English (1001CMD303029240008) *1001CMD303029240008* Test Pattern

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MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 02-06-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE : MEA-I (A)

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

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Topic : CURRENT ELECTRICITY, CAPACITOR, SHM [BACK UNIT] : RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL
INSTRUMENTS

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 5. Consider the situation as shown in the diagram :-

1. An object of height 1.5 cm is situated at a distance

of 15 cm from a concave mirror. The concave
mirror forms its real image of height 3.0 cm. The
focal length of concave mirror will be____
(1) – 10 cm (2) – 20 cm
Find the distance between bird and fish as seen
(3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm by bird :
2. An object is put at a distance of 5 cm from the first (1) μ x + y
focus of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. If a
real image is formed, its distance from the lens (2) μ y + x
will be :- x
(3) y + μ
(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm
y
(3) 25 cm (4) 30 cm (4) x + μ
3. In the figure shown the angle made by the light 6. A bulb is placed at a depth of 2 7 m in water
√

ray with the normal in the medium of refractive and a floating opaque disc is placed over the
index 2 is :
√ surface of water so that the bulb is not visible
from the surface. What is the minimum diameter
of the disc.
(1) 12 m (2) 6 m
(3) 2 m (4) 4 m
(1) 30° (2) 60° 7. The angle of a prism is A and if the angle of
minimum deviation is 180° – 2A, then the
(3) 90° (4) None of these refractive index of the material of the prism is :-
4. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a (1) sin A/2 (2) cos A/2
medium of refractive index μ . The angle of (3) tan A/2 (4) cot A/2
incidence is twice the angle of refraction. Angle
8. Find position of image of object :
of incidence is :
μ
(1) cos−1 ( )
2
μ
(2) 2cos−1 ( )
2
μ
(3) 2sin−1 ( )
2
(1) 75 cm (2) 37.5 cm
–1
(4) 2 sin ( μ )
(3) 30 cm (4) 20 cm
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9. The position of final image formed by the given 13. A particle starting from mean position performs
lens combination from the third lens will be at a linear S.H.M. Its amplitude is 'A' and total
distance of energy is 'E'. At what displacement its kinetic
energy is 3E/4?
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
4 3 2
14. In a simple harmonic motion (SHM) which of
the following does not hold true ?
(1) The force on the particle is maximum at the
ends
(1) 15 cm (2) The acceleration is minimum at the mean
(2) Infinity position
(3) 45 cm (3) The potential energy is maximum at the
(4) 30 cm mean position

10. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of (4) The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean
focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal position
length 5 cm is focussed on a distant object is 15. Column I Column II
such a way that parallel rays comes out from the Motion of electron around
eye lens. If the object subtends an angle 2° at the (a) nucleus (i) Oscillatory
objective, the angular width of the image :- (as per Bohr's model)
(1) 10° (2) 24° Motion of block connected
(b) to spring on smooth (ii) Periodic
(3) 50° (4) 1/6° horizontal surface
11. In a compound microscope, the focal length of Both
two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. If an object Motion of simple periodic
(c) (iii)
is placed at 2 cm from objective and the final pendulum in air medium &
image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens, the oscillatory
distance between two lenses is - Match the column
(1) 6.00 cm (2) 7.75 cm (1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii)
(3) 9.25 cm (4) 11.0 cm (2) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii)
12. What will be the equation of velocity (3) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i)
of oscillating particle, if oscillation starts from
(4) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (iii)
A/2 position moving towards positive extreme?
(1) x = A sin [ ω t + π /3]
16. If x-t relation is given by x = A sin ω t + π( )
4
then find time when speed will be zero first time
(2) x = A sin [ ω t + π /4] where T is time period of motion :-
(3) v = A ω cos [ ω t + π /3] T T T T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(4) v = A ω cos [ ω t + π /6] 6 8 4 12

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17. For S.H.M., equation is given by 22. Assertion : In a S.H.M. kinetic and potential
π energies become equal when the displacement
X = 10 sin( t + ϕ)
6 is 1/ 2 times the amplitude. (at mean position
√

