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AIPGMEE 2007 Mcqs


Question: 1. All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except ?
A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
B) Mucosa is smooth
C) It is lined by transitional epithelium
D) It is derived from the absorbed part of the mesonephric duct / It is a remnant of mesonephric duct opening into
posterior urogenital sinus
Answer: A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 2. Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except ?
A) Azygous vein
B) Aorta
C) Thoracic duct
D) Greater splanchnic nerve
Answer: D) Greater splanchnic nerve
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol-2, Pg-274; Snells's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-107
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 3. Claw hand is caused by lesions of ?


A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Radial nerve
Answer: A) Ulnar nerve
Contributed by: dubspg, Dewdrop
Question: 4. Filgrastim is used in the treatment of ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Filaria
C) Malaria
Answer: A) Neutropenia
Contributed by: Dewdrop, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Explanation: Filgrastim is a man-made protein that is similar to the naturally occurring protein, granulocyte-colony
stimulating factor (G-CSF). G-CSF is produced in the body by the immune system and stimulates the formation of
one type of white blood cell, the neutrophil

Question: 5. A patient presenting with history of abdominal pain, constipation. On examination he has
blue line on gums. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Ca-EDTA
B) BAL
C) Desferroxamine
D) Penicillamine
Answer: A) Ca-EDTA
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2578; KDT, 4th, Pg-874; Reddy's, 18th, Pg-441
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 6. All are true regarding Chlamydia pssitacci except ?


A) Transmitted by parrots
B) Causes community acquired pneumonia
C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis
D) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice
Answer: C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1018
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 7. Commonest cause of post menopausal bleeding is ?


A) Ca endometrium
B) Ca cervix
C) Ca vulva
Answer: B) Ca cervix
Reference: Shaw, 12th, Pg-294,286
Explanation: "vaginal bleeding in post –menopausal age should always be suspected as being caused by ca cervix or
uterus…… ca cervix accounts for 80% , ovary 10% & uterine body 4-5% of genital cancers in india"
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 8. Movement of pronation & supination occur in all of the following joints except ?
A) Middle radio-ulnar joint
B) Superior radio-ulnar joint
C) Inferior radio-ulnar joint
D) Radio carpal joint
Answer: D) Radio carpal joint
Snell's Anatomy - "ROTATION is not possible at radiocarpal joint because it is an ellipsoid joint.this is compensated
for by the supination and pronation on the forearm.supination and pronation has been defined as medial and lateral
ROTATION of the forearm."
inferring from this.. answer should be radiocarpal joint.regarding middle radioulnar joint.it has been described as
syndesmoses.has been given only in grays.cud not get anything regarding whether sup. nd pro. occurs on it or not

Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol-2, Pg-127


Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 9. Nevirapine is ?
A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
B) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Nucleotide inhibitor
Answer: A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
Reference: Harrisons' Medicine, 16th, Pg-1128
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 10. Nesiritide is a ?


A) Brain natriuretic peptide
Answer: A) Brain natriuretic peptide
Repeat: AIPGMEE 2005
Contributed by: Dr. Samta

Question: 11. A 6 year old child with IQ 50 can do which of the following ?
A) Identify colors
B) Read a sentence
C) Ride a bicycle
D) Draw / Copy a triangle
Answer: A) Identify colors
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 12. Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is maximum when infection in mother occurs in ?
A) At implantation
B) 1st trimester
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Answer: D) 3rd trimester
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1830
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 13. Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following conditions ?
A) Morning Glory Syndrome
B) Nanophthalmia
C) Coloboma of retina
D) Optic nerve agenesis
Answer: A) Morning Glory Syndrome
Lamina Cribrosa, is the small cartilaginous section of the sclera at the back of the eye through which the optic nerve
passes. In intraocular hypertension, it bows backwards, impinging on the optic nerve fibers and ultimately
destroying them. This results in optic nerve atrophy, the ultimate result of prolonged glaucoma.
The morning glory syndrome -The aetiology of the disorder remains controversial, although it would appear to be
related to an isolated coloboma of the optic nerve.
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 14. Papez circuit in limbic system involves ?
A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
B) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
C) Posterior hypothalamic nucleus
Answer: A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-249
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 15. Non Specific Esterase (NSE) is seen in ?


A) AML 3
Answer: A) AML 3
Contributedy By: Dr. Samta
Question: 16. True regarding BCG vaccina is ?
A) DANSIH 1331 strain
B) Distilled water is used as diluent
C) Spirit is used for cleaning the skin
Answer: A) DANSIH 1331 strain
Reference: Park's, 16th, Pg-147
Contributed by: Dr. Samta

Question: 17. A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for ?
A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
B) Maternal PIH
C) Heart Disease
Answer: A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
Reference: Williams, 22nd, Pg-1369
Contributed by : Rabies

Question: 18. Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant Trait ?
A) Best Disease
B) Gyrate Atrophy
C) LMB syndrome
Answer: A) Best Disease
Reference: Kanski's, 5th, Pg-494
Contributed by: Rabies

Question: 19. What is Pentalogy of Fallot ?


A) TOF with ASD
Answer: A) TOF with ASD
Contributed by: Rabies

Question: 20. Results of a test were given as Very Satisfied, Satisfied, Dissatisfied & Very Dissatisfied. It
represents ?
A) Nominal data
B) Ordinal data
C) Interval data
D) Ratio
Answer: B) Ordinal data
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 21. Which of the following anticancer drugs causes hyperviscocity syndrome ?
A) Vinblastine
B) L-asparaginase
C) 5-FU
Answer: B) L-asparaginase
Contributed by: amiteng

Question: 22. Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH as a side effect is ?


A) Vincristine
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) 5-FU
D) Bleomycin
E) Gemcitabine
Answer: A) Vincristine
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-477
Contributed by: amiteng, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 23. Commonest childhood malignancy is ?


A) Leukemia
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Wilm's tumor
Answer: A) Leukemia
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-499
Contributed by: amiteng, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 24. Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?


A) Montelukast
B) Zilueton
Answer: A) Montelukast
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1514
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha, Nanu, Gitak, Bhavu
Question: 25. Leprosy affects all except ?
A) Uterus
B) Ovary
C) Eyes
D) Nerves
Answer: A) Uterus
harrison’s16e/969 mentions options c&d; , testis is involved, nothing about a&b;
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 26. A 50 year old man with family history of carcinoma prostate wants to do screening. The
most sensitive test is ?
A) Digital rectal examination
B) Serum PSA
C) Both A + B Combined
D) Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weighed images
Answer: C) Both A + B Combined
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 27. Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 wks is seen in ?


A) Down's syndrome
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Turner's syndrome
Answer: A) Down's syndrome
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 28. Finasteride acts via ?


A) Alpha blockade
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
C) Selective alpha-1 blockade
D) Androgen receptor antagonism
Answer: B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-443
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 29. The shape of nulliparous cervix is ?


A) Circular
B) Longitudinal
C) Transverse
D) Fimbriated
Answer: A) Circular
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 30. The shape of cervical canal leading to preterm delivery is ?


A) T shaped
B) Y shaped
C) U shaped
D) O shaped
Answer: C) U shaped
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 31. Which of the statements related to gastric injury is untrue ?


A) Mostly related to penetrating trauma
B) Treatment is simple debridement and suturing
C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury
D) Heals well and fast
Answer: C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury
Explanation: No ref. but option (c) is definitely wrong …as blood in stomach can be swallowed blood also…...from
upper GIT or oropharynx or even from respiratory tract
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 32. Which of the following investigations is least useful in multiple myeloma ?
A) Urine proteins
B) Xray
C) Bone marrow biopsy
D) Bone scan
Answer: D) Bone scan
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-659
Explanation: There is absence of osteoblastic activity in multiple myeloma.(So bone scan is not going to help much).
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 33. Cat eye syndrome is associated with ?


A) Partial trisomy 21
B) Partial trisomy 18
C) Partial trisomy 13
D) Partial trisomy 22
Answer: D) Partial trisomy 22
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 34. Millard Gubler Syndrome all are true except ?


A) 5th nerve palsy
B) 6th nerve palsy
C) 7th nerve palsy
D) Contralateral hemiplegia
Answer: A) 5th nerve palsy
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-175
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 35. True about cluster sampling is all except ?


A) Sample size same as simple random sampling
B) Rapid method of sampling
Answer: B) Rapid method of sampling
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 36. Dubin Johnson syndrome, test used is ?


A) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
B) Bromosulphthalein test
C) Hippurate test
D) Transaminase
Answer: B) Bromosulphthalein test
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1821
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 37. Patient's PT given, control PT given, ISI was given as 1.4. How will you calculate INR ?
A) Patient's observed PT (in seconds) / Calculated mean normal PT (in seconds)
B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
C) (pts PT/PT control)1/1.4
Answer: B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
Explanation: International normalized ratio Because of differences between different batches and manufacturers of
tissue factor (it is a biologically obtained product), the INR was devised to standardise the results.
Each manufacturer gives an ISI (International Sensitivity Index) for any tissue factor they make. The ISI value
indicates how the particular batch of tissue factor compares to an internationally standardized sample. The ISI is
usually between 1.0 and 1.4.
The INR is the ratio of a patient's prothrombin time to a normal (control) sample, raised to the power of the ISI
value for the control sample used.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 38. Conversion of short term memory to long term memory occurs in ?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Amygdala
Answer: B) Hippocampus
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2394, 2395; Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-259
Contributed by: dubspg, mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 39. CSF picture in Tubercular meningitis ?


