Haldia (Sagar) to Prayagraj.
41. Which one of the following ports is situated at the Gulf
37. Which of the following is the longest waterway in the
of Kutch?
country?
(a) Cochin (b) Haldia
(a) Kakinada - Marakkam (c) Kandla (d) Tuticorin
(b) Kollam - Kottapuram U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2007
(c) Sadia - Dhubari Ans. (c)
(d) Allahabad - Haldia
Kandla is one of the major ports on the west coast, which is
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
located on the Gulf of Kutch. Kandla was constructed in the
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
1950s as the main seaport serving Western India, after the
Ans. (d)
partition of India and Pakistan which left the port of Karachi
See the explanation of above question. in Pakistan.
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(a) Haldia
(c) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam
Code :
A B C D
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 (a) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c) (b) 4 1 2 3
The open seaport is a place in the sea where ships coast in (c) 3 1 4 2
open sea. In India, Chennai is the open seaport where Quays (d) 4 3 2 1
are made parallel to the coast. U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011
Ans. (b)
45. Which of the following is a specific example of 'Out
Port'? The correct match is as follows :
(a) Porbandar (b) Haldia (Shipyard) (States)
(c) Panaji (d) Vishkhapatnam Garden Reach – West Bengal
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012 Hindustan Shipyard – Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (b) Mazgaon Docks – Maharashtra
Haldia port, located 90 km from Kolkata, is a specific Cochin Shipyard – Kerala
example of 'Out Port'. The out port is the place in the sea Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
which is established in deep watery land and subsidiary port
48. Which one of the following airports in India is the first
of a main port.
to be owned by a public limited company?
46. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port (a) Dabolim Airport Goa
by India? (b) Cochin airport
(a) India's trade with African countries will enormously (c) Hyderabad airport
increase. (d) Bangalore airport
(b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries I.A.S. (Pre) 2005
will be strengthened. Ans. (b)
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50. Where is Raja Sansi International Airport?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Nagpur
Mumbai seaport?
(a) Ennore
(c) Amritsar (d) Chennai (b) Haldia
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2007 (c) Paradip
Ans. (c) (d) Nhava Sheva (Jawaharlal Nehru Port)
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
Raja Sansi International Airport (Sri Guru Ram Das Jee
Ans. (d)
International Airport) named after Guru Ram Das, the fourth
Sikh Guru and the founder of Amritsar city, is an International Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) port was created to
airport of the city of Amritsar, India. It is located on the relieve the pressure of Mumbai Port in 1989.
Amritsar-Ajnala Road, near the village of Raja Sansi while 55. Recently. which of the following States has explored the
Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is located in Hyderabad; possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport in Nagpur connected to the sea by a long navigational channel?
and Chennai International Airports is in Chennai.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh
51. Which of the following is not located on the Western (c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
Coast of India? I.A.S. (Pre) 2016
(a) Daman (b) Janjira Ans. (d)
(c) Karaikal (d) Ratnagiri
Rajasthan Government is exploring a way to develop an
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
artificial inland port in Jalore by bringing in Arabian sea
Ans. (c) water into Rajasthan through Gujarat. The navigation channel
Daman, Janjira and Ratnagiri are located on the Western would be at least 300 metre wide and about 25 metres deep.
Coast of India while Karaikal is located on Eastern Coast It starts from the tip of Lakpat at Kori Creek in Arabian sea
of India. run through Rann of Kutch and Join Jalore.
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Ans. (b)
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
horses and 24 wheels. It was included in the world heritage
List of UNESCO in 1984.
5. Kanha National Park is famous for
Kyelang is a tourist site of Himachal Pradesh; Auli is located (a) lions (b) cows
in Uttarakhand; Chikmagalur in Karnataka and Ooty is a (c) elephants (d) tigers
tourist site of Tamil Nadu. M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
4. Consider the following statements : Ans. (d)
1. Champaner - Pavagarh Archaeological Park Kanha Tiger Reserve also known as Kanha National Park, is
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest National Park
3. Mamallapuram of Madhya Pradesh. The Kanha National Park was created on
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple) 1 June, 1955 and in 1973 was made the Kanha Tiger Reserve.
Which of the above are included in the World Heritage The forest depicted in the famous novel by Rudyard Kipling,
List of UNESCO? "The Jungle Book" is based on Jungles including this reserve.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 It is also the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a mascot, "Bhoorsingh the Barasingha."
I.A.S. (Pre) 2005 6. Which one of the following cities is known as 'Pink
Ans. (d) City' in India?
All four sites are included in the World Heritage List of (a) Mysore (b) Jaipur
(c) Chandigarh (d) Srinagar
UNESCO. Champaner- Pavagarh Archaeological Park is
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2007
located in Panchmahal district of Gujarat. A concentration
Ans. (b)
of largely unexcavated archaeological, historic and living
cultural heritage properties cradle in an impressive landscape Jaipur, popularly known as the "Pink City", and "Paris of
which includes prehistoric (chalcolithic) sites, a hill fortress India" is the capital of Rajasthan.
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(a) Land of God
(c) Beautiful India
(b) Pearl of the East
(d) Incredible India
Miscellaneous
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2010
Ans. (d)
*In 1850, experimental Electric Telegraph started for the
To promote tourism in India, the Ministry of Tourism has first time in India between Calcutta (Kolkata) and Diamond
adopted the concept of 'Incredible India' to popularize India. Harbor. *In early 1881, Oriental Telephone Company
Limited of England opened telephone exchange at Calcutta
10. Sabarimala is situated in which of the following states? (Kolkata), Bombay (Mumbai), Madras (Chennai) and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu Ahmedabad.
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka *The Indian Postal Department started the Speed post Service
M.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015 on 1 August 1986. This Service provides time-bound and
Ans. (c) express delivery of letters and parcels between specified
stations in India.
Sabarimala Temple, dedicated to Lord Ayyappa is the most
*Biogas refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the
famous and prominent among all the Sastha temples in
breakdown of organic matter in absence of oxygen. *Biogas
Kerala. The temple is situated on a hilltop (about 3000
feet above sea level) in Pothanamthitta district of Kerala. can be produced from raw material such as agriculture waste,
It serves as a great bridge between the followers of Shaiva manure, sewage, green waste etc. It provides both power
and Vaishnav sects. and manures.
*Thumba is a suburb of Thiruvananthapuram city, capital of
11. Which of the following is not a 'ghost-town'?
Kerala. Under the leadership of Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai, the
(a) Kuldhara
Indian National Committee on Space Research (INCOSPAR)
(b) Dhanushkodi
(c) Lakhpat decided to establish Thumba Equatorial Rocket launch station
(d) Charkhari (TERLS) at Thumba in 1962. Thumba was a unique choice
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re- Exam) 2015 because of its proximity to the geomagnetic equator.
Ans. (d) *Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) is located in
7. Which one is not correctly matched ? Forest resources are not available in the Kutch region. This
(a) Sriharikota – Andhra Pradesh region has abundant water resources. All other options are
(b) Thumba – Kerala correctly matched.
(c) Bhabha Atomic Research – Karnataka
10. Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following
Centre
(d) Pokhran – Rajasthan regions?
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004 (a) Gulf of Cambay
Ans. (c) (b) Gulf of Mannar
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The correct match is as follows – (c) Gulf of Kachchh
Sriharikota – Andhra Pradesh (d) Lakshadweep and Minicoy Island
Thumba – Kerala (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Bhabha Atomic Research – Maharashtra 65th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2019
Centre Ans. (a)
Pokhran – Rajasthan
Coral reefs in India are found at Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of
8. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised Kachchh, Lakshadeep and Minicoy islands, Andaman and
towns have been developed. Match the lists of
Nicobar Islands, Netrani island in Karnataka and Malwan in
specialisation with towns and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists : Maharashtra. But not found in Gulf of Cambay.
List- I List- II
11. Which one of the following is the most important reason
(Town) (Specialisation)
for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space
A. Alibag 1. Fishing Centre
B. Balapur 2. Holiday resort Centre at Thumba?
C. Nhava Sheva 3.Petro-chemical complex (a) The sea is near to the place in the east, west and south
D. Ratnagiri 4. Port direction
Code : (b) It is a place near to city in India which is nearest to
A B C D the geographic equator
(a) 1 3 2 4
(c) It is situated on the geomagnetic equator
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) Outer space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric
(d) 2 1 4 3 phenomena
I.A.S. (Pre) 1998 I.A.S. (Pre) 1994
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
Technology (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) Indira Gandhi Krishi - Rajasthan (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
Vishwavidhyalaya explanation of (A).
(d) Acharya NG Ranga - Telangana (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Agriculture University (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016 U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
Indira Gandhi Agriculture University (IGAU) is an Assertion (A) Indian Ocean has become the Military base of
agriculture University located in Raipur, Chhattisgarh, not in many big powers like USA, China, UK etc. is correct.
Reason (R) There is strong geo-political benefits in the
Rajasthan. Rest of the option are correctly matched.
Indian Ocean and adjacent countries is also correct. But as
14. Consider the following pairs : the involvement of many superpowers in a region not only
Craft Heritage of benefit in strong geo-politics but its also a threat to peace and
security of that region and tension can arise any time which
1. Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu
will impact countries around that region. So, Both (A) and
2. Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra
(B) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). So,
3. Uppada Jamdani saris – Karnataka the correct answer would be option (B).
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
17. Match the following :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
A. Rameshwaram 1. Uttar Pradesh
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 B. Dwarika 2. Tamil Nadu
I.A.S. (Pre) 2018 C. Sarnath 3. Gujarat
Ans. (a) D. Mahakal Temple 4.Madhya Pradesh
Iraq replaced Saudi Arabia in August 2018, as the top oil Demography deals with the studies in population and vital
supplier to India, data from industry and shipping sources statistics of Human communities.
confirmed. Despite the lower purchases, Iran remained the 37. The first Human Fossil was found from which river
third largest oil supplier to India (1st Iraq, 2nd Saudi Arabia). Valley of India?
(a) Ganga Valley (b) Yamuna Valley
33. The dust storms originating in Rajasthan in May and (c) Narmada Valley (d) Tapti Valley
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
June months are caused due to
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
1. Origin of convectional currents at few places Ans. (c)
2. Aravalli hills are parallel to south-western winds
The first Human Fossil was found in Narmada River valley.
3. Origin of fast speedy easterly winds
Narmada human, initially named Narmada Man, belongs to
Code :
the category of Homo erectus.
(a) 1 and 3
38. Dandakaranya region lies in the State of:
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Odisha
(c) 1 and 2 (b) Chhattisgarh
(d) Only 1 (c) Andhra Pradesh
R.A.S/R.T.S. (Pre) 2018 (d) Telangana
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
Ans. (d)
66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
Recently a dust storm swept across North India, primarily Ans. (e)
Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, killing 125 people and injuring Dandakaranya covers about 92,200 square kilometers of
hundreds. The reason behind this dust storm was the origin land, including regions of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
of convection currents at few places. Chhattisgarh and Odisha States.
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to the distance travelled by light in one year in vacuum (apx.
speed of light in vacuum 3 × 105 km/sec). Light years is the
Ans. (b)
The ''Big Bang Theory'' is related to the origin of the
unit used to measure the distance between the stars. The
Universe, Milky Way and Solar System. This theory was
distance travelled in one light year in the different unit is as
propounded by George Lemaitre (1894-1966). Later in
follows -
1967, Robert Wagner explained this theory. According to
In metre 9.461 × 1015
this theory, the whole universe was concentrated in a hot
In kilometre 9.461 × 1012
Mili metre 9.461 × 1018 and dense point some 13.7 or 13.8 billion years ago. Due to
Celestial unit 63.24 × 103 high concentration, there was a sudden explosion which was
Miles 5.878 × 1012 termed as Big-Bang.
*Chandrashekhara limit is a limit exceeding which, the 2. The ''Big-Bang Theory'' explains the origin of –
free revolving electrons get energized enough to leave their (a) Mammals (b) Ice-age
orbit, leaving behind the neutrons. This condition is known (c) Universe (d) Ocean
as a Neutron star or Pulsar. A group of stars that forms an U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
imaginary outline or pattern on the celestial sphere, typically Ans. (c)
representing an animal, mythological person or creature, god,
The "Big Bang Theory" explains the origin of the universe
or an inanimate object is known as a constellation. A general
from the earliest known period through its subsequent large
list of 88 constellations was produced for the International
scale evolution. The measurement of the expansion rate of
Astronomical Union in 1922. *The Great Bear constellation
the universe places this moment approximately 13.7 or 13.8
is also called Ursa major, Big bear and saptarishi. With
billion years ago, which is thus considered the age of the
the help of great bear constellation, the position of pole star
can be easily located. It is situated immediately above the universe.
north pole of the earth. 3. The milky way is classified as –
*The Orion Nebula is a diffused nebula situated in the Milky (a) Spiral Galaxy (b) Electrical Galaxy
Sun is one of the star of our galaxy (Milky Way). Every star See the explanation of above question.
of the galaxy revolves around the galactic centre and the 8. Assertion (A) : A black hole is an astronomical entity
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time taken by a star in revolving around this centre depends
upon the distance between the galactic centre and the star. Reason (R)
that cannot be seen by telescope.
: The gravitational field on a black
Sun is relatively far from the centre, so it takes more time to hole is so strong that it does not
revolve around. Sun is at a 7.94 KPC or 25.896 thousand light allow even light to escape.
years away from the centre and with a speed of 220 Km/sec, In the context of the above statements, which one of
it takes 22.5 to 25 crore years, to revolve around the centre the following is correct :
of the Milky Way galaxy. This period is called ‘Cosmic Year
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
or Galactic Year’.
explanation of (A).
5. The colour of the star indicates its – (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(a) Distance from Sun (b) Lighting or glow explanation of (A).
(c) Distance from earth (d) Temperature (c) (A) is true, but R is false.
I.A.S. (Pre) 1994 (d) (A) is false, but R is true.
Ans. (d) U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2003
The colour of a star indicates it's temperature. The temperature U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2001
of stars of different colours is as follows – Ans. (a)
(Colours) (Temperature range) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R)
Blue - 50,000-28,000 K explains Assertion (A) properly. It is not possible to observe
Blue-white - 28,000-10,000 K a black hole directly with the help of a telescope. The intense
White - 10,000-7500 K gravitational field of black hole due to the high density does
White Yellow - 7500-6000 K not allow any type of radiation. Even light rays cannot escape
Yellow - 6000-4900 K from this. The presence of black hole is ascertained by the
Orange - 4900-3500 K behaviour of stars, gases and masses near it with the help of
Red - 3500-2000 K space telescope.
20. Consider the following Statements – 24. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon
A person in spacecraft situated at the mid of earth and by an observer, he is located on the –
Sun will see that – (a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer
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Ans. (c)
Pole star shines in the North direction. Hence, in order to
Planet.
*Planets differ from each other depending upon their size,
move towards the east, Pole star should always be on the composition, temperature and time taken for a revolution. The
left side. main reason for this difference is because of their distance
from the sun. *Some planets like Mercury, Venus, Earth and
26. The group of stars that indicates the direction of pole,
is Mars have solid cores, these planets are called terrestrial
(a) Saptarishi (b) Mrig planets whereas some planets have gaseous composition like
(c) Scorpio (d) Taurus Jupiter, Saturn, Venus, Neptune. Due to their large size these
41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996 planets are also known as Jovian Planets (Jovian mean like
Ans. (a) Jupiter). *Out of all the 8 planets, Earth has the maximum
Saptarishi is a group of stars that indicate the direction of the mean density i.e. 5.5 g/cm3. The mean density of other planets
pole. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. are as follows –
(a) Telemetering me
ui
Co
pe
rB
Pluto
t
A
st
(c) Cislunar
e
Sun
ro
Mercury Earth
id
(d) Byte
be
lt
Neptune
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997
Ans. (d) Venus Mars Jupiter Uranus
terminology.
K
3,33000 times that of the planet earth. *Mercury is the Ans. (d)
smallest planet of the solar system whereas Jupiter is the
The solar system was formed around 4.568 billion years ago.
largest. *Venus is the brightest planet whereas Neptune is
The solar system consists sun (star), cosmic dust or masses
the farthest. Neptune takes the maximum time in completing
attached with each other by gravitational force, planets, dwarf
one revolution around the sun (165 yrs). *The descending
order of planets according to their size is as follows - Planets, natural planetoid, asteroids, comets, meteoroid and
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Earth, Venus, Mars, cosmic dust while Nebulae is not a part of Solar System.
Mercury. *The descending order of the Planets according 2. Who first propounded that the Sun is the centre of our
to their mass is as follows – Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Solar system and the earth revolves around it?
Uranus, Earth, Venus, Mars & Mercury. *The ascending (a) Newton (b) Galileo
order of planets according to their distance from the (c) Panini (d) Copernicus
sun is as follows – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995
Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. *Among all the planets Jupiter Ans. (d)
has the maximum Gravitational force (23.1 m/s2). *Gases
Nicolaus Copernicus was an astronomer, scientist,
like Hydrogen, Helium, Methane are found in abundance
mathematician of Poland. In 1514, Copernicus propounded
on planets like Jupiter, Saturn and Mars. The Goldilocks
the Heliocentric Theory of the solar system in his work
zone is also called the Habitable zone. In astronomy, the
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Goldilocks zone is the range of the orbits around a star within
which a planetary surface can support liquid water given
'Commentariolus' (Little commentary). Notably, Indian
astronomers Varahamihira propounded the same theory
sufficient atmospheric pressure. Liquid water is one of the around a thousand years before Copernicus in the sixth
most important cements in finding life on other planets. *At century. He mentioned that the moon revolves around the
present, earth is the only planet in our solar system having earth and the earth rotate around the sun.
a Goldilocks zone. This zone is neither to hot nor too cold. 3. The scientist who first discovered that the earth
*In 1514 AD, Polish Astronomers and Mathematician revolves around the sun was –
Nicolas Copernicus presented a hand written Book ‘Little
(a) Newton (b) Dalton
Commentary'. In this book, he gave information regarding
(c) Copernicus (d) Einstein
the principle of revolution. According to this book, the Sun is
56 to 59th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2015
th
at the centre of the Universe and earth revolves around it. *It
Ans. (c)
is noteworthy to mention that in 6th century A.D. i.e. 1000 yrs
before Nicolaus Copernicus. The famous Indian Astronomer See the explanation of above question.
Varamihira had already proposed the theory that, the Moon 4. Which scientist said for the first time that the earth
revolves around the earth and earth revolves around the sun. revolves around the sun and that the earth is not the
*Johannes Kepler was a German astronomer, mathematician centre of the universe?
and astrologer. He is best known for propounding the ‘three
(a) Galileo (b) Copernicus
laws of planetary motion’. *Galileo Galilei, the famous
(c) Issac Newton (d) Kepler
theologian of Italy gave us the fundamental principles of
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1998
falling comets. *English scientist Isaac Newton gave us the
Ans. (b)
fundamental principles of velocity and also discovered the
rules of Gravity. See the explanation of above question.
14. Which of the following pairs is not properly matched ? 18. 'The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is often seen in the news
in the context of
(a) The largest planet of the - Jupiter
(a) The limits of the habitable zone above the surface of
Solar System
the Earth
(b) The smallest planet of the - Mercury
(b) Regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available
Solar System
(c) Search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(c) The brightest planet of the - Venus (d) Search for meteorites containing precious metals
Solar System I.A.S. (Pre) 2015
(d) The slowest moving planet - Mars Ans. (c)
of Solar System
In Astronomy, the circumstellar habitual zone is also called
U.P.PC.S. (Mains) 2011
'Goldilocks Zone'. It refers to the habitable zone around a
Ans. (d)
star where the temperature is just right- not too hot and not
All of the given options are true, except option (d) because too cold for liquid water to exist on a planet. Earth is the only
the slowest moving planet of the solar system is Neptune. It planet inhabiting life in the entire solar system. It is the only
takes 165 years to complete one revolution around the sun. planet situated in the Goldilocks zone of the solar system.
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II. Ganymede, satellite of Saturn, is the largest
satellite in the solar system
of the sun is caused by the moon’s passing between the sun
and the earth. A solar eclipse occurs only on a new moon
day. The outer layer of the sun which is visible during a
III. Neptune is surrounded by methane gas rings of solar eclipse is known as the corona. In any circumstances,
sub-zero temperature the maximum duration of a total solar eclipse cannot exceed
IV. Phobos and Deimos are two satellites of Mars 7.5 minutes. *When a solar flare enters the atmosphere of
(a) Only I and II are correct our planet, they collide with the air particles and produce a
beautiful display of a light show especially in the regions of
(b) Only II and III are correct
upper latitude. This display is known as Aurora lights. At
(c) Only III and IV are correct north pole it is called Aurora Borealis and at south pole, it
(d) I, II, III and IV all are correct is called Aurora Australis. *A dark patch on the surface of
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2020 the sun is known as sun spot. Sunspots appear as dark areas
because they are about 1500oC cooler than the surrounding
Ans. (c)
chromospheres. *We can often witness a white colour ring
Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system, not Mercury. around the sun and the moon, it is known as a halo. It is
This is, because its dense atmosphere acts as a greenhouse caused when the light gets refracted or reflected due to the
and heats the surface to about 464ºC). presence of cirrus and Cirro stratus clouds in the upper
layers of the atmosphere. *The earth is closest to the sun on
Ganymede is the largest satellite in the solar system, but it
nearest date of 4th of January. This phenomenon is known
is a satellite of Jupiter, not Saturn. as Perihelion, whereas on the nearest date 4th of July earth
Neptune is surrounded by methane gas rings of sub-zero is at the farthest point from the sun and this phenomenon is
termperature. called Aphelion.
Mars has two small moons : Phobos and Deimos. The moons *Astronomical unit is used for measuring distance or length.
For general reference, we can say that one Astronomical unit
get their names from the horses that pulled the chariot of the
represents the mean distance between the earth and the sun
Greek god of war, Ares. (149.598 ×106 km or 149.6×106 km). In meters it is 149.598
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The Sun’s halo is a circle which appears around the sun.
Whenever Sun rays pass through the ice crystal present at
the earth ?
(a) 124 times (b) 100 times
the upper level of cirrus clouds, sun's halo becomes visible (c) 109 times (d) 115 times
due to the refraction of rays. M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
10. One Astronomical unit is average distance – Ans. (c)
(a) Between Earth and Sun According to NASA, the size of the sun is 109.2 times the
(b) Between Earth and Moon
diameter of the earth. The mean radius of the sun is 695508
(c) Between Jupiter and Sun
(d) Pluto and Sun km while the equatorial radius of the earth is 6378 km.
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
I.A.S. (Pre) 1998 iv. The Mercury
Ans. (a)
*It is the smallest planet of the solar system and is nearest
An astronomical unit is the mean distance between the Earth
to the sun. It completes its one revolution in around 88 days.
and the Sun. 1 AU = 149.598 × 106 Km or 149.6 Million Km.
*Mercury and Venus are the planets having no satellites.
In other various units its value is as follows.
*Absence of atmosphere makes it impossible for sustenance
In Meter – 1 AU = 149.598 × 109
of any life on Mercury. *The Diurnal range of temperature of
In millimeter – 1 AU = 149.59 × 1012
Mercury is around 610oC which is very high. *Mariner 10
11. The average or mean distance between the earth and
was a satellite launched by NASA which travelled very close
the sun is –
(a) 70 × 155 Km. (b) 100 × 105 Km. to Mercury and took photos of the planets. From the pictures,
(c) 110 × 106 Km. (d) 150 × 106 Km. it was founded that the surface of the planet Mercury has a
I.A.S. (Pre) 1997 number of mountains and plains. The difference between the
Ans. (d) sun and mercury is apx. 58 million km or 0.39 AU.
