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AIPGMEE 2007 MCQS: Answer: A) Mucosa Is Loosely Attached To The Underlying Musculature
AIPGMEE 2007 MCQS: Answer: A) Mucosa Is Loosely Attached To The Underlying Musculature
aipgmee2…
Question: 5. A patient presenting with history of abdominal pain, constipation. On examination he has
blue line on gums. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Ca-EDTA
B) BAL
C) Desferroxamine
D) Penicillamine
Answer: A) Ca-EDTA
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2578; KDT, 4th, Pg-874; Reddy's, 18th, Pg-441
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 8. Movement of pronation & supination occur in all of the following joints except ?
A) Middle radio-ulnar joint
B) Superior radio-ulnar joint
C) Inferior radio-ulnar joint
D) Radio carpal joint
Answer: D) Radio carpal joint
Snell's Anatomy - "ROTATION is not possible at radiocarpal joint because it is an ellipsoid joint.this is compensated
for by the supination and pronation on the forearm.supination and pronation has been defined as medial and lateral
ROTATION of the forearm."
inferring from this.. answer should be radiocarpal joint.regarding middle radioulnar joint.it has been described as
syndesmoses.has been given only in grays.cud not get anything regarding whether sup. nd pro. occurs on it or not
Question: 9. Nevirapine is ?
A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
B) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Nucleotide inhibitor
Answer: A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
Reference: Harrisons' Medicine, 16th, Pg-1128
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 11. A 6 year old child with IQ 50 can do which of the following ?
A) Identify colors
B) Read a sentence
C) Ride a bicycle
D) Draw / Copy a triangle
Answer: A) Identify colors
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 12. Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is maximum when infection in mother occurs in ?
A) At implantation
B) 1st trimester
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Answer: D) 3rd trimester
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1830
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 13. Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following conditions ?
A) Morning Glory Syndrome
B) Nanophthalmia
C) Coloboma of retina
D) Optic nerve agenesis
Answer: A) Morning Glory Syndrome
Lamina Cribrosa, is the small cartilaginous section of the sclera at the back of the eye through which the optic nerve
passes. In intraocular hypertension, it bows backwards, impinging on the optic nerve fibers and ultimately
destroying them. This results in optic nerve atrophy, the ultimate result of prolonged glaucoma.
The morning glory syndrome -The aetiology of the disorder remains controversial, although it would appear to be
related to an isolated coloboma of the optic nerve.
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 14. Papez circuit in limbic system involves ?
A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
B) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
C) Posterior hypothalamic nucleus
Answer: A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-249
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 17. A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for ?
A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
B) Maternal PIH
C) Heart Disease
Answer: A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
Reference: Williams, 22nd, Pg-1369
Contributed by : Rabies
Question: 18. Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant Trait ?
A) Best Disease
B) Gyrate Atrophy
C) LMB syndrome
Answer: A) Best Disease
Reference: Kanski's, 5th, Pg-494
Contributed by: Rabies
Question: 20. Results of a test were given as Very Satisfied, Satisfied, Dissatisfied & Very Dissatisfied. It
represents ?
A) Nominal data
B) Ordinal data
C) Interval data
D) Ratio
Answer: B) Ordinal data
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 21. Which of the following anticancer drugs causes hyperviscocity syndrome ?
A) Vinblastine
B) L-asparaginase
C) 5-FU
Answer: B) L-asparaginase
Contributed by: amiteng
Question: 26. A 50 year old man with family history of carcinoma prostate wants to do screening. The
most sensitive test is ?
A) Digital rectal examination
B) Serum PSA
C) Both A + B Combined
D) Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weighed images
Answer: C) Both A + B Combined
Contributed by: dubspg
Question: 32. Which of the following investigations is least useful in multiple myeloma ?
A) Urine proteins
B) Xray
C) Bone marrow biopsy
D) Bone scan
Answer: D) Bone scan
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-659
Explanation: There is absence of osteoblastic activity in multiple myeloma.(So bone scan is not going to help much).
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 37. Patient's PT given, control PT given, ISI was given as 1.4. How will you calculate INR ?