Graphical relation between displacement and P.E. = 0)

velocity is :- Reason : In SHM, kinetic energy is zero when
potential energy is maximum.
(1) (2) (1) Assertion & reason both correct & reason is
correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion & reason both correct but reason
(3) (4) None of these is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion correct & reason incorrect
18. Two particles P and Q describe SHM of same
(4) Assertion & reason both incorrect
amplitude 'a' and frequency v along the same
straight line. The maximum distance between 23. The total current supplied to the circuit by the
two particles is 2a. The initial phase difference
√ battery is :-
between the particles is :-
(1) zero (2) π /2 (3) π /6 (4) π /3
19. A particle is executing SHM with time period T.
Starting from mean position, time taken by it to
5
complete oscillations, is :- (1) 1 A (2) 2 A (3) 4 A (4) 6 A
8
(1) T (2) T (3) 5T (4) 7T 24. Power dissipated in the circuit shown in the
12 6 12 12 figure is 67.5 watt .The value of R is :-
20. For a particle executing S.H.M., its potential
energy is 8 times its kinetic energy at certain
displacement ‘x’ from the mean position. If ‘A’
is the amplitude of S.H.M the value of ‘x’ is
A√ 2 2√2A A
(1) (2) A√ 3 (3) (4)
3 3 √ 2
(1) 5 Ω (2) 15 Ω
21. A simple pendulum of length L and mass M is
suspended in a car. The car is moving on a circular (3) 10 Ω (4) 20 Ω
track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the 25. Three 150 W, 220V bulbs are connected first in
pendulum makes oscillation in a radial direction about
parallel and then in series. Each time the
its equilibrium position, then calculate its time period
combination is connected to a 220 V supply. The

 L 
 2L power drawn by the combination in each case
2π 2π
(1) ⎷ v4 (2) v4
√ g2 + ⎷
√ g2 + respectively will be :-
R2 R2

 4L 
 8L (1) 450 W, 50 W (2) 50 W, 450 W
2π 2π
(3) v4 (4) v4
⎷
√ g2 + ⎷
√ g2 + (3) 100 W, 3000 W (4) 300 W , 100 W
R2 R2

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26. In an ammeter 10% of main current passes 30. The force between the plates of a parallel plate
through the galvanometer . If resistance of capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
galvanometer is G then resistance of ammeter is :- separation of the plates d with a potential
G G difference V between the plates, is :-
(1) (2)
5 10 CV 2 C 2V 2
G G
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2d 2d 2
20 25 C 2V 2 V 2d
27. In the circuit shown in fig., the cells E1 and E2 (3) (4)
d2 C
have em.ƒs. of 4 V and 8 V and internal 31. Two identical metal plates are in parallel as
resistance 0.5 Ω and 1 Ω respectively. Then the shown in figure. Now 8µC and – 2µC charges
p.d. across E1 and E2 will be : are given to plates. If potential difference
between two plates is 6V then what will be
capacitance of given system :-

(1) 4.25 V; 4.25V (2) 3.75 V; 3.75 V 4 5

(1) 1 µF (2) μF (3) 2 µF (4) μF
3 6
(3) 4.25 V; 7.5 V (4) 3.75 V; 7.5 V
32. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 µF is broken
28. into eight drops of equal radius. Then the
capacitance of each small drop is ......
1
(1) μF (2) 8 µF
8
1 1
(3) μF (4) μF
2 4
Find current i in 2 Ω (as in fig.) 33. The graph shows the variation of voltage V
(1) 3A (2) Zero across the plates of two capacitors A and B
versus increase of charge Q stored in them.
(3) 1 A (4) 2 A
Which of the capacitors has higher capacitance?
29. The reading of the ideal voltmeter in following
diagram:-

(1) Capacitor A
(2) Capacitor B
(1) 4 V (2) 8 V (3) Both (1) and (2) are having equal capacitance
(3) 12 V (4) 14 V (4) None of these
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34. Calculate the capacitance between two identical 38. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has
plates of the given parallel plate capacitor :- both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75,
it will behave as a :-
(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
∈ 0a c ∈ 0a b (3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(1) (2)
b c (4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
∈ 0b c ∈ 0a b
(3) (4) 39. Two plano-convex lenses each of focal length 10 cm
a c2
35. The capacitance of a parallel plate air capacitor 3
& refractive index are placed as shown in the
2
is 10 μ F. If now the overlapping area of plates is 4
figure. In the space left, water ( R. I. = ) is
doubled and separation between the plates is 3
halved then new capacitance is : – filled. The whole arrangement is in air. The optical
power of the system is (in dioptre):
(1) 40 μ F (2) 10 μ F
(3) 20 μ F (4) 80 μ F
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )

36. In case of a spherical mirror of focal length f, a

graph is plotted as shown. The coordinates of the (1) 6.67 (2) – 6.67 (3) 33.3 (4) 20
point P are :
40. Maximum speed of a particle in simple harmonic
motion is vmax. Then average speed of particle in
SHM is equal to:-
vmax vmax π vmax 2vmax
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 π 2 π
41. Two point masses of 3kg and 1kg are attached to
(1) (2ƒ, 2ƒ) opposite ends of a horizontal spring whose
spring constant is 300 N/m as shown in figure.
(2) (ƒ, ƒ) The natural vibrational frequency of the system
f f is approximately :-
(3) ( , )
2 2

(4) (4ƒ, 4ƒ)

37. A ray of light parallel to principle axis is incident (1) 4Hz (2) 3Hz (3) 2Hz (4) 1Hz
on a concave mirror at angle of incidence 37°. 42. The length of Second's pendulum is 1 m on the
Reflected ray meets the principle axis at point B. earth. If mass and diameter of a planet are
Distance of B from pole of mirror is :- double than that of the earth, then length of
3R 5R R 3R Second's pendulum on this planet is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 8 2 4 (1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 0.5 m (4) 4 m
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43. 46. What should be the current in branch BD after
switch S is closed :-

(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 8A (4) Zero

velocity-time graph of a particle performing
SHM is as shown in fig. Amplitude of oscillation 47. In the figure shown , the current in the wires
is then nearly which join the points A and X is i1 and the points
X and Y is i2. Then i1 & i2 are respectively ?
(1) 20 cm (2) 48 cm (3) 75 cm (4) 8 cm
44. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution,
initial position and direction of revolution are
indicated in the figure. Then find the projection of
the radius vector of rotating particle P on x-axis :-

(1) i1 = 12 A, i2 = 4A (2) i1 = 8 A, i2 = 4A
(3) i1 = 4A, i2 = 4A (4) i1 = 3A, i2 = 12A
48. When a voltmeter and an ammeter are connected
one by one across the terminals of a cell
respectively measures 5 V and 10 A. Now all
meters are removed and only a resistance of 2 Ω
π π
is connected across the terminals of the cell. The
(1) x = 6 cos( t+ ) current flowing through this resistance is :-
2 6
π π (1) 7.5 A (2) 5.0 A (3) 2.5 A (4) 2.0 A
(2) x = 6 sin( t+ )
2 6 49. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of
x = 6 sin(
π
t)
105V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
(3) 8 capacitor plate is 1 μ C, then the force on each
π capacitor plate is
(4) x = 6 cos t
4
45. A heavy brass sphere is hung from a spring and it (1) 0.1N (2) 0.05N
executes vertical vibrations with period T. The (3) 0.02N (4) 0.01N
sphere is now immersed in a non-viscous liquid
with a density (1/10)th that of brass. When set into 50. Energy density of electric field between the
vertical vibrations with the sphere remaining plates of capacitor is given by :-
inside liquid all the time, the time period will be:- 1 1 E2
(1) ε 0E 2 (2)
(1) (2) 2 2 ε0
√ 9/10 T √ 10/9 T
1 2 1 2 2
(3) (9/10) T (4) T (3) ε E (4) ε E
2 0 2 0
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Topic : PERIODIC TABLE UPTO ELECTRON AFFINITY, HYDROCARBON (ALKANE, ALKENE, ALKYNE,
BENZENE), ACIDIC AND BASIC STRENGTH [BACK UNIT] : SOLUTION

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 57. Minimum first ionisation energy is shown by

which electronic configuration :
51. Correct order for I.E. would be ? (1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p4
(2) N > C > P > S (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(3) Na < Mg < Al < Si (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(4) (1) & (2) both 58. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
52. The decreasing order of size of ions is :-
Reason (R),
(1) Br – > S – 2 > Cl – > N – 3 Assertion (A): Ionisation of s-electrons requires
(2) N3 – > S – 2 > Cl – > Br – more energy than that for the ionisation of p -
electrons from the same shell of same atom.
(3) Br – > Cl – > S – 2 > N – 3 Reason (R): s-electrons are closer to the nucleus
(4) N – 3 > Cl – > S – 2 > Br – than the p-electrons of the same shell and hence
are more strongly attracted by the nucleus.
53. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correctly represented ? correct explanation of (A)
(1) Ce+3 > Sm+3 > Ho+3 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Na+ > F – > O2 –
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) F – > O2 – > Na+ (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3 – 59. Match the following ions given in Column I with
54. IUPAC symbol of element belong to IV B group the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
and 7th period :- Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(1) Uth (2) Uqn
a. Co3+ i. 8 B. M.
√