(a) A (b) B 5. Which of the following planets does not have a satellite ?
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(c) C (d) D
I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
(a) Mars
(c) Neptune
(b) Mercury
(d) Pluto
Ans. (a) U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000
The closer a planet is to the sun, the stronger the sun's
42nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1997
gravitational pull on it. Thus, the planet moves faster.
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following planet takes the least time to
See the explanation of above question.
orbit the sun:
(a) Pluto (b) Mercury 6. Which of the following pairs of planets is without
(c) Earth (d) Saturn satellites?
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2002 (a) Venus and Mars
(b) Mercury and Mars
Ans. (b) (c) Earth and Jupiter
The planet Mercury takes the least time to complete one (d) Mercury and Venus
rotation around the sun. The time taken by all eight planets U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
to complete one rotation around the Sun is as follows – Ans. (d)
Mercury - 87.96 Days Venus and Mercury are the only planets in the solar system
Venus - 224.68 Days
which do not have any natural satellites or Moon, while Earth
Earth - 365.26 Days
has 1 moon, Mars-2 moons, Jupiter-79 moons, Saturn-82
Mars - 686.98 Days
moons, Uranus- 27 moons and Neptune has 14 moons.
Jupiter - 11.862 Years
Saturn - 29.456 Years 7. Consider the following statement:
Uranus - 84.07 Years 1. The albedo of an object determines its visual
Neptune - 164.81 Years brightness when viewed with reflected light.
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with an average temperature of 464oC (737K).
*The temperature of other planets of the solar system is as
2. Which planet is known as the 'Evening Star'?
(a) Mars (b) Jupiter
follows – (c) Venus (d) Saturn
Mercury = 167 oC, 44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000
Venus = 464 oC Ans. (c)
Earth = 15 oC, Venus is known the Evening Star and also as the Morning
Mars = –63 oC, Star while Mars is called the Red Planet, and Saturn is one
Jupiter = –110 oC, which has rings known as Saturn’s Rings.
Saturn = –140 oC,
3. Which one of the following is known as 'Morning Star'?
Uranus = –195 oC,
(a) Mercury (b) Venus
Neptune = –200 oC. (c) Mars (d) Saturn
*Every planet in our solar system except for venus and Uranus U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
rotates anti-clockwise i.e., from west to east. Ans. (b)
*Some evidence of Atmosphere is found on the planet Venus,
Venus is called as 'Morning Star' and 'Evening Star' as it is
90% of the atmosphere of Venus is limited within 9 km of
the brightest planet of all. Venus is also called 'twin sister' of
altitude. The atmosphere of Venus mainly comprises of car-
earth as venus and earth are almost the same size and same
bon-dioxide, with temperature increasing above 400oC. That
mass and have a very similar composition.
is why the planet experiences a pressure cooker like condition.
Hence because of the above conditions sustenance of any life 4. Assertion (A) : Existence of human life on Venus is
form becomes next to impossible on this planet. *Just like highly improbable.
mercury Venus too has no natural satellite of its own. *In the Reason (R) : Venus has an extremely high level
year 1989 Magellan spacecraft was sent to Venus on a Radar of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.
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in Earth’s crust is as follows –
(Element) (Percentage)
Jupiter
Saturn
- 628.7 Million Km
- 1277.4 Million Km
Oxygen (O) - 46.60 Uranus - 1634.4 Million Km
Silicon (Si) - 27.72 Nepture - 4347.5 Million Km
Aluminium (Al) - 8.13 As the planet Venus is not given in the option, so the correct
Iron (Fe) - 5.00 answer in the given option is (b) i.e. Mars.
Calcium (Ca) - 3.63
10. The planet nearest to the Earth is –
Sodium (Na) - 2.83
Potassium (K) - 2.59 (a) Venus (b) Mercury
Magnesium (Mg) - 2.09 (c) Mars (d) Jupiter
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
7. Time taken by light emitted from sun to reach earth
is – U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1993
(a) 2 minutes (b) 1 minutes U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997
(c) 8 minutes (d) 16 minutes Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2002
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005 U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996 Ans. (a)
38th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1992
Ans. (c) See the explanation of above question.
The radiation from the sun which is popularly known as 11. In completing one revolution of the sun, Earth takes
sunlight is a mixture of electromagnetic waves. Sunlight approximately –
takes an average of 8 minutes and 19 seconds to travel from (a) 365 days (b) 365.25 days
the Sun to the Earth. These electromagnetic energy waves (c) 365.5 days (d) 365.75 days
travel with a speed of 186,000 miles/second. Thus, the closest 41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996
answer given in option (c) is true. Ans. (b)
29. A Ball thrown outside from an artificial satellite average distance from the sun is roughly 227943824 million
revolving around the Earth will – km and its orbital period is 686.98 Earth days. The diameter
of Mars is 6792 km and it takes 24.6 hours to complete one
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(a) Go to the Sun
(b) Go to the Moon rotation. *The Atmospheric composition of Mars is CO2-
(c) Fall on the Earth 95.1%, N2-2.59%, Argon - 1.94%, Oxygen - 0.16% and traces
(d) Revolve around the Earth in the same orbit with the of water. *NASA's Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter (MRO),
same time period as satellite
took pictures of Mars with the help of its hi-tech cameras.
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995
After studying the pictures, scientists were able to claim the
Ans. (d)
presence of liquid water on Mars. *The MRO contains a host
Any object thrown out of artificial satellite will revolve of scientific instruments such as imaging spectrometers that
around like the satellite.
helped in finding the hydrated minerals of the planet. The
30. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the average temperature of Mars, it is – 63oC (210K). *Mars and
core is mainly made up of which one of the following ? earth are very different planets when it comes to temperature,
(a) Aluminium size and atmosphere, but original processes on the two
(b) Chromium planets are surprisingly similar. *Mars is often referred to
(c) Iron
as the Red planet because the reddish iron oxide prevalent
(d) Silicon
on its surface gives it a reddish appearance. *Mars has two
I.A.S. (Pre) 2009
relatively small natural moons, Phobos and Deimos. *The
Ans. (c)
Nix Olympia mountain (volcano) of Mars is aprox three times
There is an outer core and inner core below the mantle in the
the size of our Mount Everest. *The Phoenix Mars lander
structure of the earth. The outer core is about 2260 Km thick
was a space exploration mission of NASA on Mars under the
and mostly composed of liquid iron and nickel. The Inner
core is a hot dense ball of (mostly) Iron. It has a radius of Mars Scout program. It was launched on 4th August 2007 and
about 1220 Km and temperature about 5200o C . landed on Mars on May 25th 2008. The mission was declared
by NASA to explore the possibility of life, determining the The time taken by any planet to orbit around the sun depends
role of water, and to study climate and geology of Mars. on the distance between the Sun and the planet. The distance
Mars orbits mission (MoM) or Mangalyan is India’s first between the Sun and Mars is 227943824 Km. , while the
Earth is at a distance of 149598262 Km. from Sun and an
Mars exploration mission. It was launched on 5th November
orbital period of Earth is 365.256 days and that of Mars is
2013 by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It
686.98 days. Thus statement (A) is false. The diameter of
was launched with the help of the PSLV- C25 rocket. It was Mars is 6792 Km. while Earth’s equatorial diameter is about
inserted into Mars’s orbit on 24 September 2014. Now, with 12756.28 Km. Thus Reason (R) is correct.
the success of the MoM mission India has become a member 3. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant
of the Martian elite club (America, Russia, European Union). for the presence of life on Mars?
1. The duration of its day and tilt of its axis are almost (a) Atmospheric composition
(b) Thermal conditions
identical to those of the Earth. This is true of :
(c) Occurrence of ice cap and frozen water
(a) Uranus (b) Neptune
(d) Occurrence of ozone
(c) Saturn (d) Mars I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2001 Ans. (c)
I.A.S. (Pre) 1994 In the beginning, Mars was treated equivalent to Earth
Ans. (d) because of its atmospheric composition. In Mars atmosphere,
The duration of the day on Earth is 23 hour, 56 minute 23 it has 95.1% Carbon dioxide, 2.59% Nitrogen, 1.94 % Argon,
http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs3
second and the tilt of its axis is 230 27'. The Planet Mars has 0.16% Oxygen and 210 ppm water. Mars polar ice caps and
frozen water is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars.
nearly the same value as of Earth for its day duration is 24
hours, 37 minute 23 second and Mars tilt of the axis is 250 The average temperature of Mars (– 63ºC) is quite similar
12'. The duration of day and tilt of the axis of other planet to Earth (260-310 K).
is as follows- 4. Which one of the following may have alien life because
Uranus – duration of its day – 17 hours 12 minute of a very conducive environment to life:
the tilt of its axis – 97.770’ (a) Jupiter
Neptune – duration of its day – 16 hour 6 minute (b) Mars
the tilt of its axis – 28.30 (c) Europa-The Jupiter’s Moon
Saturn – duration of its day – 10 hours 40 minute (d) Moon-The Earth’s Moon
the tilt of its axis – 26.730 U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000
Ans. (b & c)
2. Assertion (A) : To orbit around the Sun the planet
Mars takes lesser time than the time Europa is one the moons of Jupiter. Voyagers mission was
taken by the Earth. launched by Europe to research whether life is possible on it.
Reason (R) : The diameter of the planet Mars is Europa is frozen and covered with a layer of ice. Its surface
less than that of Earth. seems like the frozen Ocean on Earth. The depth of this frozen
Code : ocean is approx. 50 kilometre. If it is true, then Europa will be
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, individually true and (R) a place in the solar system besides Earth, where such amount
is the correct explanation of (A) of water is available.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true ,but (R) is not 5. Phoenix Mars Lander landed on the surface of Mars
the correct explanation of (A). on :
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (a) 27 June, 2008 (b) 27 May, 2008
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Galilei in January 1610 and recognized by him as satellites
of Jupiter. *Ganymede is the largest and most massive moon
3. Which one of the following is the heaviest planet of our
Solar System ?
of Jupiter and in the solar system. Jupiter is also known as (a) Jupiter (b) Venus
Miniature solar system Voyager missions were sent to explore (c) Pluto (d) Saturn
the Jovian system in 1979. It explored Europa (one of the four
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
Galilean moons). It provided detailed images of Europa’s icy
Ans. (a)
surface. Hence caused many scientists to speculate about the
possibility of a liquid ocean similar to those found on Earth. The heaviest planet of our Solar System is Jupiter. Its
These liquid oceans possibly have a depth of apx. 50 km. *If diameter is 142984 Kilometer and the average density is
it is proven then Europa will be the only place in the solar 1.32 gm/cm3. It is also notable that Jupiter is the planet of the
system apart from our planet earth where water is present solar system which rotates on its axis with maximum speed.
in that quantity. *Jupiter’s ring was first discovered by the
Voyager 1 spacecraft in 1979. These rings are also known 4. Among the following which planet takes maximum
as Jovian Rings. These rings are mostly made of silicate. It time for one revolution around the Sun?
is because of the transparency that these rings are difficult to (a) Earth (b) Jupiter
spot however their existence cannot be questioned. Jupiter (c) Mars (d) Venus
is primarily composed of hydrogen and helium. Some traces
I.A.S. (Pre) 2003
of Methane and Ammonia is also found. Jupiter is the fastest
Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2011
rotating planet in the solar system.
Ans. (b)
1. The moons of the Planet Jupiter were discovered by –
(a) Newton (b) Galileo In the given options Jupiter takes maximum time i.e., 11.86
(c) Kepler (d) Copernicus years to complete a revolution around the Sun, Earth takes
Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010 365.25 days, Mars takes 686.98 days and Venus takes 224.68
Ans. (b) days.
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Ans. (b)
Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010
13. Match the following -
(A) Planet (1) Moon
See the explanation of above question.
(B) Satellite (2) Uranus
8. In which situation lunar eclipse occurs ? (C) Comet (3) Mariner
(a) Half Moon (b) New Moon (D) Artificial spacecraft (4) Halley
(c) Full Moon (d) None of these
Code :
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992
(a) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 (b) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
Ans. (c)
(c) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 (d) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
See the explanation of above question. U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992
9. The main condition responsible for greater brightness Ans. (a)
of the moon on the full moon day of 22nd Dec. 99' was : The correct match is –
(a) Aphelion (b) Perihelion Planet - Uranus
(c) Apogee (d) Perigee Satellite - Moon
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 1999 Comet - Halley
Ans. (d) Artificial Spacecraft - Mariner
The main condition responsible for greater brightness of the The Moon is the only satellite of the Earth. The Uranus is a
moon on the full moon day of 22nd December, 1999 was planet, which in terms of distance with the Sun is at 7th place,
perigee. Perigee is the closest point to the Earth. Mariner-9 is an artificial spacecraft launched to explore the
10. When the moon size is half of the full moon, the angle planet Mars, on 30 May 1971 by NASA of U.S.A. Halley
between the Sun, the Earth and the Moon is – is a comet which was seen from the Earth in 1835, 1910,
(a) 45o (b) 90o 1984 and 1985.
Ans. (a)
The average distance of the Moon from the Earth is 384400
1. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the
kilometer. In the given option only the option of 364000 sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called:
kilometer is closest to the actual figure. The minimum (a) Meteors (b) Comets
distance between the Moon and the Earth is 363300 km and (c) Meteroid (d) Asteroids
maximum distance is 405500 km while the average distance I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
is 384400 km. Ans. (d)
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Ans. (b)
See the explanation of above question.
16 and 22 July 1994, the comet collided with Jupiter, provid-
ing the first direct observation of an extraterrestrial collision
4. What is the difference between asteroids and comets? of solar system objects. However, Jupiter was not harmed
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets by this collision.
are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky *67 P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko was the destination of the
and metallic material. Rosetta mission launched on 2nd March 2004. It was the first
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of mission to land a spacecraft on a comet. It was launched from
Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly the Guiana Space Centre in French Guiana on an Arian 5 rocket
between Venus and Mercury. and reached comet Churyumov-Gerasimenko on 7 May 2014.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while
1. The tail of comet is directed away from the Sun,
asteroids do not.
because–
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) As the Comet rotates around the Sun, the lighter mass
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 of Comet is pushed away due to centrifugal force
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 alone.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2011 (b) As the Comet rotates, the lighter mass of the Comet
Ans. (b) is attracted by some stars situated in the direction of
its tail.
Asteroids are generally considered to be made up of metals
(c) The radiation emitted by the Sun exerts a radial
and rocky material, while Comets are made up of ice, dust and
pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the
rocky material. Asteroids are found much closer to the Sun. Sun.
Comets are formed farther from the Sun in ‘Kuiper Belt’ and (d) The Tail of the Comet always exists in the same
Oort cloud. Comets sprout tails when they approach towards orientation.
the Sun. Asteroids typically remain much more solid and I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
self-contained even when near the sun. Ans. (c)
3.
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With which planet comet Shoemaker-Levy collided –
(a) Pluto
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
Ans. (c)
Comet Shoemaker-Levy-9 was discovered on 24th March
1993 when astronomers Carolyn Shoemaker and David Levy
captured its glimpse in their Schmidt telescope. During 16-
22 July, 1994 it collided with the massive planet Jupiter. In The earth is widest at the equator. All other latitudes are
this collision no harm was done to the Jupiter. It was the first smaller than the equator. *The North Pole has a latitude
event of collision, of two components of the solar system of 90oN and the South Pole has a latitude of 90oS. In each
seen from the Earth.
hemisphere, latitude are counted from 0o to the poles. Hence,
4. Meteor is a – all together there are 181 latitudes (including the equator).
(a) Fast moving star Besides this, there are 179 real circle latitude as the 90o North
and 90oS latitudes are points on the earth’s surface.
(b) A piece of matter which has entered the earth atmosph-
*The 23.5o N latitude in Northern Hemisphere is known
ere from outer space
as Tropic of Cancer whereas the 66.5o North latitude in
(c) Part of the stellar system Northern hemisphere is known as Arctic circle. *Similarily,
(d) Tailles Comet the 23.5oS latitude in southern Hemisphere is known as
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995 Tropic of Capricorn and 66.5o south latitude in southern
Ans. (b) Hemisphere is known as an Antarctic Circle.
the correct latitudinal position of a place. 6. A plane starts flying from 300 northern latitude and 500
2. Which of the following is not a great circle on the globe- eastern longitude and lands at the opposite end of the
(a) Equator (b) Prime meridian line earth, where will it land –
(c) 600 East longitude (d) 600 North latitude (a) 300 Northern latitude, 500 Western longitude
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2003 (b) 300 Southern latitude, 500 Western longitude
Ans. (d) (c) 500 Northern latitude, 300 Western longitude
A great circle is that line which divides a sphere into two (d) 300 Southern latitude, 1300 Western longitude
hemispheres. Upon the Earth, all the meridians longitudes I.A.S. (Pre) 1994
and the Equator are great circles. Except for equator no Ans. (d)
other latitude is a great circle because they are smaller in
comparison to the Equator. At the opposite end of the earth, the plane will land at 30o
southern latitude and 130o western longitude.
3. Zero degree latitude and zero degree longitude lies in
the 7. Among the following cities which one lies in the farthest
(a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Arctic Ocean North ?
(c) Indian Ocean (d) Pacific Ocean (a) Beijing (b) New Delhi
(c) New York (d) Rome
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
The point at which Equator (00 latitude) and the Prime
Meridian (00 longitude) intersect has no real significance On the globe, the Northernmost and Southernmost position of
but it is in the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic Ocean, so the a place, city and the country is decided by latitudes. The more
correct option is (a). the angle of the latitude of a place in the southern or northern
Ans. (b)
×
Cairo (Egypt) is located at 300 3’N latitudes and 310 14’ E =
longitude. Time of Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. As this place is located in the east of Greenwich line hence
Therefore its position approximately falls near the 300 East
this place is located at 750 E.
longitude. The Earth being spherical in shape rotates on its
axis by 3600 in 24 hours. Therefore, its movement for 10 of 5. Which one of the following longitudes along with the
longitude takes the time of 4 minutes. So, it can be easily Prime Meridian forms a great circle on the globe.
calculated that in 120 minutes ( 2 hours) angle for longitude (a) 0o (b) 90o E
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will be 300 , Therefore, option (b) should be the correct (c) 90o W (d) 180o
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000
answer.
Ans. (d)
2. When it is noon along 820 30’ E longitude along what
The Prime Meridian is the Zero degree line of longitude that
degree of longitude it will be 6.30 a.m.?
passes near London. The Prime Meridian was accepted as
(a) At 1650 East (b) At 670 30’ West
Zero degrees longitude at an International conference in 1884.
(c) At 00 East or West (d) At 820 30’ West It is also known as Greenwich meridian. Just opposite to 0o
I.A.S. (Pre) 1994 longitude there is an Imaginary line located at about 1800 E
Ans. (c) or W as International Date Line which forms great Circle
with Prime meridian along the Globe.
When there is midday at 82030' E longitude then 6.30 in the
morning means there is the difference of 5:30 hrs in a time. 6. In the New Millennium, the first ray of the Sun was
As in one hour; change in longitude is 150 therefore 820 30' seen in which of the following Meridians of India –
difference in 5:30 hours is 820 30' – 820 30' = 00 latitude. (a) 20 30’W (b) 820 30’E
(c) 92 30’W
0
(d) 930 30’E
3. If the difference of longitudes for the two places is 900,
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2001
the time interval between these places will be –
Ans. (d)
(a) 3 hr (b) 6 hr
(c) 9hr (d) 12 hr According to the Royal Greenwich-Laboratory’s declaration
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992 the first ray of the sunrise, in India on the occasion of New
Millennium was seen upon the Katchal Island near Andaman
Ans. (b)
Nicobar Island. Katchal is situated nearly 1600 Km away
Generally, 10 longitude is equal to a difference of 4 minutes. from the mainland of India and at 300 Km distance from Port
900 longitude means 90 × 4 = 360 minutes or 6 hours. Hence Blair and between the 80 North latitude and 930 – 940 East
(b) is the correct answer. Meridian. Therefore, the nearest option will be (d).
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So that it is situated on West to the I.S.T. 6:00 hours of
difference is equal to 900 longitudes (15×6 = 90). Thus, the
Ans. (a)
International date line at 1800 longitude means that from the
place is situated on 900 west with respect to I.S.T. It gives Greenwich (England) it is at the opposite side. Greenwich
the longitude of the place (with respect to Greenwich) 7030' being situated at 00 Meridian, International Date line has the
W (820.30' E-900=7030'W).
difference of 1800 longitude or 1800 x 4 = 720 minutes or
14. A telegram was sent from Greenwich at 12.00 Noon. 12 hours. Therefore, the ‘Statement’ and the ‘Reason’ both
The time for transmission was 12 minutes. It reached are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
a town at 6.00 p.m. The longitude of the town will be : Statement (S).
(a) 97o E (b) 87o E
o
17. There is no minimum distance between two places on
(c) 87 W (d) 97o W
the globe :
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
(a) 45o N. Lat (b) 45o S. Lat
Ans (b)
(c) Prime Meridian (d) International Date Line
Earth rotates on its axis in 24 hours and therefore completes U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997
the angle of 3600 in one rotation (i.e. 150 in an hour or 10 in Ans. (d)
4 minutes). As the telegram sent from Greenwich at 12:00
Except for International date line (1800 meridian), Meridians
noon reached another city at 6:00 evening and 12 minutes
at all other places follows the same path. The International
passed in messaging the telegram. Therefore, total time = 6
date line has been turned at 8 places upon the globe so that
hour – 12 minutes = 360 min – 12 min = 348 minutes as we
dispute about the date at the same place should not occur. As
Know for 60 minutes = 150 longitude
For 348 minutes = 15 × 348/600 = 870 the International date line has been turned on its way near the
This is now clear that place where the telegram reached at Alaska, therefore the minimum distance between two places
6:00 evening will at 870 East longitude. at the globe upon international date line cannot exist.
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Prime Meridian line or the Greenwich line is situated at
00 Meridian and on the 1800 East or West side of it lies the
Captain of the ship travelling westward recorded the local
time 10:00 hour at 900 west Meridian, this means that the ship
International Date Line so either from the East or from the
is near the American continent. Since the Earth rotates from
West side of this line the place at the nearest meridian will
West to East on its axis (Anticlockwise) and the ship is moving
be nearest to the date line. Meridian of straits given in the
towards West with the speed equivalent to Earth’s rotation
options is as follows –
therefore, both are moving in the opposite direction but there
Malacca - 990 32' East Meridian
is no effect of Earth’s rotation upon the movement of objects
Bering strait - 1680 23'West Meridian
upon its surface. So, for the ship covering 900 meridian require
Strait of Florida - 820 23' West Meridian
the time of 6 hrs and the ship will be behind 6 hrs according
Strait of Gibraltar - 50 41' West Meridian
to local time. Therefore, when reaching at the International
From the above data, this is clear that Bering Strait (1680 23'
Date Line he will write the local time as the same 10:00 hrs
West meridian) is the closest place to International Date Line.
Monday. However, when he crosses International Date Line
20. A ship is moving from the eastern side of Aleutian his local time will be 10:00 hours Tuesday.
Islands towards Dutch Harbour. It crosses 180 0 22. Which path must be followed by a Ship to move from
meridian on 1 January 1999 at 23:30 hr. What time
st one place to another in the least time –
and date will be recorded by the captain of the ship (a) Sea or Ocean Current (b) Sea-breeze
(c) Meridian (d) Longitude
in his diary after one-hour journey from the point of
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992
crossing of the meridian? Ans. (c)
(a) January 1, 0030 hr (b) January 2, 0030 hr
For a ship to travel in the least possible time from one place
(c) January 3, 0030 hr (d) January 4, 0030 hr to another, it must travel with respect of Meridian. At 1800
I.A.S. (Pre) 1999 meridian travelling from east to west, it gets one day less in
Ans. (b) this way while in moving from west to east one day increases.
