Comprehension Questions (FORENSIC)

Jesmar C. Lobo

1. This refers to the scientific study of fingerprints as a means of identification. This includes
fingerprint comparison and case presentation in courts.
a. Dactylography – study of fingerprints as means of identifying the person only
b. Dactyloscopy – meron na kasing application which is Comparison
c. Dactylomancy – characteristics or personality of person thru fingerprint patterns.
d. None of these

Dactyloscopy – Practical application of the science of fingerprints.

2. The word “forensic” came from the Latin word “forum” which literally means?
a. Market place
b. place of discussion
c. Public
d. legal

3. It is the application of various sciences to answer questions relating to examination and

comparison of biological evidence and scientific evidences.
A. Criminalistics
B. Forensic Science
C. Forensic Chemistry
D. Evidence Examination

Forensic Science - is the application of a broad spectrum of sciences to answer questions of

interest to the legal system.

Note: Kapag nagkaroon ka na ng comparison of evidence, papasok ang Criminalistics.

4. It involves assessing a print to determine if it can be used for a comparison. If the print is not
suitable for comparison because of inadequate quality or quantity of features, the examination
ends and the print is reported as not suitable.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Comparison
D. Verification

ACE-V
Analysis, Comparison, Evaluation, Verification

5. He is credited in the creation of the first crime laboratory in US which is founded in Berkeley,
California.
A. Alexander Lacassagne
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
C. Hans Gross
D. August Vollmer
• Alexander Lacassagne- known as the “Contributor to the Forensic Ballistics”
• Hans Gross - known as the “Father of Modern Criminalistics”
• Sir Arthur Conan Doyle - known for his fictional character Sherlock Holmes.

6. The Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly District in India, first used fingerprints on contracts with
the natives. He is also known as Father of Chiroscopy.
A. JCA Mayer
B. John Evangelist Purkinje
C. Herman Welcker
D. Sir William James Herschel

• Herman Welcker- proved that fingerprint does not change. After taking his fingerprint, he
waited for the next 41 years and found that no changes happened on the prints.
• John Evangelist Purkenjie- “Father of Dactyloscopy”

7. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared,
the greater the probability for the conclusion to be correct. What is this Law called?
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion – technique na sinusunod sa Law of Multiplicity
of Evidence
C. Law of Super Imposition
D. All of these

8. It is generally considered most reliable personal identification, but challenges continue to

occur at the laboratory protocol level and the extent of interpretation. Which one among the
following?
A. Alkaloid synthesis
B. Evidence custodian
C. Laboratory SOP
D. DNA Testing

9. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered children whom she was accused because of the
latent prints that has been found on the scene of the crime. Who is that person in which
without his participation the case will not be solved?
A. Francisca Rojas
B. Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
D. Edward Richard Henry

• Francisca Rojas- the suspect for the “Rojas Homicide”

• Francis Galton- states that the probability of having the same fingerprint pattern is
1:64,000,000,000 around the world.
• Edward Richard Henry- known for his “Henry System of Classification”

10. This refers to the study of fingerprints for the purpose of identification.
A. Dactyloscopy
B. Dactylography
C. Podoscopy
D. Poroscopy

• Dactyloscopy - it is the scientific study of fingerprint. (General Definition)

• Podoscopy - it is the study of the soles of the feet.
• Poroscopy - it is the study of the pores of the skin.

Note: Pag nakakita kayo for identification - Dactylography

11. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which usually starts:
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
D. 5th to 6th months after birth

• 5th to 6th months- ridge formation of the fetus completes.

12. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a person in which he/she walks in a swaying
movement due to knock-knee feet.
A. Ataxic Gait
B. Cow’s Gait – swaying movement
C. Spastic Gait
D. Paretic Gait

13. It is the lower or the inner layer of the skin that must not be destructed for it could possibly
create a permanent injury that may result to the lost of the ridges. What is that canal like
structure found between the ridges?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Furrows
D. Delta

• Dermis- inner layer of the skin.

• Epidermis- it is the outer layer of the skin which is sub-divided into two:
Stratum Corneum - where the ridges and other characteristics appear.
Stratum Mucosum – Mucous or malphigian layer of the skin

14. The core and delta are essential ridges to be used as a basis in the counting of ridges once
an imaginary line was drawn in between. It is also termed as what?
A. Inner Terminus
B. Outer Terminus
C. Focal Point
D. Pattern Area

• Core- known as Inner terminus

• Delta- known as Outer Terminus

15. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT

A. bifurcation opening towards the delta
B. dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest to the center and in front of the
divergence of the type lines
D. a meeting of two ridges

16. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and other type of delta
found in the fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected
B. the other type of delta is selected
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
D. the one towards the core is selected – pag walang bifurcation

17. Large cushion area at the base of the thumb where patterns of loop, whorl or a combination
of them may appear is_________.
A. Thenar Zone
B. Hypothenar Zone
C. Palmar Zone
D. Carpal Delta Zone

18. What is the fingerprint impression taken individually by rolling each finger from one side to
the other side and from the tip to the end of the first joint?
A.Rolled Impression – individually
B. Chance Impression
C. Plain Impression
D. A and B is correct

• Plain Impression - serves as verification for the rolled impression.

19. The purpose of rolling the finger from nail edge to nail edge is_________
A. to complete the pattern
B. to have a good impression
C. to cover all the ridge characteristics
D. to avoid missing the delta

20. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?

A. Three
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Nine

21. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification, this fingerprint pattern have two
deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl (W)
B. Central pocket loop whorl (C)
C. Accidental loop whorl (X)
D. Ulnar loop (U)
22. The bifurcation which does not remain open but whose legs after a long side by side for
short distance, come together to form a single ridge once more is referred to as…
A. Enclosure
B. Converging ridges
C. Island ridge
D. Diverging Ridge

• Island Ridge- resembles a dot or period.

• Converging Ridge- two ridges that meets at the ending point.

23. When a ridge bifurcates, it sends two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Six

• If it does not touch the ridges that splits, it is counted as 1.

• About to split – 2

24. PINS Cardo is examining a fingerprint pattern having a 2 delta and a core with few spiral
formations at the center but no complete circuiting ridge is cut. What type of pattern INS Cardo
is examining?
A. W
B. X
C. C
D. D

Note: No circuiting ridge is cut (hindi tinamaan)

25. The following are the requisites of a loop except one,

A. It must have a core
B. It must have a complete circuit
C. It must have a delta
D. It must have a ridge count of at least one

26. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows towards the
little/pinky finger?
A. Loop
B. Radial Loop
C. Ulnar Loop
D. Tented Arch

• Radial Loop- the ridge flows toward the thumb

27. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an upthrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain Arch
B. Tented Arch
C. Accidental Whorl
D. Ulnar Loop

28. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the ridges that touch or cross an
imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these

• Ridge tracing- the process done in the whorl where the tracing ridge flows from the left to the
right delta.

29. What should be the ridge tracing interpretation if the tracing ridge of the whorl goes above
the right delta and there are three (3) or more intervening ridges between the right delta and
the tracing ridge?
A. Outer Whorl
B. Inner Whorl
C. Meeting Whorl
D. Accidental Whorl

• Meeting Whorl- tracing ridge from left delta to right delta and there are 2 or less or no
intervening ridges.
• Outer Whorl - goes below the right delta and there are three (3) or more intervening ridges

30. It is process of placing in under each pattern the letter symbols representing their pattern
interpretation prior to the actual classification formula.
A.Checking
B. Classification
C. Blocking-out
D. Fingerprinting

• Checking - the process of verifying the rolled impression using the plain impression.

31. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula. Where whorls appear
in the thumbs following the whorl tracings sub secondary classification.
A. sub-secondary
B. major division
C. key
D. final

32. What is the finger appearing five (5) blocks towards finger number seven (7)?
A. Finger No. 1
B. Finger No. 2
C. Finger No. 3
D. Finger No. 5
33. What is the classification formula that is represented by a numerical value appearing on
the whorl pattern only but the value only depends on what finger it appears?
A. Key Division
B. Major Division
C. Primary Division
D. Sub-secondary Division

34. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorl pattern while in the left hand are all loop
pattern, what will be the primary classification?
A. 25/29
B. 24/28
C. 25/1
D. 32/32

35. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35% is being represented by
what group?
A. Loop
B. Whorl
C. Arch
D. Radial Loop

36. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in finger number eight (8) is a loop, what is
the numerical value of that finger?
A. None
B. 8
C. 16
D. 2

37. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears on the middle finger and
there are 12 ridge counts, what will be the interpretation?
A. Ring
B. Outer
C. Inner
D. Middle

• Index Finger- 1-9 (Inner) 10 or more (Outer)

• Middle Finger- 1-10 (Inner) 11 or more (Outer)
• Ring Finger- 1-13 (Inner) 14 or more (Outer)

38. In the Major Division, what table should be used for the right thumb when the left thumb
reaches 17 or more?
A. Table No. 1
B. Table No. 3
C. Table No. 2
D. Table No. 4

39. From the same division above, what is the interpretation when the ridge of the left thumb
reaches fifteen (15)?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Inner

40. In the final division, ridge counting of loop is the usual process being done once it appears in
the little finger. If there is no loop pattern in that finger, a whorl pattern shall be ridge counted.
How will you treat a Plain or Central Pocket Loop for the purpose of getting its final
classification?
A. Treated as an Ulnar Loop
B. Getting the least ridge count
C. By getting the ridge count of the top loop
D. It represents a dash

• Double Loop Whorl- getting the ridge count of top loop.

• Accidental Whorl- getting the least ridge count.

41. In the classification line, the order should be

A. primary, secondary, subsecondary, final, key, major
B. major, key, primary, secondary, subsecondary final
C. key, major, primary, secondary, subsecondary, final
D. primary, secondary, subsecondary, major, key, final

42. In case of an amputated finger, what shall be the interpretation of the left index finger if
the right index finger is amputated?
A. Plain whorl and meet tracing
B. The classification in the left index finger shall be same of that the right index.
C. The classification of the right index finger shall be the same of that the left index finger.
D. There is no interpretation at all.

Note: Ang right index finger kasi ang nangongopya, alangan naman amputated din ang left index
finger.

43. A person committing a crime would always leave something behind and may be considered
as an integral part in the identification of the suspect especially if it is a “Latent Print”. This
prints are made through the; (gawa saan)
A. Ridge of the skin
B. Furrows of the skin
C. Ridge formation
D. Perspiration on top of the finger

Note: Kapag ang tanong, prints are made by (sa pamamagitan).. ang sagot ridge formation

44. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including those left accidentally or
unconsciously.
A. Chance Impressions
B. Latent Prints
C. Smudge Prints
D. Fragmentary Prints

Note: Generic ang tanong, lahat daw ng fingerprints. Hindi tinanong kong anong uri ng Latent
Prints.

• Chance Impressions - left at the crime scene accidentally or unconsciously.

• Smudge Prints - those prints that are left by sliding motion.

45. Consider the following statements concerning fingerprints:

I. Visible fingerprints made by the bloody hands should be photographed
II. Plastic fingerprints are visible and molded into an object XXXX
III. Latent fingerprints are not visible to the naked eye

Which of the following choices best classifies the above statements into those which are
accurate and those which are inaccurate?
A. Statement 1 is inaccurate; statements 2 and 3 are accurate
B. Statement 2 is inaccurate; statements 1 and 3 are accurate
C. Statement 3 is inaccurate; statements 1 and 2 are accurate
D. All of the statements are accurate

46. In case of split thumb or web fingers, which of the two thumbs shall be considered for
classification purposes?
A. The inner one
B. the outer one
C. The smaller one
D. the bigger one

• Syndactylism - a condition where the fingers are joined together.

• Brachdactylism - a condition where the fingers are abnormally short.
• Orthodactylism - a condition where then fingers cannot be stretch.
• Ankylosis - fingers cannot be bent.

47. It is considered as simplest and traditional method in developing prints in the scene of the
crime.
A. Fuming Method
B. Laser Ion Argon
C. Rolling Method
D. Dusting Method

48. The word “Photo” is derived from what word?

A. Phos
B. Latin Word
C. Greek Word
D. light

The word “photo” derived from the Greek Word “phos” which means “light”; and “graphia”
which means “to draw” or “grapho” which means “to write”
49. When was the birth year of photography?
A. 1939
B. 1839
C. 1793
D. 1893

50. What country is the first who use photograph of crime scene in court presentation?
A. Germany
B. US
C. Philippines
D. France

51. What is considered as the utmost (pangkaraniwan) used of photography in police work?
A. For identification
B. For preservation
C. For record purpose
D. For court presentation

• For identification- first application of photography by Alphonse Bertillion that makes him the
“Father of Mug Shot Potography”
• For preservation - the ultimate purpose of photography.
• For court presentation - it is the photograph of the evidence that is one being presented
which is marked by “Alphabet” (for prosecution) and “Numeral” (for defense)

52. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its application to police work and the
preparation of photographic evidence:
A. Cinematography
B. Police Photography (Aquino, 1972)
C. Forensic photography
D. Photography

Note: Preparation pa lang naman for photographic evidence, pero pag applied na sa court ang
sagot natin ay Forensic Photography.

53. A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the so-called “mouse trap”
cameras.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
C. William Henry Fox Talbot
D. Sir John Herschel

• Joseph Nicephore Niepce- first invention of photograph using the metal plate.
• Louis Jacques Mande Deguerre- credited for the creation of “Daguerreotype.” A system
wherein it is not subject for reproduction from the negative film.
• Henry Fox Talbot- invented the “Calotype” or “Talotype.” A system that able to create a
reproduction from the negative film.
• John F.W. Herschel- first to coined the word “Photography”
54. The science of obtaining photographic magnification of minute objects by using a camera
attached to a compound microscope. The camera lens is removed because the microscope will
serve as the lens for the camera.
A. macrophotography – enlarged image
B. microphotography
C. photomicrography
D. photomicrography

55. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step photography also known as polaroid. What
will be produce by LASER?
A. Polaroid
B. Holograms
C. Digital Camera
D. DSLR

Polaroid Camera - a camera that instantly produce a positive image.

56. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the extent damage on the subject?
A. General View
B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot
D. Extreme Close-up shot

• General View (Long Range)- taking the over-all view of the crime scene as well as to identify
the location of the scene.
• Medium View (Medium Range)- this view will best show the nature of the crime. (about 8-10
feet)
• Close-Up Shot (Short Range)- this will show the damage or injury committed in the crime
scene.
• Extreme Close-Up View- it is done in the laboratory to make further examination of the
evidence.

57. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which produced what secondary color of
light?
A. Magenta
B. Yellow
C. Cyan
D. Orange

58. What is the theory of light which opposes the wave stating that light has its effect by the
very small particles such as electrons?
A. Wave Theory
B. Corpuscular Theory (Isaac Newton)
C. Modified Wave Theory
D. Quantum Theory

• Wave Theory (Huygens)- the light’s motion is being compared to a floating log that moves
through the wave of the water.
• Modified Wave Theory (Maxwell and Hertz) - light is in a form of an electromagnetic energy.
• Quantum Theory (Albert Einstein)- electron particle in an atom creates an energy which
results to a light

59. The changes in direction of light are conclusive whenever light process from one medium
to another. This is known as the phenomenon of __________.
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Transparent
D. Refraction

• Reflection- it is the bouncing of light once it hits the flat surface.

• Diffraction- it is the spreading of light once it hits the surface.

60. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass through them that the object on the other
side may be clearly seen.
A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter

• Translucent- a semi-transparent object that allows light to pass through but not enough detail
is being projected.
• Opaque- the light that passes through cannot be seen.
• Filter- an object that can subtract or diminish the light that pass through.

61. It is referred to as the measure of distance between two (2) successive crest or through of
wave and it is expressed in either Millimicron (Nanometer) or Angstrom.
A. Light year
B. Frequency
C. Light Wavelength
D. Light Volume

62. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening of different items for industrial
purposes.
A. long wave UV – sikat ng araw
B. medium wave UV
C. short wave UV – ginagamit sa pera
D. ultraviolet rays

63. It is a light source in which it already comes to existence and is created by the divine
providence without the intervention of humanity.
A. Artificial Light
B. Sunlight
C. Divine Light
D. Natural Light

• Artificial Light- it is a source of light with the intervention of man.

64. It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a deep and uniform or distinct
shadow.
A. Bright sunlight
B. Hazy sunlight
C. Dull sunlight
D. Cloudy dull

• Natural Light - can be classified depending on the shadow produced.

• Bright Sunlight - deep and uniform shadow.
• Hazy Sunlight - provides bluish and transparent shadow.
• Dull Sunlight - no shadow at all.

65. It is an artificial light describes as containing wire filaments that connects them which
sustains the electrical charge that combines them.
A. Photoflood Lamp – spotlight, ideal lamp used in police photography
B. Fluorescent Lamp – fluorescent powder
C. Incandescent Bulb – imbis ilaw lumalabas, ang lumalabas init. Ilaw ng kulungan ng sisiw.
D. Flash Bulb - kumukuha ka ng picture sumasabog ang bombelya, sumabog ang bombelya hindi
sabay ang shutter (Luma, ngayon ay Electronic flash na)

66. What refers to the film and photographic paper that is composed of emulsion containing
silver halides and suspended in gelatin?
A. Photo Paper
B. Film
C. Silver Halides
D. Sensitized Material

• Photo Paper- it is used in the production of positive photograph.

• Film- it is used in preparation for the positive print.

67. It is a part of the sensitized material which is designed to hold back the light and prevents
halation.
A. Anti-halation Backing
B. Base
C. Coat of Animal Gelatin
D. Emulsion

• Emulsion- it refers to the upper layer of the sensitized material that actually creates the
positive print.
• Base- supports the emulsion.
• Coat of Animal Gelatin- to prevent scratch or damage to the sensitized material.

68. A black and white films possess several characteristics such as speed, spectral and
granularity. The speed will be referring to the sensitivity of the film to light and the spectral is
the sensitivity to ________________.
A. Film Speed
B. Wavelength
C. Electromagnetic Energy
D. all of these

• Film Speed- sensitivity of the film to light.

• Spectral Sensitivity- sensitivity of the light to different wavelength

69. It is a type of film according to spectral sensitivity wherein the film is sensitive to UV light
up to the green light only.
A. Blue-Sensitive Film
B. Orthochromatic Film
C. Panchromatic Film
D. Infra-red Film

• Blue-Sensitive Film- sensitive to UV light to Blue

• Panchromatic Film- sensitive to UV light to Red
• Infra-red Film- sensitive to UV light to Infra-red

70. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?

A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GNP

• DIN (Deutsche Industre Normen) - represented by logarithmic form.

• ISO (International Standard Organization) - combination of arithmetic and logarithmic form.

71. What is the main purpose of the camera as an essential element of photography?
A. It is designed to collect or focus the reflected light from the object to form image on the film.
(LENS)
B. It is designed to block the unwanted or unnecessary light from reaching the sensitized
material.
C. It is created to control the passage of light once it reaches the sensitized material. (SHUTTER)
D. None of these.

72. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography and also eliminate the parallax
error?
A. View Finder Type
B. Single Lens Reflex
C. Twin Lens Reflex
D. Press/View Camera

• View Finder- it is the earliest type of camera.

• Twins Lens Reflex- a camera that has two lens: focus and capture.
• Press/View Camera- a large type of camera that is being used by media.

73. In the modernization of the photography, DSLR camera almost dominated the market
because of its great features that are very useful in commercial photo shoots. What do DSLR
means?
A. Double system reflex camera
B. Dual Single reflex camera
C. Digital System reflex camera
D. Digital Single reflex camera

74. This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental movement of the camera during the
exposure period.
A. Tripod
B. Cable release
C. Light meter
D. Extinction meter

75. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
A. shutter
B. holder of sensitized material
C. view finder
D. lens

76. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully
opened, that’s the time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination called?
A. Panorama
B. Exposure
C. Focus
D. synchronization

77. The Fish–eye lens is a special type of camera having a view angle of:
A. 60 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 360 degre

78. Which of the following is TRUE about the shutter speed of the camera?
A. The faster the shutter speed, the more light it can transmit.
B. The shutter speed setting of ½ is slower than the shutter speed of 1/60.
C. The shutter speed setting of 1/250 is faster than the shutter speed of 1/500.
D. The slower the shutter speed, the less light it can transmit

79. Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to affect the sensitized material at a
given time.
A. Exposure
B. Aperture
C. Shutter
D. Shutter speed

80. It is a part of the camera which defines as the ratio between the diameter of the whole
lens in relation to the focal length of the lens is referred to as,
A. Lens Aperture
B. Lens Opening
C. Focal Distance
D. Both A and B

81. It is the mechanism of the camera designed to control the degree of sharpness of the
object to be photograph.
A. Range Finder
B. Ground Glass
C. Focusing
D. Scale Bed

• Range Finder- refers to the coincidence or split image type

• Groundglass - object will be viewed to be blurred and will turn sharp once adjusted.
• Scale Bed- estimating the distance of the object and adjusting the camera control.

82. In photography using microprism, the image on focus will usually shatter of an out of focus
image and when it is exactly in focus the prisms seems to disappear. These microprisms are
primarily found on:
A. lens
B. filter
C. viewfinder
D. groundglass

• View Finder- to determine the field of view of the camera.

83. Pedro was taking a snap shot and expecting it to be sharp but an alteration happened to the
expected image because it can be seen in two viewpoints. What is that phenomenon?
A. out of focus
B. coincidence
C. parallax
D. split image

Focusing Malfunctions:

• Out of Focus (Coincidence) - a single object will appear double.

• Split-image- the image that is photographed will split into two parts.

84. It is the medium or mean which converges or diverges light rays that passes through it and
able to form an image.
A. Lens
B. Camera
C. Mirror
D. None of these

85. It is a type of lens which characterized that it is thicker at the center and thinner at the side
and forms the image inversely.
A. Convex Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Converging Lens
D. All of the Above

Two types of Lenses:

a. Convex (Positive or Converging Lens)
b. Concave (Negative or Diverging Lens)- characterized by thinner at the center and thicker at
the side and produced a virtual image.

86. It is an inherent lens aberration wherein the lens has an inability to focus light passing
through it and producing an image that is sharp in the center and blurred at the side.
A. Spherical Aberration - malinaw sa gitna, malabo sa gilid
B. Coma
C. Chromatic Aberration
D. Flare

• Coma- lateral aberration; light travelling straight makes it blurred.

• Curvature of Field- relation of the images in the different points are incorrect.
• Chromatic Aberration- inability of the lens to focus light in varying wavelength.
• Distortion- defect in shape. It can either be Pincushion (curving inward) or Barrel (curving
outward)
• Flare - producing multiple images.

87. It is a type of lens which is capable of correcting astigmatism.

A. Meniscus Lens
B. Anastigmat Lens
C. Rapid Rectilinear Lens
D. Achromatic Lens

• Meniscus Lens- lens with no correction.