(3) Unq (4) Upn

b. Cr3+ ii. √ 35 B. M.
55. Be2+ is isoelectronic with :-
c. Fe3+ iii. √ 3 B. M.
(1) Mg2+ (2) Li+
–
d. Ni2+ iv. √ 24 B. M.
(3) Na+ (4) F
v. √ 15 B. M.
56. Select the correct order of electron affinity :-
(1) Si > C a b c d
(2) Cl > F (1) iv v ii i
(3) S > O (2) i ii iii iv
(4) All of these (3) iv i ii iii
(4) iii v i ii
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60. 64. Match list I with list II and then select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists :-
List-I List-II
What is relation between (A) and (B) ? (A) Na/Dry Ethers (p) Decarboxylation
(B) Zn – Hg/HCl (q) Clemmenson
(1) Functional isomer
(C) O3/Zn/H2O (r) Wurtz reaction
(2) Geometrical isomer (D) NaOH/CaO/ Δ (s) Ozonolysis
(3) Positional isomer (1) A-r B-q C-p D-s (2) A-r B-q C-s D-p
(3) A-p B-q C-r D-s (4) A-s B-q C-r D-p
(4) Chain isomer
65. In which of the following reaction acetylene will
61. Find reactivity order of hydrogen atoms attached be formed as major product :
to carbon atom in the halogenation of an alkane ? (1)
(1) tertiary > primary > secondary (1) alc.KOH (1 mole)
(2) −−−−−−−−−−−−−→
(2) secondary > primary > tertiary (2) NaNH2 (1 mole)

(3) tertiary > secondary > primary (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) primary > secondary > tertiary (4) None of the above
66. Correct order of rate of ESR (Electrophilic
62. Which product is/are obtained in given reaction : substitution reaction)?

(1)
(2) CH3CHO
(1) c > b > a > d (2) c > d > a > b
(3) & CH3 – CHO
(3) c > d > a > b (4) c > d > b > a
(4) HCHO 67. Which one is the most basic ?
63. Which of the following reagents can be used for (1) Benzyl amine (2) Aniline
following conversion (3) p-nitro aniline (4) p-methoxy aniline
68. 2 - Methyl butane on reacting with bromine in
the presence of sunlight gives mainly
(1) Zn – Hg/HCl (1) 1 – Bromo – 3 – Methyl butane
(2) Red P + HI (2) 2 – Bromo – 3 – Methyl butane
(3) N2H4, KOH, Glycol (3) 2 – Bromo – 2 – Methyl butane
(4) Na + Dry ether (4) 1 – Bromo – 2 – Methyl butane

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69. Which of the following reactions does not show 72.
the correct products?

(1) CH3 – CH=CH2−−HBr

−−−→ CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
Correct product will be :-
P eroxide

HCl
(2) CH3 – CH=CH2−−−−−→ CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
(1)
P eroxide

(3) CH3 – CH=CH2 −HBr

−−→
(2)
(4) CH3 – CH=CH2 −HCl
−→

70. Complete the following reactions and find A and B : (3)

CH2=CH2 + HOH + O dil. KMnO4 (A)
273 K
KMnO4 /H +
CH3 – CH=CH – CH3 (B) (4)
Δ
(1) A → Ethanoic acid, B → Ethanoic acid
73. Which is incorrect statement ?
(2) A → Glycerol, B → Ethanoic acid (1) Benzene has doughtnut shaped π electron
(3) A → Ethanoic acid, B → Glycol cloud.
(2) Acetylene has cylindrically symmetrical π
(4) A → Glycol, B →Ethanoic acid electron cloud.
71. Match the following :- (3) Acetylene is used for welding purpose
Column-I Column-II (4) Acetylene & ethene both can react with
Detect position NaNH2
(i) Baeyer's reagent (A) of double 74.
bond
Major product will be :
Test for
(ii) Ozonolysis (B)
unsaturation
(iii) Kharasch effect (C) Free radical
(iv) Markovnikov rule (D) Carbocation (1) (2)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) A B C D
(2) A B D C (3) (4)
(3) B A D C
(4) B A C D