See the explanation of above question. The Intertropical Convergence Zone is a low-pressure zone
located at the equator.
4. The Equator does not pass through which of the
9. Which one of the following cities is nearest to the
following countries?
equator?
(a) Kenya (b) Mexico
(a) Colombo (b) Jakarta
(c) Indonesia (d) Brazil
(c) Manila (d) Singapore
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
I.A.S. (Pre) 2008
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
See the explanation of above question.
Colombo is situated at 60 55’30’’ North latitude, Jakarta at 60
5. Which of the following countries are located on the 12' South latitude, Manila at 140 35’30’’ North latitude and
Equator? Singapore lies at 10 21' North latitude. Therefore, Singapore
1. Brunei 2. Colombia lies closest to the Equator (00 latitudes). Singapore is situated
3. Kenya 4. Venezuela only at distance of 137 km from the Equator.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 10. The Equator, Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of
Code : Capricorn, all the three pass through which one of the
(a)1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 following Continents ?
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Ans. (d)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 the material to be ejected repeatedly from the sun. Due to
the gravitational effects of the passing star, materials would
See the explanation of above question. cool and condense into numerous small bodies, which they
called Planets. *In 1919 the famous British scientist James
10. On 21st June, the Sun :
Jeans propounded the Tidal Hypothesis and another scientist
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
Sir Harold Jeffery made some corrections to it. After some
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
years, the theory of a wandering star around the sun started
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn getting acceptance. The theory was called Binary Theories.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2019 *In 1950, Otto Schmidt of Russia and Carl Weizascar of
Ans. (a) Germany revised the Nebular Hypothesis.
They believed dust like ‘Solar Nebula’ with heavy Helium
The Sun is directly overhead at 'highnoon' on the equator
and Hydrogen surrounds the sun. Disk-shaped cloud was
twice per year, at the equinoxes. On the Arctic Circle, the
created by the friction of particles in solar Nebula. The planet
Sun does not set at all on the summer solstice which occurs
on 21st June. On that one day, the Sun traces a complete circle was formed due to the accretion process.
just above the horizon as the Earth rotates. *In modern times the most accepted theory regarding the
origin of Universe is the Big Bang Theory also known as
11. On which of the following dates your shadow at noon
expanding Universe Theory. Universal expansion is proved
is the smallest ?
by Sir Edwin Hubble in 1920. According to the Big Bang
(a) December 25
Theory, a violent explosion of tiny body happened which
(b) March 21
(c) June 21 resulted in huge expansion, change of some particles into an
(d) February 14 energy form. Due to this expansion, some energy got con-
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 verted into matter. This happened 13.7 billions of years ago.
Ans. (c) *Another proof of this Edwin Hubble concluded that galaxies
The right chronology is – Cocos Plate lies between Central America and Pacific Plate.
(1) Shelled Animals
8 On the earth, originally, there was only one huge
(2) First insects
landmass which is known as –
(3) First reptiles
(a) Panthalassa (b) Pangea
(4) First Mammals. (c) Laurasia (d) Gondwanaland
5. Continents have drifted apart because of- U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
(a) Volcanic eruptions Ans. (b)
(b) Tectonic activities Originally, the huge landmass on earth was unified and known
(c) Folding and faulting of rocks as 'Pangea'. Pangaea was a supercontinent.
(d) All of the above
9. Which one of the following continents was not a part
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
of Gondwana Land?
Ans. (b)
(a) North America (b) South America
Continents rest on massive slabs of rocks called tectonic (c) Africa (d) Australia
plates. These plates are always moving and interacting in a U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
process called Plate tectonic activity. Through these tectonic Ans. (a)
activities, continents shift position on Earth’s surface. By
Gondwana included most of the landmasses of today,
about 175 million year ago the Pangea (the Supercontinent)
Southern Hemisphere including Antartica, Southern America,
landmass began breaking up due to continental drift, theory. Africa, Madagascar, Australia continent as well as Arabian
Slowly it separated in pieces and assumed their position as Peninsula and Indian Subcontinent. North America is not a
the continent we recognize today. part of Gondwana land.
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12. Which of the following phenomena might have
influenced the evolution of organisms?
on the Earth’s surface.
1. Continental drift
Rocks
2. Glacial cycles *The crust of the earth is made up of rocks. Rock is a natural
Select the correct answer using the code given below. substance, a solid aggregate of one or more minerals or
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only mineraloids. Petrology is the study of rocks, which is an
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 essential component of Geology.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2014 *The major groups of rocks are defined as igneous,
Ans. (c) sedimentary and metamorphic.
According to the book “Bhautik Bhugol Ka Swarup” written Igneous Rocks – Igneous rock is formed through the cooling
by Savindra Singh, the continental drift and glacial cycle both and solidification of magma or lava. They are granular in
the phenomenon have influenced the evolution of organisms. texture and are not found in the stratified form. They are
13. Folding is the result of- devoid of any kind of fossils. Igneous rocks often have a co-
(a) Epeirogenic force (b) Coriolis force relation with volcanic activities. Igneous rocks are hard for
(c) Orogenic force (d) Exogenic force water to penetrate. Igneous rock is found both in crystalline
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011 and non-crystalline form. They are also known as Primary
Ans. (c) rocks. Igneous rocks are divided into two main categories-
(a) Plutonic or Intrusive rocks – formed when magma cools
The Earth’s surface experiences different types of forces. The
and crystallises slowly within the earth’s surface. Ex-granite.
orogenic force takes millions of years to build a mountain
(b) Volcanic or extrusive rocks are – granite, Gabbros,
from plain and sea bed. These forces due to the interaction
pegmatite, Basalt, Volcanic breccias etc.
between tectonic plates, crumpled and pushed upward to form
Sedimentary Rocks – Sedimentary rocks are formed at
mountain range. Thus folding is the result of orogenic force. the Earth’s surface by the accumulation and cementation
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Among the given options, granite does not contain fossils.
The Volcano
Granite is formed of magma from a volcanic eruption.
Conglomerate, sandstone and shale are examples of *A volcano is a rupture in the crust of a planetary mass
sedimentary rocks. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils. object, such as earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash and
6. Origin of Metamorphic rocks occurs from …….. rock ? gases to escape from a magma chamber below the surface.
(a) Igneous *Among the gases emitted through a volcanic explosion,
(b) Sedimentary
highest quantity is that of water vapour (H2O). Other
(c) Both Igneous and Sedimentary
(d) None of the above gases emitted are Carbon-dioxide (CO2), Sulphur dioxide
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2011 (SO2), Hydrogen (H), Carbon-Monoxide (CO), Hydrogen
Ans. (c) Chloride (HCL), Hydrogen Flouride (HF) and Helium (He).
"Metamorphic" is a Greek word which means "of changing Magma is composed of molten rock and is stored in the earth’s
form". Metamorphic rock is a rock that has changed from crust. Lava is magma that reaches the earth's surface with
one type of rock into another. As a result of intense heat temperature ranging from 600oC 1200oC. When Lava reaches
from magma and pressure from tectonic shifting, these the surface it cools to form igneous rocks. The composition
metamorphic rocks are produced from either Igneous rocks of almost all lava of the earth’s crust is dominated by silicate
or Sedimentary rocks.
materials. Based on the silicate, lava can be classified into two
7. Which one of the following is not an example of types- Acidic Lava and Basic Lava.
Metamorphic rock ?
*Acidic lava is highly dense and sticky in nature and has
(a) Marble (b) Quartzite
high silica content. Basic lava, on the other hand is less dense
(c) Slate (d) Granite
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 and has low silica content. *Intrusive Igneous rocks are
Ans. (d) formed when lava cools and solidifies before reaching the
The most active volcano in the world is Kilauea on Hawaii B. Elburz 2. Malaysia
Island, America. Kilauea is followed by Etna in Italy and C. Aconcagua 3. Tanzania
Piton de la fournaise and Nyamuragira volcanos on the basis D. Kilimanjaro 4. Iran
of eruptions . Code:
A B C D
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) 1 4 2 3
using the code given below the list:
(b) 3 2 1 4
List-I List-II (c) 2 4 3 1
A. Etna 1. Ross Island
(d) 2 4 1 3
B. Vesuvius 2. Ecuador
C. Erebus 3. Italy U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015
D. Cotopaxi 4. Sicily Ans. (d)
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The correct match is as follows :
(Volcano) (Country)
earthquake are first observed. All natural earthquakes occur in
the lithosphere. There are three basic types of seismic waves –
Sabankaya Peru (1) Primary Waves (P-wave) – they are similar to sound
Mount Etna Italy waves. They are also known as longitudinal waves. P-Waves
Colima Mexico travel faster than any other waves. Their intensity of travel
Mount Merapi Indonesia depends upon the density of the rock they encounter. Since
they are the fastest travelling seismic wave, hence are the first
21. The famous Volcanic mountain 'Karakatoa' is situated
signal from an earthquake to arrive at any affected location
in which of the following countries? or at a seismograph. P–waves may be transmitted through
(a) Italy gases, liquids or solids.
(b) Indonesia (2) Secondary Waves (S-wave) – they are similar to light
(c) United States of America waves. They are also known as Transverse waves. These
(d) Japan waves arrive after the primary waves and travel slower than
the P-Waves. The S-waves can travel only through solid
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016
materials.
Ans. (b) (3) Surface Waves or L Wave – these waves travel slower
Karakatoa volcano is in Rakata Island in the Sunda Strait than the other two waves and can travel only through the
crust of the earth. Surface waves travel around the globe
between Java and Sumatra Indonesia.
before reaching the epicentre. Surface waves are the most
damaging of all the waves.
22. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct an- *The magnitude of an earthquake is the indication of
swer using the codes given below the lists : the energy Released. *The intensity of the earthquake is
List - I List - II measured on Richter scale and intensity on Mercalli scale.
(Volcanic Mountains) (Country) Richter scale was invented in the year 1935 by Charles
Francis Richter. Richter scale is a logarithmic scale measuring
A. Mount Rainier 1. Italy
between 1 to 10 where each step represents a ten-fold increase
B. Mount Etna 2. Mexico of amplitude on the seismograph, whereas in terms of energy,
ve
pa
ths The seismic waves are generated in three forms. (1)
Wa
S-
P- (Primary) Waves – these waves travel fastest. (2) S -
(Secondary) Waves- these waves cause particles to oscillate.
Both P and S waves are called ‘Body waves’ because they
can travel through the interior of the Earth. (3) L- (Love or
P-waves received here surface) Waves – these waves arrive after P and S waves, are
confined to surface and cause horizontal shifting of the Earth
during an earthquake.
Ans. (a)
I.A.S. (Pre) 2001
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Tsunami is a Japanese word "tsu" which means 'Harbour'
and "nami" means 'wave'. Thus Tsunami means 'harbour
A major earthquake on 11th March, 2011 with a magnitude of
9.0 in Fukushima causes large damage in Japan. Due to this
wave' arising as a result of the earthquake. These ruptured disaster, nuclear power plants were damaged which finally
high waves may cause substantial damage to coastal areas. resulted in nuclear radiation.
11. Which one of the following statements about the 2004 13. The North-Western Region of the Indian Sub-continent
Indian Ocean earthquake and the resulting Tsunami is susceptible to earthquake activity because of –
is not correct? (a) Volcanic activity (b) plate tectonic activity
(c) coral formation activity (d) All of the above
(a) The earthquake originated due to slipping of about
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
1,200 km of fault line by 15 m along the subduction
Ans. (b)
zone where the India Plate subducts the Burma plate
at the Sunda Trench. Northern-Western region of Indian Subcontinent is
(b) The resulting tsunami devastated the shores ranging susceptible to earthquake activities because it is situated
at the border of plates. This area is convergence region of
from the coast of Indonesia to the east coast of Africa,
Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate. Coral formation activities
some 8,500 km away from the epicentre.
and volcanic activities do not occur here.
(c) As per the current estimates, the quake-generated
tsunami killed more than 50 lakh people, in addition The Continents
to unaccounted dead bodies swept out to sea.
(d) Bangladesh had very few casualties because the *A continent is one of several very largeland masses of the
quake-affected fault line was in a nearly north-south world. Ordered from the largest in area to the smallest, they
orientation, the greatest strength of the tsunami waves are – Asia (44579000km2), Africa (30065000km2), North
was in an east-west direction. America (24256000km 2), South America (17819000
47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005 km2), Antarctica (13209000km2), Europe (9938000km2)
Ans. (c) and Australia (7688287 km2). Area wise Australia is the
World Geography General Studies CB–57
smallest continent. According to Philip’s Atlas the total land Australia – 330 mt. Both Europe and South America have
area of the various continents in proportion to the Earth is large proportions of their land as plain areas. Percentage wise
as follows – Asia 29.8%, Africa 20.3%, North America Europe has more area under plains.
16.2%, South America 11.9%, Antartica 9.2%, Europe
1. Which one of the following continents has the largest
6.8% and Australia 5.9%. *There are 50 countries in Asia.
number of countries?
To the south of Asia is the Indian Ocean, in the North is Arctic
(a) Africa (b) Europe
ocean, to the east is the Pacific Ocean. In the west, the Ural
(c) Asia (d) South America
Mountain Range, Caspian Sea, Black Sea and Mediterranean
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015
Sea make its borders with Europe. *Red Sea and Suez Canal Ans. (a)
separate Asia from Africa. In the east, the Bering Strait
The number of countries in the following continents is as
separates it from America. *Europe is a continent located
follows :
entirely in the northern hemisphere and mostly in the eastern Africa 54
hemisphere. It is covered by water from three sides. It is Europe 51
bordered by the Arctic in the north, the Atlantic Ocean to the Asia 50
West and the Mediterranean sea to the south. There are 51 North America 23
Australia 14
countries in Europe. *Africa is the second largest continent
South America 12
after Asia. The three important latitudes (Tropic of Cancer,
Tropic of Capricorn and Equator) pass through Africa. 2. Among the following continents, which one has the
There are 54 countries in the continent of Africa more than highest number of countries?
any other continent in the world. *The Strait of Gibraltar, (a) Europe
Mediterranean Sea, Suez Canal, Red Sea and Arabian (b) Asia
(c) Africa
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Ocean separates Africa from Eurasia. To the east of Africa
is the Pacific Ocean and to the West is the Atlantic Ocean. (d) North America
*North America is a continent entirely within the Northern (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Hemisphere and almost all within the Western Hemisphere. 66th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2020
The Continent has been named after the Italian Explorer Ans. (c)
Amerigo Vespugi. There are 23 countries in this continent. See the explanation of above question.
It is bordered to the North by Arctic Ocean, to the East by 3. As per area which of the following is the largest
the Atlantic Ocean, to the west by the Pacific ocean. South continent?
America, Middle America, Mexico and the West Indies are (a) Europe (b) Africa
collectively known as Latin Americas. (c) North America (d) South America
*South America is bordered on the west by the Pacific Ocean U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2014
and on the North and east by the Atlantic ocean. The Panama 39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994
Canal separates North America from South America. There Ans. (b)
are 12 countries in South America with Brazil being the
There are total of 7 continents in the world. Asia, Africa, North
largest one. *Antarctica is Earth’s southernmost continent America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.
it contains the geographic south pole and is situated, almost Asia is the largest continent having an area of 44,579,000 Sq.
entirely south of Antartic Circle. Antarctica, on average, is Km. The area of other continents is as follows–
the coldest, driest and windiest, and has the highest average Africa - 30,065,000 Sq. Km.
North America - 24,256,000 Sq. Km.
elevation of all the Continents. *The average elevation of
South America - 17,819,000 Sq. Km.
the continents is as follows – Antarctica – 1846 mt, North Antarctica - 13,209,000 Sq. Km
and Middle American Continent- 720 mt, Africa- 585 mt, Europe - 9,938,000 Sq. Km.
South America – 554 mt, Asia – 923 mt, Europe – 302 mt, Australia - 7,688,287 Sq. Km.
Ans. (b) Antarctica is the continent with the highest mean elevation
According to Phillip’s Atlas, the percentage of the land area in the world. It is situated around the South Pole.
of the continent in respect of their total land area of the earth Average Elevation of continents is as follows:
is as follows – Antarctica - 1846 meter
Asia - 29.8% North America - 720 meter
Africa - 20.3% South America - 554 meter
North America - 16.2% Asia - 923 meter
South America - 11.9% Europe - 302 meter
Antarctica - 9.2% Australia - 330 meter
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The marked area in South America respectively are – 1. Andes
2. Brazilian Shield 3. Guiana highland and 4. Amazon basin.
Ans. (b)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Thus option (a) is correct. Plains largely constitute Europe and South America however
in terms of percentage Europe has the largest percentage of
12. Which of the following countries is not located on the
plains compared to its total area.
Continent of Africa?
(a) Gabon (b) Guinea 15. Match List-I with list-II and choose the correct answer
(c) Guinea Bissau (d) Guyana from the code given below -
U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017
List - I (Landform) List-II (Continent)
Ans. (d)
(A) Aconcagua (i) Australia
Gabon is a country located on the West coast of Central
(B) Meseta (ii) Africa
Africa. It is located on the Equator. Its capital and largest
(C) Serengeti Plains (iii) Europe
city is Libreville. Guinea is a west coastal country in West
(D) Gibson desert (iv) South America
Africa formerly known as French Guiena. Conakry is its
Code :
largest city and also its capital. It is the world's 2nd largest
producer of bauxite and has rich deposits of diamonds and A B C D
gold. The country was the core of the 2014 Ebola Outbreak. (a) iii ii iv i
Guinea – Bissau is a country in West Africa. Bissau is its (b) ii iv i iii
capital city. Guyana officially the Co-operative Republic (c) iv ii iii i
of Guyana is a country in the northern mainland of South (d) iv iii ii i
America. Guyana is the only South American nation in which R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2021
English is the official language. Ans. (d)
Land form Continent along with the other highest peaks, is situated in the Himalaya
Meseta Europe *The Southern Alps are situated in the Western part of the
Serengeti Plains Africa southern Island of New Zealand. Its tallest peak is Aoraki/
Gibson desert Australia Mount Cook. *The Alps are the highest and most extensive
mountain range system that is entirely in Europe.
The World Mountain Its highest peak is Mont Blanc (4810 mt). The Alps are the
most prominent example of Young Fold Mountains. *The
*A mountain range is a series of mountains arranged in a
Atlas Mountain Range of Africa stretches around 2500 km
linear manner and connected by high ground. *Mountains
through Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia.
have a steep slope and pointed summits. Though Plateaus
*Block Mountains – Block Mountains are formed as a result
are also elevated structures the main difference between a
of faulting caused by tensile and compressive forces. They
plateau and a mountain is that the mountain is an elevated,
are also known as fault block mountains. Block mountains
pointed structure whereas a plateau is an elevated area
represent the upstanding part of the ground between two
with a flat top. *Most geologists classifies a mountain as a
faults or on either side of a rift valley. *The Sierra Nevada
landform that rises at least 1000 feet (300 metres) or more
Mountain of California (USA) is the world’s most extensive
above its surrounding areas, landform having elevation lesser
Block Mountains Range. *Black Forest of Germany
than 1000 feet are generally classified as hills. Thus those
and Vosges of France are some more examples of Block
areas having an elevation of 1000 mt above sea level and also
Mountains. *Salt range of Pakistan is also an example of
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the relative height in that area is also high are considered to
Block Mountains.
be mountainous region. Mountains occupy 25% of the globe
*Dome Mountain - The interior of the earth is hot enough to
however they support only 12% of the global population.
melt rocks. Melted rocks sequences together into vast pools
*British Columbia is called a Sea of Mountains, a name
of magma beneath the ground. Since it’s less dense than the
given by Jhon Molyneus, through his book “The sea of surrounding rock, it makes its way upward to the surface.
Mountains: an account of Lord Dufferin’s tour through British If the magma reaches the surface you get a volcano, but if
Columbia in 1876." the magma pushes up but doesn’t actually crack through the
*Fold Mountain – are mountains that are formed mainly surface, you get a dome mountain. *The Cincinnati Arch
by the effect of folding of layers within the upper part of the of USA, Black Hills, Bighorns are some examples of Dome
earth’s crust. *The Andes is the most important mountain Mountains. Fujiyama of Japan and Cotopaxi of Equador are
range of South America and also the largest mountain range also examples of Domed Mountains.
in the world. It has apx. length of 7200 km. The highest peak *Mixed Mountains – When a lot of complexity is found in
of Andes is Aconcagua (6960 mts). the formation of any mountain range then the mountain is
*The Rocky mountain range is the most important mountain called a mix mountain or a complex mountain. For example,
Range of North America with an approximate length of 4800 Sierra Nevada and Anaconda mountains Range of USA.
km. The highest peak of Rocky is mount Elbert (4400 mt). (v) Residual Mountains – Residual Mountains are formed as
The Himalayas of South Asia is located on the Northern a result of erosion of an existing elevated area. They are also
most point of the India. Its approximate length is 2500 km. called mountains of denudation. For Ex - Pennines (Europe),
The highest mountain peak of the world i.e., Mount Everest Appalachian (North America), Aravallis (India) etc.
Caucasus
Apennines
Arakan Yoma
*White mountains are situated in California (USA). It *The Jura mountains extend in the countries, France and
spreads between 37o North latitude to 118o West longitude. Switzerland. *The Pyrenees is a range of mountains in
*Black Mountain is situated in the North Carolina state of southwest Europe that forms a natural border between Spain
USA. It is a part of the Great Appalachian Range. and France. It also separates the Iberian Peninsula from rest
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*The Black Forest is a large forested mountain range in
southwest Germany. Its highest peak is FeldBerg (1493 mt).
of continental Europe and extends for about 491 km from
the Bay of Biscay to the Mediterranean Sea. *The Great
The Rhine is a European river that emerges in the Swiss Dividing Range or the Eastern Highlands is Australia’s most
Alps, then flows through Germany and the Netherlands and substantial mountain range and the third longest land- based
eventually empties into the North Sea. The city of Cologne range in the world. Its highest point is Mount Kosciuszko
and Bonn are situated on the bank of the river Rhine. Black located in New South Wales Australia. The elevation of
Mount Kosciuszko is 2,228 mt. *Denali is also known as
forest mountains are located on the eastern side of this
Mount Mckinely is the highest mountain peak in North
river and Vosges mountain is located on the western side.
America with a summit elevation of 6,190 mt above sea level.
*Burmese Arakan Yoma Mountain Range, located in the
The name was changed to Denali in August 2015.
western Myanmar, Creates a boundary between India and
*Mount Elbrus is a dormant volcano in the Caucasus
Myanmar. They include the Naga Hills, the Chin Hills,
mountains and is considered the highest (5642 mt) mountain
and the Patkai Range which includes the Lushai Hills. The
in Europe and Russia. *Mount Kilimanjaro is a dormant
highest Peak of Arakan Yoma is Mount Victoria (3053 mt).
volcano in Tanzania. It is the highest mountain in Africa
The Khasi Hills are a part of Garo-Khasi range in the Indian
(5895 mts above sea level). *The Allegheny Mountain
state of Meghalaya. Mount Titlis is located in Switzerland.
Range is a part of Appalachian Mountain Range of North
The mountain is made of volcanic Lava. The Apennines are America. *The Cantabrian Mountain range is a systems
located in Italy. *It extends the entire length of Peninsular of a mountain range in Spain. Mount Mackenzie is located
Italy. *The length of this range is apx. 1350 km. *The in Canada. *Golan Heights is located in the middle east. It
tallest peak of this range is Corno Grande (2,914 mt). is a Basaltic Plateau located in the south west of Sirsia. Since
*The Dinaric Alps are a mountain range in Europe. They the 1967 six-day-war, the western 2/3rd of the Golan heights
stretch from Italy through Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and has been occupied and administered by Israel and by 1981
Herzegovina, Serbia, Montenegro and Kosovo to Albania. it was totally annexed by Israel.