• Achromatic Lens- correcting chromatic aberration.
• Rapid Rectilinear Lens- lens corrected of distortion.
• Apochromatic Lens- lens used to correct both astigmatism and chromatic aberration.

88. A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity making it hard to obtain sharp images.
A. curvature of field
B. Spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration
D. coma

• Curvature of Field- dome-like image.

89. This effect causes images to be spherized (Lomobo palabas) which means the edges of
images look curved and bowed to the human eye.
A. pincushion distortion
B. spherical aberration
C. barrel distortion
D. wavy field curvature
• Pincushion- curves inward.

90. When one uses a photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually __________light
rays or color from the light to reach the film.
A. adding
B. subtracting
C. multiplying
D. dividing

91. It is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens is set to focus at infinite
position. It is also known as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will determine the
size of an image and area of coverage of the lens
A. Focal Length (Haba ng focusing or focal distance ng iyong lens)
B. Hyperfocal Distance
C. Depth of Field
D. Relative Aperture

92. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given particular diaphragm opening
which will give the maximum depth of field is
A. Focal distance
B. subject distances
C. hyper focal distance
D. focal length

93. The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in apparent sharp focus when
the lens is focused at a given point.
A. Angle of view
B. Focal Length
C. Depth of Field
D. Focus

• Focal Length - distance measured from the optical center of the lens is set to focus at infinite
position.
• Focus - setting of the proper distance in order to form a shape image.

94. It is a focal lens not longer than the diagonal half of the negative which is useful in taking
photograph at short distance with wider area coverage.
A. Normal or Medium Focus
B. Wide Angle or Short Focus
C. Long or Telephoto Lens
D. Zoom Lens (variable lens) - positive and negative lens

95. The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many photographs as he can.
The first shot that he should make just after reaching the crime scene is the house where the
crime of murder was committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the façade of the house,
what lens should he utilize?
A. telephoto lens
B. macro lens
C. normal lens
D. Wide angle lens (Malawak kasi ang bahay)

96. It is a stage of the chemical process in which it is being done to reduce the silver halides to
form the image.
A. Development
B. Stop Bath
C. Fixation
D. Dodging

• Stop bath - prevent contamination between the developer and the acid fixer.
• Fixation - Unexposed silver halides are dissolved.

97. It is the process of eliminating unwanted portion of the negative during the enlarging
process.
A. Cropping
B. Dodging
C. Vignetting
D. Dye Toning

• Cropping - omitting an object during the process of enlarging.

• Vignetting - gradual fading of the image towards the side.
• Dye Toning - changing the color tone of the photograph.

98. The power of the bullet which delivers a very heavy paralyzing blow that put the victim
down and may then recover if the wound inflicted upon is not fatal is called –
A. Knocking power
B. Power kick
C. Fire power
D. Double action

99. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching

100. The following conditions are NOT attributed to external ballistics, EXCEPT:
A. Firing pin hitting the primer.
B. Ignition of the priming mixture.
C. Energy generated at the muzzle point.
D. Rotation of the bullet inside the muzzle.

Note: Negative X Negative = Positive

Choices A,B and D refers to the motion of projectile under the interior or internal ballistics.

101. Rifled barrel firearm has better proficiency for use because it__________
1. provides or impart rotatory motion to the bullet
2. gives gyroscopic action
3. gives greater accuracy and penetration
4. gives greater range

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

102. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot where the bullet travel
straight.
A. Maximum Range
B. Maximum Effective Range
C. Accurate Range
D. Effective Range

• Effective Range - still capable of inflicting fatal injury.

• Maximum Range - farthest distance the bullet could travel.
• Maximum Effective Range - farthest distance the bullet could take damage.

103. In the terminal ballistics, It refers to the size of the bullet groupings on the target.
A. Terminal penetration
B. Terminal velocity
C. Terminal energy
D. Terminal accuracy

• Terminal Penetration - depth of entry of the bullet.

• Terminal Velocity - speed of the bullet after hitting the target.
• Terminal Energy - force of the projectile after hitting the target.

104. PINS Tina Moran was tasked to examine whether the questioned bullet was fired from
the suspected firearm and prepare her deductions for court testimony. The situation was part
of what branch of ballistics?
A. Firearms Identification
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceeding
D. Forensic ballistics

105. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert examination of firearms, bullets and
shells that would determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired from a particular firearm,
and whether or not a particular shell is loaded and ejected from the same firearm and it is
conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase of forensic ballistics best describes the
statement?
A. Field investigation
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceedings
D. None of the above
• Field Investigation - phase of forensic ballistic which is conducted at the crime scene.
• Technical examination - all related ballistics exam is conducted in the laboratory.
• Legal Proceedings - preparation of ballistic evidences in the court proceedings.

106. The rearward movement termed as recoil of the firearm is a natural phenomenon because
of the expansion and explosion which was put into used by ____ to create a fully automatic
mechanism of the firearm.
A. John M. Browning – lever action barrel
B. Tyler Henry
C. Hiram Maxim – Garand rifle
d. Horace Smith

• John Browning- Wizard of modern firearms

• Tyler Henry - developed a .44 cal rim fire cartridge
• Horace Smith - founded the firm Smith and Wesson

107. He patented the very first practical revolver in which the cylinder will rotate if the hammer
is cocked known as the single action mechanism. The statement is referring to Samuel Colt but
that mechanism was put into used because of the percussion system by:
A. Samuel Colt
B. Hiram Maxim
C. David Williams
D. Alexander John Forsyth

• Samuel Colt - patented the first practical revolver.

• Hiram Maxim - developed the first fully automatic gun.
• David Williams - Maker of the first known carbine

108. He gave his name to a whole class of firearms; he is also the manufacturer of the Pocket
Pistol.
A. John M. Browning
B. Samuel Colt
C. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
D. Henry Derringer

• Col. Calvin H. Goddard- “Father of Ballistics.”

109. He invented a submachine gun in the 1950’s which was used by the Israeli Army during its
Sinai campaign in 1956.
A. Alexander John Forsyth
B. Uziel Gal
C. Major Patrick Ferguson
D. John C. Garand

• Major Patrick Ferguson - maker of Collier Rifle

110. The very first self-exploding cartridges were invented on 1836 and it was called as the pin-
fire cartridge which came into realization through the invention of:
A. Le Faucheux
B. Hiram Maxim
C. Flobert
D. Alexander John Forsyth

• Flobert - developed the Rim-fire cartridge.

111. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure by?

A. Gauge (INCH)
B. Caliber (MM)
C. Lands
D. Grooves

• Caliber - measurement of the distance between lands and grooves.

• Lands - the elevated portion of the bore of the barrel.
• Grooves - the depressed portion of the bore of the barrel.

112. This refers to the firearms that propels projectile with more than one (1) inch in diameter.
A. Artillery
B. Small Arms
C. Rifles
D. Carbine

• Small Arms - propel projectile that is one (1) inch or less in diameter.

113. It is an ancient smoothbore and loading shoulder arms designed to fire a shot or a single
round lead ball.
A. Shotgun
B. Rifle
C. Carbine
D. Muskets

• Rifles - barrel with more than 22 inches.

• Carbine - barrel with 22 inches or less

114. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?

A. Carbine
B. Pistol
C. Revolver
D. Rifle

115. It is a barrel construction of a shotgun in which there is a diminishing bore diameter

towards its muzzle.
A. Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun
B. Choke Bore type shotgun
C. Paradox Type Shotgun
D. Single Barrel Shotgun

• Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun - bore size is the same up to the barrel. (Buckshot ang ginamit
para mag hunting ng wild animals, hindi pellets ang ginagamit)
• Paradox Type Shotgun - rifling a few each at the muzzle end.

116. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in the 15th to 17th centuries. Like its successor,
the musket, it is a smoothbore firearm, but it is lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of
the rifle and other long-arm firearms.
A. arquebus (Matchlock)
B. musket
C. blunderbuss
D. rifle

117. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge stored in the handle are
called.
A. Pistols (Ang cartridge ay nasa hawakan ng baril)
B. Revolver
C. Self-loading pistol
D. Automatic Firearm

• Revolver - position the cartridge for firing through the rotating cylinder.
• Automatic Firearm- continuous firing while the trigger is pressed.

118. It is a type of firearm designed to fire several loads (shot) in one loading.
(Isang kasahan, maraming putok)
A. Single Shot Firearms
B. Repeating Firearms (Tinatawag na semi-automatic)
C. Double Action
D. Single Action

• Single Shot Firearms - only one shot for every loading.

• Repeating Arms - fire several shots in one loading.
• Single Action- revolver; manual cocking of the hammer.
• Double Action- revolver; not need manual cocking.

119. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.
A. Housing
B. Frame
C. Casing
D. Chamber

120. It is the mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the chamber?
A. Ejector
B. Extractor
C. Firing pin
D. Extractor pin
• Ejector - thrown out the shell from the firearm.

121. These are devices that are not really designed to become a weapon but because of its
mechanism that is the same as those in the firearm they are already considered as
miscellaneous guns.
A. tool
B. zip guns
C. traps
D. cane guns/freakish gun

• Zip Guns - home-made gun. Used by the juvenile gang in the US.
• Tool - resembles a gun but used for construction.
• Traps - used to catch fish and for animal hunting purposes.

122. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people were found dead on the scene of
the crime. During the incident, it was found out that the firearm involve uses a pistol size
ammunition but having contains a shoulder stock because it was fired in a distance. The scene
was filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty magazine recovered. If you are the
investigator, what type of firearm was used?
A. machine gun (Walang magazine, nakabelt)
B. sub machine gun
C. sniper
D. Revolver

Note: Ang isa full metal jacket for the rifles.

123. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
A. Picking it through the handle
B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel

124. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine number of vehicle restored?
A. By polishing stamped serial number
B. By cleaning obliterated surface
C. By removing the zone of strain
D. By applying etching reagent (para hindi mabura ang serial number, cotton buds lagyan ng
etching reagent)

125. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to a group of cartridges or to a single unit
or single cartridge. What is now a cartridge?
A. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup, priming mixture, and the anvil
B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge case, gunpowder and primer
C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove, shell head, and the crimp
D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the base

126. The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the rapid development of the
A. Pin-fire cartridge
B. Center-fire cartridge
C. Rim fire cartridge
D. None of these

• Pin-fire (La Facheux) - ignition cap is hidden inside the cartridge.

• Rim Fire (Flobert) - primer is at the rim of the cartridge.
• Center Fire - primer is at the center of the base.

127. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of the rim is larger than the
diameter of the shell’s body?
A. Belted type
B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type
D. Rimmed case

• Rimless - the shell’s diameter is equal. No rim.

• Rebated - rim diameter is smaller than the shell.
• Belted Type - a belt is located around the shell’s body.

128. The following are the advantages of using cartridges, except

A. greatly speeded the loading of weapons
B. avoided waste of powder from spillage
C. soldiers carry with them a bag of powder and the ball bullets to battles every time
D. provided a uniform charge from shot to shot

129. The unit of measurement of a shotgun is expressed in gauge, however, it is still convertible
into inch. What is the equivalent of 10 Gauge shotgun to inch?
A. .410 inch
B. .775 inch (10 Gauge)
C. .729 inch (8 Gauge)
D. .670 inch (16 gauge)

130. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its base and
usually colored red-tip.
A. Armor piercing
B. Tracer bullet
C. Incendiary bullet
D. Explosive

• Armor piercing - capable of penetrating light armor. (Black)

• Incendiary Bullet (blue-tip) - target will burst into flame.
• Explosive Bullet - detonates upon impact on target.

131. A cartridge case is a metallic or non-metallic container that holds the bullet, primer and the
gunpowder into one or otherwise known as the shell or casing. What does the cartridge case
made up of?
A. 30% copper and 70% zinc
B. 40% nitroglycerine and 60% nitrocellulose (Smokeless Powder)
C. 70% copper and 30% zinc
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal, and 10% sulfur (Blackpowder)

132. According to the diameter of the base or rim of the cartridge cases, which is common to
revolver and shot gun cartridges?
A. Rim diameter is greater than the body
B. presence of extracting grooves
C. Diameter of rim is equal to the body (Shotgun)
D. Made of brass case

133. It is the part of the cartridge case designed to limit the forward movement of the
cartridge to the chamber.
A. Extracting Grooves
B. Base
C. Primer Pocket
D. Rim

• Extracting grooves - for the withdrawal of the case.

• Base - bottom portion of the case.
• Primer Pocket - hold primer in place

134. It is a hole at the bottom of the primer pocket where the ignited priming mixture will pass
through to impart an ignition to the propellant.
A. Cannelure
B. Crimp
C. Vent or Flash Hole
D. Base

• Cannelure - prevent the bullet from being pushed down.

• Crimp - prevent bullet from being pulled out.

135. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer (Colonel Hiram S. Berdan)
C. Battery Primer
D. Boxer Primer

• Boxer Primer - one flash hole.

136. It is the ignition system of the cartridge used in a center fire type, containing a highly
sensitive chemical compound that would ignite into flame once hit by the firing pin. (Hindi
mismong chemical)
A. Primer
B. Priming Mixture
C. Anvil
D. Disc

• Priming Mixture (percussion powder) - highly sensitive compound. The one that ignites.
• Anvil - absorbs the blow of firing pin and initiates ignition.
• Disc - protect primer from moisture attack.

137. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?

A. At the base
B. Side or body of the shell
C. At the rim
D. Any of these

138. It is that mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile by
means of expansive force of gases when burned.
A. Propellant
B. Gun Powder
C. Potassium Nitrate
D. Either A or B

Gun Powder Development :

• Black Powder- oldest known explosive and contains Potassium Nitrate (75%), charcoal (15%)
and sulfur (10%)
• Smokeless Powder - presently used gun powder.
• Capt. E. Schultze - first smokeless powder in shotgun.
• Paul Vielle - first smokeless powder in rifle

139. Smokeless powders were first invented by Paul Vielle making its way to become the very
first satisfactory smokeless powder. It was first release in what place?
A. Italy
B. France
C. England
D. Rome

140. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before the
manufacture of the firearm?
A. Class Characteristics
B. Individual Characteristics
C. Repetitive mark
D. accidental mark

141. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the
identification expert is:
A. reaming operation
B. rifling operation
C. lapping operation
D. drilling operation

Manufacture of Barrel:

• Drilling- creating a hole in the firearm.

• Reaming - smoothens and polishing the hole.
• Rifling- making helical grooves on the barrel.
• Lapping- applying breech face at the rear of the barrel.

142. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves or one complete turn.
A. Pitch of rifling
B. Bore diameter
C. Lands and grooves
D. Bullet twisting Class Characteristics

• Bore Diameter - the measure between two lands.

• Lands and grooves - both have the same number inside the barrel.

143. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a
firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning
B. Colt
C. Smith and Wesson
D. Steyer

144. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:

A. Oversized barrel
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion

145. In the identification of shell if firing pin marks and breech face marks is not discernable,
the positive identification can be based on?
A. Extractor marks confirmed by ejector marks
B. Chamber marks
C. Magazine lip mark
D. Shearing Marks

146. What do you call the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
A. Torsion Balance
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper

• Torsion Balance- measure the weight of bullet.

• Caliper- measure the caliber of firearm.

147. What instrument is used in measuring the velocity of the bullet?

A. Caliper
B. Torsion Balance
C. Helixometer
D. Chronograph
148. A condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and proper
should contain a cross section of the material from known sources is:
A. Disguised document
B. Public Document
C. Standard document
D. Official document

149. It is a classification of document in which it is issued by a public official in the exercise of

the functions of his office.
A. Public Document
B. Official Document
C. Private Document
D. Commercial Document

150. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized
by competent officials.
A. private document
B. Commercial document
C. public document
D. Official document

151. Before any private document offered as authentic is received in evidence, its due
execution and authenticity must be proved either:
A. By anyone who saw the document executed or written
B. By evidence of the genuineness of the signature or handwriting of the maker.
C. Ancient document
D. A and b only

152. It is a type of standard document executed in the day to day activities and is being
produced in the regular course of man’s activity.
A. Notarized Document
B. Contemporary Document
C. Collected/Procured Document
D. Requested/Dictated Document

• Requested/Dictated Document (Post Litem Motam)- executed upon request

153. In this class of questioned documents, papers, inks, watermarks and the continuity of all
the writing in the document is being considered and scrutinized.
A. documents attacked on the question of their age and date
B. documents attacked on the question of materials in their production
C. holograph documents questioned or disputed (isa lang ang nagsulat)
D. documents containing alleged fraudulent alterations

Note: Ang dinadaya ay ang mismong papel

154. In the history of questioned document examination, who was the British examiner of
questioned document who said that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of
all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring tools
was;
A. Alphonse Bertillion
B. Detective Allan Pinkerton
C. Dr. Wilson Harrison
D. Richard Henry

155. Contemporary handwriting standards means that the age of the standards should be
within?
A. 8 years from the date of the question document
B. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
C. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document (pwede din after)
D. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned document

156. What is the Latin word for “paper”

A. cartouche (French)
B. penna
C. charta
D. papyrus (Egyptian)

157. It is the combination of the basic shape and designs of letter and the writing instrument
which was taught in school.
A. Copy Book Form
B. System of Writing
C. Handwriting
D. Writing Movement

• Copy Book Form- illustration of the basic design of letters.

• Writing Movement - factors in connection to the motion of the pen.
• Handwriting - visible effect of bodily movement.

158. It is a line whether imaginary or straight line in which the writing rest.
A. Slant
B. Baseline
C. Cursive Line
D. Rhythm

• Cursive - letters are joined together.

• Slant - the inclination of the letter relative to the baseline.

159. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
A. Copy book form
B. Line quality
C. System of writing
D. Writing movement

160. It refers to any repeated elements of a person’s handwriting which serves as identifying
characteristics.
A. Handwriting
B. Significant Writing Habits
C. Writing
D. Writing Habits

Development of Writing
• Writing - visible result of a very complicated series of acts.
• Handwriting - visible effect of bodily movement that is unconsciously done.
• Writing Habits
• Significant Writing Habits - unique and well fixed and a concrete basis of individuality

161. It is a specimen of writing executed deliberately with an attempt of changing its usual
writing habits to hide his/her identity.
A. Natural Writing
B. Hand lettering
C. Guided/Assisted Writing
D. Disguised

Types of Handwriting
• Hand lettering - letters are disconnected.
• Natural Writing - executed normally without intention of altering writing habits.
• Guided or Assisted - for beginners. A writer’s hand is at rest and being assisted by others.

162. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, document examiner must be able
to observe the ________.
A. Characteristics of his handwriting
B. Writing position of the writer
C. Manner on how the writer moves the pain
D. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting

163. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and painful due to weakness and
illness.
A. tremors
B. wrist movement
C. quality of movement
D. whole arm movement

164. It is a name of a person which represent as an identification in a document and serves as

an acknowledgement of the document signed.
A. Evidential Signature
B. Model Signature
C. Signature
D. Fingerprint

• Evidential Signature - executed in particular date, time and place under the same writing
condition.

165. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or traced forgery is known as

A. Evidential Signature
B. Forged Signature
C. Model signature
D. Repeated Signature

166. Mr. A, a Chief of the Intelligence Division of PNP, will sign a “Confidential” file as an
approval regarding the operation against the notorious drug syndicate in their locality. What
class of signature does Mr. A executed?
A. Formal or Complete
B. Informal or Cursory
C. Careless Scribble
D. Forgery Classes of Signature

• Formal or Complete - for vital documents.

• Informal/Cursory - for daily or routine documents.
• Careless Scribble - not very important document

167. A fraudulent signature whereby there is no apparent attempt at simulation or imitation,

or the person (suspect) merely signs the name in his name and or used another signature and
possess the document before the fraud is discovered.
A. Fraudulent Forgery
B. Spurious Forgery/Simple Forgery
C. Simulated Forgery
D. Traced Forgery Types of Forgery

• Simple Forgery - no attempt of imitating other signature.

• Simulated Forgery - most skillful. Resembles genuine signature through free-hand writing.
• Traced Forgery - follow the outline of the original signature

168. A signature in a check is suspected to have been forged. The signatory does not remember
categorically whether he had issued the check. The signature was compared with a genuine
signature but both were in the same in size and shape. What will be your conclusion about the
signature?
A. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of the check
B. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in size and shape
C. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the issuance of the check
D. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all aspects when compared

169. A document becomes questioned documents when _____ or alterations, this usually
affect the original meaning of a document.
A. Forge
B. Fraudulent
C. Changes
D. Signature

170. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forgery, but it is very
difficult on the other hand to establish who committed the forgery because:
A. the forger might be a left handed
B. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise one’s handwriting
C. it might be a traced forgery
D. there is no sufficient standard available

171. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance

172. It is a type of characteristics which is commonly found in the specimen writing of other
persons.
A. Gross Characteristics
B. Individual Characteristics
C. Class Characteristics
D. A and C

173. The rounded inner part of an upper curve, bend or crook of a letter.
A. Humps
B. Blunt
C. Arc
D. Beard

• Beard - introductory up and down stroke.

• Humps - outer part of the upper curve.
• Blunt - abrupt beginning or end.

174. It is the body of the letter which is described as a small rounded or circular strokes.
A. Central Part
B. Buckle Knot
C. Ductus-link
D. Eyelet-eyeloop

• Buckle Knot - horizontal loop strokes to complete letters.

• Ductus-link - connection between letters.
• Eyelet - small oblong strokes.

175. It is an introductory backward strokes found in most capital letters.

A. Hiatus
B. Hitch
C. Knob
D. Loop

• Hiatus - obvious gap between letters.

• Knob - tiny pool of ink at beginning or end of letters.
• Loop - oblong strokes.

176. It is term as “the backbone of the letter” characterized by a long downward stroke.
A. Stem – tinatawag din na shank or staff
B. Initial/terminal Spur
C. Through
D. Whirl
• Whirl - long upward stroke opposite the stem.
• Initial/terminal Stroke - long running initial or terminal stroke.
• Through - garland form of stroke

177. It is an additional stroke that serves as an ornament or artistic design to a letter which is
not relevant to a writing.
A. Embellishment
B. Rubrics
C. Diacritics
D. A or B

• Diacritics - strokes added to complete letters. Only found on three letters.

178. One the points that should be considered in QD examination is the familiarization of the
shape and design of individual letters of the source which was referred to as the:
A. characteristics
B. Form
C. individual characteristics
D. rhythm

179. It is a type of writing movement which is usually found on a child who starts to learn how
to write or draw.
A. Hand Movement
B. Finger Movement
C. Forearm Movement
D. Whole Arm Movement Types of Movement

• Finger - used by beginners and there is lack of freedom.