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75. Butane n-pentane isopentane Neopentane 81. Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X and
A B C D Y. The solute X behaves as a univalent
Boiling point order for above compounds. electrolyte while the solute Y dimerises in
solution. Which of the following statements are
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D correct regarding these solutions ?
(A) The boiling point of the solution of X will be
(3) D > C > B > A (4) B > C > D > A
higher than that of Y
76. What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressure (B) The osmotic pressure of the solution of Y
of 0.01 M aqueous solution of : will be lower than that of X
(i) Al2(SO4)3 ( π 1) (ii) Na3PO4 ( π 2) (C) The freezing point of the solution of X will
be lower than that of Y
(iii) BaCl2 ( π 3) (iv) Glucose ( π 4) (D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of
(1) π 4 > π 2 > π 3 > π 1 (2) π 3 > π 4 > π 2 > π 1 both the solutions will be the same
Select the correct answer from the option given
(3) π 3 > π 1 > π 2 > π 4 (4) π 1 > π 2 > π 3 > π 4 below :
77. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. The (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
mole fraction of X in vapour phase is 0.2 while
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D
in liquid phase is 0.8. If the total vapour pressure
of solution is 800 torr then what are the vapour 82. Same quantity of current is passed through
molten NaCl and molten Al2O3. If 4.6 g of Na
pressure of X and Y in pure state ? was deposited in one cell, the mass of Al
(1) PXo = 300, PYo = 200 deposited in other cell is :-
(1) 0.9 g (2) 1.8 g (3) 2.7 g (4) 3.6 g
(2) PXo = 200, PYo = 3200
83. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10
(3) PXo = 400, PYo = 640 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. What is
(4) PXo = 640, PYo = 400 the mass of copper deposited at the cathode ?
(Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)
78. 16 g NaOH is present in 250 mL of solution find
(1) 1.08 g (2) 0.0296 g
molarity of solution ?
(3) 0.59 g (4) 0.296 g
(1) 0.8 M (2) 1.6 M (3) 0.4 M (4) 2 M
84. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of
79. If 100 ml of 1.0 M NaOH solution is diluted to
MnO4 – to MnO2 is :
1.0 L, the resulting solution contains-
(1) 1 F (2) 3 F (3) 5 F (4) r F
(1) 1 mole of NaOH
85. Given below are two statements
(2) 0.1 mole of NaOH Statement-I :- Fuel cell is more efficient as
(3) 10.0 mole of NaOH compared to thermal plant.
Statement-II :- In hydrogen fuel cell H2 and O2
(4) 0.05 mole of NaOH are supplied at anode and cathode respectively.
In light of above statements select the correct
80. For 1 molal aqueous solution of following answer from the options given below
compounds which will show highest vapour (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
pressure :-
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(1) KCl (2) Na2SO4
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(3) Sucrose (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
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SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 91. Choose the incorrect order ?

86. Which of the following is an exothermic process.

(1) F – → F + e – (2) N – → N + e – (1) (Acidic strength)
(3) S – + e – → S – 2 (4) Be + e – → Be –
87. Assertion :- Group 17 elements (Halogens) have
very high negative electron gain enthalpies in their
respective period. (2) (Acidic strength)
Reason :- They can attain stable noble gas
electronic configuration by picking up an electron.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) (Basic strength)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) (Basic strength)
88. Given that :
IE of F = a kcal/mol
IE of Cl = b kcal/mol 92. Find the major product of the following reactions
EA of Cl = c kcal/mol of oxidation of methane-
EA of F = d kcal/mol Cu/523 K
CH4 + O2 −−−−−−→ (A)
Then which option is incorrect ? 100 atm