1. Darling range is situated along which of the following 5. In which of the following continents, the Andes
coasts of Australia? Mountain Range is located?
(a) Australia (b) Europe
(a) North-Eastern Coast (b) Southern Coast
(c) South America (d) North America
(c) Eastern Coast (d) South-Western Coast
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
See the explanation of above question.
The Darling range is situated on the South Western coast of
Australia. This range is located in Western Australia. 6. In which of the following Continents the Andes
Mountain Range is located ?
2. Which one of the following is known as the 'Sea of (a) Australia (b) Europe
mountains'? (c) South America (d) Asia
(a) Japan Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
(b) British Columbia Ans. (c)
(c) West Coast of South America See the explanation of above question.
(d) South-East Asia
7. Which one of the following is the longest mountain
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Ans. (b)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015 range?
(a) The Rocky (b) The Alps
Sea of mountains is an account of Lord Dufferin's tour (c) The Himalayas (d) The Andes
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
through British Columbia in 1876.
Ans. (d)
3. Highest peaks of the world are mostly found in which
The Andes is the longest mountain range in the world. It
type of Mountains?
stretches over 7200 km. Rocky mountain is a major folded
(a) Old folded mountains
(b) Young folded mountains mountain range of North America. Its length is 4800 km. The
(c) Residual mountains Himalayan mountain is situated in South Asia on the northern
(d) Block mountains end of India. Its length is 2500 km. The Alps is the longest
45th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2001 mountain range in Europe. It is 1200 km long.
Ans. (b) 8. Southern Alps mountain ranges are situated in –
World's 10 highest peaks including the highest peak Mount (a) Australia (b) South Africa
(c) Antarctica (d) New Zealand
Everest are situated in the Himalayas. Himalaya is a young
R.A.S. / R.T.S. (Pre) 1992
folded mountain. Thus, it is clear that the world's highest Ans. (d)
peaks are situated in the young folded mountains.
Southern Alps Mountain Range is situated in South Island,
4. The largest mountain series of the World is – New Zealand along its western coast. It rises to 3724 meters
(a) Himalaya (b) Andes at Aoraki/Mount Cook, the highest peak of New Zealand.
(c) Rockies (d) Alps
9. Place the following mountain ranges of the world in the
41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996 descending order of their lengths and find the correct
Ans. (b) option from the given code –
World Geography General Studies CB–63
(i) Andes (ii) Great Dividing Range The White Mountains are situated in California state of the
(iii) The Himalaya (iv) The Rocky
United States of America. These mountains are extended
Code :
between 370 Northern latitudes and 1180 Western meridian.
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 13. Three mountain ranges determining the boundary
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) between India and Myanmar are –
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (a) Khasi, Patkoi and Arakan Yoma
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Pre) 2008 (b) Akai Mountain Range
Ans. (b)
(c) Great Dividing Range
In the above question the nearest suitable option is (b). (d) None of the above
Although the correct order is – U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998
Mountain Location Heighest Peak Height length
Ans. (d)
Andes W.S America Aconcagua 6960 7200
Rocky W. N America Mount Albert 4400 4800 Burmese Arakan Yoma mountain range is in Western
Great E. Australia Mt Kosciuszko 2228 3700 Myanmar. It is a prominent Mountain range that decides
Dividing Range the boundary between India and Myanmar. Its main hills
are Naga, Chin, Lushai and Patkoi. It's highest peak is Mt
Himalaya India Mount Everest 8848.86 2500
Victoria (3053 meter). Khasi Hills are situated in Meghalaya
i.e., Andees > Rocky > Great dividing range > Himalaya.
and it does not decide the boundary of India and Myanmar.
(7200) (4800) (3700) (2500)
Therefore option (d) is correct.
It may be that commission has included north-eastern
mountain ranges (1400) into the Himalaya system making 14. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located
it 3900 km long to justify the option but it is wrong. in :
(a) Myanmar (b) Baluchistan
10. The Alps mountain range is not a part of which of the
(c) Nepal (d) Kashmir
following countries ?
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(a) France
(c) Austria
(b) Germany
(d) England
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2000
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1999
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
The Alps is a mountain range located in South-Central Europe See the explanation of above question.
immediately North of the Mediterranean Sea. This range is
15. Black forest mountain is situated in –
extended in France, Austria, Germany and Switzerland. The
(a) France (b) Germany
highest peak of Alps Mountain Range is Mont Blanc (4,810
meter high). The alps mountain is an example of young (c) Ukraine (d) Russia
folded mountain in the world. The Alps Mountain range in U.P. Lower Sub (Pre) 2004
not a part of England. Ans. (b)
11. A mountain range of Europe is – Block mountains are formed when faults or cracks in the
Earth's crust force some material up and others down. Black
(a) Alps (b) Himalaya
forest is located in Germany. Vosges mountain (in France) is
(c) Andes (d) Rocky
another example of such type of mountains.
48 to 52nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2008
th
31. Which of the following mountains is located in Italy? 36. Which of the following is a basic landform?
(a) Appennine (b) Pyrenees (a) Volcanic cone (b) Residual mountain
(c) Dinaric Alps (d) Zura (c) Monadnock (d) Erosional waterfall
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2014 Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
Apennine Mountain Range is in Italy. Its total length is The volcanic cone is a basic landform. It is formed by
fragments (called ejecta) thrown up (ejected) from a volcanic
approximately 1350 km. Mount Corno (2914 mt) is the vent, piling up around the vent in the shape of a cone with
highest peak of Apennine mountain range, whereas the a central crater. Residual mountain is originally a mountain
Pyrenees decides the boundary of France and Spain. Dinaric but due to erosion work they become residual mountain. In
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Alps is expanded through Albania, Bosnia, Croatia and jura
Mountain is expanded in the area of France and Switzerland.
the same way, the erosional waterfall and Monadnock are
also formed after erosional work.
Ans. (c) water reaching a depth of 30 ft. When the water of the region
dried up it left behind the dissolved salt in it.
The Pamir Plateau or the “Pamir’’ is called the roof of the
*Death Valley is the point of the lowest elevation in North
world because of its high altitude. The southern border
America (-86 mt) and the second lowest point in western
of Central Asia is determined by Pamir Plateau. It is a
Hemisphere only after Laguna del Carbon of Argentina (-150
convergence of many mountains.
mt). During summers the temperature in death valley can rise
5. Which one amongst the following is the largest plateau? up to 56.7oC. It is the hottest and driest place in the USA.
(a) Coconino (b) Aquarius Recently it was declared the hottest place on the planet (from
(c) Colorado (d) Columbia the point of view of Air temperature).* The Panjshir Valley
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017 (literally the valley of five lions) is a valley in North Central
Ans. (c) Afghanistan, north of Kabul, near the Hindukush Mountain
and Mojave and Sonoran deserts lie to the south of it. Ans. (b)
1. ‘Death Valley’ situated in South California in the U.S.A See the explanation of above question.
Ar esert
D
abi
an
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*The Thar Desert also known as the Great Indian Desert *The Karakum Desert, is a desert in Central Asia. Its name
is a large arid region in the northwestern part of the Indian means Black Sand in Turkic languages, in references to the dark
subcontinent and forms a natural boundary between India soil that lies beneath the sandy surface of much of the desert.
and Pakistan. It is the largest desert in South Asia. The Thar It occupies much of the area of Turkmenistan and smaller part
Desert is the most densely populated desert in the world, with of Kazakhastan. The Karakum Desert lies east of the Caspian
a population density of 83 people per/km, Sea, with the Aral Sea to the north and Amu Darya rivers and
*The Taklamakan Desert is a desert in southwest Xinjiang the Kyzyl Kum desert to the northeast.
in Northwest China. It is bounded by the Kunlun mountains to *The Karakum desert is home to the Darwaza Gas Gates. The
the south, the Pamir Mountains and the Tian Shan to the west area has significant oil and natural gas deposits.
and north, and the Gobi desert in the east. *The Gibson Deserts is a large desert that covers a large dry
*The Sonoran Desert is within the Sonoran Floristic Province area in the State of Western Australia. It is the 5th largest desert
of the Madrean Region in the southwestern North America. It in Australia, after the Great Victoria, Great Sandy, Tanami and
covers large parts of the southwestern United States in Arizona Simpson desert.
and California. The western position of the United States – *Al Nafud is a desert in Saudi Arabia. The discovery of an
Mexico border passes through the Sonoran Desert. 85,000 year old fossilised human finger in An Nafud in 2016 by
8. The Desert ‘Takla Makan’ is located in the – The Great Victorian desert is located in South-west Australia.
(a) Kazakhstan (b) Turkmenistan It is the largest desert in Australia. It is spread over 348,750
(c) Uzbekistan (d) China sq. km of area.
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
13. The largest desert of South Asia is :
Ans. (d)
(a) Atacama (b) Colorado
See the explanation of above question. (c) Kalahari (d) Thar
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996
9. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Ans. (d)
Desert Country
(a) Sonoran - United States of America Thar desert which is also known as ‘Great Indian Desert’. It
(b) Taklamakan - China is the largest desert of South Asia. It stretches across western
(c) Karakum - Turkmenistan India to South-East Pakistan. Location of the remaining
(d) Gibson - Brazil deserts is as follows :
Atacama Desert - Chile
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
Colorado Desert - California (U.S.A)
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
Kalahari Desert - Botswana, Namibia and
Ans. (d)
South Africa
Gibson desert, an interim Australian bioregion, is a
14. Which one of the following statements is not true
large desert that covers a large dry area in the State of
regarding the Atacama ?
Western Australia not in Brazil. Other options are correctly (a) It is a desert in South America.
matched. (b) It is World's driest desert.
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1. Match List - I with List - II and using the given codes D. Downs 4. Australia
select the correct answer : Codes :
List - I List - II A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(Grassland) (Country / Continent)
(b) 1 4 2 3
A. Steppes 1. United States of
(c) 3 1 2 4
America (d) 4 2 3 1
B. Prairies 2. South Africa M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
C. Welds 3. Russia Ans. (c)
C. Prairies 3. Europe
D. Veld 4. South America The correct match of grass fields with respective countries
Code : is as follows :
A B C D Campos - Brazilian Highland
(a) 4 3 1 2 Pampas - Argentina, Uruguay and Brazil
(b) 2 3 4 1
Savanna - Eastern Africa (Kenya. Tanzania etc)
(c) 4 3 2 1
Steppes - Western Russia and Central Asia
(d) 4 1 3 2
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016 Therefore, option (b) is correctly matched.
Ans. (a) 6. In which of the following countries is the Pampas
The correctly matched grasslands with their continents are grasslands situated?
as follows: (a) Argentina (b) Brazil
Llanos - South America (c) Chile (d) Ecuador
Steppe - Europe U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018
Prairies - North America Ans. (*)
Veld - Africa
Both option (a) & (b) can be correct. Pampas is found in
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Argentina, all of Uruguay and in southern parts of Brazil. If
using the codes given below the lists :
one of the options is to be choosen, option (a) i.e., Argentina
List-I List-II
(Grasslands) (Countries) will be most appropriate one because the pampas grassland
A. Pampas 1. Australia are most widely found in Argentina and they are found in a
B. Pustaz 2. South Africa small portion of Brazil.
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Jordan on the east, and Egypt to the Southwest.
* The Peninsula of Nynorsk is a peninsula of Eurasia located
China is the largest country in the world in terms of
population. India is at second place. World largest country
in Northern Europe which roughly comprises the mainland
on the basis of area Russia is after this Canada, USA, China
of Sweden, the mainland Norway and the North western area
of Finland. However on the basis of Linguistics Scandinavia respectively. Since the question is not clear. Hence, option
comprises of Sweden, Norway and Denmark. (c) & (d) can be correct answer.
* Culturally and Historically, Scandinavian countries
2. Arrange the following countries in descending order
comprised of Sweden, Denmark and Norway. Finland
was a part of Norway. * The Balkans also known as the of their area and select the correct answer using codes
Balkan Peninsula is a geographical area in southeastern given below-
Europe. The Balkan Peninsula is bordered by the Adriatic (i) Brazil (ii) Canada
Sea on the northwest, the Domain Sea on the southwest, the (iii) China (iv) U.S.A.
Aegean Sea in the South and Southeast and the Black Sea Code:
on the east and northeast. The region takes its name from
(a) iii iv i ii
the Balkan Mountains that stretch throughout the whole of
Bulgaria from the Serbian-Bulgarian borders to the Black (b) ii iii iv i
Sea. * The Balkan states consist of 10 countries- Albania, (c) ii iv i iii
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Bulgaria, Croatia, Greece, Kosovo, (d) i iii ii iv
Montenegro, North Macedonia, Romania and Serbia. R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2012
* Countries of the Balkan States adjoining the Adriatic Sea Ans. (*)
are Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia Herzegovina (only 1.4% of its
total border as coastline), Montenegro and Albania. *Serbia The correct order of countries in descending order of their
and Macedonia are landlocked countries. *Lithuania is area is as follows - Russia (largest in terms of area), Canada,
situated along the South Eastern part of the Baltic Sea. Its U.S.A., China (largest in population), Brazil, Australia and
Capital and largest city is Vilnius. Lithuania shares land India.
Tigris
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*A dependent territory is a territory that does not possesses
full political independence of sovereignty as a sovereign
Atlantic Ocean. It belongs to Norway and is not subject to
the Antarctic Treaty (which says that land South of 60 S,
state yet remains politically outsides the controlling states including Antarctica, do not belong to any country). Apart
integral area. from it the Peter Island (Antarctica) and Queen Maud Land
Dependent Territories under France: (Antarctica) are also dependent territories under Norway.
Martinique, French Polynesia, French Guiana, Reunion, New Dependent Territories under the United Kingdom:-
Caledonia, etc. *The Pitcairn is a group of islands in the southern Pacific
Dependent Territories Under Denmark: Ocean. It is governed by the United Kingdom. *Saint Helena
Greenland is an autonomous country of the kingdom is an island of volcanic origin in the South Atlantic Ocean.
of Denmark. However, from Geological point of view, It is named after Saint Helena of Constantinople. It is a part
Greenland is a part of the North American continent. Three- of the British Overseas Territory. *Gibraltar is an overseas
quarters of Greenland (approximately 85%) is covered by territory of the United Kingdom. It is in southwest Europe
permanent ice sheets. * The Faroe Islands is a North Atlantic on the Mediterranean Sea. It is situated on the southernmost
archipelago, located north-northwest of the United Kingdom point of the Iberian Peninsula. *The Turks and Caicos
and about halfway between Norway and Iceland. It is an Islands also are under the jurisdiction of Great Britain.
autonomous country of the Kingdom of Denmark. They are located in the Caribbean Sea, near the Bahamas.
Dependent Territories under the United States of *Falkland Islands are a group of Islands in South America.
America:- They are an overseas territory of the United Kingdom.
*America Samoa is unincorporated territories of the United *British Indian Ocean Territory is a dependency of the United
States located in the South Pacific Ocean located east of Kingdom. It is located to the Northwest of Mauritius in the
Australia. Since 1900 CE the islands is an unincorporated Indian Ocean. The region includes many small Islands in the
territory of the United States of America. *Puerto Rico Indian Ocean, but the two most important, being atolls of
is an unincorporated territory of the USA located in the Chaos Archipelago and the largest island of the region Diego
northeast Caribbean Sea, southeast of Miami Florida. Puerto Garcia (UK/US joint military base is located here). * The
Rico was discovered by Christopher Columbus in 1493 CE. British Antarctic Territory is a sector of Antarctica claimed
1.
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of Chechnya is Grozny.
Martinique Island having an area of 1128 sq. km. is located 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
in East of Caribbean Sea under the possession of France. It from the codes given below:
is one of the 26 administrative regions of France. List - I List – II
Santa Cruz de Tenerife is a port city in Spain's Canary (World Islands) (Owner Country)
islands. A. Aleutian Islands 1. Russia
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(d) Hindenburg line - Belgium and Germany
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015
Use the codes given below for the correct answer:
I. It is a landlocked country.
Ans. (c) II. Its capital is located in Akoba.
Radcliffe line is the boundary between India and Pakistan III. Its main river is the White Nile.
made by Sir Cyril Redcliffe who was commissioned IV. Its main religion is Islam.
to equitably divide the territory. The Maginot line is Code :
International boundary between France and Germany, and (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
the Hindenburg line is between Belgium and Germany. (c) I and III only (d) II and IV only
Durand line is an international border between Pakistan and U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010
Afghanistan. Ans. (c)
7. Which one of the following continents has no South Sudan is a landlocked country surrounded by Sudan,
landlocked country? Ethiopia, Central African Republic, Kenya, Democratic of
Republic of Congo and Uganda. The main river in South
(a) Africa (b) Asia
Sudan is White Nile and its present capital is Juba. Its main
(c) Europe (d) North America
religion is Christianity not Islam. Thus, option (c) is the
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005 correct answer.
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following countries is trans-Continental?
There is no landlocked country in the North American 1. Laos 2. Georgia
continent. The United States of America, Canada and Mexico 3. Turkey 4. Tunisia
have sea coastlines. The countries like Luxembourg and Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Switzerland in Europe, Afghanistan, Nepal, Mongolia and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Laos in Asia, Nigeria and Mali in Africa are landlocked
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009
countries.
Ans. (b)
(d) Belgian Congo Rio Grande river separates the southern border of the United
States of America from Mexico. It the was identified in
U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004
1845. The basin of this river is spread in the United States of
Ans. (a)
America and Mexico. Rhine river forms the border of France
Zimbabwe was earlier known as Southern Rhodesia. It was a and Germany. Thus, both the options (c) and (d) are correct.
British colony. Harare, the capital of Zimbabwe, was earlier
2. Rio Grande river makes boundary between –
known as Salisbury.
(a) Canada and USA (b) Mexico and USA
International Border Lines (c) Mexico and Guatemala (d) Guatemala and Honduras
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
*It is very important to know about the International Ans. (b)
Boundary lines between major countries.
See the explanation of above question.
*The Rio Grande is one of the principal rivers in the
southwest United States and Northern Mexico. It forms part 3. Which one of the following lakes forms as an
of United States-Mexico Border. *Lake Victoria of Africa International boundary between Tanzania and
also known as Lake Nyanza is the second largest freshwater Uganda?
lake in the world. The Lake’s administrative right is shared by (a) Chad (b) Malawi
three countries Kenya, Uganda and Tanzania. The Lake thus (c) Victoria (d) Zambezi
creates an international border between Uganda-Tanzania, I.A.S. (Pre) 2000
Uganda-Kenya and Kenya-Tanzania. * The McMahon line is Ans. (c)
After observing the map of Pakistan and Afghanistan it is 8. The International boundary between North Korea and
clear that the dotted line indicates the border line of Pakistan South Korea runs along –
and Afghanistan. This borderline is known as Durand Line. (a) 250N, Lat. (b) 330N, Lat.
5. Mc Mahon Line is – (c) 380N, Lat. (d) 480N, Lat.
(a) India-China Border (b) India-Nepal Border U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
(c) India-Pakistan Border (d) India-Bangladesh Border Ans. (c)
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999 See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (a)
9. The Maginot line was-
The McMahon line defines the boundary between India (a) The border between France and Germany.
and China. It was agreed on under Shimla Accord, a treaty (b) The border between East Germany and Poland.
signed in 1914 (Agreed between Britain and Tibet). The line (c) The border between America and Canada.
is named after Sir Henry McMahon, foreign secretary of the (d) The border between India and Afghanistan.
British-run Government of India and the chief negotiator of
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994
the convention at Shimla. The line was drawn 500 miles east
Ans. (a)
of Bhutan. India considers this line as a permanent national
border while China considers the line as a temporary line The Maginot line was formed by France during the first
of control. China even does not consider the Shimla Pact. World War. It separates the border of France from Germany
6. Radcliffe line defines the boundary between and Italy. The border of France and Italy is also known as
(a) North Korea and South Korea the Alpine line. The international border made of concrete
(b) U.S.A. and Canada was built in 1930-35.
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Mongolia
Mozambique
Ulaanbaatar
Maputo
Vietnam Hanoi
Zambia Lusaka
Myanmar (Burma) Nay Pyi Taw
Namibia Windhoek 1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
Nepal Kathmandu
List-I List-II
Netherlands Amsterdam; The Hague (Country) (Capital)
(seat of government) A. Myanmar 1. Hanoi
Nicaragua Managua B. Combodia 2. Vientiane
C. Vietnam 3. Phnom Penh
Niger Niamey
D. Laos 4. Yangoon
Nigeria Abuja Codes :
Norway Oslo A B C D
Oman Muscat (a) 1 2 3 4
Peru Lima (b) 2 3 4 1
Phillppines Manila (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Portugal Lisbon
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016
Qatar Doha
Ans. (*)
Romania Bucharest
Correct match is as follows:
Russia Moscow
(Country) (Capital)
Saudi Arabia Riyadh Myanmar Nay Pyi Taw
Serbia Belgrade Combodia Phnom Penh
Sierra Leone Freetown Vietnam Hanoi
Slovakia Bratislava Laos Vientiane
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Nigeria - Abuja
Thus (d) is not correctly matched. Ans. (b)
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
11. Pisa famous for leaning tower is located in- The correctly matched list of countries and their capitals is
(a) Australia (b) France as follows-
(c) Italy (d) Spain (Country) (Capital)
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 1993 Kenya - Nairobi
Ans. (c) Uganda - Kampala
Uzbekistan - Tashkent
Pisa is located at the bank of the Arno river. The river falls in
the Ligurian Sea. Pisa city is the capital of the Pisa province Ukraine - Kiev
of Italy. Pisa is famous for leaning tower. 14. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (a) Copenhagen - Denmark
by using the codes given below the lists : (b) Berlin - Germany
List-I List-II (c) Paris - France
A. Windhoek 1. Kenya (d) Oslo - Norway
B. Accra 2. Namibia U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
C. Nairobi 3. Ghana Ans. (b)
D. Lusaka 4. Zambia Berlin is the capital city of Germany. It is also one of the
Code : states of Germany. All others are capital cities only.
A B C D
15. Which one of the following pair is not correctly
(a) 1 2 3 4
matched?
(b) 2 3 1 4
(a) Amman - Jordon
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matched?
(a) Budapest - Hungary
(B) Cuba
(C) Kenya
2. Brasilia
3. Lusaka
(b) Kinshasa - Zaire (D) Zambia 4. Nairobi
(c) Nairobi - Kenya Code :
(d) Christchurch - New Zealand A B C D
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 (a) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (d) (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
Budapest is the Capital of Hungary, Kinshasha is the capital
(d) 3 4 1 2
of Zaire (New Name - Congo, Democratic Republic) and
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995
Nairobi is the capital of Kenya. The capital of New Zealand Ans. (b)
is Wellington, not Christchurch.
Brasilia is the capital of Brazil. Havana and Nairobi are
23. Which one of the following is not a national capital? capital cities of Cuba and Kenya respectively. Lusaka is the
(a) Bonn (b) Canberra capital of Zambia.