• Hand - limited freedom.
• Forearm - most skillful type of movement.
• Whole Arm - for ornamental or large writing

180. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it offers ability of distinguishing

characteristics which are normal and disguised. What was being emphasized in the statement?
A. Examination
B. Distinguishing
C. Familiarization
D. Analysis

Note: Kasi familiar ka na sa sulat niya.

181. It refers to the average or usual pressure applied in the writing.

A. Pen Pressure
B. Pen Emphasis
C. Rhythm
D. Skills

182. It is an interruption in the stroke caused by the immediate removal of the writing pen
from the surface of the paper.
A. Pen Position
B. Pen Scope
C. Shading
D. Pen Lift

• Pen Position - position of pen in the paper surface.

• Pen Scope - reach of the hand while the wrist is at rest.
• Shading - increase in the width of letter.

183. It is the stroke which goes back over the previous writing strokes.
A. Retracing
B. Retouching
C. Patching
D. Shading

• Retouching or Patching- goes back over the defective writing. (portion)

184. It is the usual or normal individual’s handwriting.

A. Transitory Change
B. Natural Variations
C. Tremor
D. Writing Conditions

• Transitory Change - there is a temporary changes in the person’s condition that diverts them
to their normal writing. (Ex. Lasing)
• Tremor - weakening of strokes.

185. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.

A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk

186. An ink that is made by grinding carbon in the form of vegetable char with varnish made of
natural gums and drying oils.
A. Record ink
B. Liquid-lead pencil ink
C. Stamp-pad inks
D. Printing ink

187. If ballpoint was patented by John Loud, who patented the first practical fountain pen
containing its own ink reservoir?
A. William Mitchel
B. Lewis Waterman
C. Swamp Reed
D. Harrison Ford

188. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument.
A. Mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure (use of bleaching agent)

189. It is a process of spreading too much ink over an original writing to make it
undecipherable or illegible.
A. Obliteration
B. Charred Document
C. Contact Writing
D. Invisible Writing

• Contact Writing - sudden contact of fresh ink from a paper surface to another.
• Invisible Writing - no visible writing in the paper surface using sympathetic inks.
• Charred Document - partly burned document.

190. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment

191. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of the paper
from the back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of water markings?
A. Direct Light
B. Side Light
C. Oblique Light
D. Transmitted Light

192. Stereoscopic microscope is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of
documents that would show three dimensional enlargements. Three diameter enlargement in
a projection means that for each inch of the negative along a side, the print measures three
inches and has:
A. 12 times the area of the original negative
B. 18 times the area of the original negative
C. 8 times the area of the original negative
D. 9 times the area of the original negative – Hint: 3 times 3

193. In a conventional typewriter, it refers to the printing surface of the type block in which
each letter will be found.
A. Characters
B. Typeface
C. Alphabet
D. None of these

194. It is an abnormality in the type printing in which it refers to the actual damage to the
typeface metal.
A. Mal-Alignment
B. Permanent Defects
C. Typeface Defects
D. Transitory Defects

• Mal-alignment - the letters are printed inclined from its proper position.
• Permanent Defects - cannot be corrected by simply cleaning the machine.
• Transitory Defect - can be corrected by simply cleaning the machine.

195. It is a type of mal-alignment wherein a character is printed above or below its correct
position.
A. Horizontal Mal-alignment
B. Vertical Mal-alignment
C. Twisted Letters
D. Off-itsFeet

• Horizontal mal-alignment - printed either to the left or right.

• Twisted Letters - letters lean to the left or right once printed.
• Off-its-feet - some part of a letter is heavily printed than the remaining outline.

196. It is a typeface defect in which the print provides a double or overlapping impression.
A. Actual Breakage
B. Rebound
C. Actual Breakage
D. Clogged Typeface

• Actual Breakage - actual damage to the typeface.

• Clogged Typeface - typeface produced dirty prints.

197. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which the characters is 12 inch horizontal.

A. Pica (10)
B. Elite
C. Typewriter
D. Betamax

198. A document examiner with a good collection of typewriting samples can often date a
typewritten document by the difference in type. This is due to the fact that
A. typewriters change in design every year
B. the presence of differing n and m designs between 1936 and 1940
C. the presence of differing m and w designs between 1936 and 1940
D. typewriters changed between 1936 and 1940

199. The author of a typewritten document can be identified through

A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar composition, and paragraphing
B. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine
C. design and style of the typewriter’s character
D. brand and model of the typewriter

200. Who was the first person to develop a polygraph apparatus that was used in detecting
deception?
A. John Larson
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. Angelo Mosso
D. Cesare Lombroso

• John Larson (1921) - invented the “Breadboard Lie Detector”

• Leonarde Keeler (1926) - added kymograph in the polygraph machine.
• Angelo Mosso - put emphasis on the importance of fear in detecting deception. Used the
scientific cradle.
• Cesare Lombroso - Hydrosphymograph

201. It is a principle of polygraphy which says that a polygraph is capable of making graphic
record consisting of dependable information regarding the physiological changes of the body.
A. Psychological Leg Basic Premise - happens in the central nervous system.
B. Physiological Leg Basic Premise - physiological changes after the following the stimulation of
the Central Nervous System.
C. Mechanical Leg Basic Premise
D. None of these

202. American psychologist who constructed an instrument in 1926 which is capable of

continuously recording all the three phenomena-blood pressure, perspiration and respirations
during the entire period of the test.
A. John A. Larson
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. John E. Reid
D. Marcelo Malpighi

203. He is the heart specialized who is credited for the invention of the “Ink Polygraph”
A. Sticker
B. Veraguth
C. James Mackenzie
D. Cleve Backster

• Sticker - study the function of sweat glands to skin resistance.

• Veraguth- used the term Psycho-galvanic skin reflex.

204. All EXCEPT one is a purpose of polygraph examination.

A. to determine truth and deception in the polygraph examiner’s view
B. to determine truth and deception in a police investigation
C. to determine truth and deception based on the presence of emotional disturbances
D. to determine truth and deception for legal matters
205. This component records the changes of breathing of the subject
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pnuemograph
C. Kymograph
D. Galvanograph

• Cardiosphygmograph - records changes in heart and pulse beat.

• Galvanograph - records changes in skin resistance.

206. This is the longest and the second pen of the instrument.
A. Pneumograph (5-inch)
B. Galvanograph (7inch)
C. Cardiosphygmograph (5-inch)
D. Kymograph

• Pneumograph - 1st pen and composed of two pens (thoracic and abdominal breather)
• Galvanograph - 2nd pen.
• Cardiosphymograph - 3rd pen.

207. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.

A. Obtain confession
B. Prepare subject for polygraph test
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures

208. Prior to the examination the subject should have at least ___ hours of sleep.
A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours

• 12 hours - should avoid taking drugs

• 2 hours - stop smoking

209. What is the first step to be done in a pre-test interview?

A. ask the subject regarding all information the circumstances surrounding the commission of
the crime
B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the polygraph examination to the subject
C. you are informed of your rights against self incrimination and your right to a counsel
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the questioning of the subject to monitor
response

Note: Basahan mo ng karapatang pangtao kasi pwede ka baliktarin

210. The following should be taken onto consideration during the pre-test, EXCEPT:
A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
C. taking history record of the subject
D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the subject

211. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the polygraph examination.
A. Pre test
B. Preliminary Interview
C. Test Execution
D. Post test

212. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a
polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusation

213. It is conducted after the actual test designed to obtained confession or admission from
the subject.
A. Post-test Interview/interrogation
B. Actual Test
C. Chart Probing
D. Investigation

214. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph examiner done
every after taking each chart.
A. Initial Interview
B. Pre-Test Interview
C. Chart Probing
D. Post-Test Interview

215. It is a type of question in which it established the norms of the subject and it pertains to
the basic background of the subject. It only ask questions not related to the matter under
investigation.
A. Relevant Question
B. Irrelevant Question
C. Knowledge Question
D. Evidence-Connecting Question

216. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Fundador on the night of April 27, 2016?” is an example
of what question?
A. Relevant question
B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question – partial involvement
D. Strong relevant question

217. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question
A. Reaction
B. Normal response
C. Positive response
D. Specific response

218. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthful, the examiners finding should
be:
A. Conclusive
B. Inconclusive
C. Negative
D. Positive

219. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner used if he utilized padding
questions?
A. Peak of tension test
B. Stimulation test
C. General question test
D. Zone comparison test

• General Question Test - series of relevant and irrelevant question in a proper order.

220. It is a type of question in which it is designed to establish response from an innocent

subject.
A. Relevant Question
B. Control Question
C. General Question Test
D. Peak of Tension Test

221. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is instructed to
answer as quickly as possible.
A. Word association test
B. Psychological stress evaluator
C. Card test
D. Hypnosis

222. Under backster zone comparison test technique, color zones are applied in identifying so
many questions used during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what
then is the color zone for strong relevant questions?
A. Red
B. Black (Symptomatic Questions)
C. Green
D. Orange

223. What are the reasons for the inadmissibility to the court of the result of lie detector
examination?
1. Polygraph techniques are still in the experimental stage
2. There is no way to assure that a qualified examiner administered the test
3. The test cannot relied upon because of many errors
4. The examination is not scientifically made
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

224. He is considered as the Father of Forensic Chemistry

A. Imhotep – First recognized pathologist (Egypt)
B. Mathieu Orfila
C. Anacleto Del Rosario – Father of Chemistry in the Philippines
D. Paulus Zacchias – Father of Legal Medicine

225. He is considered as the first toxicologist who first developed a method to detect presence
of arsenic.
A. Jean Servais Stas
B. James Marsh
C. Socrates
D. Douglas Lucas

226. A title for coroners or medical examiners that work closely with police. Numerous
techniques used here, depending upon financial resources of a community, but still based
around autopsy. The expertise involves the medico-legal investigation of sudden, unnatural,
unexplained, or violent deaths. What is being described?
A. Forensic medicine
B. Forensic odontology
C. Forensic pathology
D. Medico legal examination

227. In the application of chemistry in the solution of crime, it must be taken into consideration
the accuracy of the result reported using appropriate tools and substances in the analysis of
physical evidence ensuring that all findings will be presented in the court of law. What golden
rule in the practice of forensic chemistry best describes the statement?
A. Take note and consult others
B. Be Thorough
C. Avoid Complicated theories
D. Go slowly

228. In the application of chemistry in the solution of crime, it must be taken into consideration
to make a careful and minute examination of physical evidence and do not be satisfied with a
qualitative analysis. What golden rule in the practice of forensic chemistry best describes the
statement?
A. Take note and consult others
B. Be Thorough
C. Avoid Complicated theories
D. Go slowly

229. In the scientific examination of physical evidence, those evidence collected from the crime
scene and brought to the crime laboratory are called questioned samples. Which of the
following example best describes a questioned sample?
A. A test bullet recovered from the firearm of the lead suspect
B. Standard signature from the Complainant
C. Fired Bullet embedded in the body of the corpse
D. Hair Sample from the nearest kin

230. Which of the following is NOT the important factors to follow when collecting evidence?
A. Allow swabs to dry thoroughly and dry with cold air only
B. Label each specimen collected with the information such as date, place, and circumstances of
collection
C. All specimen must be packed in a sealed plastic bag
D. Swabs must be used in collecting biological evidence such as buccal, oral, skin, and rectal
fluids

231. It is a technique used in materials to determine the crystallographic structure of material

commonly used in the examination of amorphous substance in drugs, explosive powder,
residues from arson and textile fibers.
A. Spectrograph – determine the age of the inks
B. X-ray diffraction
C. Chromatography – to determine the petroleum product na ginamit sa arson
D. Atomic Absorption Spectrometry

232. It is a classification of explosives in which the mixtures of chemicals burn rapidly but
subsonic.
A. Low Explosive
B. High Explosive
C. Mechanical Explosive
D. Chemical Explosive

233. It is a test used to determine the presence of lead residues left by the bullet in an item of
evidence particularly around the bullet hole.
A. Diphenylamine Test – yung wax na papatakan ng dipehynalamine
B. Paraffin Test – yun yung kandila na pinatak sa kamay mo
C. Griess Test
D. Sodium Rhodizonate Test – pula ang bullet hole may tumama ng bala

234. How many percent is the volume of blood in the human body?
A. 8-10 %
B. 7-8 %
C. 4-5 %
D. 5-6 %

235. How many glasses of blood are there in the average human body?
A. 5-10
B. 12-14
C. 10-12
D. 16-18

236. A bright red color of blood spurting from the body of a victim indicates that the
compromised blood vessel is an artery.
A. True
B. False
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

237. One of the characteristics of blood is its viscosity. According to study, how many times is
the thickness of blood than water?
A. 10x
B. 7x
C. 5x
D. 11x

238. It is the fluid portion of the blood composed principally of water and other constituents
such as proteins, enzyme, nutrients, and glucose.
A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Fibrin
D. Fibrinogen

239. It is a test conducted in a suspected blood at the crime scene to determine the possibility
of the presence of blood. This test is also known as color test.
A. Confirmatory Test
B. Presumptive Test
C. Precipitin Test
D. RBO Grouping

240. Benzidine test is considered as the most delicate and presumptive test for blood since it
can detect old and new bloodstain. What is the color result of Benzidine Test?
A. Pink
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Green

241. It is known as phenolphthalein test?

A. Kastle-Mayer Test
B. Leucomalachite Green Test
C. Van Deer’s Test
D. Guaiacum Test

242. It is a confirmatory test for the presence of blood with a micro-chemical characteristics of
a large rhombic crystals with salmon color due to detection of hemoglobin in the sample.
A. Acetone Haemin test
B. Teichmann Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Electrophoresis

243. Precipitin test is one of the vital examinations applied in the determination of blood
whether it is of human or animal origin. Which of the following results of precipitin test
indicates that the blood specimen is of human origin once injected by animal serum?
A. Production of visible bright, blue-colored specks around the skin surface
B. Development of white cloudy precipitate at the middle of the specimen
C. Appearance of microcrystalline dark brown rhombic prisms of chloride
D. Development of yellow tint stain

244. According to Peter Adamo’s Blood Type Diet, those individuals who are vegetarian and
with ancestors of farmers are those people with what blood type?
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

245. This indicates that the individual’s blood type has B antigen on the surface of the red
blood cells and A antibodies in your blood plasma.
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

Note: Antigen ang pipiliin

246. The following statements best show the importance of application of blood group data,
EXCEPT?
A. Determining of whether a man accused of fathering a child out of wedlock
B. Determination of whether a child born a married woman could or could not have been
fathered by her legal spouse
C. Determination of whether a child who has been lost and later recovered after being
D. Determination of the blood type of an offender to consider as conclusive evidence once
presented to the court

247. Mr. A is married to Mrs. B. Mr. A has a blood group of Type A while his spouse has a blood
group of Type AB. The female spouse conceived a child and found out that the infant has a
blood type O. Is it correct to say that the married couple is NOT the biological parent of the
child?
A. No, because blood type is not one of the basis of paternity
B. Yes, because the DNA of blood is conclusive in determining parentage
C. Yes, because it is impossible for a blood type A and type AB parent to conceive a blood type O
child.
D. No, because blood typing is only being considered for blood transfusion

248. It pertains to the physical, geometric image created by blood contacting a surface or by a
surface contacting blood.
A. Blood Spatter Analysis
B. Blood Spatter
C. Bloody Shit
D. Single Blood Spatter
249. A blood spatter analyst examines the size, shape, distribution and location of the
bloodstain to form opinions about what did or did not happen in crime scene. As a blood
spatter analyst, which of the following scenario is not one of the description of blood spatter
analysist?
A. Straight linear bloodstain on the ceiling of the crime scene
B. Dark brown stain on the wall indicating that the bloodshed occurred 12 hours ago
C. Analysis of the diameter of the parent spatter
D. Direction of the elongation of blood as it hits the point of impact

250. It is a blood spatter resulting from a forceful impact between an object and wet blood,
causing the blood to break into smaller droplets.
A. Single Drop
B. Cast-Off Stain
C. Impact Spatter
D. Transfer Bloodstain

251. The appearance of the bloodstain spatter will vary depending on the velocity of the blood
from its source towards the target. Which of the following best describes a medium velocity
stain?
A. A blood spatter created through a blunt trauma
B. A blood spatter produced from the first blow of a weapon on a target
C. A blood spatter characterized a mist-like stain
D. None of the above

252. This type of bloodstain pattern result from the discharge of pressurized blood onto a
target surface, for instance the ejection of blood from a punctured artery.
A. Projected Bloodstain
B. Pool Stains
C. Transfer Bloodstain
D. Expiration stains

253. A viscid whitish fluid of the male reproductive tract consisting of spermatozoa suspended
in secretion of accessory gland.
A. Sperm
B. Semen
C. Prostate Gland
D. Urine

254. What is the average volume of semen in a normal ejaculation of a man.

A. 1-2 ML
B. 2-5 ML
C. 6-10 ML
D. 7-8 M

255. An investigator found a suspected seminal fluid at the crime scene. The sample was
subjected to microscopic examination and no spermatozoa were found at the specimen. Will
that automatically render the specimen inconclusive to be considered as a semen?
A. Yes, because a man cannot produce semen without spermatozoa
B. No, because the absence of spermatozoa does not mean that the specimen is not a semen
C. Yes, semen and spermatozoa must be produced together
D. No, because there are certain individuals who can choose to release semen with or without
sperm cells

256. It is the part of the spermatozoa responsible for its flagella consisting of mitochondria.
A. Head
B. Tail
C. Midpiece
D. Yamite

257. It is a test for semen which results to a microcrystalline samples of slender yellow tinted
rhomboid needle shape of spermine picrate.
A. Florence Test
B. Acid Phosphatase Enzyme Test
C. Barberio’s Test
D. Alternative Acid Phosphatase Test

258. The following are the physical examination of dried seminal stain found on a fabric,
EXCEPT:
A. Movement of minute spermatozoa under the microscope
B. Exhibiting color fluorescence under UV Light
C. Appearance of a contour map along the suspected surface
D. A dry and starchy texture on the surface of the suspected fabric

259. One of the physical examinations of semen is the use of light process to the suspected
surface. The use of Ultraviolet examinations to the suspected seminal stain will exhibit what
fluorescence?
A. Yellowish Green
B. Purple Red
C. Dark brown
D. Bright Blue

260. It is the secretion of the mouth that is important in digestion and comprise of cells and
secretions from salivary and parotid glands.
A. Sweat
B. Saliva
C. Urine
D. Blood

261. Starch-iodine test is one of the presumptive tests used to determine the presence of
saliva in the crime scene. If the amylase in starch reacts strongly with iodine, it will result to
what color?
A. Dark Blue Complex
B. Reddish Purple Color
C. Yellow Stain
D. Brownish Pigment
262. The word DNA stand for?
A. Deoxyribonuclues Acid
B. Deoxyrebonuclie Acid
C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
D. Deoxydizebonuclei Acid

263. It is the most distinct part of the hair which is located at the top portion of the skin.
A. Root
B. Shaft
C. Tip
D. Cuticle

264. It is the outer layer of the hair shaft responsible in the shiny appearance of the hair.
A. Cuticle
B. Medulla
C. Cortex
D. Core

265. Which of the following statements is not true about the difference of animal and human
hair?
A. Medulla in the human hair is smaller while it is thicker in animals
B. The medullary index of human is greater than one-third than that of animal
C. Pigmentation in animal hair is denser than human hair
D. Animal hair can change colors in banded patterns; human hair cannot

266. The word textile fiber derived from the French word, “textere” means;
A. To suck
B. To weave
C. To silk
D. To shave

267. What is the main ingredient of glass?

A. Silica
B. Boric Acid
C. Boric Oxide
D. Phosphorous Pentoxide

268. It is the type of glass fracture having the appearance of circles around the point of impact
connecting one radiating crack to the other.
A. Radial Fracture
B. Concentric Fracture
C. Point of Impact
D. Pressure

269. PCpl Tolong Ges responds to a shooting. He was informed that a shot has been fired
through the glass windowpane. In such an instance, he would be most likely to find on the side
of the windowpane where the shot exited the windowpane all the following, EXCEPT
A. a crater formed
B. flaking of glass
C. concentric circles
D. radial fractures

270. It is a branch of science that defines the nature, effects and detection of substance that is
present to a specific matter.
A. Clinical Toxicology
B. Posology
C. Forensic Chemistry
D. Toxicology

271. A harmful compound that is usually produced by living cells or organisms and can cause
disease or harm when introduced into the body’s tissue.
A. Poison
B. Vaccine
C. Venom
D. Toxin (General)

272. Types of poisoning produced by a single massive dose. Death occurs very rapidly without
showing any signs and symptoms
A. Subacute Poisoning
B. Hyperacute Poisoning
C. Chronic Poisoning
D. Acute Poisoning

273. Any substance capable of producing cancer in living tissues

A. Carcinogen
B. Arsenic
C. Antidote
D. Corrosive

274. A dead body is found in a parked car with the motor still running and the windows closed.
Carbon monoxide is suspected as contributing to the death. Such suspicions would be
strengthened if the skin of the deceased was found to be –
A. a dark brown color
B. a cherry red color
C. a bruised black and blue appearance
D. a chalky white color

275. In case of double thumb of the same size, what should be the course of action in
classifying them
Ans. CLASSIFY ONLY THE INNER THUMB

276. In the course of the tracing of a whorl pattern, once the tracing splits into two branches
the tracing will proceed:
Ans. ON THE LOWER LINE OF THE SPLIT

277. In case that both fingers in a opposite hand is amputated, what will be the interpretation
of the fingers during classification?
Ans. PLAIN WHORL WITH MEETING TRACING
(One finger is amputated - classification - same classification of the opposite finger)

278. In recording special conditions of fingers, what will be the symbol used in case of
amputated finger
Ans. Write “Amp” or FMB at the upper right corner of the block.

279. A procedure in fingerprint examination in which the examiner identify and classify the
fingerprint patterns of each fingers.
Ans. ANALYSIS

STEPS IN FINGERPRINT EXAMINATION

Introduced by Sgt. David R. Ashbaugh (Code: ACE-V)
1. Analysis – general patterns and name of specific patterns are identified.
2. Comparison – ridge details of the fingerprints are compared.
3. Evaluation – The making of a conclusion whether the latent print and fingerprint of
suspect are the same.
4. Verification – The opinion of an examiner should be verified by 1-2 examiner/s.