(1) b > a (2) c > d (3) a > d (4) b > c M O 2 O3

What is the block, period and group of the CH4 + O2 −−−−→ (B)
89. Δ
atomic number 92 is :- (1) A → Methanal, B → Methanal
(1) d-block, 6th period, 10 (2) A → Methanoic acid, B → Methanal
(2) d-block, 7th period, 11 (3) A → Methanol, B → Methanal
(3) f-block, 7th period, III B (4) A → Methanol, B → Methanol
(4) f-block, 6th period, III B 93. Find major product (A) & (B) of following
90. Conc. H2 SO4 reactions,
−−−−−−−−→ Major product (A) Hg 2+ /H +
Ethyne + H2 O −−−−−−→ (A) ;
333K
Find (A) product ?
Hg 2+ /H +
Pr opyne + H2 O −−−−−−→ (B)
333K
(1) (2) (1) A → Ethane, B → Propane
(2) A → Ethanal, B → Propanal
(3) A → Ethane, B → Propene
(3) (4)
(4) A → Ethanal, B → Propanone
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94. 97. Statement-I : Solubility of gases increases with
increase in pressure.
Statement-II : Dissolution of gas in liquid is
Here (C) product will be :- exothermic process.
(1) Statement I is true & Statement II is false
(1) (2) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false & Statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and Statement II arc true
98. A compound MX2 has observed and normal
(3) (4) molar masses 65.6 and 164 respectively.
Calculate the apparent degree of ionization of
MX2 :-
95. (1) 75% (2) 85% (3) 65% (4) 25%
99. Given below are two statements-
Identify (B) product Statements-I : 4F electricity is required for
oxidation of 1 mole H2O to O2
(1) Statements-II : To get 44.8 L Cl2(g) at NTP from
aqueous NaCl, 4F electricity is required.
In light of above statements, choose the correct
(2) answer from the option given below :-
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) (3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
100. When a solution of AgNO3 (1M) is electrolyzed
(4)
using platinum anode and cathode. What are the
products obtained at two electrodes ?
96. Freezing point of NaCl solution is marked as :- Given : EOo 2, H +| H2O = +1.23 volt;
EHo + | H = +0.0 volt ;
2
o
EAg + | Ag = 0.8 volt

(1) H2 → H+ at anode; Ag+ → Ag at cathode

(2) H2O → O2 at anode; H+ → H2 at cathode
(1) A (2) B (3) H2O → O2 at anode; Ag+ → Ag at cathode
(3) C (4) D (4) NO3– → NO2 at anode; Ag+ → Ag at cathode
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Topic : PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE, ECOLOGY (TILL COMPLETED), REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING
PLANTS (UPTO POLLINATION) [BACK UNIT] : HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 105. Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select
the option which includes all the correct ones only.
101. At time of implantation, cells attached to (A) The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa
endometrium of uterus are – efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
(B) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
(1) Inner cell mass hormones called androgen.
(C)The male reproductive system is located in the pelvic
(2) Trophoblast
region.
(3) Epiblast (D) Each testis has about 250 compartments called
testicular lobules.
(4) Hypoblast
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D
102. Mild uterine contractions at the time of
parturition – (3) A, B, C (4) A and B
(1) Are induced by oxytocin released from 106. How many of the following have diploid chromosome
maternal pituitary Primary Oocyte, Primary spermatocyte, Sertoli cells,
Oogonia, Ovum, Second polar body, Secondary
(2) Are called foetal ejection reflex. spermatocyte, Spermatogonia.
(3) Result due to fully developed placenta only (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 6
(4) Result due to decrease in level of estrogen 107. Choose correct match
103. Which of the following structures are not
included in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen (d) Clitoris
(e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube
(1) Only c, e, f
(2) Only e, f (A) Middle piece (i) Mitochondria
(B) Tail (ii) Helps in movement
(3) Only d, f
(C) Head (iii) Haploid Nucleus
(4) a, d, e, f (1) (A – i), (B – ii), (C – iii)
104. Which one of the following is the correct (2) (A – iii), (B – ii), (C – i)
matching of the events occuring during (3) (A – iii), (B – i), (C – ii)
menstruation cycle? (4) (A – i), (B – iii), (C – ii)
(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium 108. In humans, which of the following undergoes
meiosis II ?
(2) Proliferative phase : Estrogen gradually
decrease (1) Secondary spermatocyte
(3) Ovulation : Only Due to FSH surge (2) Primary oocyte
(4) Secretory phase : Development of corpus (3) Secondary oocyte
luteum (4) Both (1) and (3)
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109. Which is the correct sequence in spermatogenesis ? 112. Assertion : hCG and hPL are produced in women
(1) Spermatogonia → Spermatids → only during pregnancy.
Secondary spermatocytes → Primary Reason : These hormones are produced by
spermatocytes → Sperms
placenta.
(2) Spermatogonia → Spermatids →
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
Primary spermatocytes → Secondary
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
spermatocytes → Sperms
(3) Primary spermatocytes → Secondary (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
spermatocytes → Spermatids → is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
Spermatogonia → Sperms (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocytes (4) Both assertion and reason are false
→ Secondary spermatocytes →
113. The following refers to schematic representation
Spermatids → Sperms
of oogenesis.
110. Given diagram is of female reproductive system.
Identify the structures which are marked as A, B.