A) increased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
C) decreased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
D) decreased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
Answer: B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2484
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 40. Findings in DIC include all except ?


A) increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C) increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
D) increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets
Answer: B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-684
Explanation:

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A primer for primary care physicians

Harry L. Messmore Jr, MD; William H. Wehrmacher, MD

WEB EXCLUSIVE / MARCH 2002 / POSTGRADUATE MEDICINE

Table 2. Clinical and laboratory findings in DIC

Acute DIC
Clinical findings

* Multiple bleeding sites


* Ecchymoses of skin, mucous membranes
* Visceral hemorrhage
* Ischemic tissue

Laboratory abnormalities

* Coagulation abnormalities: prolonged prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time;
decreased fibrinogen levels; increased levels of FDP (eg, on testing for FDP, D dimer)
* Platelet count decreased as a rule but may be falling from a higher level yet still be normal
* Schistocytes on peripheral smear

Chronic DIC
Clinical findings

* Signs of deep venous or arterial thrombosis or embolism


* Superficial venous thrombosis, especially without varicose veins
* Multiple thrombotic sites at the same time
* Serial thrombotic episodes
Laboratory abnormalities

* Modestly increased prothrombin time in some patients


* Shortened or lengthened partial thromboplastin time
* Normal thrombin time in most patients
* High, normal, or low fibrinogen level
* High, normal, or low platelet count
* Increased levels of FDP (eg, on testing for FDP, D dimer)
* Evidence of molecular markers* (eg, thrombin-antithrombin complexes, activation markers on platelet
membranes, prothrombin fragment F1+2)

Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha, Ponnu, Nanu

Question: 41. Which of this is not true about Vibrio O139 ?


A) Can cause disease indistinguishable from Vibrio O1
B) Was fist isolated in chennai
C) has O-antigen polysaccharide capsule
Answer: B) Was fist isolated in chennai
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-910
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 42. Which of this is not true about Vibrio cholerae ?


A) Nonhalophilic
B) Can be grown in ordinary media
C) Can survive outside the body
Answer: C) Can survive outside the body
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-909,911
Explanation: Ans can not be 'B'. its clearly written in anatnarayanan in vibrio chapter under cultural characreistics-
"VIBRIO GROWS WELL ON ORDINARY MEDIA". A is true abd C is the ans. option C explained by amit/ashish
somewhr.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha, Nanu, Ponnu

Question: 43. Which IUCD lasts for 10 years ?


A) Nova T
B) Cu T 380A
C) Multiload Cu 250
Answer: B) Cu T 380A
Reference: Shaw's, 12th, Pg-174
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 44. OCPs are useful in all except ?


A) Endometriosis
B) Ca Endometrium
C) Ca Breast
Answer: C) Ca Breast
Reference: Shaw's, 12th, Pg-308; Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2273
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 45. Fibroid causes all of the following except ?


A) Menstrual irregularities
B) Infertility
C) Abdominal Mass
D) Amenorrhoea
Answer: D) Amenorrhoea
Reference: Shaw's, 12th, Pg-280
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 46. The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ?
A) Ground nut oil
B) Palm oil
C) Margarine
D) Soyabean oil
Answer: D) Soyabean oil
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-440
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 47. True regarding Endemic Typhus is ?


A) Man is the only reservoir
B) Flea is a vector
C) Rash develops into an eschar
D) Culture is a diagnostic modality
Answer: B) Flea is a vector
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-240
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 48. Centrineuraxial (spinal or epidural) anaesthesia is contraindicated in all except ?


A) Platelets < 80,000
B) Patient on aspirin
C) Patient on oral anticoagulants
D) Patient on I.V. Heparin
Answer: B) Patient on aspirin
Explanation: CNB is contraindicated in all coagulopathies or pts with abnormal coagulation profile. It should be
performed with caution in patients with platelets below 1,00,000. It should be avoided in patients with platelet
count below 50,000.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 49. A patient is in septicaemic shock. Which vassopressor drug is preferred ?


A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Phenylephrine
D) Ephedrine
Answer: B) Norepinephrine
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1605
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 50. Which antiepileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy ?


A) Phenobarbitone
B) Phenytoin
C) Carbamazepine
D) Valproic acid
Answer: A) Phenobarbitone
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-383
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 51. Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all except ?
A) Common ALL subtype
B) pre-B ALL
C) Hyperploidy
D) Female gender
Answer: B) pre-B ALL
Explanation: Patients with ALL are divided into 3 prognostic groups.
Good risk includes (1) no adverse cytogenetics, (2) age younger than 30 years, (3) WBC count of less than
30,000/mL, and (4) complete remission within 4 weeks.
Intermediate risk does not meet the criteria for either good risk or poor risk.
Poor risk includes (1) adverse cytogenetics [(t9;22), (4;11)], (2) age older than 60 years, (3) precursor B-cell
WBCs with WBC count greater than 100,000/mL, or (4) failure to achieve complete remission within 4 weeks.

So precursor b cell or pre b cell have poor prognosis. And female have definatley good prognosis. so answer should
be pre b cell
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-673;http://www.emedicine.com/med/topic3146.htm
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu

Question: 52. A child undergoing surgical procedure, (on ventilator) anaesthetized with atracurium and
propofol, wakes up with body pain 12 hours later (or develops seizures after 2 days). Cause of body
pain is ?
A) adverse effect of propofol
B) accumulation of Laudanosine
Answer: B) accumulation of Laudanosine
Reference: Miller's, 6th, Pg-509
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 53. Trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth nerve. Which is true ?
A) Longitudinal Fracture
B) Transverse Fracture
C) Always associated with CSF leak
D) The paralysis of VIIth is always complete
Answer: B) Transverse Fracture
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2449
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 54. The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except ?
A) Left brachiocephalic vein
B) Hemiazygous vein
C) Left gonadal vein
D) Left renal vein
Answer: C) Left gonadal vein
Reference: Snell's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-107, 108, 109, 153
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 55. Which of the following diseases cause decreased VC and decreased TLC ?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Bronchial asthma
D) Bronchiectasis
Answer: A) Sarcoidosis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2022,1501, Table 234-2
Explanation: All others are Obstructive lung disease.
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 56. Meningitis in 1 year old is caused by ?


A) H. influenzae
B) Listeria
C) E. coli
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Reference: Robbins, 7th, Pg-1369; Harrison's, 16th, PG-829, 2471, 2472
Explanation: the incidence of h.influenza as declined dramatically in recent years
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 57. An inheritance chart for disease. Options were ?


A) Mitochondrial inheritance
B) X linked dominant
C) Autosomal dominant
D) Autosomal recessive
Answer: A) Mitochondrial inheritance
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 58. Which one of the following is not a Thyroid Cancer ?


A) Follicular
B) Anaplastic
C) Insular
D) Merkel
Answer: D) Merkel
Explanation: HARRISON’S16e/498 ( merkel cell is a non-melanoma cutaneous malignancy;)
Insular thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that falls somewhere between the extremes of well-
differentiated thyroid cancers, which are slow growing and almost always curable, and poorly differentiated
(including Ana plastic) thyroid cancer, which are rapidly progressive and seldom effectively treated
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 59. Which one of the following is not an alkylating agent ?
A) 5 Flurouracil
B) Busulphan
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Cyclosporine
Answer: A) 5 Flurouracil
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-470
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 60. A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA anti-human
tissue transglutimase (TTG), and IgA anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following is the next
step ?
A) Rectal biopsy
B) A trial of gluten free diet
C) Colonoscopy
Answer: B) A trial of gluten free diet
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 61. Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in head injury ?
A) Glasgow coma scale
B) Age
C) Bleeding on CT
Answer: A) Glasgow coma scale
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2450
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 62. A newborn has congenital heart failure, not improving with treatment. He has bulging
anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoic midline mass is
seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Vein of galen malformation
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Arachnoid cyst
D) Encephalocele
Answer: A) Vein of galen malformation
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 63. To expose the coeliac axis, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta
in a case of abdominal trauma, which is done ?
A) Left median visceral rotation
B) Right median visceral rotation
C) Cranial visceral rotation
D) Caudal visceral rotation
Answer: A) Left median visceral rotation
Reference: Sabiston's, 17th, Pg-1973; Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-947
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 64. Unconscious male with external injuries, CT Shows multiple spotty hemorrhages and full
basal cisterns. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Diffuse axonal injury
B) Brain contusions
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Multiple infarcts
Answer: A) Diffuse axonal injury
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2448
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 65. A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of lower limbs,
difficulty in micturition, CT shows intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The diagnosis is ?
A) Meningioma
B) Intradural Lipoma
C) Neuroepithelial Cyst
D) Dermoid Cyst
Answer: A) Meningioma
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2456
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 66. Which of the following is not premalignant ?