280. One of the cardinal rules in taking fingerprints is that fingers must be completely:
Ans. DRY
Moist or Perspiring hand - WIPE IT WITH CLEAN CLOTH OR USE ALCOHOL
Too Dry - APPLY LOTION, OIL OR CREAM

281. In the classification line, the order should be:

Ans. Key, Major. Primary, Secondary and Sub-secondary and Final (KMPSSF)
Computation: PSSMFK

282. It is an instrument that used to preserve latent print:

Ans. LATENT PRINT TRANSFER CARD

283. Developing of latent print:

Ans. DUSTING METHOD

284. What light can make an object in an open space cast no shadow but objects at far distant
are clearly visible:
Ans. CLOUDY BRIGHT

CLOUDY DULL: no shadow and object at far distant is limited

DULL SUNLIGHT: no shadow
BRIGHT SUNLIGHT: deep and uniform shadow
HAZY SUNLIGHT: transparent shadow

285. Branch of photography which is focused on taking accurate photographs on crime

scenes and evidence:
Ans. CRIME SCENE PHOTOGRAPHY
286. Type of lens in which the focal length is more than twice than the diagonal of its
negative material:
Ans. TELEPHOTO LENS or LONG LENS

287. Type of lens with approximately equal the diagonal of its negative material:
Ans. NORMAL LENS

288. Type of lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negaive material:
Ans. WIDE ANGLE LENS or SHORT FOCUS LENS

289. This is the type of filter to improve the contrast of latent print impression with gray
powder in a yellow background
Ans. VIOLET FILTER

290. In a color film what layer is sensitive UV light to blue light:

Ans. Top layer; FILM- BLUE-SENSITIVE FILM

291. A type of film that is sensitive to UV Light up to Green light:

Ans. ORTHOCHROMATICFILM - middle layer

292. A type of film that is sensitive to UV light up to red light or all color
Ans. PANCHROMATIC FILM - last layer

293. Secondary Colors of light (combination of the primary colors) :

Ans. CYAN (Blue + Green); YELLOW (Green +Red) ; MAGENTA (Blue + Red)

294. Kind of lens that causes light rays to converge or come together:
Ans. CONVEX or POSITIVE LENS or CONVERGING LENS - thinner in the edges and thicker in
the middle

295. Kind of lens that is thicker towards the edges and thin in the middle:
Ans. CONCAVE or DIVERGING LENS or NEGATIVE LENS

296. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing is:
Ans. FLORENCE TEST - presence of CHOLINE

297. The test used to determine the presence of semen through spermine and a positive result
to a yellow-leaf shaped crystal is:
Ans. BARBERIO’s TEST

298. A test used to determine the presence of blood in which a positive result a dark rhombic
crystals:
Ans. TEICHMANN or HAEMIN CRYSTAL TEST

299. Test for the presence of blood with a positive result of a Salmon pink color:
Ans. TAKAYAMA TEST

300. A test used to determine if a blood stain comes from an human:

Ans. PRECIPITIN TEST

301. The DNA that is passed only from mother to offspring:

Ans. mtDNA (Mitochondrial DNA)

302. Hairs can be fine to medium coarseness and are generally straight or wavy in appearance:
Ans. CAUCASOID or EUROPEAN ORIGIN

303. Hair is regularly coarse and straight:

Ans. MONGOLOID or ASIAN ORIGIN

304. Regularly Kinky or curly:

Ans. NEGROID or AFRICAN ORIGIN

305. In handling biological and chemical evidences, it should be packed:

Ans. SEPARATELY
(the same biological evidence but different places: packed separately)

306. Any substance which produces deleterious effects of the living tissues
Ans. POISON

307. A type of poison that destroy and erodes the surface with which it comes in contact.
Ans. CORROSIVE POISON

308. The following are public documents, EXCEPT:

Ans. LAST WILL AND TESTAMENTS

309. It is an interruption in a stroke caused by removing the writing instrument from the
paper:
Ans. PEN LIFT - sign of forged handwriting or signature

310. Interruption in a writing stroke caused or break in the continuity of strokes but without
lifting the pen:
Ans. HIATUS - fast writing; sign of genuine handwriting or signature

311. Laboratory equipments used to identify indentation in a document:

Ans. ESDA or ELECTROSTATIC DETECTION

312. Laboratory equipment used to examine charred documents or obliteration:

Ans. INFRARED LIGHT

313. It is the stroke which goes back over the previous writing strokes:
Ans. RETRACING

314. Stroke that goes back over defective portion of stroke

Ans. RETOUCHING OR PATCHING

315. It is a forgery wherein a person does not try to copy any model or facsimile of a signature
they are attempting to forge.
Ans. SIMPLE FORGERY or SPURIOUS SIGNATURE

316. It is a reproduction or imitation of signature that resembles model signature copied

through
free hand. This is also known as the most skillful type of forgery.
Ans. SIMULATED or COPIED FORGERY or FREE HAND SIGNATURE

317. Type of erasure with the used of an liquid ink eradicator:

Ans. CHEMICAL ERASURE (liquid)

318. Type of erasure with the used of a knife or through scratching the surface of the paper:
Ans. MECHANICAL ERASURE

319. The method of examination in order to decipher an obliteration:

Ans. INFRARED LIGHT EXAMINATION

320. A method of examination to decipher traced forgery:

Ans. OBLIQUE LIGHT EXAMINATION

321. The red and blue fibers embedded in a denomination or banknote papers:
Ans. SECURITY FIBERS

322. In the 500 denomination, what is image is present in its OVD patch:
Ans. Blue-naped Parrot

323. In the 1000 denomination, what is the image present in its OVD patch:
Ans. South Sea Pearl

324. The condition of a type face that is the printing is heavier in one side than the remainder
of
the outline of the character.
Ans. OFF ITS FEET

325. Typeface defect in which a character prints double impression with the lighter one slightly
off-set to the right or left
Ans. REBOUND

326. Corrugated rubber bellows with the aid of beaded chain should be fastened on the
subject’
Ans. ABDOMEN AND CHEST

327. The arm cuff is placed:

Ans. ABOVE THE BRACHIAL ARTERY

328. The primary purpose of pre-test interview:

Ans. Prepare subject for polygraph subject
329. If the subject is still highly nervous, what shall the examiner do?
Ans. PROLONG THE PRE-TEST UP TO 30 minutes

330. A question used to establish a specific response:

Ans. RELEVANT QUESTION
Normal Responses: IRRELEVANT QUESTION

331. Question design to ensure that the examiner will not ask an un-reviewed questions:
Ans. SYMPTOMATIC QUESTIONS

332. Prior to the examination the subject should have at least ___ hours of sleep.
Ans. 5 HOURS

333. The best indication of deception in polygraph is the presence of specific response:
Ans. PRESENT IN THE 3 TRACING OF THE CHARTS (Pneumo Tracing; GSR Tracing;
Cardiosphygmanometer)

334. A deviation in a tracing to be considered as Specific response should :

Ans. DEVIATE FROM THE NORMAL TRACING AND APPEAR ATLEAST IN 2 CHARTS

335. Markings which indicate the beginning and the end of the examination as well as the
questions and answer of the subject:
Ans. PRIMARY MARKINGS (x;xx; 2+2-)
SECONDARY MARKINGS: markings that are placed which are placed only if the examinee
does something which will cause pyschological tracings to distort –

336. Characteristics of Firearms that were set EVEN BEFORE the manufacture of FAs:
Ans. CLASS CHARACTERISTICS

337. Characteristics of the firearms that are the product of machine imperfections and some
later
due to the used of the firearms;
Ans. INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS after manufacture; wear and tear results

338. The marks left on a fired bullet which appears as slight depressions or scratches the
cylindrical surface of the fired bullet.
Ans. LAND MARKS
Elevated mark or portion in the bullet - GROOVE MARKS

339. The depressed portion in the bore of a FAs;

Ans. GROOVES
The elevated or raised portion in the bore of a FAs: LANDS

340. Mark in a fired shell which is caused by the withdrawal from the CHAMBER:
Ans. EXTRACTOR MARK

341. Mark in a fired shell caused bit its withdrawal from the FIREARM:
Ans. EJECTOR MARK
342. Marks commonly found on bullet fired from a revolver cause by its forward movement to
the barrel that is poorly aligned to the cylinder.
Ans. SHAVING MARKS

343. Marks in a bullet caused by an oily or oversize barrel:

Ans. SLIPPAGE MARKS

344. For a recovered firearm, the marking should be placed on what specific part of a FA?:
Ans. FRAME

345. Markings in a recovered shell:

Ans. Inside the shell near open mouth

346. Markings in a recovered fired bullets:

Ans. OGIVE or NOSE

347. Markings on disfigured fire bullets:

Ans. BASE

348. An instrument designed to permit the firearms examiner to determine the similarity and
dissimilarity between two fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously observing
their magnified image in a single microscopic field.
Ans. BULLET COMPARISON MICROSCOPE

349. Measurement of Bullet Recovery Box (test fire) :

Ans. 12 inches by 12 inches by 96 inches

350. In test fire, the examiner uses how many test bullets:
Ans. 3 bullets

351. What is the purposes of the 3 Test bullets:

Ans.
1st - comparison
2nd - Confirmation
3rd – Conclusion

352. RIMMED TYPE - the rim has a diameter more than the cylindrical portion or body
SEMI-RIMMED TYPE- diameter of the rim is slightly greater than diameter of body
RIMLESS CARTRIDGE- based or head of the cartridge has the same diameter as that of the
cylindrical portion
REBATED TYPE- smaller than the body of cartridge case
BELTED TYPE - a cartridge with a prominent raise belt around its body just in front of the
extraction groove.

353. It is a carefully made replica of a cartridge, usually made of steel and discreetly
dimensioned to be used by weapons instructors, inspectors and repairmen when checking if
weapons are functional:
Ans. DUMMY AMMUNITION

354. It is completely inert and without an explosive propellant; no gun powder:

Ans. DRILL AMMUNITION

354. An ammunition without a BULLET:

Ans. BLANK AMMUNITION

355. Type of firearms that constitutes a continuous firing in a single press of the trigger and
while the trigger is press:
Ans. AUTOMATIC FA
1. Single shot firearms = types of firearms designed to fire only one shot every loading.
2. Repeating Arms = A type of firearms designed to fire several loads (shot) in one
loading.

356. A type of revolver that does not need manual cocking:

Ans. DOUBLE ACTION FA

357. A type of revolver that needs a manual cocking of the hammer before squeezing the
trigger
Ans. Single action

358. A classification of explosives that DETONATE:

Ans. HIGH EXPLOSIVES

359. An explosives that DEFLAGRATE:

Ans. LOW EXPLOSIVES

360. An explosives that are sensitive materials and could be ignited by minimal heat or
pressure:
Ans. PRIMARY EXPLOSIVES (Primer)

361. Explode under the influence of the shock of the explosion of primary explosive
Ans. HIGH EXPLOSIVES

362. The dogmatic principle which provides that no two fingerprints are exactly alike
Ans. PRINCIPLE OF INDIVIDUALITY/ VARIATION/UNIQUENESS

363. It is a single ridge that divides into two but does not remain open and converge at a
certain
point to form the original single ridge.
Ans. ENCLOSURE or EYELET or LAKE RIDGE

364. What is the finger in block number seven (7) and number eight (8)
Ans. Left Index and Left Middle

365. A fingerprint impression that is taken individually by rolling each finger from one side to
the other side and from the tip to the end of the first joint
Ans. ROLLED IMPRESSION

366. It refers the study of the individual pattern of lip marks.

a. Poroscopy
b. Edgeoscopy
c. Podoscopy
d. Cheiloscopy

367. Generally speaking, fingerprints found at the crime scene are called
a. Latent print
b. Rolled impressions
c. Chance prints
d. Latent impressions

368. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven number of rods rising as high
as the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it
touches the looping ridge or not.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False

369. The Delta may be located at the bifurcation which does not open towards the core
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Never

370. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and delta appear which we are
concerned in the classification process.
a. Type lines
b. Pattern Area
c. Bifurcation
d. Delta

371. I. When there is a definite break in type line, the ridges immediately inside of it is
considered as its continuation
II. when the bifurcation run parallel after bifurcating and then diverge, in such case, the two
forks/bifurcation become the type line.
a. Statement 1 and 2 are true
b. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
c. Statement 1 and 2 are both false
d. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

372. I. Fragments and dots are always counted

II. Incipient ridge never counted.
III. Delta and core are counted.
a. Statement 1,2,3 are true
b. Statement 1 and 3 are false
c. Statement 1 and 2 are true
d. Statement 1,2,3 are false

373. If an imaginary line crosses a bifurcation’s tail, how many ridge counts are there?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

374. Prior to the modification by the FBI, the Henry system consisted of 4 classifications
system. These were___.
a. Primary, Major, Key and Final Classification
b. Primary, Major, Secondary and Sub-secondary Classification
c. Primary, Secondary, Sub-secondary and Final Classification
d. Key, Major, Sub-secondary and Final Classification

375. Henry system of classification was established with the help of two police namely ___ and
____.
a. Juan Vucetich and Charles Collins
b. Azizul Haque and Chandra Bose
c. Charles Darwin and Francis Galton
d. Charles Collins and Chandra Bose

377. Identification by fingerprints relies on pattern matching followed by the detection of

certain ridge characteristics, also so known as Galton details, points of identity, or minutiae and
it has 3 basic characteristics which is the _____.
a. Bifurcation, Ridge Counting and Ridge Tracing
b. Delta, pattern area and typelines
c. Bifurcation, Enclosure and dot
d. Bifurcation, ridge end and island

378. I. When the tracing ridge abruptly terminates, the next upper ridge shall be the
continuation.
II. If the tracing ridge bifurcates, the upper branch of the bifurcation shall be considered.
III. Do not count delta or tracing ridge
a. Statement 1 and 2 are false
b. Statement 2 and 3 are false
c. All statements are true
d. All statement are false

379. A type of fingerprint pattern in which one or more of the ridges enter on either side of
the impression, recurve, touch or pass an imaginary line drawn from the delta to the core,
and terminate or tend to terminate on or toward the same side of the impression from when
such ridge or ridges entered.
a. Loop
b. Whorl
c. Arch
d. Accidentals

380. A practical technique used in developing latent print on human skin. It is done by spraying
a fume into the area of the skin.
a. Iodine Silver Plate
b. Iodine Fuming - iodine fume reacts with the greasy or oily and fatty substance of latent prints.
- ideally use when prints are still fresh.
c. Ninhydrin method- this chemical is used to develop latent prints on porous surfaces;
especially paper and it must be used only with adequate ventilation
d. Powdering method

381. Refers to the formula derived for a complete set of ten fingerprints or the arrangement of
fingerprint records into groups or subgroups for filling purposes.
a. Fingerprint Classification
b. Fingerprint Blocking Out
c. Classification Line
d. Primary Classification

382. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in finger number eight (8) is a loop, what is
the numerical value of that finger?
A. None
B. 8
C. 16
D. 2

383. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorl pattern while in the left hand are all loop
pattern, what will be the primary classification?
A. 25/29
B. 24/28
C. 8/4- if all Left finger is Whorl
D. 32/32

384. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears on the middle finger and
there are 12 ridge counts, what will be the interpretation?
A. Ring
B. Outer
C. Inner
D. Middle

385. What classification in the fingerprint classification is derived by ridge counting a loop and
tracing a whorl on the thumb?
A. Key Classification
B. Major Classification
C. Final Classification
D. Secondary Classification

386. What is the major division if the left thumb has 17 ridge count and the right thumb has 21
ridge
a. M/L
b. L/M
c. S/L
d. M/M

387. For purposes of Final Division, if both little fingers have no loop, whorl will be considered.
In ridge counting the whorl on the right little finger it is ____.
a. ridge counted from the left delta to the core.
b. ridge counted the right delta towards the core.
c. ridge counted from left delta to right delta
d. ridge counted from rzight delta to left delta

388. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will be;
a. M 32 W MMM/ M 32 W MMM
b. M 32 M MMM/ M 32 M MMM
c. W 32 W MMM/ W 32 W MMM
d. None of these

389. For purposes of the Primary Classification, the Right Index and Left Middle are intended as
denominator.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially false

390. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the symbol for purposes of the Sub-
Secondary Classification?
a. I
b. O
c. M
d. L

391. If two Opposite Finger are amputated what would be its classification?
a. Both fingers are given whorls with inner trace value
b. Both fingers are given whorls with meet trace value
c. Both fingers are given whorls with middle trace value
d. Both fingers are given whorls with outer trace value

392. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows against the little
finger?
A. Loop
B. Radial Loop
C. Ulnar Loop
D. Tented Arch

393. Ester is examining a fingerprint pattern having a 2 delta and a core with few spiral
formations at the center but no complete circuiting ridge is cut. What type of pattern Estes is
examining?
A. W – touch or cross any circuiting ridge
B. X
C. C
D. D

394. What is considered as the utmost (pangkaraniwan) used of photography in police work?
A. For identification
B. For preservation – ultimate purpose (pinakalayunin) of photography
C. For record purpose
D. For court presentation

395. What part of a camera with a central aperture which is adjustable for its size in order to
regulate the amount of light to enter the lens or optical system?
A. Diaphragm
B. Shutter
C. Shutter speed dial
D. aperture

396. Uses of photograph in comparison of bullet cartridge.

a. Victor Baltazard
b. Odelbercht - first use of photograph in identification and documentation of criminals and
crime scene
c. George Eastman- inventor of Kodak film, or roll films
d. William Abney - Hydroquinone, a developer

397. The distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who is almost a stranger?
A. 100 yards
B. 16 to 17 yards
C. 25 yards
D. 10 to 13 yards

398. The first use of color photography in civil case which involves spoiled meat in violation of
a health ordinance prohibiting the sale of putrid meat to the public.
a. State vs. Conte
b. Green vs. City
c. Luco vs. US
d. Underzook vs. Commonwealth

399. In the Philippines the admissibility of photograph as evidence was ruled in this CASE
a. People vs. Medina
b. People vs. Jennings
c. Manila vs Amador
d. Manila vs Cabangis

400. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the extent damage on the subject?
A. General View
B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot
D. Extreme Close-up shot

401. A kind of Reflection wherein light hits a flat, smooth and shiny surface.
a. Diffused
b. Regular
c. Irregular
d. Refraction

402. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which produced what secondary color of
light?
A. Magenta
B. Yellow
C. Cyan
D. Orange

403. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called
A. Attraction
B. Diffraction
C. Light Curve
D. Refraction

404. Objects in open space cast no shadow and visiblity of distant objects is already limited.
A. Bright light
B. Hazy sunlight
C. Cloudy bright
D. None of the above – Cloudy dull

405. A type of shutter in which it opens from the center and is placed between the lens.
a. Shutter Release button
b. Shutter Transport Lever
c. Focal Plane Shutter
d. Leaf Shutter

406. It is the mechanism of the camera designed to control the degree of sharpness of the
object to be photograph.
A. Range Finder
B. Ground Glass
C. Focusing
D. Scale Bed

407. Is that part of the camera which regulates the time exposure of the film thus, affecting the
amount of light reaching the sensitized material.
a. Shutter
b. Shutter Speed
c. Shutter Lever
d. Film Advancer

408. In taking photograph of evidence, what must be done?

a. Take photograph with measurements
b. Take photograph without measurements
c. Take photography without measurements, then with measurements
d. Take photographs with measurements then without measurements

409. What part of human eye which is similar to the shutter of the camera
a. Eyeball
b. Iris
c. Pupil
d. Eyelid

410. A type of camera with lenses which is one for focusing thru the film and the other for
viewing .
a. View Finder Type
b. SLR
c. View or Press type
d. TLR

411. A part of digital camera in which electrical signal is converted into a digital data.
a. digital signal processor
b. analogue-to-digital converter
c. charged-coupled device
d. digital coupled converter

412. Is the difference between what is seen through the viewfinder and what is exactly
recorded on the film.
a. Dual lens problem
b. Paradigm
c. Parallax
d. Flash Sync

413. What will be the lighting condition if you are going to take a photograph using a film speed
of ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250 with an aperture of f8?
A. bright
B. hazy
C. dull
D. open light

Bright- F8
Dull- F 5.6

414. A type of lens which forms the virtual image on the same side of the lens.
a. Negative Lens
b. Concave Lens
c. Diverging Lens
d. All of the above
415. Inability of the lens to focus light passing the side of the lens producing an image that is
sharp in the center and blurred at the side.
a. coma
b. lens aberration
c. Curvature of field
d. spherical abberation

416. Inability of the lens to focus light of varying wavelength or spectrum. The lens refracts
rays of short wavelength more strongly than those of longer wavelength and therefore bringing
blue rays to a shorter focus than the red.
a. Color aberration
b. chromatic aberration
c. coma
d. astigmatism

417. The distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the focal plane when the
lens is focused at infinity position or far distance
a. Lens Aperture
b. Lens Distance
c. Film length
d. Focal Length

418. Which aperture will give a greater depth of field?

a. f/2.8
b. f/4
c. f/16
d. f/8

419. Which of the following distance will give the widest depth of field?
a. Slow distance
b. Far distance
c. Near distance
d. Close distance

420. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting
capability of the lens. Which of the following lens opening will admit more light to pass
through its medium?
A. F-4 lens opening
B. F-8 lens opening
C. F 5.6 lens opening
D. F-11 lens opening

421. Reduces the intensity of light exposure of light without altering the color balance.
a. Polarizing filter
b. Color compensating filter
c. Light balancing filter
d. Neutral density filter
422. It is a kind of film that is sensitive to UV rays, blue and green colors, but not to red.
a. infrared film
b. orthochromatic film
c. monochromatic film
d. panchromatic film

423. Also known as “slide film”, it captures images as a “positive”, replicating color and values
directly.
a. Negative film
b. Reversal Film
c. Neo-film
d. Chromatic film

424. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains that formed after development of an
exposed film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity
b. Granularity
c. Emulsion Speed
d. Reversal Film

425. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
A. ASA 300
B. ASA 100
C. ASA 200
D. ASA 400

The rule is:

 The lower the emulsion speed rating of the film, the finer is the grain and conversely,
 The higher the emulsion speed rating, the bigger are the grain.

426. Type of photo paper according to emulsion used that is used for contact printing which
prints the same size of what the negative is.
a. Silver Bromide paper
b. Silver Chloride paper
c. Silver Chlorobromide paper
d. Variable Paper

427. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence?