A) Patient's observed PT (in seconds) / Calculated mean normal PT (in seconds)
B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
C) (pts PT/PT control)1/1.4
Answer: B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
Explanation: International normalized ratio Because of differences between different batches and manufacturers of
tissue factor (it is a biologically obtained product), the INR was devised to standardise the results.
Each manufacturer gives an ISI (International Sensitivity Index) for any tissue factor they make. The ISI value
indicates how the particular batch of tissue factor compares to an internationally standardized sample. The ISI is
usually between 1.0 and 1.4.
The INR is the ratio of a patient's prothrombin time to a normal (control) sample, raised to the power of the ISI
value for the control sample used.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 38. Conversion of short term memory to long term memory occurs in ?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Amygdala
Answer: B) Hippocampus
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2394, 2395; Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-259
Contributed by: dubspg, mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Acute DIC
Clinical findings
Laboratory abnormalities
* Coagulation abnormalities: prolonged prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time;
decreased fibrinogen levels; increased levels of FDP (eg, on testing for FDP, D dimer)
* Platelet count decreased as a rule but may be falling from a higher level yet still be normal
* Schistocytes on peripheral smear
Chronic DIC
Clinical findings
Question: 46. The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ?
A) Ground nut oil
B) Palm oil
C) Margarine
D) Soyabean oil
Answer: D) Soyabean oil
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-440
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 51. Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all except ?
A) Common ALL subtype
B) pre-B ALL
C) Hyperploidy
D) Female gender
Answer: B) pre-B ALL
Explanation: Patients with ALL are divided into 3 prognostic groups.
Good risk includes (1) no adverse cytogenetics, (2) age younger than 30 years, (3) WBC count of less than
30,000/mL, and (4) complete remission within 4 weeks.
Intermediate risk does not meet the criteria for either good risk or poor risk.
Poor risk includes (1) adverse cytogenetics [(t9;22), (4;11)], (2) age older than 60 years, (3) precursor B-cell
WBCs with WBC count greater than 100,000/mL, or (4) failure to achieve complete remission within 4 weeks.
So precursor b cell or pre b cell have poor prognosis. And female have definatley good prognosis. so answer should
be pre b cell
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-673;http://www.emedicine.com/med/topic3146.htm
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu
Question: 52. A child undergoing surgical procedure, (on ventilator) anaesthetized with atracurium and
propofol, wakes up with body pain 12 hours later (or develops seizures after 2 days). Cause of body
pain is ?
A) adverse effect of propofol
B) accumulation of Laudanosine
Answer: B) accumulation of Laudanosine
Reference: Miller's, 6th, Pg-509
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 53. Trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth nerve. Which is true ?
A) Longitudinal Fracture
B) Transverse Fracture
C) Always associated with CSF leak
D) The paralysis of VIIth is always complete
Answer: B) Transverse Fracture
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2449
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 54. The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except ?
A) Left brachiocephalic vein
B) Hemiazygous vein
C) Left gonadal vein
D) Left renal vein
Answer: C) Left gonadal vein
Reference: Snell's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-107, 108, 109, 153
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 55. Which of the following diseases cause decreased VC and decreased TLC ?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Bronchial asthma
D) Bronchiectasis
Answer: A) Sarcoidosis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2022,1501, Table 234-2
Explanation: All others are Obstructive lung disease.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 60. A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA anti-human
tissue transglutimase (TTG), and IgA anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following is the next
step ?
A) Rectal biopsy
B) A trial of gluten free diet
C) Colonoscopy
Answer: B) A trial of gluten free diet
Contributed by: dubspg
Question: 61. Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in head injury ?
A) Glasgow coma scale
B) Age
C) Bleeding on CT
Answer: A) Glasgow coma scale
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2450
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 62. A newborn has congenital heart failure, not improving with treatment. He has bulging
anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoic midline mass is
seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Vein of galen malformation
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Arachnoid cyst
D) Encephalocele
Answer: A) Vein of galen malformation
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 63. To expose the coeliac axis, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta
in a case of abdominal trauma, which is done ?