(c) New York (d) Beijing
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 27. Match the following-
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2003 (A) Brazil 1. Yamoussoukro
Ans. (a & c) (B) Costa Rica 2. San Jose
(C) Peru 3. Rio-De-Janeiro
Before 1990, Bonn was the capital of West-Germany (At (D) Ivory Coast 4. Lima
present the capital of Germany is Berlin). Canberra is the Code :
capital of Australia and Beijing is the capital of China. New A B C D
York is a major city of the United States of America and the (a) 2 1 4 3
capital of USA is Washington D.C. (b) 1 2 3 4
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
(a) A (b) B
Ans. (b)
(c) C (d) D
The countries and their capitals are correctly matched as I.A.S. (Pre) 1996
follows:
Ans. (d)
Country Capital
Palestine - Ramallah The above map shows the northern part of Sri Lanka. The
Kosovo - Pristina cities marked with A, B, C and D are as follows :
Turkish Cyprus - Nicosia A- Chavakachcheri
Taiwan - Taipei B- Point Pedro
5. Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D in the given C- Kankesanturai
map with the names of cities and select the correct D- Jaffna
answer using the code given below the names of cities: Thus, it is clear that Jaffna is located at the point marked as (d).
7. Alaska is a part of which of the following countries?
(a) Greenland (b) United State of America
(c) Canada (d) Russia
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006
Air Route Ans. (b)
CB–100 General Studies World Geography
Alaska is a province of United State of America situated in The correct sequence of the given cities of Pakistan while
the North West extremity. The United State purchased Alaska moving from the North towards the South is as follows:
from the Russian Empire on March 30, 1867. North - Peshawar
- Islamabad
8. Alaska is a part of –
- Gujranwala
(a) Greenland
South - Multan
(b) The United States of America
(c) Canada 12. Kandahar is located in :
(d) Russia (a) Southern Afghanistan (b) Northern Afghanistan
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 (c) Eastern Iraq (d) Western Pakistan
Ans. (b) R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2000
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 1999
See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following cities of California (USA) Kandahar or Qandahar is a city in south-central Afghanistan.
is not located within the “Silicon Valley” ? It is located on a plain next to the Tarnak river, at an elevation
(a) Campbell (b) Palo Alto
of about 1000 meters. It is southern Afghanistan's chief
(c) Santa Rosa (d) Santa Clara
commercial centre.
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
Ans. (c) 13. Arrange the following from west to east and select the
correct answer from the codes given below :
In the given options, Santa Rosa is not located within the
1. London 2. Lisbon
“Silicon Valley”. Santa Rosa is a city and the county seat of
3. Frankfurt 4. Beirut
Sonoma County, California, (USA).
Code :
10. Which of the following cities is the seat of Parliament (a) 1 2 3 4
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of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 4
4
3
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town (d) 1 2 4 3
I.A.S. (Pre) 2005 M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
The House of Parliament of South Africa is situated in Cape The correct sequence of the above cities while moving from
Town while the seat of government is in Pretoria. Cape Town
the west towards the east is as follows- Lisbon, London,
is known as the legislative capital of South Africa, while
Frankfurt, Beirut.
Pretoria is known as the administrative capital of South
Africa and Bloemfontein is known as the judicial capital of 14. Which one of the following is situated at the highest
South Africa. The upper and lower house of the Parliament altitude?
of South Africa is known as National Council of Provinces (a) Gartola (b) Kathmandu
(90) and National Assembly (400) respectively. Thus, option (c) Lhasa (d) Thimphu
(d) is the correct answer. U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1993
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
the given towns of Pakistan while moving from North The altitude of the various towns above sea level is as
towards South? follows-
(a) Islamabad–Gujranwala–Peshawar–Multan Lhasa (Tibet) - 3650 meters
(b) Peshawar–Gujranwala–Multan–Islamabad Thimphu (Bhutan) - 2248-2648 meters
(c) Peshawar–Islamabad–Gujranwala–Multan Gartola (Nepal) - 1733 meters
(d) Islamabad–Multan–Peshwar–Gujranwala Kathmandu (Nepal) - 1400 meters
I.A.S. (Pre) 2005 It is noteworthy that Lhasa is one of the towns situated at the
Ans. (c) highest altitude in the world.
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Francisco is also known as the 'City of Golden Gate'. *The
problem of Smoking became so severe in Chicago that an
Twin Cities
The Sorrow of Bihar
Hyderabad-Secunderabad
River Kosi
Ordinance had to be passed in 2005 to ban smoking. Chicago Queen of Chotanagpur Netarhat (Jharkhand)
is hence also known as City of Smokers. The Eiffel Tower
Queen of Mountains Mussoorie
is a wrought – iron lattice tower in Paris, France. It is named
after the engineer Gustave Eiffel, whose company designed Manchester of India Ahmedabad
and built the tower. Including the 24 meter long antenna, the Venice of East Kochi
tower is 324 meters tall. *Pamir knot is known as the roof
1. The midnight sun appears at-
of the world. The Pamir Knot makes the Southern Border
(a) North Pole (b) South Pole
of Central Asia. *Bahrain is known as the Island of Pearls.
It is also known as 'Pearl of Persian Gulf'. *Lake Baikal (c) Equator (d) Tropic of Cancer
is located in Siberia (Russia). It is also known as 'Pearl of U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990
Siberia.' *Buenos Aires is the capital of Argentina and is also Ans. (a & b)
known as 'Paris of the South'.
The midnight sun is a natural phenomenon that occurs in
Sobriquets Place places north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic
Gift of Nile Egypt Circle. Between these circles and the poles, the sun is visible
City of Seven Hills Rome (Italy) for the full 24 hours. Accordingly, in countries like Norway,
Eternal City Rome (Italy) situated north to the Arctic Circle, the sun is visible even
Queen of Adriatic Venice (Italy) during the night. This is why Norway is known as the country
Island of Cloves Zanzibar of the midnight sun. Parts of other countries like Canada,
Land of Thunderbolts Bhutan Finland, Russia and Iceland also fall north to the Arctic
Land of Canals Pakistan
Circle. Whereas, no country falls between the Antarctic
Empire City New York (US)
circle and south pole.
9. Which city of Turkey is known as the `Gateway to the Venice is known as the city of cities. It is one of the most
West' ? beautiful cities in the world. It is also known as the 'city of
(a) Adana (b) Ankara dreams'.
(c) Istanbul (d) Izmir 14. Which one of the following is known as the city of the
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010 golden gate ?
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005 (a) Paris (b) Amsterdam
(c) Mumbai (d) San Francisco
Ans. (c)
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Istanbul is located in the peninsular area of Turkey whose Ans. (d)
three sides are surrounded by Marmara Sea, Bosporus Straits
Golden gate bridge is located in San Francisco city and
and Golden Horn. It is also known as the Gateway to the
connects both ends of San Francisco Bay. Therefore, San
West'.
Francisco is known as the city of the golden gate'.
10. Which country is called “Land of White Elephants”? 15. Which of the following cities is called ‘Manchester of
(a) China (b) Thailand East’?
(c) South Africa (d) South Korea (a) Nagoya (b) Tokyo
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Mains) 2006 (c) Sendai (d) Osaka
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014
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Ans. (b)
Thailand is also known as the 'land of white elephants'. The
Ans. (d)
Osaka (Japan) is called 'Manchester of the East'. Osaka city
white elephant is considered holy in Thailand.
is located in the Kansai region of Japan. It is the capital city
11. Which country is famous by the name of the land of of Osaka province. Historically the trade city Osaka is also
the rising sun? famous by the name of ‘Nation's Kitchen’.
(a) Norway (b) Japan 16. Which one of the following is called the 'Pearl of
(c) Britain (d) Finland Siberia'?
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991 (a) Baikal Lake (b) Great Bear Lake
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1990 (c) Karda Lake (d) Lincanbur Lake
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Japanese also call their country as Nippon which means the
land of rising sun. Thus, Japan is also known as the land of Lake Baikal is the world's oldest and deepest freshwater lake.
the rising sun. Lake Baikal is called "Pearl of Siberia'.
12. Which of the following countries is called ‘Garden of 17. Which one of the following is called the 'Land of
Morning calm'?
Lakes’ ?
(a) Philippines (b) Japan
(a) Poland (b) Finland (c) Taiwan (d) Korea
(c) Netherlands (d) Switzerland U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012 Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) South Korea is called ' Land of Morning Calm' because of its
Finland is also called ‘the Garden of Lakes’. More than one spell-binding natural beauty, high mountains, clear waters,
lakh lakes are found in Finland. and its splendid tranquillity, particularly in the morning.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Ninety East Ridge (90o E Ridge) is the name of a ridge
The area of given oceans is as follows – Pacific Ocean
located in the Indian Ocean. Located near 90o east longitude
(165.2 million square kilometer), Atlantic Ocean (106.4
(meridian), this ridge is 5000 km long parallel to it and
million square kilometer), Indian Ocean (73.6 million
stretched across 33o south latitude to 17o northern latitude
square kilometer), Antarctica Ocean (2.6-18.8 million square
with an average width of 200 km.
kilometer). Hence largest part of our hydrosphere is the
Pacific Ocean. 10. The tension of gravitational water in the ground is –
(a) below 1/3 atmosphere
7. A ridge of 64000 km. length and 2000 km to 2400 km (b) At 1.25 atmosphere
width passing through the north and south Atlantic (c) At 5 atmosphere
oceanic basin enter into the south pacific oceanic basin (d) At 15 atmosphere
through Indian oceanic and then from the middle of U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Mains) 2010
Australia and Antarctic. This ridge is – Ans. (a)
(a) Socotra-Lakshadweep - Changos-Ridge Gravitational water occupies the larger soil pores (macro-
(b) Pacific - Antarctica Ridge pores) and moves down readily under the force of gravity.
(c) Dolfin - Challenger Ridge Gravitational water under the surface of soil remains in a
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(d) Mid - Oceanic Ridge
47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005
state of zero or less than 1/3 of the atmosphere.
sea plains having the depth of 3000 m to 6000 meter cover is named after the brown Sargasso seaweed, which is found
more than 76% percent of the total area of the Ocean Basins. in abundance in the region.
ea
Greenland
ra S
Bering Sea
Baffin Sea Berents
Ka
Bay Baltic Sea Sea
North
Sea
Gulf of
Alaska Hudson Labradoar Black Sea of
Bay Sea Gulf of Adriatic Sea Okhotsk
Biskake Sea
Gulf of Caspian Sea Japan Sea Pacific
Pacific Saint Lawrence Ocean
Ocean Sargaaiso Dead Persian Bay of Pit Sea
Sea Gulf Bengal East China Sea
Sea
Gulf of Red
Mexico Arabian South China Sea
Atlantic Sea
Sea Phillippine
Carribean Ocean Sea
Sea Gulf of Gulf of
Guiniea Aden Java
Indian Sea Timor
Arafura
Ocean Sea
Sea
Tasman Sea
*The Tyrrhenian sea is a part of the Mediterranean sea off In the North-West- Bulgaria
the western coast of Italy. The sea is bounded by Corsica, In the West- Greece
Sardinia, Italy and Sicily. The Tyrrhenian sea is linked to In the North-East - Georgia
other seas of the region through the Strait of Messina, Strait In the East- Iran, Azerbaijan and Armenia
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of Bonifacio and Corsica channel.
*The countries of Africa surrounding the Mediterranean sea
In the South-East - Iraq and Syria
Seas bordering with Turkey are –
are Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria and Morocco. In the North-Black Sea
Towards West- Aegean and the Sea of Marmara
*The south-west Asian country of Jordan does not have any
In South - The Mediterranean Sea.
boundaries with the Mediterranean Sea.
Therefore, it is clear that the Black Sea is located at the
*Turkey is a transcontinental country located mainly in North of Turkey.
western Asia with a small portion of it lying in south-east
2. Baku, the capital city of Azerbaijan is situated along
Europe. Turkey is bordered by the Black Sea in the North,
the coast of which one of the following seas?
Aegean sea and Marmara sea in the west. (a) Black Sea (b) Levantine Sea
*The Black sea and Mediterranean sea determine the north (c) Caspian Sea (d) Aral Sea
and south political borders of Turkey respectively. U.P. B.E.O. (Pre) 2019
*Turkey shares borders with 8 countries which are as follows- Ans. (c)
Bulgaria in the North-west, Greece in the west, Georgia in The capital of Azerbaijan, Baku, is its largest city located
the North-east, Iran, Armenia and Azerbaijan in the East, Iraq along the Caspian sea coast. It is to the east of Azerbaijan.
and Syria in the south east. Azerbaijan is a Muslim country Europe. The caspian sea is
the largest saltwater lake.
1. Towards the North of Turkey is –
(a) Black Sea (b) Caspian Sea 3. Turkey is located between –
(c) Red Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea (a) The Black Sea and the Caspian Sea
(b) The Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991
(c) Gulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea
Ans. (a)
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and the Dead Sea
The Black Sea lies to the north of Turkey. Turkey borders I.A.S. (Pre) 2014
with 8 countries and 4 seas, given as follows – Ans. (b)
6. Sargasso sea is related to the Ocean, that ocean is – 11. Red sea is an example of
(a) Northern Pacific (b) Northern Atlantic (a) Volcanic Valley (b) Eroded valley
(c) Southern Pacific (d) Southern Atlantic (c) Axial trough (d) U-shaped valley
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1999 U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
Ocean Currents
rift
ic D
a nt
)
ri le
A tl
La bro
r en ( Ku
rt h
Alaska
No
C ur a shio
Current
dor C
t
Oy
Atlantic Ocean
urre n
North
Califo t
Pacific
Curre
nt
Drift
am e
urr e
rnia
S tr e
rren
n
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lf
Gu
shio C
s cu
Ku r u
C an
North Equatorial
Current
North Equatorial
Current
Equatorial Current Indian Equatorial Circle
Equador Counter Ocean
Current Equatorial Current t
n
South Equatorial North Equatorial rre
Cu
Hum bold t (Per u) Curre
nt
Current Current an
rr e
Be ng ue la Cu
Au
Wes t Au
Current
C urre nt
r ent
z il
st
Ea
B ra
Cu r
South Atlantic
stralian
l las
C urre nt
Ocean
rrent
Falk la nd
Cold Current
Warm Current
1. Currents of Atlantic Ocean - *Under the influence of of the western Island groups, where it is known as Antilles
trade winds the North equatorial warm current flow east to current.
west from African coast in the east to the island groups in *Florida Warm Current - Under the influence of the trade
the west. winds the current flows from the Gulf of Mexico towards
*Antilles Current - near cape soo Roque (Brazil) the south the strait of Florida. Here it adjoins with the Antilles current.
equatorial current splits into two branches. One branch turns *Gulf Stream - When the Florida warm current and Antilles
south as the warm Brazilian Current. The other branch turns warm current join together, then collectively they are known
north and flows with the North Equatorial Current into the as Gulf stream. The Gulf stream is a warm and swift Atlantic
Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. The remaining part Ocean Current that follows the Eastern Coastline of the
of the south equatorial current flow close to the eastern coast United States.
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(c) Agulhas current (d) Brazil current
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
In the South Atlantic Ocean, there exists a fixed order of
complete circular currents. This order emerges from South
Ans. (b) Equatorial current. After hitting Brazil coast, it moves
towards the south where it is called Brazil current. The
An only cold current of South Atlantic Ocean is the ''Benguela
disturbance is developed due to the rotation of the Earth. At
current". It flows along the west coast of South Africa towards
40o latitude, this current is affected by Westwind. It turns to
the North direction. Moving ahead, it merges with South
east and current coming from the south i.e, Falklands Current
Equatorial current. Therefore option (b) is correct. meets with the Brazil current. Warm Brazil current and cold
Other currents of the options are as follows – Falklands current merge and turn to the east-flowing as
Brazil Current : It is a warm water current which flows South Atlantic current and one of its branch after hitting the
along the East coast of Brazil from north to south. west coast of South Africa turns towards the north where it
Canary Current : It is a cold water current which flows in is known as Benguela Current. This current moving ahead
the North Atlantic Ocean along the west coast of north-west and meeting with South Equatorial current forms a complete
Africa from north to south direction. circle of currents. This complete circle of currents flow in
Agulhas Current: It is a warm water current which flows in anticlock- wise direction. Therefore it is clear that Canary
South-Indian Ocean from north to south direction. current is not associated with the complete circle of South
Atlantic currents. This is actually a cold current which flows
10. Which one of the following Oceanic currents is not
in the North Atlantic Ocean.
associated with the Pacific Ocean?
(a) Canaries (b) Kuroshio 13. The ocean current different from the remaining three
(c) California (d) Humboldt is :
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 (a) Banguela (b) Brazilian
Ans. (a) (c) South Equatorial (d) Peruvian
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 1999
See the explanation of above question. Ans. (d)
World Geography General Studies CB–117
Except for Peruvian current, all the three currents mentioned 17. Which of the following pair of oceanic currents is
shown in the given map :
above are related to the Atlantic Ocean which forms a circle.
Peruvian current is related to the Southeast Pacific Ocean.
Peruvian current is also known as Humboldt current. It is a
cold current which flows along the west coast of the South
American continent.
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
15. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
using the code given below the Lists :
(a) Brazil Current - South Atlantic Ocean
List-I List-II
(b) Humboldt Current - North Pacific Ocean A. Gulf Stream 1. Pacific Ocean
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(c) Gulf Stream
(d) Agulhas Current
-
-
North Atlantic Ocean
Indian Ocean
B. West Wind Drift 2. A slow eastward move-
ment of water over the
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 1998 zone of westerly wind
Ans. (b) C. Peru Current 3. Indian Ocean
D. West Australian 4. Warm current
See the explanation of above question.
Current
16. Gulf Stream is – Code :
A B C D
(a) a river in the Gulf
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) an oceanic current
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) another name of Jet Stream (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) a surface wind (d) 1 2 4 3
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000 Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2013
42nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1997 Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) The correctly matched of List-I and List-II is as follows :
Gulf stream is a powerful warm current in the North Atlantic Gulf Stream - Warm current
West Wind Drift - A slow eastward
Ocean. It originates at the Gulf of Mexico as the Florida
movement of water over
current which merges in Antilles current and flows through
the zone of westerly wind
the Cape Hatteras and then flows along the east coast of
Peru Current - Pacific Ocean
United States of America. Spanish explorer Juan Ponce de West Australian - Indian Ocean
Leon first discovered the Gulf Stream in 1513. Current
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Ans. (d)
47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005
(a)
(b)
2
2
4
3
1
1
3
4
(c) 1 3 2 4
Spring-tide occurs in the ocean on the day of Full Moon, (d) 1 4 2 3
while at 7th and 8th day after the Full Moon or the New Moon I.A.S. (Pre) 2000
neap-tide occurs. Since, the Moon is more near to the Earth Ans. (b)
in comparison to other stars, so its gravitational force has
Trenches and Deeps found in the Oceans asked in the question
a greater effect upon the Earth. Due to this effect, high sea
are as follows –
waves are produced in oceans. Tide producing power of the
Indian Ocean : Sunda Deep and Diamantina Trench.
moon is 2.17 times more than the Sun.
North Pacific Ocean : Mariana Trench, Kuril Trench, Aleutian
The Oceanic Trenches Trench and Japan Trench.
South Pacific Ocean : Tonga trench, Kermadec trench,
Oceanic Trenches are long narrow trenches that plunge Atacama trench.
as great deeps to a depth of 5000 fathoms or 30000 feet. North Atlantic Ocean : Puerto - Rico trench.
Trenches accounts for approximately 7% of the ocean’s relief South Atantic Ocean : South Sandwich trench.
contrary to our expectations most of the deepest trenches are Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
not located in the midst of the ocean. They are more often
found close to the continents, particularly in the Pacific 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Ocean, where several deep trenches have been founded. from the codes given below :
*Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world. It is List-I List-II
located in the Pacific Ocean east of Mariana Islands. The (Ocean) (Deepest Point)
Mariana Trench or Challenger deep is a crescent- shaped A. Pacific Ocean 1. Java Trench
trough. This trench was discovered in 1948 with the help of a B. Atlantic Ocean 2. Eurasian Basin
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Ans. (b)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991 is joined by rivers - Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and
Kabul before it drains into the Arabian Sea.
The Mariana trench or Challenger trench is located in the *River Irrawaddy is called the lifeline of the country
Pacific Ocean, east of the Mariana Islands in the shape of an Myanmar. River Huang Ho is a river which flows through
crescent. It has the deepest part of the Earth's Oceans known the Northern part of China. The basin of this river is the
as Challenger-Deep, named after the British exploration birthplace of the ancient Chinese civilization. The river is
vessel HMS challenger-II.
also called the yellow river, because of the yellow coloured
4. Which one of the following is the deepest oceanic soil found in this region.
trench? *The south-central part of Sri Lanka constitutes the country’s
(a) Tonga (b) Mariana
highest topography (1500 mts above sea level). The altitude
(c) Puerto Rico (d) Izu-Bonin
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015 decreases from the south-central part towards the plains. The
Ans. (b) plains of Sri Lanka are widest in the North and they narrow
down in the western and south-eastern parts of the country.
See the explanation of above question.
The rivers of Sri Lanka are comparatively smaller in size
5. In which one of the following oceans Diamantina
and they mostly emerge from the high altitude regions of
Trench is situated ?
South-Central Sri Lanka.
(a) Pacific Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean *River Mahaweli Ganga (335 km) is the longest river in
I.A.S. (Pre) 2006 Sri Lanka. It flows in North-east direction and drains into
Ans. (c) the Bay of Bengal.
Diamantina Trench is in the Indian Ocean. It is located about *The River Tigris rises in the Taurus Mountains of Eastern
1125 km south-west from the Perth Basin. It is also known Turkey. The river flows south from the mountains of southern
as diamantina fracture zone. Turkey and then through Syria. Tigris is joined by River
*River Don rises from the western Russian city of Jula and drains into the Gulf of Mexico. It is noteworthy to mention
drains into the sea of Azov. that the Great Plains of North America were formed by the
*River Ebro of Spain originates in the Cantabrian Mountains Mississippi and Missouri rivers. The Mississippi - Missouri
and drains into the Mediterranean sea. river system is the largest river system in North America. Its
*River Thames is the longest river of England and the second total length is 6275 km.
longest in the United Kingdom after the River severn. *Yukon is a river in North America that flows through the
*The Nile is a major north-flowing river in East Africa (app. state of Alaska. The upper half of the river flows through
6650 km). It is an international river as its drainage basin
Canada. Its total length is 3700 km.
covers 11 countries - Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi,
*Mackenzie River is the longest river system in Canada. The
the Democratic Republic of Congo, Kenya, Ethiopia, Eritrea,
river originates in the Great Slave Lake of North-western
South Sudan, Republic of Sudan and Egypt. The River finally
Canada and drains into the Arctic Ocean. The total length of
drains into the Mediterranean sea. The River originates
the river Mackenzie is 1738 km.
from the Victoria Lake as White Nile. However, the latest’s
researches conducted have stated that the actual source of *The Saint Lawrence River connects the Great Lakes to
white Nile is in Nyungwe Forests located near lake Kivu in Atlantic Ocean. The river is part of the international boundary
south Sudan. The Blue Nile is the most important tributary between the United states of America and Canada. *River Rio
of white Nile. The Blue Nile originates at Lake Tana in Grande is a part of the International border between USA
Ethiopia. and Mexico. It drains into the Gulf of Mexico.