A) Puetz Jegher's syndrome
B) Juvenile polyp
C) FAP
D) Gardner's syndrome
Answer: B) Juvenile polyp
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-528, Table 77-5; Robbin's, 7th, Pg-859, 862
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 67. True statement regarding Posterior cruciate ligament is ?


A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
B) intrasynovial
C) attached to lateral femoral condyle
D) relaxed in full flexion
Answer: A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 68. SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) tumor all are true except ?


A) Always associated with breech extraction
B) Spontaneous resolution in most cases
C) 2/3rd have palpable neck mass at birth
D) Uncorrected cases develop phagiocephaly
Answer: A) Always associated with breech extraction
Reference: Schwartze's Surgery, Vol-2, Pg-1719
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 69. A typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic vertebra by ?
A) Foramen transversarium
B) Trianglular vertebral canal
C) Heavy vertebral body
D) Superior facet on upper surface of body
Answer: A) Foramen transversarium
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Pg-31
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 70. Most common site of morgagni hernia is ?


A) Left anterior
B) Right posterior
C) Right anterior
D) Left posterior
Answer: C) Right anterior
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol-2, Pg-270
Contributed by: mads, gayathri226, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 71. Meralgia parasthetica occurs due to the involvement of ?


A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B) Medial cutaneous nerve
C) Sciatic nerve
D) Sural nerve
Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Reference: Last's Anatomy, 10th, Pg-158
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 72. Premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered, baby had bullous lesions on the body and
Xray shows periostitis. What is the next Investigation ?
A) VDRL for mother and baby
B) ELISA for HIV
C) PCR for TB
D) Hepatitis surface antigen for Mother
Answer: A) VDRL for mother and baby
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 73. Pityriasis rosea, true is ?


A) Self limiting
B) Chronic relapsing
C) Life threatening infection
D) Caused by dermatophytes
Answer: A) Self limiting
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-292
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 74. An infant ( or 3 year old child) with erythrematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of
limbs, mother has history of asthma. Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Airborne contact dermatitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Seborrhic dermatitis
D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-288
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 75. Drug of choice for OCD ?


A) Imipramine
B) Fluoxetine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Benzodiazepine
Answer: B) Fluoxetine
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2552
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 76. Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because ?


A) To treat withdrawal symptoms
B) To treat overdose of opioids
C) To prevent relapse
D) Has addiction potential
Answer: C) To prevent relapse
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2569
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 77. Delusion is a disorder of ?


A) Thought
B) Perception
C) Insight
D) Cognition
Answer: A) Thought
Reference: Ahuja, 4th, Pg-13
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 78. Which of the following act by increasing cAMP / adenylate cyclase ?
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) E. coli, heat stable toxin
D) Salmonella
Answer: A) Vibrio cholerae
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-753
Contributed by: mads, Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 79. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by lice ?


A) Relapsing fever
B) Q fever
C) Trench fever
D) Epidemic typhus
Answer: B) Q fever
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-574
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 80. Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia ?


A) Has biphasic life
B) Elementary body is metabolically active
C) Reticulate body undergoes binary fission
D) Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
Answer: B) Elementary body is metabolically active
Reference: Paniker, 6th, Pg-389
Contributed by: mads, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 81. Chronic carriers are seen in all except ?


A) Measles
B) Typhoid
C) Hepatitis B
D) Gonorrhoea
Answer: A) Measles
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-125
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 82. Serum differs from plasma in all except ?


A) Fibrinogen
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor VII
D) Factor V
Answer: C) Factor VII
Reference: Ganong's, 20th, Pg-522
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 83. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on
Ceftazidime and Amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture
is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin
was restarted but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy.
The most likely orgainsm causing the infection is ?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Viridans streptococci
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Coagulase positive staphylococcus
Answer: C) Enterococcus faecalis
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-815, 830; Panikar, 6th, Pg-189
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 84. Brucella is transmitted by all of the following means except ?


A) Man to man transmission
B) Through placenta of animals
C) Aerosol
D) Eating uncooked food
Answer: A) Man to man transmission
Reference: Park's PSM, 18th, Pg-231
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 85. Burtonian's line is seen in ?


A) Lead poisoning
B) Mercury poisoning
C) Phosphorus poisoning
D) Zinc poisoning
Answer: A) Lead poisoning
Contributed by: Vinodhini

Question: 86. A patient presented with RTA with fracture pelvis, few drops of blood passed per
urethrally without passage of urine, and palpable bladder. The likely cause is ?
A) Ureteral injury
B) Urethral injury
C) Bladder rupture
D) Urine extravasation to peritoneum
Answer: B) Urethral injury
Reference: Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-1389
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 87. Serotype of HPV associated with invasive carcinoma cervix ?


A) HPV 16
B) HPV 18
C) HPV 32
D) HPV 36
Answer: A) HPV 16
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1056
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 88. Technique of aspiration of sperm from testis used in ART ?


A) TESA
B) MESA
C) GIFT
D) ZIFT
Answer: A) TESA
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 89. Isotope used in radioisotope scanning is ?


A) I 131
B) I 123
C) I 125
D) I 127
Answer: A) I 131
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 90. Primordial germ cells are derived from ?


A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
Answer: B) Mesoderm
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 91. Spalding's sign is seen in ?


A) Mummification
B) Maceration
C) Saponification
D) Putrifaction
Answer: B) Maceration
Reference: Reddy's, 18th, Pg-353
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 92. Acrodynia is seen in ?


A) Phenol poisoning
B) Mercury poisoning
C) Carbolic acid poisoning
D) Lead / Arsenic poisoning
Answer: B) Mercury poisoning
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2579
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 93. Mercury causes nephrotoxicity by involving ?


A) PCT
B) DCT
C) Loop of Henle
D) Collecting duct
Answer: A) PCT
Explanation: http://pharmrev.aspetjournals.org/cgi/content/abstract/52/1/113

Mercury is unique among the heavy metals in that it can exist in several physical and chemical forms, including
elemental mercury, which is a liquid at room temperature. All forms of mercury have toxic effects in a number of
organs, especially in the kidneys. Within the kidney, the pars recta of the proximal tubule is the most vulnerable
segment of the nephron to the toxic effects of mercury. The biological and toxicological activity of mercurous and
mercuric ions in the kidney can be defined largely by the molecular interactions that occur at critical nucleophilic
sites in and around target cells. Because of the high bonding affinity between mercury and sulfur, there is particular
interest in the interactions that occur between mercuric ions and the thiol group(s) of proteins, peptides and amino
acids. Molecular interactions with sulfhydryl groups in molecules of albumin, metallothionein, glutathione, and
cysteine have been implicated in mechanisms involved in the proximal tubular uptake, accumulation, transport, and
toxicity of mercuric ions.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 94. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by ?


A) Myoinositol
B) Choline
C) Taurine
D) Na-K ATPase
Answer: A) Myoinositol
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 95. All are seen in raised ICT except ?


A) Headache
B) Visual blurring
C) Abducens palsy
D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia
E) Papilloedema
Answer: D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 96. Mycosis fungoides, which is not true ?


A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
B) Pautrier's Microabscess
C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment
D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation
Answer: C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-653
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 97. A 45 year old male presents with a history of vomiting of 500 ml of blood 24 hrs back,
90/60 BP, 110 / min pulse rate, and splenomegaly 5 cms below the costal margin. Most probable
diagnosis is ?
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Portal hypertension
C) Gastric ulcer
D) Erosive gastritis
Answer: B) Portal hypertension
Explanation: Splenomegaly 5cms below the costal margin clinches the diagnosis
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 98. Which amyloid is found in the kidney in patients who have been on dialysis ?
A) Beta2 microglobulin
Answer: A) Beta2 microglobulin
Contributed by: Dewdrop

Question: 99. Which tumor arises from the epiphysis ?


A) Osteoclastoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Ewing's sarcoma
D) Chondro myxoid fibroma
Answer: A) Osteoclastoma
Repeat: AIIMS 2001 Nov
Contributed by: Dewdrop, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 100. Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with ?
A) Recurrent abortions
B) Polyhydramnios
C) PIH
D) Preterm labour
Answer: B) Polyhydramnios
Reference: Williams, 22nd, Pg-1195
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 101. One of the following is not a prodrug ?


A) Enalapril
B) Dipivefrine
C) Levodopa
D) Captopril
Answer: D) Captopril
Reference: KDT, 5th, Pg-20
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 102. Which of the following is not useful for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) ?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cotrimoxazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Vancomycin
Answer: A) Cefaclor
Reference: CMDT, 2006, Pg-1552
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 103. A 3 year old child with normal developmental milestones but delayed speech, difficulty in
communication, concentration and not making friends. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Autism
B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
C) Specific learning disability
D) Mental retardation
Answer: A) Autism
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 104. With reference to Bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except ?
A) Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B) Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
C) The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
Answer: D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-945
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 105. A person from village is complaining of developement of pustules of the leg. Culture was
done which showed gram positive cocci in chains which were alpha hemolytic colonies and catalase
negative, identified as group A streptococci. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism
?
A) Bile solubility
B) Optochin sensitivity
C) Bacitracin sensitivity
D) Novobiocin sensitivity
Answer: C) Bacitracin sensitivity
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 106. A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination, abundant pus cells
were found on gram stain but no organisms were seen. Which method would be best used for culture ?
A) Mc Coy cell line
B) Thayer Martin Medium
C) L.J. Medium
D) Levinthal medium
Answer: A) Mc Coy cell line
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-394
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 107. Which one of the following is true ?