A. 5 x 7 inches
B. Passport size
C. 2 x 2 inches
D. 4 x 8 inches

428. Photographic papers are classified into according to its emulsion speed, physical
characteristics, surface texture, color, and contrast. What are the essential classifications of
photographic paper which is considered as ideal to police work?
A. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, Cream, and Velox #2
B. Silver bromide Paper, Light Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #3
C. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #2
D. Silver chloride Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #0

429. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a
firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning
B. Smith and Wesson
C. Colt
D. Steyer

430. The first priming mixture was discovered by Alexander Forsyth, and it is composed
originally of?
a. Potassium Chlorate, Nitrogen and Sulfur
b. Potassium Nitrate, Nitrogen and Sulfur
c. Potassium Chlorate, Sulfur and Carbon
d. Potassium Chlorate, Nitrogen and Carbon

431. This is the farthest distance at which the bullet's path stays within the critical zone.
a. Maximum Range
b. Point Blank range
c. Effective range
d. Accurate range

432. The speed the projectile must travel to penetrate skin needed is ____.
a. 180 fps
b. 213 fps - breaks a bone
c. 163 fps
d. 250 fps

433. The bullet’s design provides the most braking from shape alone, is not jacketed, and used
in low velocity handguns often for target practice.
a. Round nose
b. Wadcutter
c. Cupped
d. Jacketed

434. In 1929, using a comparison microscope adapted for forensic ballistics, Calvin Goddard and
his partner Phillip Gravelle were able to absolve the Chicago Police Department of participation
in the ______.
a. St. Jude Day Massacre.
b. St. Valentine's Day Massacre
c. Sacco and Vanzetti case
d. Murder of Al Capon

435. Wizard of the modern firearms and pioneered the breech loading single shot rifled which
was adopted by Winchester.
a. Samuel Colt
b. John M. Browning
c. Alexander John Forsyth
d. Major Uziel Gal

436. An English Monk scientist who published the “ De Mirabili Potestate Artis et Naturae” On
the Marvelous Power of Arts and invented the gunpowder in 1248.
a. Berthold Schwarts - application of gunpowder on a gun in 1313
b. Roger Bacon
c. King Edward III
d. John M Browning

437. It refers to the measure of the distance advance by the rifling in order to make a
complete turn inside the barrel.
A. Pitch of rifling
B. Bore diameter
C. Lands and grooves
D. Bullet twisting

438. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the
identification expert is:
A. reaming operation
B. rifling operation
C. lapping operation
D. drilling operation

439. It does not cut longitudinal spiral grooves inside but it produces the same by depressing
a portion of the internal surface of the bore thus creating the grooves.
a. Button system
b. Broaching system
c. Rifling system
d. Lapping System

Note: Broaching system – we use a broaching cutter that cuts a longitudinal spiral grooves
inside the barrel.

440. A short barrel rifle, having a barrel not longer than 22 inches and it is designed to fire a
single shot through a rifled-bore.
a. Rifle
b. Cavalry gun
c. Carbine
d. Muskets

441. Caused by deposition of smoke particles of powders at close ranges

a. Smudging
b. Contusion
c. Dirt ring
d. Tattooing
442. It was considered the forerunner of .22 short cartridge which was developed by Flobert in
1835.
a. Pinfire cartridge
b. Rimfire cartridge
c. Centerfire cartridge
d. Semi cartridge

443. A type of firearm which has 6-7 lbs of trigger pressure.

a. Pistols- 3-4 lbs
b. rifle
c. shotgun- 4 lbs
d. revolver- 3-5 lbs

444. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in the 15th to 17th centuries. Like its successor,
the musket, it is a smoothbore firearm, but it is lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of
the rifle and other longarm firearms.
A. arquebus
B. musket
C. blunderbuss – ancient forerunner of short firearms
D. rifle

445. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of

the expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Cartridge – ang bullet part lang siya ng cartridge
b. Bullet
c. Primer
d. Gun powder

446. In this firearm a pressure is applied on the trigger and will both cock and fire the firearm
by release of the hammer.
a. Single Action Firearm – need manual cocking
b. Double Action Firearm – does need manual cocking
c. Single Shot Firearm
d. Automatic Firearm

447. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of the rim is larger than the
diameter of the shell’s body?
A. Belted type
B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type
D. Rimmed case

448. Is a type of shot with a small amount of antimony mixed with lead to increase hardness.
a. Antimony shots
b. Hard shots or chilled shots - does not deform easily
c. Drop shots or soft shots- made by pure or nearly pure lead
d. Plated Shots or coated- also called as “lubaloy” shot. A chilled shot coated with thin copper
through electroplating design for greater strength and elasticity
449. A type of bullet with a cavity on its nose designed to increase the expansion and
sometimes called as the express bullet.
a. Dumdum bullet
b. Indian Bullet
c. Soft point bullet
d. Hollow point bullet

450. The common metallic cartridge cases is composed of what metals?

a. 70% Au; 30 Zinc
b. 70% Cu; 30 Zinc
c. 80% Au; 20% Zinc
d. 80% Cu; 20 Zinc

451. Is the hole at the bottom of the primer pocket as the passage way for the priming mixture
to impart an ignition to the propellant charge.
a. Primer
b. Primer pocket - which provides the means for the primer to be put in the central position
c. Vent or flash hole
d. Crimp

452. Composed of nitrocellulose and nitroglycerine with the following minor ingredients
centralite, Vaseline phthalate, esters, Inorganic salt.
a. Double based
b. Single Based
c. Triple Based
d. Ballistite

453. In homicidal firing cases, this is the common evidence to prove that firing was homicidal.
a. No point of election and wound located at any part of the body
b. Accesibility of part of body or has point of election
c. Only one gunshot wound
d. Presence of cadaveric spasm

454. PT must be conducted within _____ days to be considered as corroborative evidence.

a. 72 hrs
b. 3 days
c. 2 days
d. 48 hrs

455. When DPA-Paraffin test was conducted, the appearance of ____ can be observed if nitrates
are present.
a. Blue Specks - other organic compound Fertilizers, explosives, tabacco, urine, cosmetics, food
samples and cigarettes.
b. Tailing with blue specks
c. Yellow specks
d. tinted blue color
456. A corrosive type of priming mixture which draws moisture in the air and speeds rusting
and corrosion in the gun barrels
a. Potassium nitrate
b. Potassium chlorate
c. Barium nitrate – non-corrosive nitrate
d. Barium chlorate

457. A disc used to separate powder from shot, to seal propellant gases behind the shot or to
hold shot together in the barrel.
a. Shot
b. Pellets
c. Wads
d. Crimp

458. In the absence or none use of these firing pin mark and breech face mark, the following
can be considered as secondary choice.
a. extractor and ejector mark
b. magazine and secondary marks
c. lands and grooves marks
d. bullet and cartridge case marks

459. For conclusiveness, there should be at least 3 test bullet fired, what would be the
interpretation for the third test fired bullet?
a. comparison
b. Preliminary
c. conclusion
d. confirmation

Note: 1. Comparison, 2. Confirmation, 3. Conclusion

460. Under the bullet microscope, the 2 fired bullets or shells are examined in?
a. Compared position
b. Juxtaposition
c. Bullet recovery box
d. Aligned position

461. If the violation of RA 10591 is in furtherance of or incident to, or in connection with the
crime of rebellion or insurrection, sedition, or attempted coup d'etat, such violation shall
be_____ as an element of the crime of rebellion, or insurrection, sedition, or attempted coup
d'etat.
a. Alternative circumstance
b. Aggravating Circumstance
c. Absorbed in the crime
d. No effect at all

462. All types of licenses to possess a firearm shall be renewed every_____.

a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 2 years
d. 1 year

Renewal of Licenses and Registration. – All types of licenses to possess a firearm shall be
renewed every two (2) years. The registration of the firearm shall be renewed every four (4)
years.

463. It is decorative stroke that finishes off the end of a letters stem.
a. Serif
b. Feet
c. San Serif
d. Loop

464. This device is typically used to discriminate between different inks and reveal alterations
or obliterations, visualize security features in papers, and examine characteristics such as
watermarks and fiber disturbances using transmitted, direct, or oblique light.
a. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
b. Oblique Light Examination
c. Video Spectral Comparator
d. Ink Eradicator

465. Questioned document examination charge to visualize writing impressions such as

indentations and erasures
a. Video Spectral Comparator
b. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
c. Red jumpsuit apparatus
d. Projection light examination

466. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the
writing instrument.
a. Line quality - the overall character of the ink lines from the beginning to the ending strokes.
b. Rhythm – recurrences of letters and words
c. Baseline
d. Writing pressure

467. The color of 200-peso denomination is

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Red

468. This is regarded as the principal method of ink examination.

a. Ink analysis
b. Chromatographic Analytical Method- ink chromatography
c. Benzidine Method
d. None of these

469. Signed by the testator acknowledge before a notary public with 3 witnesses.
a. Notarial will
b. will and testament
c. holographic will- entirely written in the handwriting of the testator
d. questioned will

470. Latin word for document which means “lesson, or example”

a. docere- French means to teach
b. documentum
c. documere
d. docure

471. The cylinder which serve as the backing of the paper and which absorbs the blow on the
type face is known as
a. Crimp
b. Platen
c. Off its feet - The condition of a typeface printing heavier on one side or corner than over the
remainder of its outline.
d. Rebound- prints a double impression

472. Refers to minute and finely printed words “Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas” or Central Bank
of the Philippines” located at the face or back of the note.
a. Value Panel
b. Micro printing
c. Serial Numbers
d. Vignette

473. Found only in 500- and 1000-piso notes, this patch is a reflective foil, bearing the image of
the Blue-naped parrot for 500-piso/clam with South Sea pearl for 1000-piso, changes color from
red to green when the note is rotated 90 degrees.
a. Security Thread
b. Optically Variable Ink
c. Optically Variable Device Patch
d. Concealed Value

474. Is the ordering or assembling of detailed results of critical comparison of questioned

documents, or a unified result of detailed comparison between different items or forms of
information.
a. Opinion
b. Collation - critical comparison or side by side examination
c. Analyst
d. Comparison- act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying qualities

475. This group of muscles push up the pen to form the upward strokes.
a. Flexor
b. Extensor – push the pen to form the downward strokes
c. Indensor
d. Flextensor
476. A kind of writings which letters are separated or printed writing.
a. cursive
b. block
c. script
d. uppercase

KINDS OF WRITINGS:
A. Cursive – connected; writing in which one letter is joined to the next.
B. Script – separated or printed writing.
C. BLOCK – all CAPITAL LETTERS.

477. A kind of produced by the movement or action of the whole hand with the wrist as the
center of attraction.
a. Whole Forearm Movement
b. Forearm Movement
c. Hand Movement
d. Finger Movement

478. A connections which links the downward stroke to the upstrokes with a flowing curve
swinging from left to right.
a. Arcade
b. Angular connective form
c. The threadlike connective form
d. Garland

479. Element added to complete a certain letter, either a cross bar or a dot.
a. Foot
b. Hook
c. Diacritic
d. Knob

480. It is the stroke which goes back over the previous writing strokes.
A. Retracing
B. Retouching or patching- goes back over defective writing
C. Patching
D. Shading

481. The angle or inclination of the axis of the letters relative to the baseline
a. Sloop
b. Loops
c. Lateral
d. Slants

482. A writing in which there is lack of freedom and inhibited movements

a. loosed writing - characterized by too much freedom of movement and lack of regulation.
b. termed writing
c. restrained writing
d. recurred writing
483. Submit request standards of the questioned text written at least how many writings?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. as many as subject can write

484. Which of the statement is untrue in procedure for taking request handwriting standards
in all types of questioned-document problems
a. Furnish subject with paper and writing instrument not similar to those used in questioned
writings
b. Never permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document.
c. Dictate material to be written
d. Give no assistance in spelling or arrangement on page

485. The Forger does not try to copy a model but writes something resembling what we
ordinarily call a signature, what class of forgery of signature is this?
a. Freehand
b. Simulated
c. Traced
d. Spurious – or Simple forgery. No attempt of imitating other signature

486. A type of traced forgery in which the fraudulent document is on top of the document
containing the genuine signature, using a light gadget, a strong source of light will strike either
from the back or bottom of the two documents which superimposed the outline of the
genuine signature.
a. dim illumination process
b. projection process
c. photomicrographing process
d. infra red light process

487. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which the characters is 12 per inch horizontal.
A. Pica
B. Elite
C. Typewriter
D. special

CONVENTIONAL TYPEWRITERS USING TYPE BARS

1. Pica Type - 10 letter/inch
2. Elite Type - 12 Letters/inch
3. 6 Letters/inch
4. Teletype Machine
5. 14-16 letter/inch - specials typewriters

488. For collecting exemplar and standard obtain sufficient handwriting exemplars, at least
________signatures
a. five to ten
b. twenty to thirty
c. twenty to twenty-five
d. ten to fifteen

489. Is the excess of globules of ink oftentimes deposited after a sharply curve stroke or the
point of an abrupt change of writing direction.
a. Gooping
b. Smurfing
c. Swerving
d. Bluffing

Note: KNOB -the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow
withdrawal of the pen from the paper.

490. What is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in the irrelevant question?
a. Deception
b. Lying
c. Specific response – relevant questions
d. Normal tracing

491. Caused by the contraction of the diaphragm and expansion of the chest cavity those
results in the air rushing into the lungs
a. inspire
b. inspiration
c. expiration- caused by a relaxation of the diaphragm and contraction of the chest cavity
resulting in the air rushing out of the lungs.
d. respiration

492. It is attached to the upper right arm of the subject, above the brachial artery.
a. Sphygmomanometer
b. Blood Pressure Cuff
c. Sensitivity Control
d. Pump Bulb

493. The upward blood pressure as the apex of the curve caused by the contraction of the
heart, valves are open and blood is rushing into the arteries.
a. Pulse Rate- changes in heart rate or time between pulses
b. Dicrotic Notch- short horizontal notch in a cardio-tracing located at the middle of the diastolic
stem
c. Diastolic- downward blood pressure representing the low pressure to the closing of the valves
and heart relaxed.
d. Systolic- upward blood pressure

494. In polygraph testing, the receptor is the ___ of the subject, which receives the threatening
question or stimulus from the polygraphist.
a. Eyes
b. Ears
c. Mouth
d. Skin resistance
495. One of this is a principal use of polygraph instrument; except
A. Invaluable aid in investigation
B. To determine the facts of the case
C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
D. A very good substitute of the investigation

496. The following are limitations of the polygraph, EXCEPT?

a. it is a not scientific diagnostic instrument
b. It is not a lie detector
c. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
d. No examination will be conducted on unfit subject

497. He developed the sphygmomanometer and “scientific cradle”, which was designed to
measure the flow of blood while a person lay on his back in a prone position.
a. Daniel Defoe - recommends taking of the pulse as a method of identifying a criminal.
b. Cesare Lombroso- Employed the first scientific instrument to detect deception-
Hydrosphygmograph
c. William Moulton Marston – Discontinuous Technique/ Systolic blood pressure by using
sphygmomanometer
d. Angelo Mosso - studied fear and emotion/ uses plethysmograph Francis Franke- invented
plethysmograph

498. What is the other term for polygraph examination?

a. Psychophysiological detection of deception
b. Lie detector test
c. Narcoanalysis
d. None of these

499. In interrogation method the process employed is?

a. voluntary
b. compulsory
c. propounded
d. merely asking

500. Pneumograph component consist of two hollow corrugated tubes, in connection with this
what is the exact measurement of the hollow corrugated tubes?
a. Five (5) inches
b. Six (6) inches
c. Ten (10) inches
d. Eight (8) inches

501. The galvanograph recording pen unit usually measures.

a. 5 inches
b. 8 inches
c. 7 inches
d. 10 inches
Pneumograph- two five(5) inches recording pen unit
Cardiosphygmograph- 5 inches recording pen unit

502. This component is a motor that pulls or drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
a. Chart driving module
b. Cardiosphymograph
c. Pneumograph
d. Galvanograph

503. The following are the Detachable Parts and Accessories of polygraph machine, EXCEPT?
a. Pen and Inking System
b. Pneumograph section
c. chart driving mechanism
d. Cardio section
e. None of these

504. This kind of lie would normally cause discord if uncovered but offers some benefit to the
liar and assists in an orderly society therefore potentially beneficial to others
a. White lie – maintain harmony of friendship
b. Puffery lie
c. Noble lie
d. None of these

505. Polygraph Chart is approximately _____ rolled graph paper with approximately ¼ inch
horizontal division and ½ inch vertical division equivalent to 5 seconds run
a. 50 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 30 ft
d. 200 ft

506. After the polygraph examination and presented to the court of law, who determines the
guilt or innocence of the subject?
A. Investigator
B. Polygraph examiner
C. Fiscal
D. Trial judge

507. 1923 in USA case that polygraph was NOT ADMITTED AS EVIDENCE
a. States vs Frye
b. State vs corners
c. State vs garrofalo
d. State vs Jennings

508. Conducted by an investigator handling the case, designed for the obtaining of pertinent
information necessary for the conduct of the test
a. Post Interview/Interrogation
b. The Pre-test interview
c. The conduct of instrumental test
d. Initial Interview / preliminary interview

509. The following should be taken onto consideration during the pre-test, EXCEPT:
A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
C. taking history record of the subject
D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the subject

510. The purpose of the pre test interview is to

A. gather more information from the subject
B. acquire confession or admission
C. prepare the subject for the test or condition the subject
D. condition the subject's questions

511. What is the first step to be done in a pre-test interview?

A. ask the subject regarding all information the circumstances surrounding the commission of
the crime B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the polygraph examination to the
subject
C. you are informed of your rights against self incrimination and your right to a counsel
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the questioning of the subject to monitor
response

512. Corrugated rubber bellows with the aid of beaded chain should be fastened on the
subject’s:
A. Abdomen and chest
B. waistline
C. hips
D. neck

513. Capillary pens has:

A. Two short pens and one long pen
B. Three short pens and one long pen
C. one short pen and two long pens
D. all of the above

514. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a
polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject
can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusation

515. After the pre-test interview, the examiner should proceed to place the attachment on the
subject, this phase is the?
a. PHASE I- prelim preparation or initial interview
b. PHASE II –pre-test interview
c. PHASE III - EXAMINATION/INSTRUMENTAL TEST
d. PHASE IV -POST–TEST INTERVIEW/ INTERROGATION
516. In the post –test interview/interrogation, if the Polygraph indicates that the subject is
innocent the examiner will conduct a short interrogation to the subject for him to obtain
confession. The statement stated is ___.
a. False
b. True
c. Maybe
d. A post test interrogation

❖ If the Polygraph test result indicates deception, the examiner will then proceed to conduct
short interrogation. The purpose of which is to obtain confession.
❖ if the Polygraph indicates that the subject is innocent; the examiner will just release the
subject cordially and thanks him/ her for his/her cooperation.

517. The purposes of post-test interview are the following except;

a. To clarify findings
b. To learn if there are any other reasons for the subjects responding to relevant questions.
c. To obtain confession
d. To get the subjects reactions to the question

518. It is the shallow breathing may a sort of bracing against anticipated shock on an attempt
to control the reaction to a shock just received.
a. Hyperventilation - resorts to a regular deep breathing in an attempt to beat the test
b. Shocked
c. Suppression
d. Respiratory block – Holding of breath/ exaggerated form of suppression in which there is
usual shortening of both the inspiration and expiration stroke that appears as straight line

519. Juan D. La just finished conducting the first chart of the polygraph interview of Lee Bath. In
order to get a reliable result, he need to have at least how many charts?
a. 2 charts
b. 3 charts
c. 4 charts
d. 5 charts

520. The polygraph test consists of asking the subject/ person though the transducer of the
instrument, a list of prepared questions in a planned sequence, comprising of how many
questions?
a. Not more than 20
b. Not more than 15
c. Not more than 12
d. Not more than 10

521. At least 3 test charts are taken, each lasting not more than four (4) minutes with a rest
interval of _______minutes between charts.
a. 6 to 12
b. 10 to 25
c. 10 to 15
d. 5 to 10

522. Approximately ____ seconds after instructing the subject that he will be asked several
questions, the first question is asked.
a. 15-20 seconds- other questions follows
b. 2-3 seconds
c. 5-10 seconds
d. 20-25 seconds

523. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized chart marking to begin or start the
questioning?
A. B
B. S
C. X
D. C

XX end of test
X / 60 / 1.5 A - first markings of the examiner on the chart
XX / 60 / 1.5 A - examiner’s mark after the test

524. These are particular points where each question begins and end, also called stimulus mark
a. I I
b. +
c. -
d. N

525. The best indication of deception is the simultaneous specific responses in ____ tracings of
the chart.
a. at least 2 charts
b. at least 1 chart
c. 3 charts
d. no chart markings

526. For an effective chart interpretation, the following rules must be followed, except?
a. There must be a specific response
b. To be specific, it must form a deviation from norm
c. It must appear in at least two (2) test charts
d. There must be a normal response

527. “Did you help anybody to steal the car?” is a type of what question?
a. Weak Relevant Question- did you help?
b. Evidence Connecting Question – did you get anything?
c. Knowledge Question- did you know who?
d. Strong Relevant Question- did you do it?

528. When should a polygraph examiner perform chart probing and determine the truthfulness
of the subject?
a. At the end of each polygraph test
b. During the onset of the polygraph examination
c. When the subject is relaxed
d. While questioning is on-going

529. The subject may be given this test if he is not yet informed of the details of the offense for
which he is being interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources
like the print media. This valid test is only made possibly when there is no widespread publicity
about a crime where intimate details as to the methods of commission or certain facts of the
case is known from the victim and investigator.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Control question
c. Peak of tension test
d. Psychological stress evaluator

530. If the subject does not respond to the added relevant questions in the guilt complex test,
the interpretation will be?
a. no conclusion
b. irrelevant
c. deceptive
d. guilty

531. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question

532. In the Backster Zone Comparison Test, what color zone identifies the probably lie type of
questions?
a. Red zone
b. Black zone
c. Green zone
d. Yellow Zone

Color Zones in BZCT

Red- Strong Relevant
Green- Probable lie/Comparison Q/Control Q
Black- Symptomatic/Outside Issues
Yellow- Irrelevant/Sacrifice Q

533. It is used only in the third chart of BZCT to conform the previous two chart and detect
indirect involvement or guilty knowledge. In this questions, what does S means?
a. SKY Question
b. Subject
c. Suspect
d. Saw

S- Suspect ; “Do you SUSPECT anyone in particular of stealing Ana’s

Money?”
K- Know ; “ Do you KNOW for sure who stole Ana’s Money?”
Y- You ; “Did YOU steal Ana’s money?”