Lina
Denube Ye
Mackenzie nis
Elbe ei
Ob
Fraser Rhine
Nelson
St. Thames Amur
Voega
Columbia Lawrence Huwa ng Ho
Sien
Missouri Indus
Misissipi Tagus Dnieper
Red Tennessee Niger Ganga
Yangtese
e
N il
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Rio G rande
Amazon
Orinica
Congo
White N ile
Blue Nile
Yamuna Mekong
Madiera river
Salvin
Salado Parana
Zambezi Murray
Darling
Limpopo
1. Consider the following pairs : Thames river originates in the Cotswold Hills and drains
(River) (Flows into)
1. Mekong Andaman Sea into North Sea.
2. Thames Irish Sea Mekong is the longest river in Southeast Asia. It drains into
3. Volga Caspian Sea the South China Sea.
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 2. The largest river of the world in terms of drainage
matched? area, is-
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) Nile (b) Amazon
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Congo (d) Mississippi-Missouri
I.A.S. (Pre) 2020 R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1999, 2000
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Volga is the longest river in Europe carrying largest volume
South America’s Amazon river is the largest river in terms
of water. It drains into Caspian Sea.
of its volume of flow in the world. Its area of drainage is
Zambezi river either crosses or runs along the borders of six
countries - Angola, Zambia, Namibia, Botswana, Zimbabwe about 70 lakhs square km. and the length is approximately
and Mozambique and finelly drains in to Indian Ocean. 6,400 km.
Lake Michigan is one of the five great lakes of North America The correct match is as follows:
and the only one located entirely within the United States. (Rivers) (Emptying into)
Lena (Russia) - Arctic Ocean
15. Syr and Amu rivers fall into- Amur (Russia, China) - Pacific Ocean
(a) Caspian sea (b) Black sea Tigris (Turkey, Syria, Iraq) - Persian Gulf
(c) Baltic sea (d) Aral sea Mahi (Madhya Pradesh, - Arabian Ocean
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2012 Rajasthan, Gujarat)
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Ans. (d)
The Amu Darya and the Syr Darya are prominent rivers of
Thus, option (a) has the correct code.
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The Huangpu river is a 113 kilometres long river flowing
through Shanghai (China). It is on an average 400 meters
(c)
(d)
2
3
4
4
3
2
1
1
wide and 9 meter deep. It divides the city into two regions: U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003
Pudong to the east and Puxi to the west. It is a major source Ans. (c)
of drinking water for Shanghai.
The correct match of the river and related countries is as
16. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer follows:
using the codes given below the lists : (River) (Country)
List– I List– II Potomac - U.S.A
City River
Nile - Sudan
A. Bangkok 1. Irrawaddy
Tigris - Iraq
B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong
Thames - England
C. Hanoi 3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
D. Yangon 4. Red River 18. Which one of the following pair is not correctly
Code: matched?
A B C D (a) Belgrade - Danube
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) Lisbon - Tiber
(b) 4 1 3 2 (c) Warsaw - Vishtula
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) Washington - Potomac
U.P. Lower Sub.(Pre) 2009
(d) 4 2 3 1
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007 Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) The Tiber is the third longest river of Italy. It flows through the
The rivers along whose banks these South East Asian cities city of Rome and enters the Tyrrhenian Sea. Thus, option (b)
are located, are as follows- is not correctly matched. Other options are matched correctly.
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20. Match the rivers with the cities through which they are
flowing and select the correct answer using the codes
straight for any long distance, a winding course soon appears.
The irregularities of the ground force the river to swing in
loops, forming meanders.
given below:
Alluvial Cones - Also called Alluvial fan, is a cone-shaped
City River deposit of sediments built by a stream where it merges into
A. Rotterdam (1) Seine a broad valley or plain.
B. Paris (2) Potomac Delta- When the river reaches a sea, the fine materials it
C. Budapest (3) Rhine has not yet dropped are deposited at its mouth, forming a
D. Washington (4) Danube fan-shaped alluvial area called Delta. This alluvial tract is,
Code : in fact, a seaward extension of the flood plains. Deltas differ
A B C D much in size, shape, growth and importance. A number
(a) 2 3 1 4 of factors such as the rate of sedimentation the depth of
the river, the sea bed, the character of tides, currents and
(b) 1 3 4 2
waves greatly influence the eventual formation of Deltas.
(c) 3 1 4 2
The Ganges Delta is the largest delta in the whole world.
(d) 4 3 2 1
It is also known as Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta.
56th to 59th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2015
1. Formation of delta is affected by :
Ans. (c)
(a) Rocks (b) Tide - ebb
The correct match of given cities with their related rivers is (c) Strong winds (d) Deep sea
as follows : M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1993
(City) (River) Ans. (d)
Rotterdam - Rhine
Conditions which are favourable for the formation of the
Paris - Seine Deltas are as follows :
Budapest - Danube The river must carry a large amount of sediments.
Washington - Potomac The slope and speed of the river must not be strong enough
3.
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100,000 sq. km.
Grand Canyon is –
*Borneo is the third largest island in the world and the largest
in Asia. Located north of Java, the island is politically divided
(a) a gorge (b) a large cannon among three countries- Indonesia (73%), Malaysia (26%)
(c) a river (d) an old cannon and Brunei (1%). The Kalimantan region of Indonesia is
43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994 a part of Borneo islands. *Malagasy or Madagascar is an
Ans. (a) island country located in the South-Western Indian Ocean,
The Grand Canyon is a gorge carved by the Colorado River off the coast of East Africa. To the east of Madagascar, we
in the State of Arizona, United States. The Grand Canyon have the island country of Mauritius and to the west, we
is 446 km long, 4 to 24 km wide and attains a depth of over have the African country of Mozambique. Madagascar is the
1,600 meters. fourth largest (587713 sq. km.) island in the world. *Diego
Garcia is an island in the Indian Ocean. The island is named
4. Chisapani Gorge is located in –
after the Portuguese explorer Diego Garcia who discovered
(a) India (b) Nepal
this island in 1500 C.E. From 1814 to 1965 the island was a
(c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan
part of Mauritius, later it became a dependency of the British
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
Colony. In 1976, the United Kingdom leased it to the United
Ans. (b)
State. At present, Diego Garcia is an active military base
Chispani Gorge is located in Nepal and formed by the Karnali of both US and UK. *Seychelles is an island situated to the
river. Karnali river is the longest river of Nepal which is 507 north of Madagascar in the Indian Ocean. The island group
km long. It forms various gorges because of its swift flow. comprises 115 islands, of which some of them are made up
5. Nobi and Kanto plains are located in which of the of corals and granite. *The Chagos islands are located in the
following countries? Indian Ocean. Diego Garcia is the largest island of Chagos
(a) North Korea (b) South Korea Archipelago. *Mauritius is an island nation, located to the
(c) Japan (d) China east of Madagascar in the Indian Ocean. *Socotra Island is
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021 an island located in the Indian Ocean between 12o30’ North
Ans. (c) and 54o east longitude. The island is officially a part of Yemen.
km.), Madagascar (587713 sq. km.), Sumatra (443066 sq. divided into three countries?
km.) and Great Britain area (209331 sq. km.). (a) Borneo (b) Celebes
(c) New Guinea (d) Timor
5. Which one of the following countries has the highest
U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2010
number of islands?
Ans. (a)
(a) Philippines
(b) Indonesia Borneo is the third -largest island in the world and the largest
(c) Maldives island in Asia. The island is divided among three countries:
(d) Cuba Malaysia (26%), Brunei (1%) and Indonesia (73%).
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
10. Kalimantan is a part of which of the following islands?
65th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2019
(a) Honshu (b) Borneo
Ans. (b)
(c) Cuba (d) Madagascar (Malagasy)
Indonesia with 17,508 islands has the highest number of R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010
islands in the given option, but in the world, Sweden has the Ans. (b)
highest number of islands.
Kalimantan is the Indonesian portion of the island of Borneo.
6. The largest island (after Greenland ) of the world is : It comprises of 73% of the island area.
(a) Borneo (b) Malagasy
(c) Sumatra (d) New Guinea 11. Madagascar is the largest island in –
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 (a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean
Ans. (d) (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Red Sea
Uttrakhand U.D.A./LDA (Mains) 2007
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See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (a)
7. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Madagascar is an island located in the south west of the Indian
(a) Greenland is the second largest (area) island in the
Ocean. Mauritius is located to its east and Mozambique to
World.
its west.
(b) Nuuk is a small town of Greenland.
(c) The elevation of Nuuk above the sea level is 3 metre 12. In the map given below, four islands of Indian Ocean
(d) Greenland belongs to the U.S.A. region i.e., (A) Seychelles, (B) Chagos, (C) Mauritius
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2012 and (D) Socotra are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match
Ans. (c) them and select the correct answer from the codes given
Greenland is the largest island in the world. Greenland below:
belongs to Denmark. Nuuk is the capital and largest city
of Greenland. The elevation of Nuuk above the sea level is
1-3 meter.
Australian Continent is an island continent. It is the smallest (Sulawesi); the Lesser Sunda Islands (Nusa Tenggara)
continent in the world. of Bali and a chain of islands that runs eastward through
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29. Grenada is located in –
(a) Pacific Ocean (b) Indian Ocean
Timor; the Moluccas (Maluku) between Celebes and the
island of New Guinea; and the western extent of New
(c) Caribbean Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea Guinea (generally known as Papua).
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012 • The capital, Jakarta, is located near the northwestern
Ans. (c) coast of Java.
Grenada is an island country consisting of three islands in 32. With reference to Socotra Island which of the following
the Southeastern Caribbean Sea. Grenada is also known as statement is/are correct?
the “Island of Spice” because of the excess production of
1. It is an Island of Oman, situated in the Arabian
spices. It is located approx 100 km North from Venezuela.
Sea.
30. Which of the following Islands is NOT located in the
2. It was designated as a world natural heritage site
Caribbean Sea?
by UNESCO in 2008.
(a) Grenada (b) Montserrat
(c) Madeira (d) Anguilla Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021 codes :
Ans. (c) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The Caribbean Islands is a massive archipelago located U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
in the Caribbean Sea that can be subdivided into a few Ans. (b)
different regions: the Lucayan Archipelago, the Greater
Antilles, the Lesser Antilles and the ABC Islands. • Socotra or Soqotra, located between the Guardafui
• There are 13 sovereign states and 17 dependent territories Channel and the Arabian Sea, is the largest of four
in the Caribbean, and the predominant languages are islands in the Socotra Archipelago. The island of Socotra
English, Spanish,French, Dutch and Antillean Creole.
constitutes around 95% of the landmass of the Socotra
Major islands are - Anguilla, Antigua, British Virgin
Islands, Grenada, Montserrat, Saint Martins, etc. archipelago.
6. Arrange the following lakes in correct descending order Lake Baikal is the world's oldest and deepest freshwater lake.
of their area using the code given below: Its maximum depth is 1620 meter. It is 25 million years old.
1. Great Bear 2. Baikal
10. On the basis of area and volume, the largest lake of
3. Victoria 4. Superior
Code : the world is :
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) Aral Sea (b) Caspian Sea
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(c) 4, 2, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
(c) Baikal Lake (d) Michigan Lake
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Pre) 2008
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
The lake according to their area in descending order are –
Lake Area (sq Km) Lake is a body of water surrounding basin on land. On the basis
Superior - 82097 of area and volume, the largest lake of the world is Caspian
Victoria - 69484 Sea of Eurasia. The sea has a surface area of 371,000 km2.
Baikal - 31500 It is a saltwater lake. The Volga River and Ural River flow
Great Bear - 31153
into the sea in the north. The salinity of Kara-Bogaz-Gol
7. The largest fresh water lake in the world is ? lagoon, located in southwards Caspian Sea, is 140‰.
(a) Lake Windermeere (b) Lake Loch Ness
The Van lake of Turkey is one of highest salinity lak i.e.
(c) Lake Baikal (d) Lake Superior
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1993 330 ‰. Apart from this, Baikal Lake is the deepest lake (1620
Ans. (d) mts) in the world. The Aral Sea is a salt water lake located on
the border of Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan. Lake Michigan is
The largest freshwater lake in the world is Superior Lake
which is one of the constituent lake of the Great Lakes on one of the five main lakes of North America.
the Canada–United States border. Therefore, the correct 11. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
answer is option (d).
(a) Baikal – Russian Federation
8. Which is the deepest lake of the world ? (b) Malawi – Asia
(a) Titicaca (b) Victoria (c) Caspian Sea – Asia – Europe
(c) Baikal (d) Dead Sea
(d) Tanganyika – Africa
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2002 U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2017
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
in its sixteen lakes, interconnected by a series of waterfalls, Torres Arafura Sea and Australia and New
and set in deep woodland populated by rare bird species. Gulf of Papua Guinea
22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Bosporus Black Sea and Turkey
(a) World's tallest waterfall - Tugela Falls Marmara Sea
(b) World's largest fresh - Lake Superior Davis Baffin Bay and Greenland and
water lake Atlantic Ocean Canada
(c) World's highest navigable lake - Lake Titicaca
Florida Strait The Gulf of Mexico USA and Cuba
(d) World's second deepest lake - Lake Tanganyika and the Atlantic
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015 Ocean
Ans. (a)
Magellan The Pacific Ocean Chile
Angel Fall is located in Guayana highlands is the highest and the Atlantic
waterfall in the world. Its height is 979 mt. Whereas Tugela Ocean
Fall is the second highest waterfall with a height of 948 mt. Makassar The Java Sea and the Indonesia
Celebes Sea
The Straits Luzon The South China Sea Ta i w a n L u z o n
and the Philippines Islands (Philippines)
Strait is a narrow passage of water connecting two seas or two Sea
other large water bodies and simultaneously separating two
Tartary The Japan Sea and Russia
landmasses. *The Bering Strait separates Asia from North the Okhotsk Sea
America. The strait is 92 kms wide and joins the Chukchi
Hudson The Hudson Bay & Canada
Sea (part of Arctic Ocean) in the north to Bering sea in the
Strait Labrador sea
south. * Gibraltar separates Europe from Africa and joins
(A Atlantic Ocean)
the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. *Dover Strait
CB–146 General Studies World Geography
Gulf of Bothnia is located between Finland and Sweden. The Strait of Hormuz is a located between the Persian Gulf
*Baffin Bay is located in between Canada and Greenland.
and the Gulf of Oman.
*Gulf of Carpentaria is in Australia. *Gulf of Tonkin is in
between Vietnam and China. *Countries bordering Persian 5. The strait which separates Asia from North America is—
Gulf are UAE, Bahrain, Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait (a) Bering Strait (b) Palk Strait
and Qatar. (c) Strait of Gibraltar (d) Strait of Malacca
1. Malacca Strait facilitates movement from – U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
(a) Indian Ocean to China Sea Ans. (a)
(b) Red Sea to Mediterranean Sea Bering Strait separates Asia from North America. It is located
(c) Atalantic Ocean to Pacific Ocean at easternmost point of Russia at 169043' east latitude and
(d) Mediterranean Sea to Black Sea
western end (Alaska) of USA at 168005' west latitude. 92
44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000
Km wide strait connects the Chukchi Sea (part of the Arctic
Ans. (a)
Ocean) in the north with the Bering Sea (part of the Pacific
Strait of Malacca runs between Indonesia and Malaysia. The Ocean) in the south.
Strait of Malacca connects Indian ocean to Pacific Ocean.
6. The strait connecting the Arctic and Pacific Oceans is -
Thus, Statement (A) is correct.
(a) Bering (b) Torres
2. Between India and East Asia, the navigation time (c) Dover (d) Malacca
and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1994
following? Ans. (a)
1. Deepening the Malacca Straits between Malaysia
and Indonesia. See the explanation of above question.
2. Opening a new canal between the Gulf of Siam and 7. Match the following:
the Andaman Sea. A. Strait of Gibraltar i. Between Indonesia &
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B. Strait of Malacca
Malaysia
ii. Between Gulf of Persia
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Gulf of Oman
I.A.S. (Pre) 2011
C. Strait of Bering iii. Between Africa and
Ans. (b)
Europe
Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance D. Strait of Hormuz iv. Between Asia and
could be greatly reduced by opening a new canal between North America
the Gulf of Siam and the Andaman Sea. Thus, only statement Code :
(2) is correct. A B C D
3. Which Strait separates Europe from Africa : (a) iv ii iii i
(a) Bosphorus (b) Gibraltar (b) iii iv i ii
(c) Dover (d) Bering (c) iii i iv ii
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999 (d) iv iii ii i
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2013
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
The Strait of Gibraltar separates Europe from Africa. It
The correct match is as follows :
connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
Strait of Gibraltar – Between Africa and Europe
4. Strait of Hormuz lies between – Strait of Malacca – Between Indonesia and
(a) Black Sea and Marmara Sea Malaysia
(b) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman Strait of Bering – Between Asia and North
(c) Arabian Sea and Red Sea
America
(d) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Strait of Hormuz – Between Gulf of Persia and
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
Gulf of Oman
Ans. (b)
The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar The strait is 64 to 137 km wide. The Strait is named after
islands in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together Robert Palk, who was a Governor of Madras Presidency
form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar (1755–1763) during British rule.
Islands. This channel is 150 km wide. It is so named as it lies 13. The Persian Gulf does not form the border with –
on the 100 northern latitude. (a) Bahrain (b) Iraq
9. Through which one of the following straits does a (c) Kuwait (d) Oman
tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ? U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
(a) Davis Strait (b) Denmark Strait Ans. (d)
(c) Strait of Dover (d) Strait of Gibraltar
Persian Gulf does not form border with Oman. The countries
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 sharing border with Persian Gulf are - Iran, United Arab
Ans. (c) Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait and Iraq.
Dover Strait marks the boundary between the English Oman forms border with Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea.
channel and the North Sea. There are three marine tunnels 14. Which of the following is not coastline country of
through Dover Strait on the eastern part of English channel Persian Gulf ?
(a) Kuwait (b) Oman
which connect England and France. These tunnels connect
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Folkestone of England with Coquelles in Pas-de-Calais of
(c) Qatar (d) United Arab Emirates
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008
France. Ans. (b)
10. Lombok Strait is located between which two islands?
See the explanation of above question.
(a) Bali and Lombok (b) Lombok and Sumbawa
(c) Sumbawa and Java (d) Java and Bali 15. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017 (a) Gulf of Bothnia - France
Ans. (a) (b) Baffin bay - Argentina
The Lombok Strait is a strait connecting the Java Sea to the (c) Gulf of Carpentaria - Canada
Indian Ocean and is located between the Islands of Bali and (d) Gulf of Tonkin - Vietnam
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2003
Lombok in Indonesia.
Ans. (d)
11. Strait of Dover connects –
(a) The Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Bothnia The Gulf of Bothnia is situated between Finland and
(b) The Bay of Biscay and the English Channel Sweden and the Baffin Bay is located between Canada and
(c) The English Channel and the North Sea Greenland. The Gulf of Carpentaria is a large, shallow sea
(d) The Celtic Sea and the Irish Sea enclosed on three sides by Northern Australia while the Gulf
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 of Tonkin is located between Vietnam and China. Thus (d)
Ans. (c) is correctly matched.
See the explanation of above question. 16. Which strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean?
(a) Bab-el-Mandeb (b) Hormuz
12. The Palk Bay lies between :
(c) Bosphorus (d) Malacca
(a) Gulf of Kachch and Gulf of Khambhat
53rd to 55th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2011
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal Ans. (a)
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the shipping route from the Atlantic ocean to lake superior
until 1987 is located in Canada. Volga-Don canal connects
Ghana. *Grande Dixence Dam is a dam on the river Dexence
in Switzerland. It is 285 mts high. *Enguri Dam is a dam
two important rivers of Russia i.e., Volga river and Don river. on the river Enguri in Georgia (Europe). *Vajont Dam is a
White sea canal is located in Russia. It fconnects White Sea dam on the river Vajont in Italy. It is 262 mts high. Oroville
with lake Onega. Dam is a dam on the river Feather in the USA. *Xiaowan
Dam is a dam on the river Mekong in China. It is an arch
14. Which one of the following international waterways is
dam used both for hydroelectricity generation and irrigation.
operated through lock-system?
* China has constructed Zangmu Dam in Tibet on the river
(a) Suez Canal
Brahmaputra. Speculations are that it will slow down the
(b) Rihne River
flow of the river Brahmaputra.
(c) Denube River
1. Itaipu Dam built on the river Parana is one of the
(d) Panama Canal
largest dams in the world. Which of the following two
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2013
countries have it as a joint project?
Ans. (*)
(a) Brazil and Peru
A lock is a device used for raising and lowering boats, ships (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
and other watercraft between stretches of water of different (c) Brazil and Paraguay
levels on river and canal waterways. Locks are used to make (d) Colombia and Paraguay
a river more easily navigable or to allow a canal to take a I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
reasonably direct line across land that is not level. According Ans. (c)
to the question, in given options, the lock system has been Itaipu Dam is a joint venture between Brazil and Paraguay
applied in the Panama Canal, the Danube river and the Rhine (both South American countries) at Itaipu of Brazil on the
river while it is not used in the Suez Canal. Parana river. The dam is 196 metre high and 7919 metre long.
from the codes given below the lists: The Aswan dam is located in Egypt of the African Continent.
It is built on the River Nile. Its water is used for irrigation of
List-I List-II
crops, and to generate hydroelectric power. Its construction
A. Colorado 1. Aswan
was started in 1960.
B. Damodar 2. Kariba
6. The place where China has started construction of a
C. Nile 3. Panchet dam on Brahmaputra River in Nov. 2010, is
D. Zambezi 4. Hoover
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Code :
(a) Chingdu
(c) Zhuang
(b) Zangmu
(d) Gyangze
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2013
A B C D
Ans. (b)
(a) 1 2 3 4
The Zangmu Dam is a gravity dam on the Yarlung/Zangbo/
(b) 1 3 4 2
Brahmaputra River in Tibet. The dam is apprehended to
(c) 3 4 1 2 reduce the flow of the Brahmaputra river.
(d) 4 3 1 2
7. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013 Dams Rivers
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013 (a) Grand Coulee - Columbia
(a) Kafue the border of U.S. states of Nevada and Arizona. Thus, option
(b) is not correctly matched.
(b) Zambezi
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Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and
hailstorm, etc. occur in the troposphere. The temperature
11. Which of the following protects life on earth from the
harmful radiations of the Sun ?
in this layer decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 (a) Troposphere (b) Ionosphere
meter (1 km) height. This is the most important layer for all (c) Ozone layer (d) Mist
biological activity. (e) All these.
Chhattisgarh P.C.S (Pre) 2013
8. The stratosphere is said to be ideal for flying jet
Ans. (c)
aircraft. This is because-
(a) This layer is rich in ozone which reduces fuel The ozone layer protects us from the harmful radiations of the
consumption Sun. In atmosphere, it is mainly found in the lower portion
(b) The temperature is constant and ideal for aircraft of the Stratosphere from 15–35 km above Earth. Ozone is a
engine efficiency molecule composed of three oxygen atoms. Its colour is blue.
(c) This layer is out of the firing range of antiaircraft guns 12. The function of the ozone layer in the stratosphere is –
(d) The absence of clouds and other weather phenomena (a) To stabilize the global temperature
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 (b) To reduce the frequency of earthquake
Ans. (d) (c) To avoid failure of monsoons
The stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth’s (d) To prevent ultra-violet radiation effect on the ground
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2002
atmosphere, just above the troposphere, and below the
Ans. (d)
mesosphere. The stratosphere is very dry and air of this layer
contains little water vapour. Because of this, Stratosphere is See the explanation of above question.
almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon. 13. Ozone layer refers to –
These conditions are ideal in order to avoid disturbances. Jet (a) The atmospheric condition of Antarctica
aircraft use to fly in this layer. (b) Modern invention done on the planet Saturn
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C. Baguio
D. Hurricanes
3. Japan
4. U.S.A.
followed by a violent storm. Thus, option (b) is the correct
answer.
Code :
17. Which of the following cyclones did not affect India?
A B C D
(a) Aila (b) Nargis
(a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Thane (d) Neelam
(b) 2 3 4 1
U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (b)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019 The tropical cyclones Aila, Thane, and Neelam affected India
Ans. (d) but Nargis cyclone did not affect India. Nargis cyclone mainly
List- I List- II affected the region of Myanmar.