A) Agar has nutrient properties
B) Chocholate medium is selective medium
C) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium
Answer: D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-33
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 108. An elderly male (70 year old) patient presented with high grade fever, chest pain and
dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is ?
A) H. influenzae
B) Moraxella catarrhalis
C) Legionella
D) Burkholderia capacia
Answer: C) Legionella
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-378
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 109. A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer.
Which will best help in the demonstration of organisms from smear made from the pustule ?
A) Trichrome methylene blue
B) Carbol Fuschin
C) Acid Fast Stain
D) Calcoflour White
E) Geimsa
Answer: A) Trichrome methylene blue
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-224
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 110. A 1 year old child with bronchial asthma. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
B) Oral Ketotifen
C) Oral LT2 receptor antagonist
D) Oral Theophyllin
Answer: A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
Explanation: Now this one is a bit confusing….. If it's a/c asthma then the answer is INHALED B2 AGONISTS (admn.
via face masks). If its long term management then rx of choice is oral ketotifen ……quite obviously 1yrold infant
cant use inhalers !
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 111. Maximum Peripheral Neuropathy is caused by ?
A) Zidovudine
B) Stavudine
C) Lamivudine
D) Didanosine
Answer: D) Didanosine
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1128
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 112. Northern blot is used for analysis of ?


A) mRNA expression
B) DNA
C) Protein
Answer: A) mRNA expression
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-494
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 113. All are autosomal dominant except ?
A) Marfan's syndrome
B) Fabry's sydrome
C) Huntingon's Chorea
D) ADPKD
Answer: B) Fabry's sydrome
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-151; Harper's, 25th, Pg-267
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 114. BCYE is used for ?


A) Legionella
B) Streptococcus
Answer: A) Legionella
Reference: Panikar, 6th, Pg-378
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 115. Tuberculide is seen in ?


A) Lupus vulgaris
B) Scrofulaceum
C) Lupus scrofilecium
Answer: C) Lupus scrofilecium
Explanation: The term ‘tuberculide’ is used for a group of mainly symmetrical and disseminated eruptions that arise
in response to an internal focus of TB and clear with antituberculous therapy.Examples of tuberculides include lichen
scrofulosorum,papulonecrotic tuberculides, erythema induratum (Bazin’sdisease) and some cases of nodular
vasculitis

Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Gitak

Question: 116. A 7 year old body with xray features of codman's triangle and sunray appearance, most
probably has ?
A) Osteoclastoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Osteosarcoma
Answer: C) Osteosarcoma
Reference: Harrison's. 16th, Pg-561
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 117. Most common ovarian tumor to undergo torsion ?


A) Dysgerminoma
B) Benign Cystic Teratoma
C) Endometriod cyst
D) Serous / Mucinous Cystadenoma
Answer: B) Benign Cystic Teratoma
Reference: Shaw's, 12th, Pg-326
Explanation:"A BENIGN CYSTIC TERATOMA IS THE MOST COMMON NEOPLASM TO UNDERGO TORSION."- Novak's
Gynaecology, 13th ed.
Contributed by: Vinodhini, Radesh, Gayathri226

Question: 118. Radiosensitive tumor ?


A) Dysgerminoma
Answer: A) Dysgerminoma
Contributed by: Vinodhini

Question: 119. All the drugs can be used in treatment of H. pylori infection except ?
A) Omeprazole
B) Amoxycillin
C) Metronidazole
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Bismuth
Answer: D) Oxytetracycline
Reference: CMDT, 2006, Pg-590
Contributed by: gayathri226, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 120. HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary Heart Disease
Answer: D) Coronary Heart Disease
Contributed by: gayathri226

Question: 121. Supports of Uterus are all except (all of the following structures prevent prolapse of the
uterus except) ?
A) Uterosarcal ligament
B) Broad ligament
C) Mackenrodt's ligament
D) Levator ani
Answer: B) Broad ligament
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol-2
Contributed by: gayathri226, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 122. A 60 year old smoker came with history of painless gross hematuria for one (or two)
day. Most logical (or diagnostic) investigation would be ?
A) Urine routine and microscopy
B) Plain Xray KUB
C) USG KUB
D) Urine for malignant cytology
Answer: D) Urine for malignant cytology
Reference: Bailey and Love's, 24th, Pg-1463
Contributed by: gayathri226

Question: 123. Branchial cyst, which is true ?


A) Cysts are more common than sinuses
B) Sinus should always be operated
C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
D) Cause dysphagia and hoarseness
Answer: C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
Contributed by: gayathri226

Question: 124. Which of the following is an immunohistochemical marker for Paget's disease of the
breast ?
A) s100
B) hmb 45
C) synaptophysin
D) CEA
Answer: A) s100
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-439, Table 66-5, Explanation: A, C are for Melanomas
Contributed by: samuelinba2, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 125. Nerve not involved in entrapment ?


A) Femoral
B) Median
C) Ulnar
D) Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: A) Femoral
Explanation: HARRISON'S 16e/2500;2502(tb 363-1)
B,c,&d; are definetly involved in nerve entrapment. But the table ref. above also mentions femoral nerve.though it
doesn't specifically mention that femoral n. entrap. Is seen
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 126. Dexamethasone is given to mother in third trimester ?


A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
Answer: A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
Contributed by: dubspg

Question: 127. All of the insulin preparations are short and rapidly acting except ?
A) insulin lispro
B) insulin aspart
C) insulin glargine
D) lente insulin
Answer: C) insulin glargine
Contributed by: Radesh

Question: 128. Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except ?


A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Palatal palsy
C) Adenoids
Answer: B) Palatal palsy
Explanation: Palatal palsy causes Rhinolalia aperta
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 129. True about octreotide ?


A) Is orally active
B) Used in secretory diarrhoea
Answer: B) Used in secretory diarrhoea
Reference: Harrison's. 16th, Pg-2226
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 130. Anaphylactic reaction (Type I hypersensitivity) is mediated by ?


A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-206
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 131. Case finding in RNTCP is based on ?


A) Sputum culture
B) Sputum microscopy
C) X-ray chest
D) Mantoux test
E) PCR
Answer: B) Sputum microscopy
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-335
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 132. Arthus reaction is ?


A) Antibody mediated
B) systemic immune complex deposition disease
C) localised immune complex deposition disease
D) delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Answer: C) localised immune complex deposition disease
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-215
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 133. Viral cells specifically killed by ?


A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Complement
D) Natural Killer cells
Answer: D) Natural Killer cells
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-201
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 134. A person with previously normal Hb with sudden hemorrhage will have all except ?
A) Recticulocytosis
B) High PCV
C) Low MCV
D) Thrombocytosis
Answer: A) Recticulocytosis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1602
Explanation: Reticulocyte count starts increasing only after a day or two.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 135. Drug used in obesity are all except ?


A) Sibutramine
B) Orlistat
C) Olestra
D) Neuropeptide y analogue
Answer: D) Neuropeptide y analogue
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-429
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 136. Antidote for Mushroom poisoning is ?


A) Neostigmine
B) Physostigmine
C) Amyl nitrate
D) Atropine
Answer: D) Atropine
Reference: Reddy's, 18th, Pg-516
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 137. All are true about clonidine except ?


A) Stimulates parasympathetic outflow
B) Causes dry mouth
C) Prazosin antagonizes its action
D) Alpha adrenergic agnoist
Answer: C) Prazosin antagonizes its action
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-546
Explanation: kdt 5th edi page 509 clealy mention that prasocine has no effect on presyaptic alpha-2 receptors.

plus page 510 mentions that part of effect of clonidine is due to increase vagal tone (mentioned in the bracket) so
option of parasypathetic tone seem to right.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu

Question: 138. Seizure & jitteriness can be differentiated on all except ?


A) Gaze
B) Autonomic Disturbance
C) Sensitivity to stimulus
D) Frequency of seizure
Answer: D) Frequency of seizure
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 139. Which is not an aryl phosphate OP (organophosphate) ?


A) Parathion
B) Malathion
C) tik20
D) Follidol
Answer: B) Malathion
Reference: Reddy's, 18th, Pg-421
Explanation: Malathion is an alkyl phosphate
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 140. All are true about proteoglycans except ?


A) Contains amino sugars
B) Contains small amounts of water
C) Forms structural elements in connective tissue
D) Chondroitin sulphate is an example
Answer: B) Contains small amounts of water
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-701
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 141. Enzyme not stable at acidic pH are all except ?
A) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Pepsin
D) Carboxypeptidase
Answer: C) Pepsin
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-457
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 142. True about pilonidal sinus ?