534. Based on the numerical scoring, the scores are summed over to get the final score. If the
final score is positive and sufficiently large in value what would be the interpretation?
a. subject made truthful statements
b. subject are deceptive- if large value and negative
c. inconclusive- if close to zero
d. polygraph is useless

535. In the Philippines, our courts do not admit polygraph evidence as it will take the judge’s
place and decision, and the party cannot cross examine the polygraph machine. The statement
is___.
a. False
b. True
c. No
d. Yes

536. The two typical fly in forensic entomology which usually arrive at the dead body scene are :
a. blow flies and cheeseflies
b. blowfly and fleshfly
c. fleshfly and skinfly
d. blowfly and skinfly

537. If the body is found in water, the fleas may be found in the woolen clothings, If the fleas
still could move, then the body has been in water for a period of?
a. more than 24 hrs- if flea is dead
b. 2 hrs
c. less than 24 hrs
d. none of the above

538. An impression or cast made for use especially as evidence in a criminal investigation.
a. Casting material
b. Imprint
c. Moulage
d. Impression

Note: Casting materials - any material which can be changed from a plastic or liquid state to the
solid condition. The best and most commonly used in PH casting material is: PLASTER OF PARIS

539. It is a color brown superficial veins during the process of decomposition that develops on
both flanks of abdomen, root of the neck and shoulders.
a. Marbolization
b. Saponification- adipocere
c. Rigor Mortis
d. Maceration- fetus

540. Ordinarily, the color of post-mortem lividity is dull-red or pink or purplish in color, but in
death due to carbon monoxide poisoning, it is?
a. bright red
b. bright pink
c. brown
d. sky-blue

541. A type of lividity wherein the blood merely gravitates into the most dependent portions of
the body but still inside the blood vessels and still fluid in form and any change of position of
the body leads to the formation of the lividity in another place.
a. post mortem livor
b. pugilistic attitude
c. hypostatic lividity
d. diffusion lividity-blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the
tissues of the body

542. The rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive
changes or some internal changes.
a. Ante-Mortem
b. Post-Mortem Caloricity
c. Post-Mortem flaccidity
d. Rigor Mortis

543. he fall of temperature of __to __degrees fahrenheit is considered as a certain sign of

death.
a. 20 to 25
b. 100 to 125
c. 30 to 50
d. 15 to 20 or -9 to -6 degrees Celsius

544. Time when changes if whole body grossly swollen and disfigured, hair and nails loose, soft
tissues and discolored.
a.12 hours
b.24 hours
c. 48 hours
d.72 hours

545. This test is used to determine the presence of nitrates, or whether a person has fired a gun
or not.
a. paraffin test
b. walker’s test - for gunshot residue on clothing
c. ignition test
d. van urk test

546. The following are the four stages of work of a forensic chemist, except:
a. Collection or reception of the specimen or evidence to be examined
b. The actual examination of the specimen
c. Communication of results of the examinations
d. Deciding the outcome of the examinations

547. Person is talkative, argumentative and over-confident. There is slight impairment of

mental faculties, difficulty of articulation, and loss of coordination to finer movements. The face
is flushed with eyeballs congested. He is reckless and shows motor incoordination. He may be
certified as being "under the influence of alcohol".
a. Slight Inebriation - pamumula
b. Moderate Inebriation
c. Drunk – uncontrollable behavior
d. Very Drunk

548. Characteristic of glass is that when it breaks, the fracture edges appear shell like in form -
that is, having elevations or depressions in the shape of a shell
a. conchoidal fractures
b. radial cracks
c. concentric cracks
d. concentrum cracks

549. When there are two bullet holes in the window, one from each side, the problem of which
one was first becomes important to determine who the aggressor is. The sequence of impacts
can be determined since crack propagation is:
a. Stopped by later cracks
b. Stopped by earlier cracks
c. Stopped by future cracks
d. All of the above

550. When there is heavy flaking or chippings on the left side of the glass it indicates that:
a. shooter’s position angle from the right
b. shooter’s position angle from the left
c. shooter’s position perpendicular shot
d. 90 degrees angle shot

551. One in which there is prompt and marked disturbance of function or death within a
shorter of time and is due to, taking a strong poison, excessive single dose and several doses,
small but frequent.
a. Poisoning
b. Chronic poisoning
c. Acute poisoning
d. Cumulative poisoining

Chronic poisoning - gradual deterioration of functions of tissues and may or may not result in
death. Taking several small doses at long intervals

552. A type of poison one that increases suddenly in its intensity of action after gradual
additions of it.
a. Corrosive poison - destruction when in contact
b. True poison- still poison no matter how diluted it is
c. Cumulative poison
d. Acute poison

553. The amount of drug that produces untoward effects or symptoms of poisoning.
a. Minimal dose
b. Toxic dose
c. Lethal dose
d. Abusive dose

554. Substances or agents that produces vomiting.

a. diuretics
b. emetics
c. demulcent
d. non-volatile poison

555. Are agents that makes the poison harmless by chemically altering it, it inhibits the action of
poison by forming harmless or insoluble compounds or by oxidizing poison when brought into
contact with them.
a. Physical Antidotes
b. Mechanical antidotes
c. Chemical Antidotes
d. Physiological antidotes

556. In Sexual Cases, how many standard strands of pubic hair evidence should be collected in
the crime scene?
a. at least 50 full length hair strands from different pubic region, as soon as as possible after the
crime
b. at least 25 full length hair strands from different pubic region before the crime happened
c. at least 100 full length hair strands from different pubic region, as soon as as possible after
the crime
d. at least 25 full length hair strands from different pubic region, as soon as as possible after the
crime

557. As a chemical examination of blood, what color for positivity may arise if blood is examined
in Kastle Meyer test?
a. blue-indigo
b. pink or rose color
c. bluish green or peacock-blue
d. bluish white

558. Confirmatory blood test which gives dark drown rhombic prisms of chloride of hematin
are formed. This is considered as the best of the micro-chemical test.
a. Takayama test – salmon color to dark brown and pink
b. Teichmann’s test- Dark Drown rhombic prisms
c. Wagenhaar test- Dark Drown rhombic prisms
d. Precipitin test
559. It is a colorless, transparent gas, sweetish taste and emitting an odor similar to a rotten
egg. The gas is soluble in water to form carbonic acid and it burns in the air with a pale blue
flame.
a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Hydrogen Sulfide
d. Hydrogen Cyanide

560. In this method of color test for accelerants, the accelerants are allowed to evaporate and
vapors reacted with this chemical until pink color of solution which indicates presence of such
accelerant.
a. Gas chromatography
b. Sudan black- preliminary test
c. Benzidine test
d. Precipitin test

Note: Gas chromatography - for confirmatory test for specific volatile accelerant by comparing
with known standard

561. This is a test to determine whether the semen is of human origin or not.
a. Precipitin test
b. Spermato-precipitin
c. benzidine test
d. Takayama test

The presence of a white ring at the point of contact between unknown semen extract and the
anti-human semen serum shows that the unknown is of human origin.

562. What color of crystals is produced if the result in barberio’s test is positive? (Dec. 2021 Cle)
a. Blue
b. Purple
c. Yellow
d. Red

Barberio- needleshape crystals with yellow color

Florence test - crystals are dark brown
Puramen reaction- yellow precipitate of spermine
Acid phosphatase test- deep purple

563. A specimen containing either substance that is not a normal constituent for that type of
specimen or containing an endogenous substance at a concentration that is not a normal
physiological concentration.
a. Diluted specimen - less than normal physiological constituents
b. Adulterated specimen
c. Substituted specimen- switching or replacement of the original sample.
d. Tampered specimen
564. How many hours does the stomach completely digest a medium meal?
A. 2-3 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 1 hour

565. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B has a reaction or clump with the
sample blood, the blood group is?
a. Group B
b. Group AB
c. Group O
d. Group A

566. It is the death of individual cells that usually occurs at about___.

a. 12-24 hours
b. 3-6 hours
c. 12 hours maximum
d. 1-2 hours

567. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the following, except
a. Magnus test - ligation on fingers
b. Diaphanous test- strong source of light is held against hand with finger closed.
c. Icard’s test- hypodermic injection of flourescin
d. Winslow’s test - mercury saucer/water on chest

568. This kind of explosive is extremely sensitive to detonation by heat, shock, friction and
impact. It detonates without burning, like lead azide and mercury fulminate. This is used
primarily to start an explosion.
a. High explosives - very fast or high detonating rate like dynamites, TNT, and Cyclonite (RDX).
b. Low explosives - low burning and used mainly as propellants like black and smokeless powder
c. Primary and initiating explosive
d. Inorganic explosives

569. Process of decomposition of material to simpler compounds brought about by heat from
fire.
a. pyromaniac
b. pyrolysis
c. flame
d. non-luminous flame

570. The following are the confirmatory test for blood except;
a. Microscopic test
b. Benzidine test – preliminary test
c. Microchemical test
d. Spectroscopic test

571. How many percent is the KNO3 composition of black powder?

a. 25
b. 10
c. 85
d. 75

572. Non-motile sperm can still be collected from a living female for up to ____.
a. one to three days
b. three to six days
c. one week
d. twenty four hours only.

573. DNA profiling or Genetic Fingerprinting was first developed by Alec Jeffreys, and it was first
used in forensic science case of ___.
a. St. Valentines Day Massacre case
b. Enderby murder case- Colin Pitchfork first person convicted using DNA profiling
c. People v. Vallejo- first admitted DNA case in the Philippines
d. People v. Cabangis Tommie Lee Andrews first American convicted in a case that utilized DNA
evidence

574. Mario was stabbed, and the bloodstain was dripping on the floor simultaneously. What
type of bloodstain does this refer to?
a. Active bloodstains
b. Projected Bloodstain
c. Transfer Bloodstains
d. Passive bloodstains

575. If in case that there were no loop among patterns, how will the key be derived.
a. Ridge count the first plain whorl
b. Ridge count the first whorl
c. No key division to derived
d. Write Dash

576. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the ridges.
a. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy
c. Poroscopy
d. Edgeoscopy

577. How deep the cut in order to be produced permanent scar?

A. more than 1 cm
B. more than 1mm
C. 1 m
D. 1dm

578. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from white jade containing the name
and the thumb print of the owner.
a. Tien Chi
b. Tein Shi
c. Tein Chi
d. Tien Shi

579. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print has a size of:
a. 8 1/2” x 8 1⁄2”
b. 9” x 9”
c. 8” x 8”
d. 10” x 10”

580. The identification of two impression can be established primarily through:

a. formation of different types of pattern
b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions

581. In taking the fingerprints of the subject the technician must advice the subject to:
A. Help him
B. Close his eyes
C. Relax
D. Stand straight

582. In major division, what should be the interpretation of a whorl pattern having a tracing
ridge that goes above the right delta, and with an intervening ridge of one?
A. Inner
B. Outer
C. Meeting
D. Exceptional

583. In recording the fingerprints of the subject, the technician must see to it that subject’s
fingers are:
A. Wet and clean
B. Clean and dry
C. Clean and huge
D. Amputated

584. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and dermis layer which responsible
for the ridge formation
a. Generating layer
b. Sweat glands
c. Dermal papillae
d. Dermis Papillary

585. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward?
a. sufficient recurve
b. obstruction ridge
c. appendage
d. shoulder of loop
586. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which conform to
the definition of delta?
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted

587. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
a. duct
b. furrows
c. pores
d. sweat glands

588. Mr. A applies for a job, and as a requirement he was advised to present his NBI Clearance.
On the way to the office of the NBI, he was apprehensive that he will not be accommodated by
the personnel because of his two excess fingers in his right hand. The appearance of his extra
fingers is anatomically known as.
A. Polydactylism
B. Extra ordinary fingers
C. Excess Finger
D.Deformities

589. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted as ____ , if the left thumb has 17
ridge count.
a. Small
b. Large
c. Medium
d. Exceptional

590. In case of double thumb of the same size what should be the course of action in classifying
them.
a. Take both pattern and classify.
b. Classify only the outer thumb
c. Classify only the inner thumb
d. Print them together on the block and classify.

591. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards in taking fingerprint of a dead
person
a. Card holder
b. Spatula
c. Strip holder
d. Forceps

592. A system of classification used in the Philippines:

a. Galton System
b. Vucetich System
c. Henry System
d. Galton-Henry System with FBI Modification and Extension
593. What division will be left blank in the classification formula if all fingers are missing.
a. Major and Final Division
b. Major and sub-secondary
c. Key and Major Division
d. key and final Division

594. The person who used the system of identification which was accepted by Spanish
countries.
a. Juan Vucetich
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry
c. Henry Faulds
d. William Herschel

595. Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?

a. Hair
b. Dress
c. Speech
d. personal pharapernalia

596. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner line
of flow from the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the second type of
central pocket loop.
a. bar
b. appendage
c. uptrust
d. obstruction

597. In the course of the tracing of a whorl pattern, once the tracing splits into two branches the
tracing will proceed on the
a. The next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge
b. The upper line of the bifurcation
c. on the lower line of the splits
d. The next ridge just below

598. In case of an amputated finger, what shall be the interpretation of the left index finger if
the right index finger is amputated?
A. Plain whorl and meet tracing
B. The classification in the left index finger shall be same of that the right index.
C. The classification of the right index finger shall be the same of that the left index finger.
D. There is no interpretation at all.

599. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for signature to avoid impersonation
among Indian native.
a. William Herschel
b. Dr. Francis Galton
c. Dr. Henry Faulds
d. Sir Edward Henry
600. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in U.S who attempt to destroy his
friction skin with the use of corrosive acid.
a. John Derenger
b. Robert James Pitts
c. John Dillinger
d. Robert Joworski

601. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and without hair found on the palm of the
hand and soles of the feet?
a. Epidermal skin
b. Friction
c. Papillary skin
d. All of these

Note: Biologist=volar skin

602. Is that part of a looping ridge that possesses two shoulders and without appendage?
A. Type lines
B. Pattern area
C. Re-curving ridges
D. Sufficient re-curves

603. What PRINCIPLE in fingerprint identification is not determined by its general shape or
pattern only?
a. Infallibility
b. Credibility
c. Permanency
d. Individuality

604. Which of the following statements that can best describe loop pattern?
a. One (1) core at the point of divergence
b. It has bifurcation as the delta
c. Presence of one (1) sufficient recurving ridge
d. No bifurcation is foundx

605. What pattern is NOT included in an accidental whorl type pattern?

a. Ulnar loop
b. Plain arch
c. Plain whorl
d. Tented arch

606. What principle in fingerprint identification that cannot be questioned after investigation?
a. Fingerprinting is accessible
b. No two persons have identical fingerprint
c. All crimes can be solved thru fingerprinting
d. Fingerprinting is accepted worldwide
607. Who was the French criminologist that invented the first scientific approach to identify
criminals?
a. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Edward Galton
c. Edmond Locard
d. James Herschel

608. Which of the following is the point in a loop pattern that is composed of two (2) separate
and distinct sets of shoulders and with two (2) deltas?
a. Double loop whorl
b. Accidental whorl
c. Double loop delta
d. Double loop ridges

609. What type of bifurcation with one short ridge and branching of a longer ridge?
a. Whirl
b. Delta
c. Spurs
d. Loop

610. What kind of FINGERPRINT is found in soft and sticky objects such as wax that be
presented in court?
a. Visible
b. Abstract
c. Semi-visible
d. Invisible

Note: Plastic prints visible-Patent

611. Most of the time, a suspect will leave behind evidence known as latent print which are
made up of what substance?
a. Furrows of the skin
b. Sweat and oil of the skin’s surface
c. Ridge formation
d. Ridges of the skin

612. What classification SYSTEM in fingerprint that assigns each finger according to the order of
location starting with the right thumb as to number one (1) to the left little finger as number ten
(10)?
a. Henry
b. Edward
c. Stewart
d. Galton

613. What is the point in fingerprint where a ridge divides and form two ridges?
a. Ridge ending
b. Minutiae
c. Ridge counting
d. Bifurcation

614. In 1882, who was the American typographer and the first known to use his fingerprints in
order to prevent forgery in the United States?
a. Robert James Pitts
b. Gilbert Thompson
c. Alphonse Bertillon
d. Calvin Goddard

615. What is the SYSTEM in assigning number and letters non specific general pattern, shape,
limited ridge flow and some limited ridge counts between common and landmarks?
a. Classification Pointers
b. Natural classification output
c. Fingerprint classification formula
d. Fingerprint boarder lines

616. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high as the
shoulder of the loop, the Core is placed on the shoulder of the loop farther from the Delta.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially false

617. He discovered the three families of fingerprint patterns.

a. Govard Bidloo
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Francis Galton

618. A short ridge found on top or summit of the recurve:

a. obstruction
b. bar
c. appendage
d. rod

619. Damage to the dermis will not result to permanent ridge destruction.
a. True
b. False
c. Possibly True
d. Possibly False

620. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints

cannot be bent.
a. Ankylosis
b. Chiroscopy
c. Calcar
d. Webb Finger
621. If the ridge counting of a loop in the Index finger is eleven (11), what must be the symbol
for purposes of the Sub-Secondary classification?
a. I
b. M
c. O
d. L

623. In fingerprint classification, what should be the major division if all fingers from the right
hand are radial loop patterns and with the ridge count of 18, while the left fingers
were all missing at birth:
a. M/M
b. L/L
c. M/L
d. L/M

624. What shall be the complete classification formula if the right fingers are all radial loop, all
with the ridge count of 10, and the left fingers are all amputated.
a. 10 1 OII rR3r 10
b. 10 M III RRR 10
c. 10 S 1 rR3r OII 10
d. M M MMM 10

625. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between the tracing ridge and the right
delta of a whorl pattern.
a. Ridge Count
b. Incipient ridge
c. Intervening Ridge
b. Incipient ridge

626. In police photography, in order to show the details of the crime by taking the individual
photography of every evidence at the scene of the crime, what type of LENS is used by the
police investigations?
a. Telephoto
b. Single
c. Zoom – variable lens
d. Double

627. After the capturing of image needed for investigations, what is an important procedure the
police photographer must do?
a. To show to friends
b. To document
c. To keep
d. To show to friends

628. What KIND of light is already existing in an indoor or outdoor setting that is NOT caused
by any illumination supplied by the photographer?
a. Split
b. Steady
c. Ambient
d. Short

629. What process an investigator MUST do in order to make the captured image available
anytime when needed for the investigation?
a. Collating
b. Collection
c. Preservation
d. Visualizing

630. In to be admitted in court as evidence, it must have a probable value to the case. Aside
from relevance what is the other basic requirement?
a. Authenticity
b. Size
c. Paper used
d. Color

631. Aside from being authentic, what other requirement for a photograph be admissible as
evidence?
a. Colorful
b. Correct size
c. Clear
d. Relevant

632. What PART of a camera that indicates the timing of the shutter to open and close, sets the
length of time in which the lights allowed to enter the camera?
a. Shutter release button
b. Shutter speed dial
c. Shutter
d. Shutter lock

633. What refers to the small rectangular opening found on top of the camera which allows
the photographer to compose and frame the shot?
a. Image sensor
b. View finder
c. Aperture
d. Shutter

634. Before a photograph can be introduced as evidence, aside from being properly identified
what must be shown?
a. Immaterial
b. Accuracy
c. Clear
d. Irrelevant

635. Which crime scene photography consists of BASIC types of photographs, which of the
following is NOT included?
a. Close-up
b. Over-all
c. Mid-range
d. From top to bottom

636. There are several METHODS used by law enforcement agencies, which is NOT a basic
crime scene search pattern?
a. Line
b. Strip
c. Grid
d. Quadrant

637. The “View From the Window at Le Gras” is a holographic image and considered to be the
oldest surviving photograph and it was created by
a. Niepce
b. Gabor
c. Zahn
d. Mozi

638. Who designed the FIRST camera in 1685?

a. Mozi
b. Ibn al-Haytham
c. Nicephore Niepce
d. Johann Zahn - portable camera obscura

639. What CONTROLS the duration between the opening and closing the shutter of a camera?
a. Shutter speed
b. Shutter mechanism
c. Shutter controller
d. Shutter lift

640. Which of the following parts of a camera is used to bring light to a fixed focal point?
a. Filter
b. Lens
c. Shutter
d. Light finder

641. Who among the following invented the hologram in 1948 which is the creation of unique
photographic image without the use of lens?
a. Nicephore Niepce
b. Theodore Jude
c. Alfred Steichen
d. Dennis Gabor

642. How will the police photographer fix a captured image in order for preservation?
a. Permanently
b. Carefully
c. Beautifully
d. Beautifully
643. What part of a digital-single-lens reflex (DSLR) that converts the light into electrical signal
at the start of forming digital image?
a. Charged-coupled device
b. Digital signal processor
c. Analogue-to-digital converter
d. Central processor

644. What is the most important part of a camera that determines the quality of image and
responsible in focusing the light from the subject?
a. Lens
b. Sensor
c. Shutter
d. Aperture

645. What must be included photographing the evidence in order to determine the exact size?
a. Wires
b. Scale
c. Illustration
d. Drawing

646. A police investigator must know that he can freeze a moving object to help him visualize its
position at any given moment, what kind of shutter will produce the image?
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Normal
d. General

647. In taking photographs, what type of SHOT must an investigator produce the entire image
of the crime scene to be used during the investigation?
a. Wide-angle
b. Normal
c. Bright
d. Clear

648. When MUST investigators place evidence markers while taking photographs?
a. Before taking shot
b. Do not place evidence markers
c. After and shoot again
d. After taking shots

649. When the lighting in the crime scene is not enough produce the desired image for
investigation, what can an investigator do?
a. Change the bulb
b. Change the camera
c. Use a flash
d. Return to the base
650. What are useful in supplying significant view with exact measurement of crime scene and
location where crime occurred?
a. Police exhibits
b. Printed material
c. Photographs
d. Photographs

651. While taking picture of a victim, location, and injuries, what MUST an investigator do with
the images taken?
a. To keep
b. To highlight
c. To protect
d. To bring to the station

652. What is an important player in determining the lens opening because its quality can limit
the effective maximum opening called “the maximum aperture”?
a. Condenser
b. Focusing mechanism
c. Lens
d. View finder

653. At least three photos must be taken of every evidence, which is not included in the
following?
a. Medium view
b. Close-up
c. Wide-angle view
d. Over-all scene – general view or long-range view

654. What is the first setting a photographer considers when photographing anything at the
crime scene in order because it controls the focus?
a. Shutter
b. Cable release
c. View finder
d. Aperture

655. What part of a camera with central aperture is adjustable for its size in the amount of
light to enter the lens or optical system?
a. Diaphragm
b. Shutter speed dial
c. Shutter
d. Shutter release

656. What is the photographical process that will aid an investigator on how to handle and
what environmental condition is needed for presentation?
a. Identification
b. Keeping
c. Keeping
d. Collection
657. What type of lens can be used to take very close up image of small evidence such as tool
marks or trace evidence?
a. Normal
b. Micro
c. Focusing
d. Macro

658. It is the process of reduction in which exposed silver halides are reduced into metallic
silver.
a. Development
b. Printing
c. Reduction
d. Crop

659. An intermediate bath between the developer and the fixer. It is usually a combination of
water plus acetic acid or just plain water. Its function is to prevent the contamination of two
chemicals.
a. Stop Bath
b. Fixation
c. Development
d. Reduction

660. It is the process of removing unexposed silver halide remaining in the emulsion after the
first stage of development of the latent image.
a. Stop Bath
b. Fixation
c. Development
d. Reduction

661. It is a Reducer or developing agent

a. Elon
b. Hydroquinone
c. Sodium Sulfite
d. A or B

662. It is use as preservative in the Development process.

a. Sodium Sulfite
b. Hydroquinone
c. Potassium Bromide
d. Sodium Carbonate

663. It is use as accelerator in the chemical processes.

a. Sodium Carbonate
b. Hydroquinone
c. Potassium bromide
d. Sodium Bromide
664. It is a Dissolving agent in the fixer solution.
a. Hypo/Sodium thiosulphate
b. Hydroquinone
c. Potassium Bromide
d. Sodium Bromide

665. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?

a. Boric Acid
b. Acetic Acid
c. Potassium Alum
d. A or B

666. It is a picture of small object taken through a microscope and generally has a
magnification of more than 50 times.
a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography
c. Infra- Red Photography
d. Ultra-violet Photography

667. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only.

a. Panchromatic
b. Orthochromatic
c. Infra-red
d. Blue-Sensitive film

668. It is sensitive to all colors particularly red and red light.

a. Panchromatic
b. Orthochromatic
c. Infra-red
d. X-ray

669. It is placed between the emulsion and the plastic base of a film to prevent whatever light
that passed through the emulsion and reflected by the base back to the emulsion which forms
a halo effect.
a. Base
b. Emulsion
c. Anti-halation Backing
d. Spectral Sensitivity

670. It has a slow speed and it is suited for contact printing.

a. Chloride Paper
b. Bromide Paper
c. Chloro-Bromide paper
d. Exposure Latitude

671. It consists of crystals of light-sensitive compounds (silver nitrate) evenly distributed

throughout plastic base material.
a. Base
b. Anti-halation Backing
c. Emulsion
d. Spectral Sensitivity

672. A lens defect which is the inability to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at the
same time lines running different directions.
a. Chromatic Aberration
b. Astigmatism
c. Coma
d. Curvature of Field

673. It has a fast speed and is recommended for projection printing and enlarging.
a. Chloride Paper
b. Bromide Paper
c. Chloro-bromide Paper
d. Exposure Latitude

674. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which produced what secondary color of
light? A.Magenta
B. Yellow
C. Cyan
D. Orange

675. It is a type of film according to spectral sensitivity wherein the film is sensitive to UV light
up to the green light only
A. Blue-Sensitive Film
B. Orthochromatic Film
C. Panchromatic Film
D. Infra-red Film

676. It is the main fixing agent that dissolves unexposed silver halides.
A. Acetic Acid
B. Sodium Sulfate
C. Potassium Bromide
D. Sodium Thiosulfate

677. It is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused subject in which details also look
sharp in the final photographic image.
A. Focus
C. Camera trick
B. Depth of field
D. Aperture

678. Which of the following supports the entire unit of the enlarger, which usually holds the
easel that carries the photographic paper?
A. Focusing mechanism
B. Baseboard
C. Condenser lenses
D. Elevating control knob

679. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing the lens and mirror making the
image possible to be viewed from the viewfinder?
A. pentaprism
B. shutter
C. condenser
D. filter

680. A part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the area
coverage of a given lens?
A. lens
B. shutter
C. view finder
D. pentaprism

681. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police photography?
A. Silver Chloride paper
B. Silver Bromide paper
C. Silver Chlorobromide
D. Iodide paper

682. A convex lens is capable of?

A. reducing the object
B. enlarging the object
C. making the object appear hairy
D. reducing the size of the picture

683. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has compared to 1/250, f-5.6.
A. equal
B. 2 times
C. four times
D. 6 times

684. It refers to the unit of light wavelength expressed in millionth part of a millimeter.
a. millimicron
b. angstrom
c. nanometer
d. a and c

685. Is that part of the camera which controls the degree of sharpness of an object.
a. lens opening
b. shutter
c. focusing
d. condenser

686. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all other parts treated as accessories?
a. five
b. four
c. six
d. three

687. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that is sharp
when the lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
a. focal length
b. hyperfocal distance
c. depth of field
d. focusing

688. It is the time of developing in using D-76 solution?

a. five to six minutes
b. ten to fifteen twelve
c. one to one and half minutes
d. twenty to thirty minutes

689. Which prefix indicates a reversal type of colored film?

a. color
c. pan
b. ortho
d. chrome

690. What photo paper according to contrast is best use in over exposed film?
a. # 1
b. # 3
c. # 2
d. # 4

691. Zoom lens is a type of lens with an adjustable focus. This is due to the fact that it is made
up of
A. Convex lens
B. Both concave and convex lens
C. Concave lens
D. Diverging lens and concave lens

692. Which of the following film is considered to be the fastest in terms of their exposure:
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 50
C. ASA 200
D. ASA 400

693. What would be the most helpful to crime investigation using the polygraph examination?
a. The subject is willing to undergo test
b. Several direct pieces of evidence are available against the suspect but not enough to establish
the guilt
c. The investigations need to know the truth
d. The investigators must connect the suspect to the crime

694. What is the normal emotional response induced by specific threat or danger which is most
of the time beyond one’s defensive power?
a. Panic
b. Confidence
c. Response
d. Fear

695. What is an unpleasant often strong emotion caused by anticipation or awareness of

danger when a subject subjected to polygraph examination?
a. Fear
b. Panic
c. Irritation
d. Nervousness

696. What part or component of a polygraph machine that records the speed and force of the
chest when breathing while the subject is questioned?
a. Galvanometer
b. Pneumograph
c. Cardiosphygmograph
d. Kymograph

697. What component in a polygraph machine that records graphically the movement of the
heart and radial pulse?
a. Pneumograph
b. Cardio-sphygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Cardiometer

698. “Is this muddy pair of rubber shoes yours?” is what type of question?
a. Irrelevant
b. Control
c. Relevant
d. Conclusive

699. “Did you ever hurt your wife?” is what type of question?
a. Conclusive
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. Relevant

700. What type of question when an investigator ask a suspect of rape “Are you left handed?”
a. Irrelevant
b. Conclusive
c. Relevant
d. Control
701. “Is this shotgun yours?” is what type of question?
a. Irrelevant
b. Relevant
c. Conclusive
d. Control

702. When kymograph tracings show high, what it indicates?

a. Increased sweat production
b. Low pulse rate
c. Increased movement of muscles
d. Low blood pressure

703. When a decreased in the cardiograph shows what

indication?
a. Pulse rate is high
b. Blood pressure is low
c. Increase in muscle movement
d. Increased in sweat production

704. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to

30 minutes.
a. Post-test Interrogation
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Actual Interrogation
d. Lie Detection Test

705. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the polygraph?
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
b. It is admissible as evidence
c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.
d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses

706. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument in the detection of deception.

a. Photography
b. Chemistry
c. Lie Detection
d. Medicine

707. It is an act of deceiving or misleading committed by a person usually accompanied by

lying.
a. Admission
b. Lying
c. Deception
d. Confession

708. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he
is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt Complex Test
b. Silent Answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative

709. It is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in the irrelevant question.
a. Normal Tracing
b. Normal Response
c. Specific Response
d. Response

710. This test uses Hyoscine Hydrobromide Drug that is administered hypodermically which
produces a state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-synthesis
d. Administration of truth serum

711. It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.

a. Normal Response
b. Specific Response
c. Polygrams
d. Response

712. Psychological Response to any demand.

a. Reaction
b. Stress
c. Pressure
d. All of the above

713. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could be use as a basis for detecting
deception.
a. Marston
b. Larson
c. Mosso
d. Veraguth

714. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result of stimulation.

a. Response
b. Reaction
c. Stimuli
d. Fear

715. A kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others
a. Black lie
b. White lie
c. Red lie
d. Malicious lie
716. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in degree and
consistency.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Silent answer test
c. Peak of tension test
d. None of the above

717. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. John Larson
d. Leonard Keeler

718. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and
blood pressure?
a. Harold Burtt
b. Hans Gross
c. Leonarde Keeler – yung polygraph instrument dinagdagan niya ng Galvanograph at
Kymograph
d. John Larson

719. thin the U.S. Federal Government, a polygraph examination is also referred to as
a. Psycho physiological Detection of Deception
b. PDD
c. Psychological Detection of Detection
d. Federal Scientific Detection of Deception

720. He invented the first scientific instrument to detect deception.

a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. William Marston
d.Vittorio Benussi

721. He invented the Pneumograph component of the Lie detector machine.

a. Vittorio Benussi
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. William Marston

722. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James MacKenzie in his invention the “ink
polygraph”, which was used for medical purposes.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. James Mackenzie
723. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that occur at or above the
threshold.
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System

724. The parasympathetic nervous system works to restore things to normal when the condition
of stress has been removed. It is dominant branch when the condition is normal and the subject
is calm, contented and relaxed.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. False
d. Partially False

Note:
Parasympathetic – Normal
Sympathetic – Emergency, dramatic change

725. ”Did you participate in taking the missing money?” is an example of _________.
A. Primary relevant question
B. Secondary relevant question
C. Evidence connecting question
D. Knowledge question

726. A question which is the same in nature with that of the relevant question but broad in
scope.
A. Relevant question
B. Comparison question
C. Symptomatic question
D. Neutral question

727. This question is designed to generate reactions from truthful subject.

A. Relevant question
B. Comparison question
C. Symptomatic question
D. Neutral question

728. A question to which it is likely that the examinee is untruthful with his answer
A. Comparison question
B. Directed lie comparison
C. Probable lie comparison
D. Untruthful question

729. “Between the ages of 20-28, have you ever taken anything not yours?” is an example of
_______ question.
A. Comparison question
B. Probable lie
C. Exclusive
D. Inclusive

730. This question introduces the relevant question to the subject.

A. Relevant question
B. Introductory question
C. Sacrifice relevant question
D. Symptomatic question

731. This is designed to ensure that the examiner will not ask un-reviewed questions or that
the examinee is not afraid that the examiner will ask un-reviewed questions.
A. Relevant question
B. Introductory question
C. Sacrifice relevant question
D. Symptomatic question

732. In the peak of tension, _________ questions asked before and after the relevant
A. Irrelevant
B. Padding
C. Neutral
D. Silent

733. It is used to determine details of a crime that are not known to officials, such as the
location of an unrecovered body, but would be known to a participant in the crime.
A. Peak of Tension Test
B. Known Peak of Tension Test
C. Searching Peak of Tension test
D. Collected Peak of Tension test

734. In this test, the examiner will shuffle the cards and each card will be shown to him, with
the instruction that he will answer “NO” to all cards , even if the one being shown to him is the
one he has seen earlier.
A. Stimulation test
B. No Test
C. Yes Test
D. None of the above

735. The reactions on the control and relevant questions are compared via numerical scoring
A. Card test
B. Comparison Question
C. Guilt Complex test
D. Peak of Tension test

736. The systematic process by which a particular set of decision is applied to the evaluation
of diagnostic features and other physiological data resulting in one of the three outcome
decisions.
A. Pre-test
B. Test Data Collection
C. Test Data Analysis
D. Numerical Scoring

737. Developed to obtain reliable test results and reduce potential errors cause by bias
inexperience polygraph examiners and scorer.
A. Global Analysis
B. Numerical Test Data
C. Computer Scoring
D. Clinical Approach

738. Test for the subject’s involvement to a known incident or to multiple issues of concern.
A. Recognition Test
B. Deception Test
C. Peak of Tension Test
D. Card test

739. Were you in the place of the Mr. Kenji on the night of April 27, 2020?” is an example of
what question?
A. Relevant question
B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question
D. Strong relevant question

740. Which of the following causes physiological changes in the body of the subject?
A. Peak of tension test
B. the fear of retaliation
C. Irrelevant question
D. Relevant question

741. It is a type of question in which it is designed to establish response from an innocent

subject.
A. Relevant Question
B. Control Question
C. General Question Test
D. Peak of Tension Test

742. Under Backster zone comparison test technique, color zones are applied in identifying so
many questions used during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what
then is the color zone for strong relevant questions?
A. Red
B. Black - symptomatic
C. Green – control questions
D. Orange

743. Which of the following is a major component of the polygraph machine?

A. Blood pressure cuff
B. Pen and inking system
C. kymograph
D. cardiosphygmograph

744. A part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of the subject
with the usual length of 10 inches.
A. beaded chain
B. rubber convoluted tube
C. finger electrode plate
D. blood pressure cuff

745. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.
A. arm cuff
B. infant cuff
C. Wrist cuff
D. hand cuf

746. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test?
A. 60 –65
B. 70 – 75
C. 6- 12
D. 13- 15

747. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
A. X/60/1.5 A
B. X/50/2.5 A
C. XX/60/1.5 A
D. XXX/60/2.5 A

748. A type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions that are
purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under investigation?
A. General question test
B. Symptomatic questions
C. guilt complex test
D. silent answer test

749. The first man noted for the use of the word “Polygraph”
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. F. Galton (word assoiciation test)
c. G. Gallilleo (Pulselogium)
d. Sir James Mackenzie

750. What is the normal cyclic rate of respiration of a normal built person in a polygraph test:
a. 60 –65
b. 70 – 75
c. 6- 12
d. 13- 15
751. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions because this
will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embraces him and cause him to answer he does not know

752. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s evaluation

753. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is to be utilized in the system on
cardio:
A. 30 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 120 mm

754. It is a type of series consisting of series of relevant and irrelevant questions answerable
by either yes or no
a. general question test
b. guilt complex test
c. peak of tension test
d. silent answer test

755. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject possess
regarding the crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions

756. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a polygraph test?

a. Examiner
b. Prosecutor
c. Judge
d. Investigator

757. Among the several other lie-detectors somewhat similar to keeler's is the Berkeley
__________, a blood pressure-pulse-respiration recorder developed by C.D. Lee in 1936:
a. photograph
b. polygraph
c. kymograph
d. psychograph
758. Is the term applied to denote a firearm designed for extra power?
a. Double Action
b. Magnum
c. Automatic
d. Dum-dum

759. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
a. touch the outside of the trigger guard
b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard

760. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool marks
or other irregularities in the interior surface of the bore?
a. Land marks
b. Striation
c. Groove marks
d. Accidental marks

761. A fired bullet extracted from the body of the victim is marked at the:
a. Base
b. ogive
c. Nose
d. all of these

762. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?

A. hammer
B. primer
C. trigger
D. flash hole

763. What do you call the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
A. Torsion Balance
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper

764. A part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.

a. Receiver
b. Barrel
c. Frame
d. Chamber

765. Is the farthest distance in which a bullet when fired can still be consider lethal?
a. Maximum range
b. Accurate range
c. Maximum effective range
d. Effective range
766. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under the
comparison microscope at the same time, level and direction and magnification and same
image?
a. Pseudo match
b. false match
c. Juxtaposition
d. Sodo match

767. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a
firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning
B. Colt
C. Smith and Wesson
D. Steyer

768. It is that mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile
by means of expansive force of gases when burned.
A. Propellant
B. Gun Powder
C. Potassium Nitrate
D. Either A or B

769. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due to rusting of the action of salts
deposited from the gunpowder is:
A. pressure
B. corrosion
C. erosion - mechanical
D. decomposition

770. The following conditions are NOT attributed to external ballistics, EXCEPT:
A. Firing pin hitting the primer.
B. Ignition of the priming mixture.
C. Energy generated at the muzzle point.
D. Rotation of the bullet inside the muzzle.

771. A type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
A. Dummy Ammunition
B. Blank Ammunition
C. Drill Ammunition
D. Live Ammunition

772. Is that of the primer which serves as a protector for the priming mixture not to be easily
be penetrated by moisture?
a. Paper disc
b. Primer cup
c. Anvil
d. Flash hole
773. What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully

774. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India. (expanding
bullet)
a. Dum-Dum
b. armor piercing
c. incendiary
d. explosive

775. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in
directly identifying the:
a. bullet which caused the fatal wound
b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot

776. Which of the following is the science that deals with the launching, flight behavior and
impact effects of projectile?
a. Internal ballistics
b. Ballistics
c. Terminal ballistics
d. Eternal ballistics

777. In order to ascertain the real shooter, Forensic Ballistics has the potential to assist
investigation, what can be determined after thorough investigation in connection to the
suspect?
a. Identity
b. Gender
c. Nationality
d. Age

778. What part of a cartridge which are made if copper or brass alloy that initiates the
combustion of the gun powder?
a. Primer
b. Rifling
c. Flash holes
d. Hammer

779. What is the term used for the measurement of the bore diameter?/caliber
a. Striation
b. Drift
c. Caliper
d. Gauge
780. What is a blasting explosive that is based in nitroglycerine?
a. Black powder
b. Ammonium nitrate
c. Dynamite
d. Low explosive

781. What is the unit measurement that is used to express the bore diameter of the barrel of a
firearm used by a criminal?
a. Frame
b. Gauge
c. Caliber
d. Chamber

782. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of

the expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Cartridge
b. Bullet
c. Primer
d. Gun powder

783. A portion in the cartridge case which consists of a brass or gilding metal cup. The cup
contains a highly sensitive mixture of chemical compound.
a. Gunpowder
b. Propellant
c. Primer
d. Powder charge

784. It refers to any weapon designed to be operated from the shoulder.

a. Revolver
b. Rifle
c. Pistol
d. Machine Guns

785. This is an instrument used for making measurement such as bullet diameter, bore
diameter, and barrel length.
a. Micrometer
b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliper
d. Onoscope

786. t is the most simple form of modern cartridge and can generally found in Cal. 22
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
d. All of these
787. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are now manufactured
have
a. Long Neck Cartridges
b. Bottle Neck cartridges
c. Straight Cases
d. None of these

788. The elevated portion of the bore.

a. Land
b. Grooves
c. Rifling
d. None of these

789. The term ballistic is derived from the Greek word __________ which literally means to
throw.
a. Ballista
b. Ballo
c. Ballein
d. B or C

790. Fired bullets should be marked by the recovering officer with his initials in the
____________
a. Nose
b. Mouth
c. Ogive
d. A or C

791. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the automatic
withdrawal of the case after each firing.
a. Ejector Groove
b. Extractor Groove
c. Land Groove
d. None of these

792. It describes the ability of the bullet to maintain its velocity against air resistance.
a. Trajectory
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
d. Ballistic Coefficient

793. It is generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and shells for the
purpose of determining the relative distribution of the class characteristics.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope
b. Stereoscopic Microscope
c. Shadowgraph
d. Caliper

794. This instrument is use to measure the angle of twist in a rifled pistol and revolver.
a. Magnifying Glass
b. Gunsmith tools
c. Micrometer
d. Helixometer

795. The resistance encountered by the bullet whiles its flight

a. Velocity Resistance
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
d. Penetration

796. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.

a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Maybe

797. The highly sensitive chemical mixture contained in the primer cup.
a. Priming Mixture
b. Gunpowder
c. Propellant
d. Powder Charge

798. These are generally found on bullets fired through “loose fit” barrels wherein the rifling is
already worn out.
a. Shearing Mark – secondary firing pin mark
b. Stripping Mark
c. Breech Face Mark
d. Chamber Mark

799. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer
‘flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. Flash holes
b. Vents
c. Cannelures
d. A or B

800. It refers to the straight distance between the muzzle and the target.
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Range
d. Penetration

801. The oldest propellant.

a. Black Powder
b. Pink powder
c. Yellow Green powder
d. Smokeless
802. It contains a compound at the base usually similar to barium nitrates, which is set on fire
when the bullet is projected. The flash of the smoke from the burning permits the light of the
bullet to be seen especially at night time.
a. Incendiary Bullets – cause fire in a target
b. Tracer Bullets
c. Explosive Bullets
d. Armor Piercing Bullet

803. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. To the right only
b. To the left only
c. To the right & left
d. All of these

804. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to
the target. a. Velocity
b. Trajectory
c. Muzzle energy
d. Penetration

805. Which if the following is the major concern when a document is being questioned?
a. Ownership
b. Quality of the paper
c. Authenticity
d. Age

806. What is the examination of a disputed handwriting, a discriminatory process that

compares writing habits and evaluation of similarities and differences?
a. Identification
b. Projection
c. Comparison
d. Elimination

807. What is one of the most valuable tools of the question document examiner which
supplements any visual examination of a document?
a. Microscopy
b. Electrostatic detection apparatus
c. Hand magnifying
d. Video spectral comparator

808. What are abnormal or maladjustment in a typewriter which is reflected in its work and
lead to its identification?
a. Deficiency
b. Defects
c. Flaw
d. Weakness
809. What FONT has short cross-strokes that project from the top and bottom of the main
stroke of a letter?
a. Rebound
b. San-serif
c. Serif
d. Off its feet

810. What do you call the cylinder that serves as the bucking of the paper which absorbs the
blow from the typeface?
a. Off its feet
b. Platen
c. Serif
d. Rebound

811. Which of the following is a manner in which the writer stops writing to form new letters
or words?
a. Shading
b. Connecting strokes
c. Baseline habits
d. Pen lifts

812. Which of the following refers to legally admissible and authentic samples of handwriting
which is of known origin used for comparison with a questioned writing?
a. Personal letters
b. Warrant
c. Composition
d. Exemplars

813. What characteristic is whether writing is inclined to left, right, straight up or down or
combination of these, the degree of inclination exists?
a. Pen lifts
b. Connection strokes
c. Shading
d. Slant

814. What type of fraudulent SIGNATURE in which there is no apparent attempt imitation or
simulation?
a. Evidential
b. Altered
c. Spurious
d. Forged

815. A PNP applicant tried to manipulate his birth certificate to qualify him for acceptance in
the service, on his application from discrepancies in a form of some deletion and addition of
numbers. What will be the findings of this document?
a. Obliterated
b. Forged
c. Altered
d. Disputed

816. What are widely used in business in our present time because of their ability to create fast
and the same documents?
a. Computers
b. Printers
c. Scanners
d. Photocopiers

817. What is NOT included when an examiner needs to identify a particular typewriter used in
questioned document?
a. Relation of the characters and the vertical and horizontal alignment
b. Size and design
c. Vertical position of the characters in relation to the line of writing
d. Brand and make

818. What is an identifying typewriter characteristics that can be eliminated by cleaning and
replacing the ribbon?
a. Rebound
b. Transitory
c. Serif
d. Off its feet

819. What is the RATIO of height to width consistent in each letter?

a. Connecting
b. Size
c. Baseline
d. Line

820. What is the interruption or gap in writing stroke in forming a letter when a writing
instrument leaves the paper?
a. Pen lifts
b. Patching
c. Pen emphasis
d. Hiatus

821. What is retouching of defective portion of a writing stroke which is common defect in
questioned documents examination?
a. Patching
b. Shading
c. Altering
d. Retracing

822. What TYPE of document when an examiner finds a change whether deleted or added to
the question document?
a. Obliterated
b. Disputed
c. Altered
d. Counterfeit

823. In questioned documents, what kind of SIGNATURE is used by a forger tried to reproduce
without the knowledge of the owner of the signature for financial gain?
a. Model
b. Real
c. Actual
d. Evidential

824. Are known or genuine handwriting which indicates how a person writes. These are
authenticated handwriting
a. Exemplars
b. Standards
c. Post Litem
d. Specimen

825. If the questioned writings are hand printed, then get a cursive standard.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False