A) Left median visceral rotation
B) Right median visceral rotation
C) Cranial visceral rotation
D) Caudal visceral rotation
Answer: A) Left median visceral rotation
Reference: Sabiston's, 17th, Pg-1973; Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-947
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 64. Unconscious male with external injuries, CT Shows multiple spotty hemorrhages and full
basal cisterns. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Diffuse axonal injury
B) Brain contusions
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Multiple infarcts
Answer: A) Diffuse axonal injury
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2448
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 65. A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of lower limbs,
difficulty in micturition, CT shows intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The diagnosis is ?
A) Meningioma
B) Intradural Lipoma
C) Neuroepithelial Cyst
D) Dermoid Cyst
Answer: A) Meningioma
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2456
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 69. A typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic vertebra by ?
A) Foramen transversarium
B) Trianglular vertebral canal
C) Heavy vertebral body
D) Superior facet on upper surface of body
Answer: A) Foramen transversarium
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Pg-31
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 72. Premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered, baby had bullous lesions on the body and
Xray shows periostitis. What is the next Investigation ?
A) VDRL for mother and baby
B) ELISA for HIV
C) PCR for TB
D) Hepatitis surface antigen for Mother
Answer: A) VDRL for mother and baby
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 74. An infant ( or 3 year old child) with erythrematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of
limbs, mother has history of asthma. Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Airborne contact dermatitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Seborrhic dermatitis
D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-288
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 78. Which of the following act by increasing cAMP / adenylate cyclase ?
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) E. coli, heat stable toxin
D) Salmonella
Answer: A) Vibrio cholerae
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-753
Contributed by: mads, Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 83. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on
Ceftazidime and Amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture
is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin
was restarted but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy.
The most likely orgainsm causing the infection is ?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Viridans streptococci
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Coagulase positive staphylococcus
Answer: C) Enterococcus faecalis
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-815, 830; Panikar, 6th, Pg-189
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 86. A patient presented with RTA with fracture pelvis, few drops of blood passed per
urethrally without passage of urine, and palpable bladder. The likely cause is ?
A) Ureteral injury
B) Urethral injury
C) Bladder rupture
D) Urine extravasation to peritoneum
Answer: B) Urethral injury
Reference: Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-1389
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Mercury is unique among the heavy metals in that it can exist in several physical and chemical forms, including
elemental mercury, which is a liquid at room temperature. All forms of mercury have toxic effects in a number of
organs, especially in the kidneys. Within the kidney, the pars recta of the proximal tubule is the most vulnerable
segment of the nephron to the toxic effects of mercury. The biological and toxicological activity of mercurous and
mercuric ions in the kidney can be defined largely by the molecular interactions that occur at critical nucleophilic
sites in and around target cells. Because of the high bonding affinity between mercury and sulfur, there is particular
interest in the interactions that occur between mercuric ions and the thiol group(s) of proteins, peptides and amino
acids. Molecular interactions with sulfhydryl groups in molecules of albumin, metallothionein, glutathione, and
cysteine have been implicated in mechanisms involved in the proximal tubular uptake, accumulation, transport, and
toxicity of mercuric ions.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 97. A 45 year old male presents with a history of vomiting of 500 ml of blood 24 hrs back,
90/60 BP, 110 / min pulse rate, and splenomegaly 5 cms below the costal margin. Most probable
diagnosis is ?
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Portal hypertension
C) Gastric ulcer
D) Erosive gastritis
Answer: B) Portal hypertension
Explanation: Splenomegaly 5cms below the costal margin clinches the diagnosis
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 98. Which amyloid is found in the kidney in patients who have been on dialysis ?
A) Beta2 microglobulin
Answer: A) Beta2 microglobulin
Contributed by: Dewdrop
Question: 102. Which of the following is not useful for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) ?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cotrimoxazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Vancomycin
Answer: A) Cefaclor
Reference: CMDT, 2006, Pg-1552
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 103. A 3 year old child with normal developmental milestones but delayed speech, difficulty in
communication, concentration and not making friends. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Autism
B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
C) Specific learning disability
D) Mental retardation
Answer: A) Autism
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 104. With reference to Bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except ?
A) Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B) Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
C) The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
Answer: D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-945
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 105. A person from village is complaining of developement of pustules of the leg. Culture was
done which showed gram positive cocci in chains which were alpha hemolytic colonies and catalase
negative, identified as group A streptococci. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism
?
A) Bile solubility
B) Optochin sensitivity
C) Bacitracin sensitivity
D) Novobiocin sensitivity
Answer: C) Bacitracin sensitivity
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 106. A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination, abundant pus cells
were found on gram stain but no organisms were seen. Which method would be best used for culture ?
A) Mc Coy cell line
B) Thayer Martin Medium
C) L.J. Medium
D) Levinthal medium
Answer: A) Mc Coy cell line
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-394
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 108. An elderly male (70 year old) patient presented with high grade fever, chest pain and
dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is ?
A) H. influenzae
B) Moraxella catarrhalis
C) Legionella
D) Burkholderia capacia
Answer: C) Legionella
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-378
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 109. A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer.
Which will best help in the demonstration of organisms from smear made from the pustule ?
A) Trichrome methylene blue
B) Carbol Fuschin
C) Acid Fast Stain
D) Calcoflour White
E) Geimsa
Answer: A) Trichrome methylene blue
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-224
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 110. A 1 year old child with bronchial asthma. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
B) Oral Ketotifen
C) Oral LT2 receptor antagonist
D) Oral Theophyllin
Answer: A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
Explanation: Now this one is a bit confusing….. If it's a/c asthma then the answer is INHALED B2 AGONISTS (admn.
via face masks). If its long term management then rx of choice is oral ketotifen ……quite obviously 1yrold infant
cant use inhalers !
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 111. Maximum Peripheral Neuropathy is caused by ?
A) Zidovudine
B) Stavudine
C) Lamivudine
D) Didanosine
Answer: D) Didanosine
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1128
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 116. A 7 year old body with xray features of codman's triangle and sunray appearance, most
probably has ?
A) Osteoclastoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Osteosarcoma
Answer: C) Osteosarcoma
Reference: Harrison's. 16th, Pg-561
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 119. All the drugs can be used in treatment of H. pylori infection except ?
A) Omeprazole
B) Amoxycillin
C) Metronidazole
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Bismuth
Answer: D) Oxytetracycline
Reference: CMDT, 2006, Pg-590
Contributed by: gayathri226, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 120. HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary Heart Disease
Answer: D) Coronary Heart Disease
Contributed by: gayathri226
Question: 121. Supports of Uterus are all except (all of the following structures prevent prolapse of the
uterus except) ?
A) Uterosarcal ligament
B) Broad ligament
C) Mackenrodt's ligament
D) Levator ani
Answer: B) Broad ligament
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol-2
Contributed by: gayathri226, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 122. A 60 year old smoker came with history of painless gross hematuria for one (or two)
day. Most logical (or diagnostic) investigation would be ?
A) Urine routine and microscopy
B) Plain Xray KUB
C) USG KUB
D) Urine for malignant cytology
Answer: D) Urine for malignant cytology
Reference: Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-1463
Contributed by: gayathri226
Question: 124. Which of the following is an immunohistochemical marker for Paget's disease of the
breast ?
A) s100
B) hmb 45
C) synaptophysin
D) CEA
Answer: A) s100
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-439, Table 66-5, Explanation: A, C are for Melanomas
Contributed by: samuelinba2, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 127. All of the insulin preparations are short and rapidly acting except ?
A) insulin lispro
B) insulin aspart
C) insulin glargine
D) lente insulin
Answer: C) insulin glargine
Contributed by: Radesh
Question: 134. A person with previously normal Hb with sudden hemorrhage will have all except ?
A) Recticulocytosis
B) High PCV
C) Low MCV
D) Thrombocytosis
Answer: A) Recticulocytosis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1602
Explanation: Reticulocyte count starts increasing only after a day or two.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
plus page 510 mentions that part of effect of clonidine is due to increase vagal tone (mentioned in the bracket) so
option of parasypathetic tone seem to right.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu
Question: 146. Mechanism of cellular memory & learning include all except ?