A) Common in females
B) Congenital
C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus
D) Hair follicles can be demonstrated in the sinus wall
Answer: C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus
Reference: Bailey and Love's, 23rd, Pg-1122
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 143. Botulinum toxin acts on all sites except ?


A) Neuromuscular junction
B) Peripheral ganglia
C) Postganglionic nerve endings
D) CNS
Answer: D) CNS
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-843
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 144. Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male ?


A) Flat bones
B) Long bones
C) Liver
Answer: A) Flat bones
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 145. Most common addiction (substance abuse) in India ?


A) Smoking / Tobacco
B) Alcohol
C) Cannabis
Answer: A) Smoking / Tobacco
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 146. Mechanism of cellular memory & learning include all except ?
A) increase and decrease in neurotransmitter release as in learning and habituation
B) increase in number of synapses, increase in number of synaptic terminals, increases in number of dendrites
C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex
D) allocation of specialized nerve cells as occurs in hippocampus
Answer: C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in
somatosensory area of cortex
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-261
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 147. Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy for Trachoma ?
A) Facial cleanliness
B) Enviornmental cleanliness
C) Screening
D) Antibiotics
Answer: C) Screening
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 148. Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of
water ?
A) Chlorometer
B) Horrocks apparatus
C) Berkefield filter
D) Double pot method
Answer: B) Horrocks apparatus
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-540
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 149. PQLI includes all except ?


A) Infant mortality rate
B) Life expectancy at 1 year
C) Literacy rate
D) Per capita Income
Answer: D) Per capita Income
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-16
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 150. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in ?


A) Vitreous humour
B) Cornea
C) Blood vessels
D) Synovial fluid
Answer: A) Vitreous humour
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-554; Khurana, 3rd, Pg-343
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 151. All are true about Benedict's syndrome except ?


A) Cause 3rd cranial nerve palsy
B) involvement of penetrating branches of basilar artery
C) involvement of pons
D) Contralateral hemiplegia
Answer: C) involvement of pons
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-174
Explanation: (it is a MIDBRAIN SYNDRME- involves red nucleus ). Benedikt's Syndrome describes an ipsilateral III
nerve palsy accompanied by contralateral 'cerebellar' tremor - a slow rhythmic tremor of the contralateral hand and
foot, increased by excitement and voluntary movement, absent in sleep. It is a consequence of damage to the red
nucleus - the outflow from the opposite cerebellar hemisphere. There may also be contralateral hyperaesthesia. The
syndrome may result from occlusion of the penetrating branches of the basilar artery in the midbrain. Contributed
by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 152. Universal immunization programme doesnt include ?


A) Tetanus toxoid
B) MMR
C) DPT
Answer: B) MMR
Reference: Park's , 16th, Ch. 3
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 153. Moro's reflex disappears by ?
A) 3 months
B) 5 months
C) 7 months
Answer: A) 3 months
Reference: Ghai's, 5th, Pg-125
Explanation: Moro's reflex disappears by 12 weeks.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Gitak

Question: 154. Indicator for CSF leak ?


A) Beta 2 transferrin
B) Beta protein trace
C) Dye test
Answer: A) Beta 2 transferrin
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 155. Least common complication of measles ?


A) SSPE
B) Diarrhoea
C) Pneumonia
D) Otitis media
Answer: A) SSPE
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1149-50
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 156. Porto-systemic shunt is not seen in ?


A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Anorectum
D) Gastroesophageal junction
Answer: B) Spleen
Reference: Snell's Clinical Anatomy, 6th, Pg-220
Contributed by:Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 157. Rhinophyma is ?


A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands
B) Hyperplasia of the sweat glands
Answer: A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-295
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 158. Burst fracture of the spine is a type of (Commonest injury causing burst fracture of the
spine)?
A) Compression fracture / injury
B) Extension injury
C) Direct injury
Answer: A) Compression fracture / injury
Reference: Maheshwari, 3rd, Pg-149
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 159. Earliest milestone to be achieved is ?


A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
B) Pincer grip
C) Crawling
D) Creeping
Answer: A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
Reference: Ghai, 5th, Pg-32
Explanation: creeping/ crawling- 11m ; pincer grip-9m ; mirror play-6m
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 160. Most common force involved in fracture spine is ?


A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Rotation
D) Compression
Answer: A) Flexion
Reference: Maheshwari, 3rd, Pg-144
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 161. Which of these parts of vertebral canal will show concavity
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Sacral
D) Coccyx
Answer: A) Cervical
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 162. Investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis ?


A) Rectal biopsy
Answer: A) Rectal biopsy
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-264
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 163. Bohlers angle measure gives reference for ?
A) Calcaneum
B) Talus
C) Navicular
D) Cuboid
Answer: A) Calcaneum
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 164. In Bishop's score all are included except ?


A) Effacement of Cervix
B) Dilatation of Cervix
C) Station of head
D) Interspinous diameter
Answer: D) Interspinous diameter
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-560
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 165. Dinitrophenol causes ?


A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-142
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 166. Cherry red spot in all except ?


A) Neimann pick disease
B) Krabbe disease
C) Multiple sulfatase deficiency
D) Type 2 glycogenesis
Answer: B) Krabbe disease
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2317
Explanation: In Krabe's no ophthalmic manifestations
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 167. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except ?


A) ankyrin
B) spectrin
C) anion exchanger
D) glycophorin 2
Answer: D) glycophorin 2
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-625; Harper's, 25th, Pg-770;Explanation: Anion exchanger is BAND 3 protein ...
Harper
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 168. Persistent GTT evolves to ?


A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Invasive
Answer: A) Choriocarcinoma
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-212
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 169. Patient on aspirin will have ?


A) increased PT
B) increased APTT
C) increaed BT
D) increased thrombin time
Answer: C) increaed BT
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 170. Tube cast is applied in fracture of ?


A) Shoulder
B) Hip
C) Pelvis
D) Knee
Answer: D) Knee
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 171. For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
A) centrifugation
B) densitometry
C) electrophoresis
D) chromatography
Answer: B) densitometry
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-58
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 172. Which waves are not used for deep tumors / Which is not a deep
A) Short wave diathermy
B) Infrared
C) Ultrasonic
D) Microwave
Answer: B) Infrared
Explanation: Deep heat causes a temperature rise from the conversion of energy into heat as it penetrates the
tissues of the body where the energy is applied. Energy sources include (1) high-frequency currents (shortwave
diathermy), (2) electromagnetic radiation (microwaves), and (3) ultrasound (high-frequency sound). Contributed
by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 173. Hormone not secreted by kidney ?


A) Angiotensin 1
B) 1, 25 Di hydroxy cholecalciferol
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin
Answer: A) Angiotensin 1
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-439
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 174. Broca's area is involved in ?


A) Word formation
B) Word interpretation
Answer: A) Word formation
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 175. Herd immunity, all are true except ?


A) Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
B) Influenced by immunization
C) Depends on presence of alternate host
D) Herd immunity is constant
Answer: D) Herd immunity is constant
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-89
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 176. In MEN 1, most common is ?


A) Insulinoma
B) Gastrinoma
C) Glucagonoma
Answer: B) Gastrinoma
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2232, 2231
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 177. Which of these does not handle the free radicals in lens ?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin E
D) Catalase
Answer: C) Vitamin E
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 178. Which of these investigations is helpful in heterophoric calcification ?


A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Calcium
C) Acid phosphatase
D) Phosphorus
Answer: B) Calcium
Explanation: 'HETERTROPHIA " MEANS normal cells in abnormal locations. Do they mean metastatic calcification ?/
in that case the ans. Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 179. Which of the following statements regarding Lepromin test is not true ?
A) It is negative in most of the children in first 6 months of life
B) It is a diagnostic test
C) Helps to classify leprosy
D) BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
Answer: B) It is a diagnostic test
Repeat: AIIMS 2006 May
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-258
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 180. Blackening of urine occurs in ?


A) Alkaptonuria
B) Phenylketonuria
C) Maple syrup urine disease
D) Isovaleric aciduria
Answer: A) Alkaptonuria
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 181. Orange red coloured urine is seen in ?


A) INH
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Rifampicin
D) Ethambutol
Answer: C) Rifampicin
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-947
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 182. Breast milk differs from Cow's milk in that it has ?
A) More lactose
B) More proteins
C) More iron
Answer: A) More lactose
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-398
Explanation: Breast milk;protein;11&lactose;62 whereas cow milk protein;33&lactose;50 REF;PARKed;18PAGE-398
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Gitak

Question: 183. Basal ganglia calcification is not seen in ?


A) Birth Anoxia
B) Hypoparathyroidism
C) Wilsons disease
Answer: A) Birth Anoxia
Explanation: harrison's16e/2285 (tb 334-2) ;2314; on page 2285 trauma is mentioned as a cause of dystrophic
calcification , psudohypoparathyroidism is mentioned as a cause of metastatic calcification ;on pg.2314 it is
mentioned that CT & MRI shows damage in basal ganglia in wilsons. Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 184. ECG manifestations of hypokalemia include ?