(Different name of (Country) 18. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions
Tropical cyclone) in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What
Willy-Willies Australia
is the reason?
Taifu Japan
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
Baguio Philippines
Hurricanes U.S.A. (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
As per the option, the correct answer would be options (d). (c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions
14. Which of the following scales is used to measure the
I.A.S. (Pre) 2015
damage by a hurricane?
Ans. (a)
(a) Saffir-Simpson Scale (b) Mercalli Scale
(c) Fujita Scale (d) Richter scale The most proximate reason for the absence of cyclone in
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016 South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific region in tropical
Ans. (a) latitude is the low temperature of the sea surface.
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(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
like Cirrocumulus clouds.
Strato-Cumulus-Clouds – These are light brown colour
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007 clouds often found in big round shaped patches.
Ans. (a) Stratus Clouds – They are formed as a result of two opposite
air bodies, coming in contact with each other. They are often
See the explanation of above question. seen during winters in the temperate regions.
4. Air pressure is lowest in : Nimbo-Stratus Clouds – They are found close to the surface
(a) Winter season of the Earth. These black clouds are highly dense in nature
and can be of any shape. It is because of their highly dense
(b) Spring season
nature that they block the sunlight and make the region dark
(c) Autumn season
followed by heavy rainfall.
(d) Summer season
Cumulus Clouds – They are highly dense in nature. Their
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014 shape is elongated and the upper portion of them resembles
Ans. (d) a dome or a cauliflower. These clouds are the signal of the
Air pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by the start of clear weather.
Cumulo-Nimbus-Clouds – These clouds are highly
weight of air on the earth’s surface. The distribution of
diversified and dense in nature. These are a high possibility
air pressure is influenced by temperature of air at a given
of rain, hails and thunderstorms associated with these clouds.
place. Temperature is reversely related with pressure. Due
*Thunder is a process of Thunderstorm. In reality,
to highest temperature in summer, pressure is lowest on
thunderstorm are local storms in which the air ascends with
earth. As altitude increases the temperature and air pressure
high velocity. Lighting and thunder is witnessed followed by
decreases. Distribution of air pressure is influenced by
heavy rainfall. Lighting causes a sudden and high increase
temperature and other kinetic factor (i.e. earth rotation, water
in the temperature of the air and there is a sudden expansion
vapor, altitude) etc. in the air leading to thunder.
CB–164 General Studies World Geography
1. Clouds are the result of – 5. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the sky is
(a) Evaporation (b) Normal temp. lapse rate produced by the –
(c) Catabatic lapse rate (d) Condensation 1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
Ans. (d) 3. violent upward movement of air and water particles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Clouds are formed as a result of the process of condensation. (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
Conversion of water in the gaseous state to a liquid or solid (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
state is called condensation. clouds are a collection of very I.A.S. (Pre) 2013
tiny droplets of water or ice crystals formed by condensation Ans. (d)
of water vapour in the atmosphere.
During a thunderstorm, thunder is the sound caused by a
2. Which of the following cloud is responsible for highly lightning discharge. Lightning heats the air in its path and
intense rain? causes a large over-pressure of the air within its channel. The
(a) Cumulus (b) Cumulonimbus channel expands supersonically into the surrounding air as
(C) Nimbostratus (d) Cirrostratus a shockwave and creates an acoustic signal that is heard as
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003 thunder. Hence none of the above options is correct.
Ans. (c)
Nimbostratus clouds are found very near to the surface of the The Winds
Earth. They are dark grey with a ragged base. Nimbostratus
clouds are associated with continuous rain. *The movement of air as a result of the difference in
horizontal air pressure is known as Wind. Wind always flow
3. Highest altitude clouds are -
from a high- pressure area to a low-pressure area. If the earth
(a) Altocumulus (b) Altostratus
was still and flat the winds would have blown from a high-
(c) Cumulus (d) Cirrostratus
pressure area directly to a low-pressure area on the Isobaric
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009
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Ans. (d) lines at an angle of 90o. However, the earth is geoid in shape
and rotates on its own axis. Hence winds under the influence
Cirrostratus are the highest altitude clouds. These are mainly of dynamic forces keep shifting their trajectory.
formed at an altitude of over 18000 feet. Types of Winds – There are basically three types of wind-
4. Consider the following climatic and geographical Planetary Winds – Winds blowing constantly in a particular
phenomena: direction throughout the year are called Planetary Winds. The
1. Condensation main planetary winds are – Trade Winds, Westerlies and
2. High temperature and humidity Polar Winds. *Trade Winds are winds blowing from sub-
3. Orography tropical high-pressure belt toward equatorial low-pressure
4. Vertical wind belts in both the hemisphere. *Westerlies- They blow from
Thunder clouds development is due to which of these sub-tropical high-pressure belts (30o-35o) towards temperate
phenomena? low-pressure belts (60o-65o) in both the hemisphere. Since
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 there is more landmass in northern Hemisphere as compared
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 to southern Hemisphere the westerlies in the former case are
I.A.S. (Pre) 2002 more complex, and they are less influential in summers as
Ans. (c) compared to winter. *Due to the presence of less landmass
Thunder cloud is a process of a thunderstorm. In fact, in the southern hemisphere the westerlies travel at such a
thunderstorms are a local lightning storm that develops in high speed that they become stormy. It is because of this
hot, humid tropical areas like India very frequently. The high intensity of the westerlies in the southern hemisphere
rising temperature produces strong upward rising winds. that around 40o latitudes they are known as Roaring Forties,
These winds carry water droplets upwards, where they around 50o latitude they are called Furious Fifties and around
freeze(condense), and fall down again. The swift movement 60o latitude they are called Shrieking Sixties. *Wellington
of the falling water droplets along with the rising air creates (New Zealand) is the only Capital in the world that lies in
lightning and sound. So it is clear that except Orography, all the path of Roaring Forties. *Polar Winds blow from polar
are related to thunder clouds. high-pressure belt to sub-polar low-pressure belt.
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tropical high-pressure belt. This belt is mobile in nature.
During summers, the trade winds blow in these latitudes
Coriolis who described this force. It deflects the wind to the
right(clockwise) direction in the Northern Hemisphere and
and in winter these latitudes come under the influence of
to the left(anti-clock) in the Southern Hemisphere. Hence,
Westerlies. It means that the westerlies blow towards North
East from this region and Trade Winds blow towards South both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is
West from this region. the correct explanation of assertion (A).
1. Consider the following statements : 3. Assertion (A) : Wind patterns are clockwise in
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the southern hemisphere and anti-
oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing clockwise in northern hemisphere.
to the influence of trade winds. Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern in the northern and the southern
sections of oceans warmer than the western hemispheres are governed by
sections. coriolis effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct explanation of (A).
I.A.S. (Pre) 2021 (b) Both (A) are (R) are individually true, but (R) is not
Ans. (c) the correct explanation of (A).
The direction of trade winds in the tropics is from east to west, (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
due to this, when the warm terrestrial wind reaches the ocean (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
located to the west of the landmass, it raise the temperature of M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
those oceans. In the temperate zone, the westerly wind blows Ans. (d)
from west to east, in which the eastern sections of the oceans
become more warm. So both the statements are correct. See the explanation of above question.
1. Selva forests are characterized by : Temperate coniferous forests cover the highest percentage
(a) Broad leaf evergreen of forest area in the world. Temperate Coniferous forest is
(b) Broad leaf deciduous mainly found in high latitudes.
(c) Coniferous evergreen 4. Which of the following countries has a constitutional
(d) Coniferous deciduous provision for maintaining 70% of its geographical area
U.P. B.E.O. (Pre) 2019 under forest?
Ans. (a) (a) Maldives (b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan (d) Afghanistan
Forests found in the Amazon River Basin in Brazil are
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016
called Selva or Selva's forests. These forests are located in
Ans. (c)
the equatorial region. Due to high temperature and above-
average rainfall (250 cm) throught the year, dense and broad Bhutan has made constitutional provision for maintaining
leaf evergreen forests are found here. Thus, option (a) is the forest over 60% of its total geographical area. Presently, about
correct answer. 72.48 percent of Bhutan's total area is under forest cover.
According to data of FAO Yearbook of Forest Product, 2018 Due to the high temperature and more rainfall in the tropical
region throughout the year, there is a diversity of trees in
wood fuel production of the above countries is as follows-
the forest of this area. here epiphytes are also found, and the
India (First), China (Second) and Brazil (Third). fallen leaves rapidly rot and decompose.
13. Mediterranean climate is not found in which among Of the four shaded areas in the map, that which is
the following town ? characterised by hot dry summer, mild and moist winters
(a) Los Angeles (b) Rome and seasonal reversal of winds is the areas labelled.
(c) Cape town (d) New York (a) 1 (b) 2
Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2003
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (d)
I.A.S. (Pre) 1997
Mediterranean climate extends 300-400 latitudes around the Ans. (a)
Mediterranean Sea and is experienced in the western parts
of continents besides Rome. Characteristics mentioned above like hot, dry summer, mild
These areas are – and moist winter and seasonal reversal of winds describe
South California, Los Angeles in North America, Central the geographic characteristics of Mediterranean climate.
Chile in South America, Cape Town in South Africa & South California (USA) mentioned as 1 in the above map is in
Australia.. the Mediterranean region which has all the characteristics
Thus, it is clear that New York, located on the east coast
mentioned above.
of the USA does not fall under the Mediterranean climate.
17. In which among the following countries, rainfall occurs
14. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people
in the winter season?
used to be nomadic herders." The above statement
CB–178 General Studies World Geography
(a) China (b) Norway The correctly matched regions with the related type of
(c) Brazil (d) Nigeria climate are as follows :
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1993 (Region) (Type of Climate)
Ans. (b) California (U. S. A.) - Mediterranean
West Australia - Hot Desert
Norway comes under the Western European type of climate Bangladesh - Tropical Monsoon
(Western climate of both the hemispheres in continents Siberia (Russia) - Cold Temperate
between 400 -650 latitudes). In this climatic region, rainfall Hence, the correct code is option (b).
occurs in sufficient and equal quantity throughout the year. 20. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer
Whereas China comes under China type climate although from the codes given below :
here also rains occur throughout the year winter season is List-I List-II
relatively dry. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. (Type of climate) (Region)
A. Equatorial 1. California
18. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
B. Mediterranean 2. Bangladesh
(a) Wet winter dry summer - Italy
C. Monsoon 3. Sudan
(b) Wet throughout the year - Sudan
D. Savannah 4. Congo
(c) Wet summer dry winter - Iran
Code :
(d) Dry throughout the year - Chile A B C D
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004 (a) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (a) (b) 2 3 1 4
Most of Italy has a Mediterranean type of climate, which (c) 1 2 3 4
has, rainy winters and hot, dry summer. Sudan has a tropical (d) 4 3 2 1
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
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climate. Summer temperature often exceeds 43oC in the
desert zones, and rainfall is negligible. Iran has a hot, dry
Ans. (a)
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2002
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(c) Semi-arid tropical (d) Temperate marine
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995
soil > Sand. Podzol is a light colour soil of wood regions,
mostly found in a cold temperate climate.
Ans. (a) * Chernozem soil is found in grassland and transitional
areas. They are mostly found in a temperate steppe climate.
The given graph indicates a wet and dry tropical zone of
They are also found in humid grasslands. * Laterite soil is
the world because the temperature ranges here from 15o to
found warm moist areas. The top layer of this soil has oxides
25oC, with the heaviest rainfall in the month of April, May
of iron and salts of aluminium present. * Chestnut soil is
and June and that also not exceeding 25 cm. Hence, option
found in dry areas. It is dark brown in colour and has low
(a) is the correct option.
humus content as compares to Chernozen soil. *Sierozem
37. Hekistotherms are plants growing in – soil is found in deserts of mid-latitudes.
(a) bright light (b) high temperature *Terra Rossa soil is a reddish silty soil, formed as a result
(c) very low temperature (d) very low light of weathering of limestones.
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 *Praire soil is found in the grassland areas of temperate
Ans. (c) regions. The soil is a mixture of Chernozem soil and greyish
Hekistotherms are plants which grow in very low-temperature Podzol soil.
areas like mountains and Alpine forests. *Soil conservation is not only about protecting the soil from
eroding but also about taking measures to conserve soil
The Soil fertility. To be precise sustainable use of soil is known soil
conservation.
*Soils are formed as a result of disintegration and *Soil erosion is a process through which top layer of soil
decomposition of loosened up and unorganized rock along with nutrients is eroded from one place to another.
materials, fossils of flora and fauna, water and gas. Bedrock, *Contour Bunding is a method used to conserve soil in hilly
climatic and biotic factors play a vital role in the formation areas. During rainfall, it prevents the soil from washing away.
of soil. The color, formation and minerals of the soil depend Under Contour Banding terrace like structures are made on
14.
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Within biological communities, some species are
(B) Maasai
(C) Bedouins
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Canada
important in determining the ability of a large number (D) Bushman 4. Kenya
of other species to persist in the community. Such Code :
species are called: A B C D
(a) Keystone species (b) Allopatric species (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) Sympatric species (d) Threatened species (b) 4 3 2 1
I.A.S. (Pre) 2000 (c) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (a) (d) 2 4 1 3
Keystone species are a pioneer or basic species. Since U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2009
community life is their way of living, they decide the ability Ans. (c)
of other species to persist in the community. Eskimo tribe lives in Tundra region of Canada & Greenland,
the Maasai live in Kenya, the Bedouin tribe lives in Saudi
15. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
Arabia and the Bushmen tribe lives in Kalahari desert
(a) Eskimo - Canada
(Botswana some parts of South Africa and Namibia).
(b) Oraon - Japan
(c) Lapps - India 18. Eskimos are inhabitants of –
(d) Gonds - Africa (a) Canada (b) Mongolia
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2001 (c) Malaya (d) Sri Lanka
Ans. (a) 44th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2000
The Eskimos have traditionally inhabited in the Northern Ans. (a)
Russia, Alaska , Canada and Greenland. There are 2 groups
See the explanation of above question.
of Eskimos which are :
(1) Inuit : These are inhabitants of Canada, Eastern Alaska 19. The major island, where Eskimos live, is:
and Greenland. (a) New Guinea (b) Hawaii
34. The Inuit people are not found in – 38. One of the following pairs is a mismatch. Find it.
(a) Alaska (b) Greenland (a) Masai - Central Eastern Africa
(c) Canada (d) Sweden (b) Sakai - Malaysia
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009 (c) Bedouin - Arabian Peninsual
Ans. (d) (d) Kirghiz - Central Asia
Inuit are groups of culturally similar indigenous people (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
66th B.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2020
inhabiting the Arctic regions of Denmark (Greenland),
Ans. (b)
Canada, Russia and Alaska.
Masai - Central Eastern Africa
35. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Sakai - Indonesia
(a) Fulani-West Africa Bedouin - Arabian Peninsual
(b) Bantu-Sahara Kirghiz - Central Asia
(c) Masai-East Africa
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(d) Nuba- Sudan
U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2012
39. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?
(Place) (Tribe)
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010 (a) Alaska Koryak
(b) Borneo Punan
Ans. (b)
(c) Arab Desert Ruwala
Tribes mentioned in question and their habitats are as (d) Sweden and Finland Lapps
follows: U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021
(Tribes) (Habitat) Ans. (a)
Fulani - West Africa The Koryak tribe is not a tribe of Alaska, but of Russia, whose
Bantu - East, Central and Southern Africa population is also found in Ukraine. According to the 2010
Masai - East Africa Russian census, their total population was 7953.
Nuba - Sudan
The Languages
36. Which of the following region is famous for ‘Lapps’
Tribe? The Linguistic Census has two important parts – (A)L-1 is
the population associated with primary language or mother
(a) Alaska (b) Scandinavia
tongue, and (B)L-2 is the population associated with not
(c) Greenland (d) Iceland
only the mother tongue but also with a second language
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Mains) 2010
as well. The combined population of L-1 and L-2 is the
Ans. (b)
total population of people speaking a particular language.
The Sami (Lapps) tribe of Arctic Europe lives Norway, According to the primary source of the linguistic census
Sweden, Finland and the Russian Kola Peninsula. This region – Ethnologue (24nd edition, 2021). The top 8 most spoken
is known as the Scandinavian region. languages of the world are –
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(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
the four leading producers of rice in the world are - 1. China
(213.61 million tonnes), 2. India (178.30 million tonnes), 3.
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016 Bangladesh (54.90 million tonnes), 4. Indonesia (54.64
Ans. (c) million tonnes), 5. Vietnam (42.75 million tonnes).
* According to latest updates – FAO 2020, Australia has the
English and Urdu, both, are the official languages of Pakistan.
Punjabi is the most widely spoken language, but not an largest productivity of Rice (100312 hg/ha) followed by
official language. Tajikistan (88805 hg/ha). *Wheat is basically a temperate
Bangladesh is noted for the ethnic homogeneity of its crop. Its cultivation spreads up to 60o latitudes in Northern
population. Hemisphere and up to 40o latitudes in Southern Hemisphere.
Wheat requires an average temperature of 10oC during
8. Which of the following is not correctly matched? germination and an average temperature between 15o-20oC
(Language) (Country) during the development of grains. A timely rainfall between
(a) Danish Denmark 20 cm to 70 cm is also required. *According to FAO, 2020 the
(b) Dutch Netherlands top four leading producers of wheat in the world are – China
(c) Mandarin China (134.25 million tonnes), India (107.59 million tonnes), Russia
(d) Bahasa Thailand (85.89 million tonnes), USA (49.69 million tonnes).
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2021 *Sugarcane requires a sub-tropical climate especially a
Ans. (d) monsoonal climate where the average temperature is between
The correct match is as follows : 21oC-27oC with average rainfall between 75 to 150 cm.
Language Country According to FAO 2020, the top five leading producers of
Danish Denmark sugarcane in the world are – 1. Brazil (757.11 million tonnes),
Dutch Netherlands 2. India (370.50 million tonnes), 3. China (108.65 million
Mandarin China tonnes), 4. Pakistan (81 million tonnes), 5. Thailand (74.96
Bahasa Indonesia million tonnes). *Sugar beet is a plant of temperate climate.
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As per the FAO, 2020 data the given countries area under
rice cultivation are as follows –
(a) Japan
(c) Korea
(b) China
(d) India
(Country) Area (in hectares) U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
China - 30341784 Ans. (b)
India - 45000000
Japan - 1462000 The cultivation of hybrid rice is most popular in China. In
Phillippines - 4718896 China, hybrid rice is estimated to be cultivated on more than
Therefore, as per data India has maximum area of Cultivation 50% of rice-growing land.
under rice.
10. The 'Rice Gene Bank' of the world is situated in –
6. Arrange the following countries in the descending
(a) China (b) Philippines
order of their wheat production and select the correct
answer from the code given below : (c) Japan (d) India
1. China 2. India U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
3. Russia 4. U.S.A. Ans. (b)
Code :
The Rice Gene Bank is situated in the International Rice
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3
Research Institute in Los Banos, Philippines.
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
11. Which of the following countries accounts for about
Ans. (b)
two-third of its export earnings from rice trade?
Option (b) was the correct descending order of wheat (a) Japan (b) Thailand
producing countries when this question was asked. However, (c) Myanmar (d) Indonesia
according to FAO data 2020, after China and India, Russia U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2013
is the third largest producer of wheat and USA is in fourth U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010
place. So, in present situation option (a) is correct.
Ans. (*)
12. World’s largest producer of sugarcane is – The leading producer of cotton in the world was the USA after
(a) Brazil (b) China China at the time when the question was asked. According
(c) India (d) Indonesia to recent (2019) data of FAO, India is the largest cotton lint
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008 producer followed by to China, USA, Brazil & Pakistan.
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following countries has the highest per
India is the second largest producer of sugarcane and the
hectare production (2014) of cotton in the world?
largest consumer of it worldwide. Brazil is the largest
producer of sugarcane. (a) Israel (b) Mexico
According to FAO data 2020, the leading producer of (c) Pakistan (d) Australia
sugarcane are – U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
i. Brazil 757.12 million tonnes Ans. (d)
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ii.
iii.
India
China
370.50 million tonnes
108.65 million tonnes
Australia has the highest per hectare production of cotton
(2217 kg/ha) in the world.
iv. Pakistan 81.00 million tonnes
13. Which one of the following countries is the second 18. The highest per acre yield of cotton among the
largest producer of sugarcane in the World? following countries is recorded in:
(a) Brazil (b) Cuba (a) U.S.A. (b) China
(c) India (d) China (c) Pakistan (d) India
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
According to 2020 food and Agriculture organization data, When the question was asked option (b) China is the correct
India is the second largest producer of sugarcane in the World
answer. According to the data of USDA foreign agriculture
after Brazil.
service, in the year 2020-21(P) cotton production was 1976
14. Two largest producers of beets in the world are – kg/hg in China, 462 kg/hg in India, 950 kg/hg in USA and
(a) Belgium and China (b) France and Russia 445 kg/hg in Pakistan.
(c) Germany and the U.S.A. (d) Turkey and Ukraine
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010 19. Which of the following countries is the largest producer
Ans. (b) exporter of castor-oilseeds ?
(a) France (b) India
When the question was asked option (b) was correct.
(c) Japan (d) China
According to data of FAO 2020, Russia and USA are the
largest producers of sugar beets in the world. Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following countries produces sugar
from sugar-beets only ? According to FAO 2020 data the largest producer & exporter
(a) France (b) Ukraine of castor oil seed is India.
29. The largest rubber cultivation is done in – 32. Large coffee plantations in Brazil are called
(a) India (a) Estate (b) Estancias
(b) China (c) Kalkhozes (d) Fazendas
(c) Amazon and Zaire basins U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017
Ans. (d)
(d) England
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010 Fazenda is a type of plantation found in Brazil where coffee
Ans. (a) is produced in south-eastern regions of Brazil. Fazendas were
concentrated primarily in the north-eastern region during
As per the given options 'India' is the correct answer, when the
the colonial period (16th-18th centuries) where sugar was
question was asked. According to recent data of FAO, 2020,
produced.
the largest rubber producing is done Thailand, Indonesia,
Vietnam & India. 33. The highest coffee producing country in the world is :
(a) Bolivia (b) Brazil
30. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned
(c) China (d) India
because of the disease :
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2012
(a) Leaf blight (b) Leaf spot
Ans. (b)
(c) Leaf Rust (d) Rot
I.A.S. (Pre) 1995 According to FAO, 2020 top coffee producing countries are:
(1) Brazil (3700.23 thousand tonnes)
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Ans. (c)
During the decade of 1870-80, due to the epidemic, called
(2) Vietnam (1763.48 thousand tonnes)
(3) Colombia (833.40 thousand tonnes)
leaf rust, the cultivation of coffee was abandoned in most of (4) Indonesia (773.41 thousand tonnes)
the British colonies. This epidemic first started in Sri Lanka (5) Ethiopia (584.79 thousand tonnes)
during the year 1867. Hemileia vastatrix is a fungus of the (6) Peru (376.73 thousand tonnes)
order Pucciniales that causes coffee leaf rust (CLR), a disease (7) Honduras (364.55 thousand tonnes)
that is devastating to a susceptible coffee plantation. (8) India (298.00 thousand tonnes)
31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 34. The two leading producers of coffee in the world are :
from the codes given below : (a) Brazil and Colombia (b) Brazil and Vietnam
List-I List-II (c) Mexico and India (d) Ethiopia and Mexico
(Country) (Principal Primary Export) U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
A. Chad 1. Cotton Ans. (b)
B. Niger 2. Uranium
According to data of FAO 2020 leading producer of Coffee
C. Rwanda 3. Petroleum
(green) in the world are as follows:
D. Benin 4. Coffee
(1) Brazil, (2) Vietnam, (3) Colombia, (4) Indonesia,
Code :
(5) Ethiopia, (6) Peru, (7) Honduras, (8) India.