A) increase and decrease in neurotransmitter release as in learning and habituation
B) increase in number of synapses, increase in number of synaptic terminals, increases in number of dendrites
C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex
D) allocation of specialized nerve cells as occurs in hippocampus
Answer: C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in
somatosensory area of cortex
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-261
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 147. Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy for Trachoma ?
A) Facial cleanliness
B) Enviornmental cleanliness
C) Screening
D) Antibiotics
Answer: C) Screening
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 148. Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of
water ?
A) Chlorometer
B) Horrocks apparatus
C) Berkefield filter
D) Double pot method
Answer: B) Horrocks apparatus
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-540
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 158. Burst fracture of the spine is a type of (Commonest injury causing burst fracture of the
spine)?
A) Compression fracture / injury
B) Extension injury
C) Direct injury
Answer: A) Compression fracture / injury
Reference: Maheshwari, 3rd, Pg-149
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 161. Which of these parts of vertebral canal will show concavity
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Sacral
D) Coccyx
Answer: A) Cervical
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads
Question: 171. For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
A) centrifugation
B) densitometry
C) electrophoresis
D) chromatography
Answer: B) densitometry
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-58
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 172. Which waves are not used for deep tumors / Which is not a deep
A) Short wave diathermy
B) Infrared
C) Ultrasonic
D) Microwave
Answer: B) Infrared
Explanation: Deep heat causes a temperature rise from the conversion of energy into heat as it penetrates the
tissues of the body where the energy is applied. Energy sources include (1) high-frequency currents (shortwave
diathermy), (2) electromagnetic radiation (microwaves), and (3) ultrasound (high-frequency sound). Contributed
by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 177. Which of these does not handle the free radicals in lens ?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin E
D) Catalase
Answer: C) Vitamin E
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 179. Which of the following statements regarding Lepromin test is not true ?
A) It is negative in most of the children in first 6 months of life
B) It is a diagnostic test
C) Helps to classify leprosy
D) BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
Answer: B) It is a diagnostic test
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-258
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 182. Breast milk differs from Cow's milk in that it has ?
A) More lactose
B) More proteins
C) More iron
Answer: A) More lactose
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-398
Explanation: Breast milk;protein;11&lactose;62 whereas cow milk protein;33&lactose;50 REF;PARKed;18PAGE-398
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Gitak
Question: 190. What is analytical test you use for the study in which you
A) Student T test
B) Chi square test
C) Paired T test
D) Bland & altman analysis
Answer: B) Chi square test
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 193. In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for emergency laparotomy should be ?
A) Paramedian incision
B) Midline incision
C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
D) Subcostal incision
Answer: B) Midline incision
Reference: Farquharson's, 9th, Pg-240, 241
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 196. Smoking is associated with 85% more risk of developing carcinoma. It denotes ?
A) Relative risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Attributable risk
D) Odds ratio
Answer: C) Attributable risk
Reference: Park's, 16th, Pg-67
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 197. Which of this bears maximum force generated during mastication ?
A) Pterygomaxillary
B) Nasomaxillary
C) Zygomaxillary
Answer: C) Zygomaxillary
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads
Question: 199. Which of these muscles are involved along with osteoarthritis of knee ?
A) Quadriceps only
B) Hamstrings only
C) A+B
D) Gastrocnemius
Answer: A) Quadriceps only
Reference: Maheswari, 13th, Pg-253
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 201. Which of the following is not a branch of the cavernous segment of internal carotid
artery?
A) Meningeal branch
B) Ophthalmic artery
C) Hypophyseal branch
Answer: B) Ophthalmic artery
Reference: Snell's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-723
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads
Question: 204. Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be given by ?
A) Goitre in pregnant women
B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
C) Urinary iodine
Answer: B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-467
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 205. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4
tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need
to know ?
A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
B) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
C) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
D) Relative risk of SLE in those patient
Answer: A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 206. A patient presented with unilateral progressive proptosis, increased on bending forward
and compressible, on auscultation no bruit is heard. Usg shows hyper echoic mass with acoustic
shadow. The likely diagnosis is ?
A) AV malformation
B) Orbital varix
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Orbital encephalocele
Answer: B) Orbital varix
Explanation: I think this ques though a repeat from nov aims was introduced in aipgmee 07 with a small change.
instead of the MRI finding they have provided with USG finding of hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow.