A) Tall t waves
B) PR prolongation with ST depression
C) Flattening of P wave
D) Broard QRS
Answer: B) PR prolongation with ST depression
Reference: Clinical Anaesthesiology by Morgan, 3rd, Pg-614, Fig28-5; Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1318
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 185. Treatment of acute neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is ?
A) MDT
B) MDT + Steroid
C) Steroid
D) MDT + Thalidomide
Answer: B) MDT + Steroid
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-968
Explanation: 'C' can also be true, but you never treat neuritis alone. Also, it is not mentioned anywhere that MDT
should be stopped in case of lepra reaction
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 186. Agranular Endoplasmic Reticulum produces / synthesizes ?


A) Proteins
B) Lipids
C) Vitamins
D) Carbohydrates
Answer: B) Lipids
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-177; Lippincot's Biochemistry, 2nd, Pg-226
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 187. Not included in Diagnosis of bipolar disorder ?


A) Mania alone
B) Mania and Depression
C) Depression alone
D) Mania and Anxiety
Answer: D) Mania and Anxiety
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2556; Ahuja's, Pg-74;
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Gitak

Question: 188. 'd' (delta) waves are found in ?


A) Deep sleep
B) Awake
Answer: A) Deep sleep
Repeat: AIIMS May 2006
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 189. Posterior communicating artery is a branch of ?


A) Internal carotid
B) External carotid
C) Middle cerebral
Answer: A) Internal carotid
Reference: Snell's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-705
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 190. What is analytical test you use for the study in which you
A) Student T test
B) Chi square test
C) Paired T test
D) Bland & altman analysis
Answer: B) Chi square test
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 191. Sterlization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube ?


A) Ampulla
B) Infundibulum
C) Isthmus
D) Cornua
Answer: C) Isthmus
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-592
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 192. When a person ascends to obtain max benefit from ?


A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise
B) increase work load and decrease duration of exercise
C) decrease work load and inhaling oxygen
Answer: A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 193. In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for emergency laparotomy should be ?
A) Paramedian incision
B) Midline incision
C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
D) Subcostal incision
Answer: B) Midline incision
Reference: Farquharson's, 9th, Pg-240, 241
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 194. BMI of Obese ?


A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer: B) 30
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 195. Factor present in final common complement pathway ?


A) C4
B) C3
C) C5
D) Protein B
E) C2
Answer: C) C5
Reference: Robbins, 7th, Pg-66, Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1913, 1916
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 196. Smoking is associated with 85% more risk of developing carcinoma. It denotes ?
A) Relative risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Attributable risk
D) Odds ratio
Answer: C) Attributable risk
Reference: Park's, 16th, Pg-67
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 197. Which of this bears maximum force generated during mastication ?
A) Pterygomaxillary
B) Nasomaxillary
C) Zygomaxillary
Answer: C) Zygomaxillary
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 198. True regarding S4 is ?


A) can be heard by unaided ear
B) more than 20 hz
C) due to ventricular filling
D) due to ventricular ejection
Answer: C) due to ventricular filling
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1308
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 199. Which of these muscles are involved along with osteoarthritis of knee ?
A) Quadriceps only
B) Hamstrings only
C) A+B
D) Gastrocnemius
Answer: A) Quadriceps only
Reference: Maheswari, 13th, Pg-253
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 200. Absolute indication for bone marrow biopsy ?


A) Plasmacytosis
B) Leukemia
C) Megaloblastic anemia
D) Gaucher's disease
E) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) Megaloblastic anemia
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 201. Which of the following is not a branch of the cavernous segment of internal carotid
artery?
A) Meningeal branch
B) Ophthalmic artery
C) Hypophyseal branch
Answer: B) Ophthalmic artery
Reference: Snell's Anatomy, 6th, Pg-723
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, mads

Question: 202. All can be incinerated except ?


A) Human anatomical waste
B) Biotechnology waste
C) Solid waste
D) Cytotoxic drugs
E) Waste sharps
Answer: E) Waste sharps
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-596,599
Explanation: in new ed park that waste sharp should not be incinerated. about cytotoxics theyve given in the chart
that incineration wont be fully effective. That doesnt mean it SHOULD not be incinerated. Contributed by: Ashish
Kumar Sinha, Ponnu

Question: 203. Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is ?


A) Tremors
B) Diarrhoea
C) Lacrimation
Answer: A) Tremors
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2565
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 204. Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be given by ?
A) Goitre in pregnant women
B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
C) Urinary iodine
Answer: B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-467
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 205. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4
tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need
to know ?
A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
B) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
C) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
D) Relative risk of SLE in those patient
Answer: A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 206. A patient presented with unilateral progressive proptosis, increased on bending forward
and compressible, on auscultation no bruit is heard. Usg shows hyper echoic mass with acoustic
shadow. The likely diagnosis is ?
A) AV malformation
B) Orbital varix
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Orbital encephalocele
Answer: B) Orbital varix
Explanation: I think this ques though a repeat from nov aims was introduced in aipgmee 07 with a small change.

instead of the MRI finding they have provided with USG finding of hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow.

As far as I know hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow is suggestive of a mass lesion & not blood.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 207. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.
This is done because of differences in ?
A) Causes of death
B) Numerators
C) Age distributions
D) Denominators
Answer: C) Age distributions
Reference: Park's, 18th, Pg-53
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 208. Reflex not present at birth is ?


A) asymmetric neck reflex
B) tonic neck reflex
C) rooting reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
Answer: A) asymmetric neck reflex
Reference: Ghai's, 5th, Pg-125
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 209. Antihormone used in infertility ?


A) Clomiphene citrate
B) Tamoxifen
Answer: A) Clomiphene citrate
Reference: Shaw's, 12th, Pg-242
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 210. Pancytopenia with bone marrow hypercellularity is seen in ?


A) G6PD deficiency
B) Myelodysplasia
C) PNH
D) Megaloblastic anemia
E) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) PNH
Reference: Harrison's 16th, Pg-617
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Addu, Gitak

Question: 211. Acoustic neuroma, first nerve to get involved is ?


A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 9
Answer: A) 5
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2456
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 212. External cephalic version is contraindicated in ?


A) Anemia
B) Flexed Breech
C) PIH
Answer: C) PIH
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-406
Contributed by: dubspg, Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 213. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is ?
A) Lupus nephritis
B) Diabetes
C) Amyloid
D) Drugs
Answer: B) Diabetes
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-979, Table 20-
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 214. cANCA is associated with antibodies to ?


A) Proteinase 3
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Lactoferrin
Answer: A) Proteinase 3
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2002
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 215. All of the following cause hypophosphatemia except ?


A) Diabetic ketoacidosis
B) Acute renal failure
C) Hyperalimentation
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
Answer: B) Acute renal failure
Reference: WYLIE 7e/862 (a practice of anesthesia) ; harrison's16e/2242(tb331-1) ; MORGAN 3e/622
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 216. Best indicator of long term nutritional status of a child ?


A) Body weight
B) Mid arm circumference
C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)
D) linear growth
Answer: C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)
Reference: Ghai's, 6th, Pg-5
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Ponnu

Question: 217. Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently associated with ?
A) anti-histone antibodies
B) anti-ro antibodies
C) anti-centromere antibodies
D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Answer: A) anti-histone antibodies
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1961, Table 300-1
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 218. Which is not a feature of pontine stroke ?


A) Quadriparesis
B) Pin point pupil
C) Palatal palsy
D) Hyperpyrexia
Answer: C) Palatal palsy
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2383, 2384 (Fig. 349-9,10,11)
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 219. Polycythemia is caused by all except ?


A) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
B) Hypernephroma
C) Pancreatic carcinoma
D) Hepatoma
Answer: C) Pancreatic carcinoma
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-627, Table 95-1
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 220. 30 years old lady, atrial fibrillation with Mitral Regurgitation, comes in with syncope and
regular pulse of 55 / min. Most probable cause is ?
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Cerebral infarct
Answer: A) Digoxin toxicity
Repeat: AIPGMEE 2004
Reference: Harrison's, 15th, Pg-1295
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 221. Burrowing ulcer is caused by ?


A) microaerophilic streptococcus
B) streptococcus viridans
C) streptococcus pyogenes
D) peptostreptococci
Answer: A) microaerophilic streptococcus
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-937
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 222. Which of the following is not an antiepileptic ?


A) Phenobarbitone
B) Carbamazepine
C) Phenytoin
D) Flunarizine
Answer: D) Flunarizine
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2367
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 223. Which of the following antiepileptic does not act through Na+ channels ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Valproic acid
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Answer: C) Vigabatrin
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-2363; KDT, 4th, Pg-390
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 224. In Caudal block for infant which is Contraindicated ?