826. In order to be sufficient, there must be at least ten (10) to twenty-five (25) standard
signatures for examination.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially false

827. It refers to a complete correct signature for an important document such as will.
a. Formal
b. Informal – routine document
c. Careless Scribble – hindi importante, pabilisan
d. None of the foregoing

828. It is the combination of basic design of letters and writing movements as taught in school.
a. Natural Writing
b. System of Writing
c. Disguised Writing
d. Cursive Writing

829. It is a result of a very complicated series of acts, being used as a whole combination of
certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking
effort.
a. Cursive
b. Signature
c. Handwriting
d. Forgery

830. It is a fraudulent signature which was executed purely by simulation rather than by
tracing the outline of a genuine signature.
a. Traced Forgery
b. Simulated Forgery
c. Spurious Signature
d. Forgery by Computer Scanning

831. It is a connected writing in which one letter is joined to the next.

a. Script
b. Cursive
c. Block
d. Hand lettering

832. It refers to one’s name written by him on a document as a sign of acknowledgement.

a. Writing Habit
b. Name
c. Signature
d. Handwriting

833. In QDE, it refers to identifying details.

a. Signature
b. Handwriting
c. Characteristics
d. None of the Foregoing

834. It refers to the shape or design of the individual letters.

a. Slope
b. Slant
c. Form
d. Size

835. It refers to the angle of inclination of the axis of letters relative to the baseline.
a. Size
b. Connecting Stroke
c. Proportion
d. Slope

Note: Slope or Slant – keyword ay Inclined or Inclination

836. It is the relation between the tall and small letters.

a. Ratio
b. Proportion – relative height of the latter
c. Stroke
d. Size
837. It is a balance quality of movements of the harmonious recurrence of stress or impulse. It
is the flowing succession of motion that is recorded in a written record.
a. Tremor – weakening of the strokes
b. Rhythm
c. Pen Pressure
d. Shading

838. It is the average force in which the pen makes contact with the paper or the usual force
involve in writing.
a. Rubric
b. Embellishment
c. Pen Pressure
d. Tremor

839. This refers to additional unnecessary strokes to legibility of letterforms or writing.

a. Rubric
b. Embellishment
c. Tremor
d. A or B

840. It refers to any material which some issue has been raised or which is under scrutiny.
a. Disputed Document – argument or controversy
b. Questioned Document
c. Holographic Document
d. Reference Collection

841. It refers to any matter made a part of the document after its original preparation.
a. Erasure
b. Addition
c. Obliteration
d. Insertion – addition of writing and other material

842. The following are the scientific method in QDE except

a. Analysis
b. Comparison
c. Evaluation
d. Conclusion

843. This is usually used for the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to
detect security features of qualified document.
a. Infra-red viewer
b. Ultra-violet lamp
c. Shadowgraph
d. Transmitted Light Gadget

844. What is the Latin word for “paper”

A. cartouche
B. penna
C. charta
D. papyrus

845. It is the identifying of similarities and dissimilarities, determination of likelihood of

occurrence, and weighing down of the significance of each factor.
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. All of these

846. In the course of your examination, you encountered a very important document to a
particular case, however said document allegedly contain erasures done mechanical abrasion
which resulted in the translucency of the document. Under the situation what best method
can be employed to detect such erasure?
A. oblique light
C. ordinary light
B. transmitted light
D. infrared viewer

847. The combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement involved in the
writing?
A. copy book form
B. system of writing
C. erasure
D. Writing movement

848. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature executed by actually following the
outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument?
A. carbon outline process
B. indention process
C. Projection or transmitted light process
D. traced

849. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible depression

appearing underneath the original writing.
A. invisible writing
B. indented writing
C. Charred document
D. contact writing

850. Mr. X is a construction worker who usually drink during payday. One time while under the
influence of liquor Mr. X executed a document. Due to his condition an obvious deterioration is
observed in his writing. Such Changes in his writing is known as?
a. Natural variation
b. Permanent change
c. transitory change
d. Tremor
851. Specimen of writing which was executed while the writer’s hand is at steadied.
a. Natural writing
b. Disguised writing
c. guided writing
d. assisted writing – parehas lang sa guided writing

852. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a,

a. Retouching
b. Patching
c. Drawing
d. tremor of fraud

853. It is the average limit of the pen or the reach of the pen with the wrist at rest.
a. pen position
b. skills
c. pen scope
d. speed

854. It is an imaginary or real line in which the writing rest.

a. baseline
b. foot
c. underline
d. base

855. Strokes added to complete certain letters such as i-dots and t-bars
a. buckle knot
b. embellishment
c. diacritics
d. flourish

856. An artificial light examination best used in deciphering obliterated writing as well as
addition.
a. ultra-violet light
b. infra-red light
c. transmitted light
d. oblique light

857. It is the process of making clear what is otherwise is illegible or that which is not visible to
the naked eye.
a. restoration
b. development
c. decipherment
d. examination

858. A type of light examination in which the source of light is coming from one side hitting the
surface of the paper/object at a very low angle. It is best used in examination of indented
writing as well as erasure.
a. direct light examination
b. oblique light examination
c. side light examination
d. transmitted light examination

859. It is a critical side by side examination of two or more specimen.

a. examination
b. collation – keyword ay Critical, pag wala comparison ang sagot
c. comparison
d. evaluation

860. A form of a typeface defects where the characters are leans to the left or to the right of
their proper position.
a. Horizontal mal-alignment
b. off-its feet
c. vertical mal-alignment
d. twisted letters – keyword: pag may Lean

861. Substance used for blotting or smearing over an original writing to make illegible or
undecipherable.
a. ink eradicator
b. superimposing ink
c. sympathetic ink
d. invisible ink

862. The visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of various factors
associated to the motion of the pen? Is the overall quality of the strokes?
A. Obliteration
B. writing habits
C. line quality
D. significant writing habits

863. A specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of one’s activities.
A. requested
B. executed at one time
C. collected
D. day to day standard

864. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of passing, delivering, or giving a
counterfeit coin to another person?
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Reproduction
D. Uttering

865. Majority of questioned document cases are concerned with?

A. Documents Age
B. Disproving Alibis
C. Proving Authorship
D. Counterfeiting

866. He is credited in the creation of the first crime laboratory in US which is founded in
Berkeley, California.
A. Alexander Lacassagne
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
C. Hans Gross
D. August Vollmer

867. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body except
one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal tests
D. Blood test

868. It is type of witness that needs the basis and logic of his conclusions.
a. Ordinary witness
b. Expert witness
c. Special witness
d. All of the above

869. This is a kind of evidence which seeks to establish a conclusion by inferences from the
facts proven. a. Documentary evidence
b. real evidence
c. Direct evidence
d. indirect evidence

870. The ABO system divides the human race into four blood types. Which of the following
types has the lowest percentage?
A. O type
B. B type
C. A type
D. AB type

871. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity
between the first and second rib which was Caesar’s proximate cause of death.
a. Antistius
b. Imhotep
c. Paulus Zacchias
d. San Juan de Bautista

872. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves
the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood
b. Venous blood
c. Menstrual blood
d. Human blood

873. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or B what would
be the particular blood group of the sample?
a. Group A
b. Group
c. Group AB
d. Group O

874. Rate of growth of human hair.

a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day
c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day

875. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal conditions.
a. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters
b. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters
c. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters
d. 10 to 15 cubic

876. This preliminary blood test will result to a blue color.

a. Precipitin Test
b. Guaiacum Test
c. Takayama Test
d. Teichman Test

877. Test to determine if blood is of human origin or not.

a. Benzidine Test
b. Precipitin Test
c. Takayama Test
d. Acid Phosphate Test

878. Barberio’s test if positive will give what color?

a. Dark Brown
b. Blue
c. Red Orange
d. Yellow

879. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?

a. Takayama test
b. Diphenylamine test
c. Autopsy
d. Florence test

880. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?

a. H2S - Hydrogen Sulfide
b. CO2
c. CO
d. H2O

881. Kind of protein found in blood

a. Leukocytes
b. Thrombocytes
c. Globin
d. Hemo

882. They serve as the fighting mechanism of the body against unwanted foreign
microorganisms.
a. Leukocytes – white blood cells
b. Thrombocytes – blood plateletes
c. Erythrocytes – red blood cells
d. Serology

884. The joining of the clumping of antigen-bearing red blood cells and the anti-bodies specific
to that antigen
a. agglutination
b. antigen
c. heat test
d. solubility test

885. Consists of longitudinal fibers bearing the pigment.

a. Cuticle
b. Cortex
c. Medulla
d. Shaft

886. How is tool mark found at the crime scene may be laboratory examined?
a. by extracting
b. by photogrh
c. by casting
d. by sketching

887. What part of the hair can DNA be found?

a. Shaft
b. Tip
c. Root
d. Cuticle

888. DNA Profiles for convicted offenders and unidentified suspects in unsolved cases.
a. AFIS
b. IBIS
c. CODIS – Combined DNA Index System
d. Mug files
889. It is chemical substance that brings about physical, physiological, behavioral or
psychological change in a person taking it.
a. Chemical
b. Drug
c. Poison
d. None of the above

890. Is a substance affecting the central nervous system which when taken into the human
body brings about physical, emotional, or behavioral changes in the person taking it.
a. Drug
b. Medicinal drug
c. Dangerous drug
d. Synthetic drug

891. A chemical substance used in the clandestine manufacturing processes

a. Immediate precursors
b. Essential chemicals
c. Narcotics
d. Dangerous substance

892. Facility where analyses are performed on evidence performed by crime, they investigate
physical, chemical, biological or digital evidence and often employ specialists especially in the
conduct of crime scene investigation.
a. Laboratory
b. Crime Laboratory
c. Forensic Laboratory
d. Both b and c

893. This is conducted to determine the presence of dangerous drug on submitted specimens.
a. Drug identification
b. Qualitative examination
c. Quantitative examination
d. Confirmatory test

894. What is the basic ingredient for a single based gunpowder?

a. Nitroglycerine
b. Nitroguanidine
c. Nitrogen
d. Nitrocellulose

895. After ___ hours, no person shall be subjected to paraffin casting.

a. 24 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 72 hrs
d. 100 hrs

896. Paraffin test result is a conclusive evidence.

a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No

897. It is any chemical compound or mixture that under the influence of heat, pressure,
friction, or shock undergoes a sudden chemical change or decomposition.
a. Chemical
b. Bomb
c. Explosive
d. Dynamite

898. This is extremely sensitive to detonation by heat, shock, friction and impact and used
primarily to start an explosion like blasting caps and primers.
a. Low explosive
b. Primary explosive
c. Secondary Explosive
d. High explosive

899. The fastest known explosive

a. RDX
b. Trinitrotoluene
c. Octanitrocubane
d. Straight dynamite

900. Its content makes it the most dangerous type of dynamite to handle and store.
a. Ammonia dynamite
b. Trinitrotoluene
c. Octanitrocubane
d. Straight dynamite

901. Which of the following is a genderless act which involves unconventional sexual acts of
violence and aggression committed on the genital, oral or anal orifices of another person?
a. Defloration
b. Sexual assault
c. Rape
d. Sexual harassment

902. What is the possible result when a test is applied to determine the presence of semen in
the underwear of a rape victim?
a. Orange-red pigment
b. White color pigments
c. Bright red crystals will appear
d. Slender yellowish crystals

903. What is a METHOD in determining the identity of soil sample collected from crime scene
and soil found in the shoes of the suspect to separate the soil from other materials?
a. Ouchterlony
b. Burning
c. Density Gradient
d. Acid-Phosphates

904. When a rape case is being investigated, investigators know that SOMETHING IS LEFT in the
crime scene, presence of semen is possible, what test can be applied to determine the
presence?
a. Acid-phosphatase - purple
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Paraffin
d. Density gradient

905. Which of the following METHODS in hair analysis is NOT included?

a. Benzidine - Blood (Blue -Also known as Adler’s test)
b. Dry mount
c. Parallel mounting
d. Wet mount

906. In order to determine the racial origin of the suspect hair strands left in the crime scene
after microscopic and physical examinations, why is it that the forensic experts are positive
that the suspect is a black man or negro?
a. Tightly coiled medulla and contains heavy pigment
b. Straight and wavy
c. Cross section is oval, contains fine pigments
d. Lightly pigmented

907. Is defined as any impression, cut, scratch, or abrasion, or any other marking left on an
object by another harder object or instrument.
a. Mark
b. Tool mark
c. Tire mark
d. Jimmy mark

908. Is made when a tool is pressed against or into a receiving surface. It is usually made when
a crowbar is used to pry open a door or window
a. Tool mark
b. Negative impression
c. Abrasion or friction mark
d. Combination mark

909. How long does alcohol last in blood?

a. Up to 24 to 48 hours
b. 3-5 days
c. 10 hours
d. up to 12 hours

910. Any agent that neutralizes a poison or otherwise counteracts or opposes its effects.
a. Poison
b. Neutralizer
c. Medicine
d. Antidote

911. One which by contact with it chemically produces local destruction of tissues
a. True poison
b. Corrosive Poison
c. Cumulative Poison
d. Acute Poison

912. This poison through direct contact inflames the mucous membrane or the parts. It causes
nausea, vomiting, pain and diarrhea.
a. Corrosive
b. Neurotics
c. Aesthetics
d. Irritants

913. A type of dose that does not cause harmful effects.

a. Minimum dose
b. Safe dose
c. Toxic
d. Fatal dose

914. It is a type of attacked numbers that is pressed intendedly using electrical or mechanical
gadget.
a. Stamped number
b. Engraved number
c. Embossed number
d. Serial number

915. Intaking of plenty of water before collection of urine specimen or drinking herbal tea etc.
a. Internal Dilution
b. External Dilution
c. Substituted
d. Adulterated

916. A drug which induces sleep or stupor and relieve pain.

a. Narcotics
b. Tranquillizers
c. Sedatives
d. Stimulants

917. Are artificially produced substance, synthesized in the laboratory for the illicit market.
a. Barbiturates
b. Synthetic drugs
c. Stimulant
d. Natural drugs
918. A type of drug that reduces appetite, relieves mental depression, comfort fatigue and
sleepiness.
a. Inhalants
b. Amphetamine
c. Depressant
d. Hallucinogen

919. An agent that counter the reactions made by the poisons through distillation, solvent
extraction, and chromatography.
a. Chemical Antidote
b. Mechanical antidote
c. Physiological antidote
d. Psychological antidote

920. It is one categories of bloodstain which is characterized through drops created or formed
by the force of gravity acting alone.
a. Contact bleeding
b. Smear
c. Smudge
d. Passive bloodstain

921. A poison that can be detected through qualitative methods of examination such as
sulfates, sulphides, chlorine and alkaline.
a. Anion
b. Volatile Poison
c. Metallic
d. Non-volatile poison

922. Who stated that all substances are poison?

a. Plenck
b. Paracelsus
c. Reinsch
d. Mathieu Orfila

923. It refers to exposure to poison and produces immediate or instant death.

a. Chronic Poisoning
b. Acute Poisoning
c. Cumulative Poisoning
d. True poisoning

924. It is a favorite killer poison.

a. Arsenic
b. Cyanide
c. Hydrogen Sulphide
d. Potassium Chloride

925. It refers to the process of reducing the desired substance in its pure form.
a. Identification
b. Isolation
c. Ultraviolet Examination
d. Gas Chromatography

926. It is the process of receiving the specimen by entering the specimen condition on the
logbook.
a. Reception
b. Detection
c. Recognition
d. Identification

927. Are drops that have been put into fire flight through some mechanisms.
a. Non-spatter
b. Spatter
c. Spurt
d. Drip trail

928. Similar to impact spatter, but with a slight difference. The blood source is broken up in
the mouth or system by air pressure.
a. EXPIRATED Pattern
b. Impact Spatter
c. Drip Trail
d. Spurt

929. This is created when a bloody object contacts another surface often with some form of
lateral motion.
a. Gush
b. Smear
c. Pool
d. Wipe

930. A crack in a glass that extends outward like the spoke of a wheel from the point at which
the glass was struck.
a. Concentric
b. Radial Fracture
c. Glass bends
d. Pattern transfer

931. A weak mark made by pressure that stays on the surface.

a. Trace
b. Track
c. Impression
d. Imprint

932. A mark or sign left behind by something that has passed by.
a. Trace
b. Track
c. Tire marks
d. Imprint

933. It is created when a bloody object meets another surface and produce a pattern in which
a recognizable characteristic of image or object is evident.
a. Pattern Transfer
b. Flow
c. Saturation Stain
d. Pool

934. An irregular pattern created when a large volume of blood is ejected.

a. Smear
b. Wipe
c. Swipe
d. Gush

935. It is a pattern of individual spatter stains deposited on the surface that demonstrate the
movement of the dripping item from one point to another.
a. Drip trail
b. Impact Spatter
c. Cast off
d. Spurt

936. One of the oldest tests for the detection of creatinine

a. Urine test
b. blood test
c. Reinchin Test
d. Jaffe Test

937. Color of blood is cherry red due to ____.

a. Phosphorus
b. Hydrogen Sulphide
c. Methane
d. Carbon Monoxide

938. Paraffin test originated in ________.

a. China
b. Guam
c. Cuba
d. France

939. Referred to as the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and
evidence for laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography
B. Cinematography
C. Photo gallery
D. Forensic photography
940. Under the law of reflection, the angle of reflection depends upon the angle of the light
striking the material, which is referred to as the;
a. angle of incidence
b. angle of biometry
c. angle of light
d. none of these

941. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is called_____.

a. Electromagnetic Spectrum
b. Electromagnetic waves
c. Electromagnetic speed
d. Heat

942. In modern photography, DSLR cameras almost dominated the market because of its
superior autofocusing on fast moving objects, such as photographing sports. DSLR
means______.
a. digital single lens reflex
b. digital systematic lens reflex
c. dual system lens reflex
d. digital single low reflex

943. In crime scene, three (3) icepicks recovered, the cadaver obtained gaping holes on the
abdomen with 2 stellates shapes on the back part of the body. As an investigator the wound
be called as _________.
A. punctured wound
B. lacerated wound
C. stabbed wound
D. gunshot wound

944. What importance of photography that is essential in developing a conclusion about how
the crime occurred.
A. Significance of certain aspects of the crime scene
B. Permanent record
C. Reconstruction of the crime scene
D. None of the above

945. What does “forensic” mean?

A. Pertaining to the application of systematic methods of analyzing the causes of crime, the
effects of the crime, and devising methods to forestall crimes.
B. Relating to or denoting the application of scientific methods and techniques to the
investigation of crime.
C. Involving the analysis of specimens to determine its constitutions and determine its
relationship as to the commission of the crime.
D. Its ultimate goal is to support the conviction of the perpetrator so as justice be served to the
victims.

946. A molecular biologist could analyze extracted DNA in several ways. One of which is through
VNTR which stands for:
A. Variable Neurons Tandem Reconstitution
B. Variable Number Tandem Repeats
C. Variable Number Tandem Repeats
D. Variable Neurons Tenacious Repeats

947. Obtaining DNA samples from an accused in a criminal case or from the respondent in a
paternity case, contrary to the belief of the respondent in this action, will not violate the right to
self-incrimination, as the SC ruling in the case People v. Yatar, the kernel of the right is not
against all compulsion, but against testimonial compulsion. The right against self-incrimination
is against the legal process of extracting from the lips of the accused an admission of guilt. It
does not apply where the evidence sought to be excluded is not an incrimination but as part of
object evidence. A. True
B. False
C. First statement is correct
D. Second Statement is correct

948. The work of a forensic odontologist involves the following, EXCEPT.

A. Identification of bite marks found on the victim
B. Examination of the shape of the femur to determine the gender of the victim
C. Identification of unknown bodies through dental records
D. Examination of skull’s osteological features

949. Anthropometry is known to be the first scientifically devised identification technique by

measuring the various bone structures of the human body. Which of the following statement/s
is/are the basis of the Bertillonage system for it to be utilized as an identification system?
I. The human skeleton is unchangeable after the twenty-fifth year
II. It is impossible to find two human being having bones exactly alike
III. The necessary measurement can easily be taken with the aid of a simple instrument.
IV. It can be helpful in differentiating the race of a specific group or individual
A. I is correct
B. II and IV is correct
C. II and III is correct
D. II, III and IV is correc

950. When fingerprint evidence does not warrant conviction?

A. The fingerprints corresponding to those of the accused must have been found at the crime
scene
B. The fingerprint must be impressed at the time when the crime is committed
C. The fingerprint must have been in the surface in a short period of time
D. The fingerprints’ ridge points must be exactly alike

951. It is a title given to a licensed Criminologist who has undergone and completed the
required training in the science of fingerprint (fingerprint identification) and passed other
qualifications in accordance to its standards, and whose work is not limited only to examination,
identification, preparation of reports but also in testifying and convincing the court that he/she
is a qualified expert witness in the said field of expertise.
A. Fingerprint Technician
B. Fingerprint Examiner
C. AFIS Database Encoder
D. None from the choices

952. As fingerprint examiner, a careful examination and comparison of two fingerprints must be
strictly observed so as to give a positive identification of fingerprint. Which of the following
conclusions are expected from fingerprint analysis?
I. The fingerprint was made by (identified/individualized to) a known source (victim, suspect,
etc.)
II. The fingerprint was not made (excluded to) a known source
III. The fingerprint cannot be identified or excluded to a known source (inconclusive)
IV. The fingerprint is of no value to compare (not suitable for comparison) to a known source.

a. Statements I, II, IV
b. Statements I, II, III
c. Statements I, II, III, IV
d. Statements I, III

953. Just because someone touches a surface does not guarantee that a latent print will be
deposited. The following are some reasons a print may not be deposited, EXCEPT.
A. The person may be wearing gloves
B. Latent prints were left in a porous object
C. If a particular surface or item is collected/packaged improperly
D. If the latent prints were deposited outdoor and the environment is having arid climates

954. In comparing two fingerprints, procedures are being set forth for it to become admissible
as evidence to the court. In examining two fingerprints, it follows three stages before
evaluating the results?
I. Analyze the minutiae of ridge characteristics to identify specific points on a suspect fingerprint
with the same information in the known print.
II. Analyze the general pattern type to make initial comparison and include or exclude a known
fingerprint from further analysis.
III. Analyze auxiliary details of the prints such as the length or thickness of the ridges

A. II, III, I
B. II, I, III
C. III, I, II
D. I, II, III

955. Individual’s emotion once stimulated leads to a person’s response or reaction to a certain
stimulus. In polygraph examination, which of the following is the type of emotion being
detected during the polygraph test?
A. Emotion as conscious experience
B. Emotion as response
C. Emotion as motive
D. Emotion as a friend

956. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum”
which means –
A. Divine intervention
B. Miraculous decision
C. God’s hand
D. God’s favor