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 35. Arrange the following coffee producing countries in
(b) 2 4 1 3 descending order of their coffee production (2016,
(c) 3 2 4 1 quantity) and select the correct answer from the codes
(d) 1 3 2 4 given below :
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017 1. Colombia 2. Vietnam
Ans. (c) 3. Brazil 4. Indonesia
62. Blue Green Algae is used as biofertilizer to induce 65. What is Podzol ?
which of the following crop production ? (a) Soil found in Coniferous forest region
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (b) Soil of arid region
(c) Gram (d) Musturd (c) Very fertile alluvial soil
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A (Spl) (Pre) 2010 (d) None of the above
Jharkhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2003
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Blue Green Algae is used as biofertilizer to induce paddy
Podzol soil is found near 600 North latitudes in Eurasia and
crop production while Azotobactor is used for Wheat,
North America's coniferous forest of Taiga region.
Maize, Mustard, Potato, Cotton and other vegetable Crops.
Aspergillus is used as biofertilizer for Sorghum, Millet, 66. ‘Mocha’ coffee is grown in:
Sugarcane, Maize, etc. (a) Iraq (b) Brazil
(c) Argentina (d) Yemen
63. 'Alfalfa' is : R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2010
(a) A kind of grass (b) A tribe
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(c) An animal (d) A town
Ans. (d)
Mocha Coffee is grown in Yemen. Café mocha takes its name
M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
from Mocha seaport from where it was exported.
Ans. (a)
67. Which one of the following is not found in Tea?
Alfalfa (Medicago Sativa) is a plant primarily native to (a) Theanine (b) Caffeine
Asia, and is considered to be one of the first known herbs (c) Tannin (d) Morphine
to mankind. It is naturally high in many essential vitamins U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A (Spl) (Pre) 2010
and Minerals, including A,D,E,K and family of B-vitamin; Ans. (d)
Biotin, Calcium, Folic Acid, Iron, Magnesium and Pottasium. Tea was first used as a medicinal drink in China. Theanine,
caffeine, polyphenols, tannin, theobromine, theophylline, etc
64. Assertion (A) : There are no tea plantations in any
are found in tea while Morphine is not found in tea.
African country.
Reason (R) : Tea Plants need fertile soil with high 68. Under the international agreement on agriculture the
humus. Green Box includes economic assistance for
1. Agricultural Research
Code :
2. Fertilizer
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the
3. Irrigation
correct explanation of (A)
4. Plant Protection
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
the correct explanation of (A). Codes :
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
I.A.S. (Pre) 2007 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
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Heroin production is obtained from Opium resin.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
71. Which of the following countries are included in the explanation of (A).
“Golden Crescent” ? (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
1. Afghanistan 2. Iran explanation of (A).
3. Iraq 4. Pakistan (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Code : U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 Ans. (a)
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 Commercial Viticulture is specific to the Mediterranean
Ans. (d) region of Europe. The major cause of Viticulture at large scale
is the use of 85% of its grapes production in wine.
The Golden Crescent is the name given to one of Asia’s
two principal areas of illicit opium production located at 75. Which of the following regions of the world, the
Central and South Asia. Golden crescent includes three production of citrus fruits is well developed?
nations, Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan, whose mountainous (a) Monsoon regions
peripheries define the crescent. Iraq is not included in this (b) Tropical high lands regions
Golden Crescent. (c) Mediterranean regions
(d) Equatorial regions
72. In which of the following group of countries maize is
U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2020
used as staple food ?
Ans. (c)
(a) Western Europe (b) Russia
(c) Middle Africa (d) South-East Asia The production of citrus fruits is high in the Mediterranean
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 regions. The Mediterranean climate region is also known as
Ans. (c) the subtropical dry-summer climate region.
88. Which one amongst the following has the largest See the explanation of above question.
livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil (b) China 92. The correct descending order of the leading producers
(c) India (d) USA of milk is:
I.A.S. (Pre) 2008 (a) China, India, Russia, U.S.A
Ans. (b) (b) India, U.S.A China, Russia
Livestock population (in million) for the given options, (c) U.S.A., India, China, Russia
according to FAO statistics. (d) India, China, U.S.A., Russia
(Country) (2007) (2020) U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2011
Brazil 272.69 304.15 Ans. (b)
China 847.63 829.58
India 539.79 545.33 The correct descending order of the leading milk producers
USA 182.53 201.69 (2011) is– India, U.S.A., China, Russia. According to data
So the answer to this question will be option (b) China. FAO 2020. Top 5 milk producers are 1. India, 2. USA, 3.
Pakistan, 4. China, 5. Brazil.
89. Which of the following has destroyed the image of 'beef'
as a safe and healthy food in Europe and America? 93. Which one of the following countries ranks second in
(a) Bird flu disease the production of Corn in the world ?
(b) Mad cow disease
(a) Brazil (b) Mexico
(c) Methods used in Pig farming
(c) Argentian (d) China
(d) Poultry practices
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
According to World Mineral Production 2015-19, China 1. Which one is the second largest metal present in the
ranks first in highest coal production in the year 2019. earth's womb?
5. The first three leading producers of iron ore in the The correct match of list-I with list-II is as follows :
world are: Iron Ore region Producer Country
(a) Australia, China, U.S.A. (b) China, Russia, Australia Lorraine – France
(c) Russia, U.S.A., China (d) U.S.A., Russia, U.K. Midland – U.K
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997 Kiruna – Sweden
Ans. (b) Kokshetau – Kazakhstan
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Ans. (d)
R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2013
eastern coast of Brazil, especially from the Espirito Santo
region. Thorium is also found South-Eastern and Western
mountains regions of USA, Nigeria, South Africa Union,
Romania was the country in the world with an oil production Russian Federation and Indonesia (Sumatra).
of 275 tonnes officially registered in 1857 in international 1. The leading producer of Uranium in the world is –
Statistics. The first commercial oil well in Romania was (a) Australia (b) Canada
drilled in 1857. (c) Kazakhstan (d) India
U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010
19. Which crop group out of the following contains crop/
Ans. (c)
crops that cannot be used for biofuel production?
According to the World Nuclear Association, presently
(a) Sugarcane, Corn, Mustards
Kazakhstan is the largest producer of Uranium (2020).
(b) Jatropha, Sugarcane, Palm
Australia and Namibia are at 2nd and 3rd place respectively.
(c) Lentil, Sugarbeet, Wheat
Notably, prior to 2009, Canada was the leading producer of
(d) Soyabean, Corn Rapeseed Uranium.
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Re. Exam) (Pre) 2013
2. Which one of the following countries is the largest
Ans. (c) producer of uranium in the world ?
Lentil, Sugarbeet and Wheat are crops that cannot be used (a) Kazakhstan (b) Canada
for biofuel production. Biofuel is a fuel that is derived from (c) Australia (d) France
biomass, that is plant material or animal waste. Sugarcane, (e) None of the above/ More than one of the above
65th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2019
Corn Soyabean, Rapeseed, Jatropha are used for biofuel
Ans. (a)
production. Biofuel is cost effective and alternative to
petroleum. See the explanation of above question
See the explanation of above question. Uranium city is a northern settlement in Saskatchewan,
Canada. It is located near the north shore of lake Athabasca,
4. Which of the following countries is the biggest in Canada. It is 230 meter above sea level.
producer of Atomic Minerals in the World ?
(a) Russia (b) China 9. Radium is extracted from the mines of –
(c) U.S.A. (d) Canada (a) Limestone (b) Pitchblende
Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006 (c) Rutile (d) Hematite
Ans. (d) 39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994
See the explanation of above question. Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following is not among the major Radium is a radioactive element with symbol Ra. It is
resources of Russia? extracted from Uranium ore Pitchblende.
(a) Coal (b) Iron-ore
10. Which one of the following countries is known for very
(c) Diamonds (d) Uranium
important uranium ore deposits ?
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2017
Ans. (d) (a) Canada (b) China
(c) Pakistan (d) Zaire
When the question was asked option (d) was correct answer.
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Russia possesses rich reserves of iron ore, manganese, Ans. (a)
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
11. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched: The discovery of Lithium mineral in Afghanistan was
Mineral Producer compared with the discovery of the oil field in Iran.
(a) Copper Arizona 15. The leading producer of Titanium in the world is
(b) Coal Karatzas
(a) India (b) Japan
(c) Iron ore Rasatnoora
(d) Petroleum Donbas (c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
Copper is found in Arizona, USA. Rest of the pairs are not When the question was asked, Russia was the leading
correctly matched. producer of Titanium in the world. At present, according
12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? to the figures of Mineral Commodity Summaries, 2021
(a) Kimberley - Diamond data, China is the leading producer of Titanium mineral
(b) Witwatersrand - Gold concentrates.
(c) Katanga - Copper 16. The biggest producer of Bauxite in the world is –
(d) Saar - Iron Ore
(a) Australia (b) Brazil
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2007
Ans. (d) (c) China (d) India
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013
The correct match of minerals and their producers is as follows: Ans. (a)
(Region) (Mineral)
Kimberley - Diamond According to the data of Indian Mineral Year Book-2012
Witwatersrand - Gold Australia is the leading producer of Bauxite. According to
Katanga - Copper Mineral Commodity Summaries 2021, Australia continued
Saar - Coal
to be the major producer of Bauxite.
Butte - Silver
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Anshan (China)
Shanghai (China)
– Iron and Steel
– Textile and Machinery
2.
Anshan -
The match of given cities with concerned Industry and of 13. Which one of the following is not matched properly?
some other cities are as follows: (a) Detroit - Motorcar
Anshan (China) - Iron and steel industry (b) Hawana - Cigar
(c) Sheffield - Cutlery
Hawana (Cuba) - Cigar Industry
(d) Venice - Ship building
Detroit (USA) - Automobile
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1996
Nagoya (Japan) - Cotton Textile
Ans. (d)
Chelyabinsk (Russia) - Metallurgy and Military
Machinery See the explanation of above question.
Milan (Italy) - Silk textile industry 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Moscow (Russia) - Metal, Chemical and using the codes given below the lists :
Machinery industry List-I List-II
Osaka (Japan) - Cotton textile (Centre) (Industry)
Sheffield (England) - Cutlery industry A. Anshan 1. Cutlery
Venice City (Italy) - Glass industry B. Glasgow 2. Paper
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Glasgow (Scotland)
Ottawa (Canada)
-
-
Shipbuilding industry
Papermaking industry
C. Ottawa
D. Sheffield
3. Ship building
4. Iron andSteel
Code :
Thus, it is clear that option (b) is the correct answer.
A B C D
10. Which of the given is not correctly matched ? (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Anshan - Iron and Steel (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(b) Detroit - Automobile
(d) 2 3 1 4
(c) Chelyabinsk - Shipbuilding industry U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005
(d) Milan - Silk textile industry Ans. (b)
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2001 See the explanation of above question.
Ans. (c) 15. Which one of the follwoing is not correctly matched?
See the explanation of above question. Shipbuilding Centre State (U.S.A.)
(a) Houston - Texas
11. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (b) Sparrows Point - Maryland
(a) Anshan – Iron and Steel (c) New Orleans - Louisiana
(d) Camden - Florida
(b) Detroit - Automobiles
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016
(c) Moscow – Shipbuilding Ans. (d)
(d) Osaka - Textiles
Camden ship building centre was an American ship building
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2005
company that operated in Yorkship village of city of Camden,
Ans. (c) New York not in Florida. Thus option (d) is not correctly
See the explanation of above question. matched. Rest are correctly matched.
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17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below :
(c) i
(d) iii
ii
ii
iii
iv
iv
i
List -I List-II R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2016
(Industrial Region) (Country) Ans. (d)
A. Kinki 1. China
The correct matched of given industrial region with their
B. Canton 2. Japan respective countries are as follows :
C. Lorraine 3. Brazil (Industrial Regions) (Country)
D. Belo Horizonte 4. France Lancashire Region - United Kingdom
Code : Ruhr Region - Germany
A B C D Keihin Region - Japan
(a) 2 1 4 3 Southern Appalachian - United States of
(b) 2 1 3 4 America Region
(c) 3 2 1 4 20. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(d) 4 3 2 1 (a) Lorren Industrial Region - Italy
U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016 (b) Ruhr Industrial Region - Germany
Ans. (a) (c) Bristal Industrial Region - France
(d) Saxony Industrial Region - United Kingdom
The correctly matched of industrial region with their
U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016
respective countries are as follows : Ans. (b)
(Industrial Region) Country
Correct match is as follows:
Kinki - Japan
Lorren Industrial Region - France
Canton - China Ruhr Industrial Region - Germany
Lorraine - France Bristal Industrial Region - The United Kingdom
Belo Horizonte - Brazil Saxony Industrial Region - Germany
23.
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Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
(c) U.S.A. (d) Russia At present, Japan is one of the top economies of the world.
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005 It is due to its industrial development. In this competitive
Ans. (a) time, Japan has maintained its credibility due to its high
China is a leading producer of cotton textiles in the world. technologies. Due to the lack of bioenergy sources and
When the question was asked. According to data of Ministry Minerals, it is dependent on the imported materials. The
of Textile 2020-21 (Projected) India with 25% of global industrial revolution was started in Britain, not in Japan.
cotton production stood at first place. In the year 2019-20, Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
India textile industry has contributed 7% to India's Industrial 27. Which one of the following pairs is not correct ?
production (reference price). It contributed 2% to India's GDP
(a) Ruhr Industrial Region – Germany
and employed more than 45 million people in the year 2019-
(b) Flanders Industrial Region – Belgium and France
20. The sector accounted for 12% of India's export earning
(c) Scotland Industrial Region – Sweden
in the year 2019-20.
(d) New England Industrial Region – U.S.A.
24. Which one of the following is an example of 'Footloose'
U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013
industry?
Ans. (c)
(a) Oil Refinery (b) Sugar
In the given options, Scotland Industrial Area is not in
(c) Software (d) Aluminium
U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2013 Sweden, it is situated in the United Kingdom. Other options
Ans. (c) are correctly matched.
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*The Highways are better developed and proliferated in
(in 2018), the top 5 countries are - America > Russia > India
> China > Canada. United States of America (according to
developed countries as compared to Developing Countries. data of the year 2018) has railway line (total route-km) of
*Trans Canadian Highway connects the city of Saint 15,0462 km. Similarily, 85,626 km in Russia, 68,443 km in
Johns located in the eastern coast of Canada to Vancouver India and 67,515 km in China. *The world’s longest railway
city in Columbia. *Alaska Highway begins in Dawson route is Transsiberian Railway (about 9300 km.). Starting
Creek, British Columbia and runs to Delta Junction, Alaska. from West of Eurasia in Leningrad, it connects the city of
*Pan American Highway connects South America, Middle St. Petersberg to Vladivostok which is located in the eastern
Americas to USA and Canada. Stuart Highway connects coast of Pacific Ocean. *Trans Andes is the most important
Darwin in the Northern Territory of Australia, to Melbourne rail route of South America. It connects Valparaiso in Chile
in Victoria via Alice spring and Tennant Greek. *China is a to Buenos Aries in Argentina. *Orient Express is the most
large country whose important cities are connected via road important rail route of Europe. It passes through 8 major
networks. The main highway of Russia connects its capital countries of Europe. Orient Express connects LC Haure and
Moscow to Irkutsk city of the Siberian region. *The Capital Paris to the Capital of Turkey i.e. Instanbul. *The Trans-
of Egypt, Kahira is connected to Cape Town in South Africa European Railway connects the capital of France Paris to
through an intercontinental highway. *The commercial air Warsaw (Poland). *The construction of Canadian Pacific
transport was started by USA in the year 1914, which later Railway completed in the year 1885. It starts from St. Johns
proliferated to different parts of the world. Harbour which is located on the Atlantic least in the eastern
*There is a dense network of air routes in Western Europe, side of Canada and ends up in Vancouver via Montreal.
Eastern USA and South East Asia. Major air routes are *Trans–Australian Railway connects Sydney in the east
centred in some important places. Among these, some to Perth in the West.
important locations are London, Paris, Rome, Moscow, *Waterways is a relatively inexpensive medium of travel.
Ans. (a)
European trans-continental railway travel from Paris to
Warsaw. Trans-Andean railway is the most important rail
route of South America. It travels from Valparaiso to Buenos
Aires of Argentina. The Trans-Siberian railway is the longest
(about 9300 km.) railway in the world. It has connected
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 Moscow with Vladivostok. Orient Express is most important
(c) 5, 4, 2, 3 (d) 5, 1, 3, 2 rail route of Europe. It runs across eight countries of Europe.
I.A.S. (Pre) 2000 It connects Paris & Le Harare to Istanbul.
Ans. (c) 9. Which one of the following cities is not located on the
Trans-Siberian rail route?
The Indian airlines plane IC-814, which was hijacked after
(a) Kazan (b) Omsk
its initial take off from Kathmandu in December 1999, landed (c) Sochi (d) Chita
at Amritsar airport marked "5" in the map, then in Lahore U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019
marked "4" in the map, then in Dubai marked "2" in the map Ans. (c)
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and finally landed at Kandahar airport marked "3" in the map. Cities located on the Trans-Siberian rail route from west
to east are St. Petersburg, Moscow, Kazan, Yekaterinburg,
7. To which country the airlines 'Lufthansa' belongs to? Tyumen, Omsk, Novosibirsk, Krasnoyarsk, Angarak, Chita,
Khabarovsk and Vladivostok. The city not on trans-Siberian
(a) Germany (b) France
rail route is Sochi. So, the correct answer is option (c).
(c) Yugoslavia (d) Spain
10. The correct sequence in descending order of the given
M.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Pre) 2004 countries in terms of railway length in the world is
Ans. (a) (a) India, U.S.A., Germany, Canada
(b) Canada, Germany, U.S.A., India
Lufthansa is a German airlines. In the context of passenger
(c) U.S.A., Canada, India, Germany
airline services, it is the fourth largest passenger airline fleet (d) Germany, U.S.A., Canada, India
in the World. U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014
U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008
8. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer Ans. (*)
using the codes given below: The correct sequence in descending order of the given
List- I List II countries in terms of railway length in the world are USA
(A) European trans- (1) Paris to Istanbul , India, Canada, Germany which is not given in the option.
Thus, none of the options is correct.
Continental railway
(Countries) (Railway Length, in Kms.)
(B) Trans-Andean railway (2) Leningrad to Vladivostok USA - 150462 (2018)
(C)Trans-Siberian railway (3) Leningrad to Volgograd Russia - 85494 (2019)
China - 68141 (2019)
(D)Orient Express (4) Buenos Aires to
India - 68155 (2019)
Valparaiso Canada - 47687 (2018)
(5) Paris to Warsaw Australia - 8829 (2011)
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(c) Japan (d) Sweden
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
15. Which country has the world's longest network of
bullet train?
Ans. (*)
(a) Russia (b) Japan
The Delaware Aqueduct is the newest of aqueducts in New (c) U.S.A. (d) China
York City. It takes water from the Rondout Reservoir through Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016
the Chelsea Pump Station, the West Branch Reservoir, and Ans. (d)
the Kensico Reservoir, ending at the Hillview Reservoir in
2000 km of high-speed rail network was in service till
Yonkers, New York. The aqueduct was constructed between
September, 2016. With this China has the largest high-speed
1939 and 1945 and carries approximately half of the New rail network in the world. China has started its longest Bullet
York City water supply of 1.3 billion US gallons per day. train. 'Shangri-la of the World' on 5 January, 2017 connecting
At 85 miles (137 km) long and 13.5 feet (4.1 m) wide, the Kunming, capital of South-west China's Yunnan Province to
Delaware Aqueduct is the world’s longest tunnel. Beijing (2760 km) covering the distance in approx 13 hours
The Paijanne Water Tunnel located in Southern Finland, with the maximum speed of 330 km/h).
is the world’s second longest tunnel (after the Delaware
Aqueduct in the USA). It is 120 kilometres (75 mi) long The Ports and Harbours
and runs 30–100 meters under the surface in bedrock. The
Sea routes are the most convenient and prevalent medium
purpose of the tunnel is to provide fresh water for the millions
for any country to conduct its International trade. The ports
of people in Southern Finland in the cities of Helsinki, and harbours of any country is well connected via railway
Espoo, Vantaa, Hyvinkaa, Jarvenpaa, Kerava, Kauniainen, network and inland waterway. These connectivities provide
Kirkkonummi, Sipoo, and Tuusula. the hinterland accessibility to the ports and harbours.
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(c) 11 (d) 12
U.P.R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016
(a) The country which does not belong to the group of
BALKANS is Bosnia.
Ans. (c) (b) Northeastern part of Australia is not affected by the
J.E. Spencer and W.L. Thomas have divided the world Mediterranean climate.
into 11 cultural worlds in their book "Introducing Cultural (c) The Nova Scotia Coal field lies in Kazakhstan.
Geography."
(d) At present China is the country in the world which is
6. Consider the following pairs : the largest producer of cotton.
Community sometimes : In the news
U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal Ans. (*)
3. Rohingya : Myanmar The statement given in both option (a) and (c), are not correct.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? Hence it is not possible to select the correct option. Albania,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Bosnia & Herzegovina, Bulgaria, Kosovo, Macedonia,
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Montenegro are complete Balkan countries. The Nova Scotia
I.A.S. (Pre) 2016
Ans. (c) Coal Field lies in Canada, not in Kazakhstan.
The Kurd or Kurdish people are an ethnic group in the 9. The line joining the areas having the same rainfall is
Middle East mostly inhabiting a contiguous area of Eastern called
and South-eastern Turkey, West Iran, Northern Iraq and
(a) Isobar (b) Isohyet
Northern Syria. While Madhesi or Teraibasi Nepali are an
indigenous ethnic group of Nepal and Rohingya are Muslim (c) Isotherm (d) Isohaline
of the Rakhine State, Myanmar. Thus, option (2) and (3) are M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015
correctly matched and (c) is the correct answer. Ans. (b)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 3. Greenland C. Arctic ocean
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Explosion D. North
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only Code:
I.A.S. (Pre) 2006 (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Ans. (d) (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
A nautical mile is a non-SI unit of distance, set by (c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
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International agreement as being exactly 1,852 metres (about
6,076 feet). It is generally used by navigators in the sea, air Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2008
and in polar exploration. Ans. (d)
The terrestrial mile is an unit of length equal to 1,760 yards A pole star is a visible star aligned with Earth's axis of
and standardised as exactly 1609 metres by international
rotation i.e., a star whose apparent position is close to one
agreement. The length of the terrestrial mile is less than a
of the celestial poles. It lies directly the overhead North Pole
nautical mile. Thus , statement (1) is correct.
or South Pole.
The Harmattan is a dry and dusty North Easterly trade wind
which blows from the Sahara Desert over the West African Gravitation is a natural phenomenon by which all things
subcontinent into the Gulf of Guinea between the end of with the mass are brought towards one another and Earth
November and mid of March. In West Africa, it is known as has gravitational force.
‘The doctor’ because of its invigorating dryness compared Greenland- is located between the Arctic and the Atlantic
with humid tropical air. Thus , statement (2) is wrong. Ocean, Sound is generated by Explosion.
Located on the Southwestern tip of the European Continent,
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
the Iberian Peninsula, includes the countries of Andorra,
using the codes given below the lists:
Portugal and Spain, and the British Crown Colony of
List-I List-II
Gibraltar while Greece & Albania are not part of Iberian
Geographic feature Country
peninsula. Thus, statement (3) is wrong.
A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia
11. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
(a) Paraguay - Pampas C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
(b) U.S.A. - Manitoba D. Southern Alps 4. U.S.A.