A) remifentanil
B) sufentanil
C) morphine
D) butorphanol
Answer: C) morphine
Explanation: Mudit khanna 2001 question 286; Lee 12th edi 509,510;KDT 5th edi 423
kdt: infannts and elderly are more suceptible to the respiratory depresseent action of morphine.
lee:morphine should not be used in infants specially those less than 6 months of age.
morphine is also not commonly recommended in older children (3 to 10 years) of age

morphine is a less lipid soluble drug and so will not bind to spinal cord..and will ascend up to the CNS and cause
delayed resp.depression which is the most feared complication in paediatric anaesthesia.the other drugs
(fentanyl,sufentany) are lipid soluble and will bind to the neurons in the spinal cord.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu, Gitak

Question: 225. Commonest site for CSF rhinorrhoea is ?


A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Frontal sinus
C) Petrous
D) Sphenoid sinus
Answer: A) Ethmoid sinus
Explanation: MC site of trauma in CSF rhino. 1. fovea ethmoidalis(roof) of ethmoid ; 2.cribriform plate

Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 226. A patient has H. pylori infection. He recieved drugs after that. H. pylori is detected by ?
A) Rapid urease test
B) Urea breath test
C) Endoscopic biopsy
Answer: B) Urea breath test
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-888
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 227. Oxygen dependent killing is done through ?


A) NADPH Oxidase
B) Superoxide dismutase
C) Catalase
D) Glutathione peroxidase
Answer: A) NADPH Oxidase
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 228. A 30 years old man presents with generalised oedema, haematuria, hypertension and
subnephrotic proteinuria (< 2 gm ). Urine examination shows microscopic haematuria. Serum
complement levels are decreased. He is positive for anti hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely
diagnosis is ?
A) PSGN
B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C) Lupus nephritis
D) MPGN
Answer: B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1682
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 229. Heart muscle all true except ?


A) Acts as syncytium
B) has multiple nuclei
C) has gap junctions
Answer: B) has multiple nuclei
Reference: Ganong's Physiology, 20th, Pg-74
Contributed by: mads

Question: 230. Regarding gastrointestinal motility all are true except ?


A) completely independent of stomach influence
B) depends on CCK
Answer: A) completely independent of stomach influence
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 231. All are true for m-rna except ?


A) Capping helps in attachment of m-rna to 40s ribosome
B) In Eukaryotes is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation
C) The first Amino acid is Methionine
D) Synthesized from dna 3' - 5'
Answer: C) The first Amino acid is Methionine
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-436, 448, 459
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 232. HMP shunt occurs in ?


A) Cytosol
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A) Cytosol
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-219
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 233. LAC OPERON... ?


A) negative regulation
B) positive regulation
Answer: A) negative regulation
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-472
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 234. HMP Shunt Oxidase phase generates ?
A) Ribose
B) NADPH
Answer: B) NADPH
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-221
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 235. All of the following act on the nucleus via transcription factors ?
A) Insulin
B) Retinoid
C) Vitamin D
Answer: A) Insulin
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-535
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 236. When urine is heated to 45'C a precipitate is formed. When further heated to 80'C the
precipitate starts redissolving. The precipitate reforms on cooling. What is it ?
A) Albumin
B) Bence-Jones protein
Answer: B) Bence-Jones protein
Reference: Vasudevan's Biochemistry, 3rd, Pg-439
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 237. Regarding triacylglycerol metabolism in adipocytes all are true except ?
A) Storage form of lipids in body
B) Glycerol kinase
C) Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
Answer: B) Glycerol kinase
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-210, 163
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 238. Metalloproteins are involved in ?


A) Degradation of extracellular proteins
Answer: A) Degradation of extracellular proteins
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 239. Which of the following acts by hypomethylation ?


A) Decitabine
B) Gemcitabine
C) 5-FU
Answer: A) Decitabine
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 240. Most common cause of growth delay is ?


A) Constitutional delay
B) Growth hormone deficiency
C) Cretinism
Answer: A) Constitutional delay
Explanation: Children with constitutional growth delay (CGD), the most common cause of short stature and pubertal
delay, typically have retarded linear growth within the first 3 years of life.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 241. Biotin is useful in ?


A) alpha-keto acid carboxylase deficiency
B) multiple carboxylase deficiency
Answer: B) multiple carboxylase deficiency
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-635
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 242. Study of gene expression is called ?


A) Genomics
B) Proteonomics
Answer: A) Genomics
Reference: Harper's Biochemistry, 25th, Pg-821
Explanation: Genomics is the study of an organism's entire genome. A major branch of genomics is still concerned
with sequencing the genomes of various organisms, although the knowledge of full genomes have created the
possibility for the field of functional genomics, mainly concerned with patterns of gene expression during various
conditions.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 243. Methotrexate is used in the treatment of ?


A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Multiple myeloma
Answer: B) Osteosarcoma
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-561
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 244. Anti-pseudomonas antibiotic ?


A) Cefaclor
B) Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-894
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 245. All are true for immunosupressants except ?


A) Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
B) Steriods inhibit ?
C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
Answer: C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1670,1671 (Table 263-2)
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 246. All are nonselective beta blockers without any additional action except ?
A) Carvedilol
B) Betaxolol
C) Carteolol
D) Labetalol
Answer: B) Betaxolol
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-96
Explanation: it's a B1 selective blocker ; cartiolol is a B-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimmetic activity
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 247. Prostaglandin that helps in protecting Gastrointestinal mucosa is ?


A) PGF2
B) PGE1
C) PGD2
Answer: B) PGE1
Repeat: AIPGMEE 2006
Reference: KDT, 5th, Pg-164
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 248. The side effects of Heparin are all except ?


A) Alopecia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Thrombocytopenia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-261, Table 41-4
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 249. The following is not a GP IIb / IIIa inhibitor ?


A) Dipyridamole
B) Abciximab
C) Eptifibatide
D) Tirofiban
Answer: A) Dipyridamole
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-688; KDT, 4th, Pg-535
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 250. Which of the following is associated with DIC ?


A) Vincristine
B) Gemcitabine
C) L-asparaginase
D) Busulphan
Answer: C) L-asparaginase
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-473
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 251. True regarding rabies ?


A) Negri bodies
B) Only motor involvement
C) Positive strand RNA virus
Answer: A) Negri bodies
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1157
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 252. Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?


A) Zafirlukast
B) Zilueton
Answer: A) Zafirlukast
Reference: Harrison's Medicine, 16th, Pg-1514
Contributed by: Dr. Samta, Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 253. The following are associated with AML except ?


A) Turner's syndrome
B) Down's syndrome
C) Patau's syndrome
D) Klinefelter's syndrome
Answer: A) Turner's syndrome
Reference: Harrisons's, 16th, Pg-631
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 254. Iron deficiency anaemia is associated with ?


A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
B) Decreased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
C) Normal TIBC, decreased Ferritin
D) Normal TIBC, increased Ferritin
Answer: A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-589
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 255. AIHA is mostly associated with ?


A) B cell lymphomas
B) T cell lymphomas
C) Histiocytosis
D) Myeloid disorders
Answer: A) B cell lymphomas
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-674
Explanation: CLL is a PERIPHERAL B-CELL NEOPLASM , also reffered to as small lymphoctic lymphoma.
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 256. Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in ?


A) 32 weeks
B) 36 weeks
C) During labour
Answer: C) During labour
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-53
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 257. An ovarian cyst is identified in the immediate post-partum period. What should be the
timing of surgery ?
A) 2 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) Immediately
Answer: D) Immediately
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-329
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 258. Most effective strategy under eradication of cogenital rubella syndrome is to immunize ?
A) All Adolescents
B) All pregnant women in 2nd trimester
C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
Answer: C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 259. Bernard Soulier Syndrome is associated with all except ?


A) increased platelet size
B) reduced platelet count
C) ristocetin is normal
D) ADP is normal
Answer: C) ristocetin is normal
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-677,678
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 260. All are markers for osteoblastic activity except ?


A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Osteocalcin
C) Bone scan
D) Hydroxyproline
Answer: D) Hydroxyproline
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2240
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 261. Cardiomyopathy is not seen in ?


A) Friedrich's ataxia
B) Duchenne dystrophy
C) Lowe's syndrome
Answer: C) Lowe's syndrome
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2422, 2528
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 262. Minor Criteria for Rheumatic Fever is ?


A) Rising ASO titre
B) Throat culture
C) Fever
Answer: C) Fever
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1978, Table 302-1
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 263. Which of the following antiplatelets is a prodrug ?


A) Aspirin
B) Dipyridamole
C) Ticlopidine
D) Clopidogrel
Answer: B) Dipyridamole
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 264. Changes in congestive cardiac failure are all except ?


A) Increased Right atrial pressure
B) Edema
C) Decreased Sodium
D) ??
Answer: D) ??
Explanation: 1st 3 options r true........even though there is Na retention s. Na is normal/reduced due to water
retention
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 265. FAB L3 refers to ?