As far as I know hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow is suggestive of a mass lesion & not blood.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 207. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.
This is done because of differences in ?
A) Causes of death
B) Numerators
C) Age distributions
D) Denominators
Answer: C) Age distributions
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-53
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 217. Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently associated with ?
A) anti-histone antibodies
B) anti-ro antibodies
C) anti-centromere antibodies
D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Answer: A) anti-histone antibodies
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1961, Table 300-1
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 220. 30 years old lady, atrial fibrillation with Mitral Regurgitation, comes in with syncope and
regular pulse of 55 / min. Most probable cause is ?
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Cerebral infarct
Answer: A) Digoxin toxicity
Repeat: AIPGMEE 2004
Reference: Harrison's, 15th, Pg-1295
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 223. Which of the following antiepileptic does not act through Na+ channels ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Valproic acid
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Answer: C) Vigabatrin
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2363; KDT, 4th, Pg-390
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
morphine is a less lipid soluble drug and so will not bind to spinal cord..and will ascend up to the CNS and cause
delayed resp.depression which is the most feared complication in paediatric anaesthesia.the other drugs
(fentanyl,sufentany) are lipid soluble and will bind to the neurons in the spinal cord.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu, Gitak
Question: 226. A patient has H. pylori infection. He recieved drugs after that. H. pylori is detected by ?
A) Rapid urease test
B) Urea breath test
C) Endoscopic biopsy
Answer: B) Urea breath test
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-888
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 228. A 30 years old man presents with generalised oedema, haematuria, hypertension and
subnephrotic proteinuria (< 2 gm ). Urine examination shows microscopic haematuria. Serum
complement levels are decreased. He is positive for anti hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely
diagnosis is ?
A) PSGN
B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C) Lupus nephritis
D) MPGN
Answer: B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1682
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 235. All of the following act on the nucleus via transcription factors ?
A) Insulin
B) Retinoid
C) Vitamin D
Answer: A) Insulin
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-535
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 236. When urine is heated to 45'C a precipitate is formed. When further heated to 80'C the
precipitate starts redissolving. The precipitate reforms on cooling. What is it ?
A) Albumin
B) Bence-Jones protein
Answer: B) Bence-Jones protein
Reference: Vasudevan's Biochemistry, 3rd, Pg-439
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 237. Regarding triacylglycerol metabolism in adipocytes all are true except ?
A) Storage form of lipids in body
B) Glycerol kinase
C) Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
Answer: B) Glycerol kinase
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-210, 163
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 246. All are nonselective beta blockers without any additional action except ?
A) Carvedilol
B) Betaxolol
C) Carteolol
D) Labetalol
Answer: B) Betaxolol
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-96
Explanation: it's a B1 selective blocker ; cartiolol is a B-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimmetic activity
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 258. Most effective strategy under eradication of cogenital rubella syndrome is to immunize ?
A) All Adolescents
B) All pregnant women in 2nd trimester
C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
Answer: C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 266. In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal membrane, urine drains into ?
A) Deep perineal pouch
B) Superficial perineal pouch
Answer: B) Superficial perineal pouch
Explanation: SNELL 6e/365 (inferior layer of urogenital diaph. Is aka perineal membrane)
SABISTON 17/e2296 (clsfn. Of urethral injuries – a. posterior urethra :above the urogenital diaph. ;b.anterior
urethra : below the urogenital diaph.e.g. bulbar urethra )
SNELL 6e/382 ( the common site of rupture is within the bulb of penis ,just below the perineal membrane & the
urine extravasates into superficial perineal pouch )
Question: 267. In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
A) Urethra
B) Urinary bladder
C) Ureter
Answer: A) Urethra
Reference: Bailey and Love, 23rd, Pg-1259
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 269. Blood flow waveform in uterine arteries during contraction which predict IUGR ?
A) diastolic notch
B) diastolic flow reversal
C) low diastolic flow
D) low systolic flow
Answer: C) low diastolic flow
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-116
Explanation: Reversal of flow occurs in severe advanced cases of IUGR
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 273. A patient with antibodies to DNA, suffering from manifestations of kidney, liver, skin.
Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Systemic sclerosis
B) SLE
C) Wegner's Granulomatosis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: B) SLE
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1961
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 274. A 55 year old male presents with TLC 1,00,00; 80% Lymphocytes; 20% Polymorphs.
Diagnosis is ?
A) CLL
B) HIV
C) TB
Answer: A) CLL
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-674
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 275. Autosomal recessive trait is seen in child inspite of normal parents due to ?
A) Uniparental disomy
B) Mosaicism
Answer: A) Uniparental disomy
Explanation: http://www.medgen.ubc.ca/wrobinson/mosaic/upd.htm
In 1980 Engel introduced the concept of uniparental disomy (UPD). Uniparental disomy (UPD) arises when an
individual inherits two copies of a chromosome pair from one parent and no copy from the other parent. Recall that
normally a baby inherits one copy of each chromosome from his/her mother and one copy of each chromosome
from his/ her father. In the rare circumstance of UPD a baby may have two copies of one of his/ her mother's
chromosome and no copies of that chromosome from his/ her father. This is called maternal UPD. Paternal UPD is
when a child inherits two copies of a specific chromosome from his/ her father and no copies of that chromosome
from his/ her mother. UPD can result in rare recessive disordersAutosomal recessive conditions are single gene
disorders in which an individual must inherit two non-working copies of a gene in order to be affected with the
condition. Individuals who inherit one non-working copy are called carriers and are not affected with the condition.
In the case of isodisomy, two copies of a recessive mutation (non-working copy of the gene) can be inherited from a
parent who is a carrier. In 1988, Spence et al reported the first example of UPD in a 16-year-old female with short
stature and cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition. She inherited two copies of the
maternal chromosome 7 with a CF mutation from her mother who was a carrier for CF. NOTE: isodisomy is a variant
of UPD
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 276. In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall infarction, best treatment of choice
is ?
A) Angiography with angioplasty
B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
C) Dopamine
D) Streptokinase
Answer: B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
Reference: MORGAN 3e/976 (its a new device now used in critical care & also for mgmt of peri-op MI ESP. IF THE
PT. IS HEMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE) Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 277. Which of the following is not true regarding Brown-Sequard syndrome ?
A) Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
B) Ipsilateral loss of motor power
C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
Answer: C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-144
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 278. All of the following are side effects of beta agnoists except ?
A) Tachycardia
B) Tremor
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: C) Hyperkalemia
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-330
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 280. Child with URTI presents with stridor which decreases on lying down position. The most
likely diagnosis is ?
A) Acute epiglottitis
B) Croup
C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
D) Retropharyngeal abscess
Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
Explanation: Ref. ghai5e/338 B&c; are essentially the same … there is no positional variation,develops over several
days ; (a) develops rapidly over few hours ,improves on sitting up & leaning forwards ….. ;(c) has no relationship to
position ;laryngomalacia has no relationship with URTI & presents immediately after birth… Contributed by: Ashish
Kumar Sinha
Question: 286. All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except ?
A) Dacryocystitis
B) Glaucoma
C) Malnutrition
D) Ophthalmia neonatorum
Answer: A) Dacryocystitis
Reference: Khurana, 3rd, Pg-358
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 287. All of the following are measures carried out for erradication of neonatal tetanus except
?
A) Maternal TT immunization
B) 5 cleans practice
C) Administration of immunoglobulin to neonate
D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
Answer: D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 288. All of the following are true for promyelocytic except ?
A) Associated with DIC
B) Translocation 15.17
C) Retinoids are used for treatment
D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
Answer: D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
Contributed by: Bhavu
Question: 289. What is the difference between sexual maturity in boys and girls at puberty ?
A) Inc inhibin
B) Spurt of FSH
Answer: A) Inc inhibin
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu
Question: 290. All are true regarding Oxygenases except ?
A) Incorporates 1 atom of O2 molecule
B) Incorporates both the atoms of molecular O2
C) Required for reactions like hydroxylation
D) Carboxylation reaction
Answer: D) Carboxylation reaction
Reference: Harper's, 25th, Pg-134
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu, Gitak