A) pre-B ALL
B) T cell ALL
C) B cell ALL
D) Mixed ALL
Answer: C) B cell ALL
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-642, Table 97-2
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 266. In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal membrane, urine drains into ?
A) Deep perineal pouch
B) Superficial perineal pouch
Answer: B) Superficial perineal pouch
Explanation: SNELL 6e/365 (inferior layer of urogenital diaph. Is aka perineal membrane)

SABISTON 17/e2296 (clsfn. Of urethral injuries – a. posterior urethra :above the urogenital diaph. ;b.anterior
urethra : below the urogenital diaph.e.g. bulbar urethra )

SNELL 6e/382 ( the common site of rupture is within the bulb of penis ,just below the perineal membrane & the
urine extravasates into superficial perineal pouch )

Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 267. In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
A) Urethra
B) Urinary bladder
C) Ureter
Answer: A) Urethra
Reference: Bailey and Love, 23rd, Pg-1259
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 268. Treatment of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is ?


A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) H2 blockers
C) Gastrectomy
D) Octreotide
Answer: A) Proton pump inhibitors
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1759
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 269. Blood flow waveform in uterine arteries during contraction which predict IUGR ?
A) diastolic notch
B) diastolic flow reversal
C) low diastolic flow
D) low systolic flow
Answer: C) low diastolic flow
Reference: Dutta, 5th, Pg-116
Explanation: Reversal of flow occurs in severe advanced cases of IUGR
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 270. Best investigation for temporal bone fracture ?


A) CT
B) MRI
C) Xray
Answer: A) CT
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-182
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 271. Brown's sign is seen in ?
A) Glomus tumor
B) Acoustic neuroma
C) Otosclerosis
Answer: A) Glomus tumor
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 272. Immediate response to tissue injury ?


A) Neutropenia
B) Neutrophilia
C) Monocytosis
Answer: B) Neutrophilia
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-53
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 273. A patient with antibodies to DNA, suffering from manifestations of kidney, liver, skin.
Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Systemic sclerosis
B) SLE
C) Wegner's Granulomatosis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: B) SLE
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1961
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 274. A 55 year old male presents with TLC 1,00,00; 80% Lymphocytes; 20% Polymorphs.
Diagnosis is ?
A) CLL
B) HIV
C) TB
Answer: A) CLL
Reference: Robbin's, 7th, Pg-674
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 275. Autosomal recessive trait is seen in child inspite of normal parents due to ?
A) Uniparental disomy
B) Mosaicism
Answer: A) Uniparental disomy
Explanation: http://www.medgen.ubc.ca/wrobinson/mosaic/upd.htm
In 1980 Engel introduced the concept of uniparental disomy (UPD). Uniparental disomy (UPD) arises when an
individual inherits two copies of a chromosome pair from one parent and no copy from the other parent. Recall that
normally a baby inherits one copy of each chromosome from his/her mother and one copy of each chromosome
from his/ her father. In the rare circumstance of UPD a baby may have two copies of one of his/ her mother's
chromosome and no copies of that chromosome from his/ her father. This is called maternal UPD. Paternal UPD is
when a child inherits two copies of a specific chromosome from his/ her father and no copies of that chromosome
from his/ her mother. UPD can result in rare recessive disordersAutosomal recessive conditions are single gene
disorders in which an individual must inherit two non-working copies of a gene in order to be affected with the
condition. Individuals who inherit one non-working copy are called carriers and are not affected with the condition.
In the case of isodisomy, two copies of a recessive mutation (non-working copy of the gene) can be inherited from a
parent who is a carrier. In 1988, Spence et al reported the first example of UPD in a 16-year-old female with short
stature and cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition. She inherited two copies of the
maternal chromosome 7 with a CF mutation from her mother who was a carrier for CF. NOTE: isodisomy is a variant
of UPD
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 276. In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall infarction, best treatment of choice
is ?
A) Angiography with angioplasty
B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
C) Dopamine
D) Streptokinase
Answer: B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
Reference: MORGAN 3e/976 (its a new device now used in critical care & also for mgmt of peri-op MI ESP. IF THE
PT. IS HEMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE) Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 277. Which of the following is not true regarding Brown-Sequard syndrome ?
A) Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
B) Ipsilateral loss of motor power
C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
Answer: C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-144
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 278. All of the following are side effects of beta agnoists except ?
A) Tachycardia
B) Tremor
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: C) Hyperkalemia
Reference: KDT, 4th, Pg-330
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 279. Drug not used in erectile dysfunction is ?


A) Phenylephrine
B) Testosterone
C) Alprostadil
Answer: A) Phenylephrine
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-274
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 280. Child with URTI presents with stridor which decreases on lying down position. The most
likely diagnosis is ?
A) Acute epiglottitis
B) Croup
C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
D) Retropharyngeal abscess
Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
Explanation: Ref. ghai5e/338 B&c; are essentially the same … there is no positional variation,develops over several
days ; (a) develops rapidly over few hours ,improves on sitting up & leaning forwards ….. ;(c) has no relationship to
position ;laryngomalacia has no relationship with URTI & presents immediately after birth… Contributed by: Ashish
Kumar Sinha

Question: 281. All are true for Raynaud's disease except ?


A) More common in women
B) Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies
D) Good prognosis
Answer: C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-1489
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 282. Investigation not required in osteosarcoma ?


A) MRI femur
B) Bone marrow biopsy
C) CT chest
D) Bone Scan
Answer: B) Bone marrow biopsy
Reference: Maheshwari, 3rd, Pg-219
Explanation: MRI femur - to assess soft tissue and Bone marrow invasion, CT Chest - to assess lung mets
Bone scan - new bone formation in the matrix of tumor and distant mets
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 283. Non used in controlling heart rate ?


A) Encainide
B) Procainamide
C) Verapamil
D) ??
Answer: D) ??
Contributed by : Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 284. True regarding Kawasaki's disease are all except ?


A) Presence of fever
B) Associated with rash
C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis
D) Inflammed oral mucosa
Answer: C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2012
Explanation: It is nonsuppurative
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 285. Regarding gynaecomastia, false statement is ?


A) May regress spontaneously
B) May regress after discontinuing the offending drug
C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated
D) Associated with liver failure
Answer: C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated
Reference: Sabiston's, 17th, Pg-874
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 286. All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except ?
A) Dacryocystitis
B) Glaucoma
C) Malnutrition
D) Ophthalmia neonatorum
Answer: A) Dacryocystitis
Reference: Khurana, 3rd, Pg-358
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 287. All of the following are measures carried out for erradication of neonatal tetanus except
?
A) Maternal TT immunization
B) 5 cleans practice
C) Administration of immunoglobulin to neonate
D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
Answer: D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 288. All of the following are true for promyelocytic except ?
A) Associated with DIC
B) Translocation 15.17
C) Retinoids are used for treatment
D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
Answer: D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
Contributed by: Bhavu

Question: 289. What is the difference between sexual maturity in boys and girls at puberty ?
A) Inc inhibin
B) Spurt of FSH
Answer: A) Inc inhibin
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu
Question: 290. All are true regarding Oxygenases except ?
A) Incorporates 1 atom of O2 molecule
B) Incorporates both the atoms of molecular O2
C) Required for reactions like hydroxylation
D) Carboxylation reaction
Answer: D) Carboxylation reaction
Reference: Harper's, 25th, Pg-134
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu, Gitak

Question: 291. Pulsatile tumor is seen in ?


A) Ewing's
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Osteoclastoma
Answer: D) Osteoclastoma
Reference: Maheshwari's, 3rd, Pg-216
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 292. Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except ?


A) Renal failure
B) Patient on metformin
C) Dehydration
D) Obesity
Answer: D) Obesity
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 293. Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) ?
A) Capnography
B) Impedance pulmonometry
C) Nasal temperature
Answer: B) Impedance pulmonometry
Reference: Miller's anaesthesia, 6th, Pg-1468
In an intubated neonate the answer would be capnography
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 294. Randomization is done to ?
A) remove selection bias
B) so that the groups are comparable
Answer: B) so that the groups are comparable
Contributed by: Bhavu

Question: 295. True regarding Thyroid lymphoma is ?


A) It is more common in women than in men
B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints
Answer: B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 296. An old man with type 2 DM presents with complaints of dribblnig of urine, urge
incontinence, incomplete voiding, etc. The most common probable cause is ?
A) BPH
B) Neurogenic bladder
Answer: B) Neurogenic bladder
Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-2166
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha

Question: 297. All are true regarding Oxygen toxicity except ?


A) It causes retinal blindness
B) It causes pulmonary edema
C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity
D) Oxygen will cause convulsions
Answer: C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
A. In premature babies causes retrolental fibroplasia
B. Changes in capillary endothelium with an increase in permeability leads to pulmonary edema
C. Increase in pO2 causes decrease in cerebral blood flow.. at 1 atm of oxygen CBF decreases by 15% but the
cerebral available oxygen remains the same
D. Oxygen at high concentration at 3 atm, causes convulsions due to increased cerebral pO2
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha
Question: 298. Child has started mouthing object, shows likes/dislikes and does not developed stranger
anxiety. What is the age ?
A) 3 months
B) 5 months
C) 7 months
D) 9 months
Answer: C) 7 months
Reference: Ghai's, Pg-33
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu
Question: 299. Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma ?
A) Lung
B) Vagina
Answer: A) Lung
Contributed by: Ashish Kumar Sinha, Bhavu

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