(A) (B)
(1) Urethra Vagina orifice
(2) Vagina Urethra
(3) Vagina orifice Vagina
(4) Uterus Vagina
111. Assertion : Corpus albicans is an inactive Identify A to E correctly.
structure which is found in the ovary. (1) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty
Reason : Corpus albicans secretes the
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Childhood
progesterone hormone after ovulation.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (2) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (3) (A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (C) Puberty (D) Childhood (E) Fetal life
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) (A) Birth (B) Childhood (C) Fetal life
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
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114. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 117. Which of the following is the technique of
the correct option :- embryo transfer ?
Column-I Column-II (1) GIFT (2) ICSI (3) IUT (4) IUI
After one month Major organ system 118. Statement-I : Inability to conceive or produce
A. i.
of pregnancy formation children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
End of 2nd Body covered with cohabitation is called infertility.
B. month of ii. fine hairs and eye Statement-II : Medical termination of pregnancy
pregnancy lashes are formed is not legalised in our country.
Choose the correct option from the given
At end of 12
Embryo heart statements :
C. week of iii.
formation
pregnancy (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
End of second Foetus develops
incorrect.
D. iv.
trimester limbs and digits (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
(1) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
incorrect.
(3) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) A-iii B-ii C-i D-iv correct.
115. Select the correct sequence of transport of sperm 119. Statement-I : Though contraceptives are not
cells in male reproductive system :- regular requirements for reproductive health, one
is forced to use them to avoid pregnancy or to
(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → delay or space pregnancy.
Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra Statement-II : Reproductive health refers to a
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → total well-being in all aspects of reproduction,
Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas i.e. physical, emotional, behavioral and social.
deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra Choose the correct option from the given
statements.
→ Urethral meatus
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
incorrect.
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
correct.
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
116. In the given list how many are STIs ?
Gonorrhoea, Hepatitis-B, Genital warts, (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Trichomoniasis, Genital herpes correct.
(1) 5 (2) 4 120. The world population by 2000 was about ?
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 6000 million (2) 350 billion
(3) 7.2 billion (4) only 6 million
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121. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 125. From pollen grain pollen tube comes out through ____.
the correct option with respect to flowering plants (1) Micropyle (2) Germ pore
Column-I Column-II
(3) Pollen mother cell (4) Stomium
(A) Nucellus (i) 2n
126. Microsporangia develop further and form _______
(B) Female gametophyte (ii) 2n
(1) Pollen sacs (2) Ovules
(C) Megaspore mother cell (iii) n
(D) Functional megaspore (iv) n (3) Seeds (4) Fruits
127. Fill in the blanks and select the correct option :
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains
(2) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv are shed at the ___(a)___ celled stage. In
remaining species, the ___(b)____ divides
(3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i before pollen grains are shed :
(1) (a) 3, (b) vegetative cell
122. Female flowers remain submerged in water and
the pollen grains are released inside the water in : (2) (a) 3, (b) generative cell
(1) Sea-grasses zostera (3) (a) 2, (b) vegetative cell
(2) Vallisnaria (4) (a) 2, (b) generative cell
(3) Water-lily 128. Select the odd w.r.t. pollen viability :
(4) Water hyacinth (1) Rice (2) Leguminoceae
123. Which of the following plant is pollinated by (3) Solanaceae (4) Rosaceae
insect or wind ? 129. Select the odd w.r.t. pollinating agent :
(1) Water hyacinth (2) Hydrilla (1) Vallisneria (2) Hydrilla
(3) Zostera (4) Vallisneria (3) Zostera (4) Water hyacinth
124. 130. Which of the following is pre-fertilization event ?
(1) Gametogenesis
(2) Gamete transfer
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Seed and fruit formation
131. In most of the water pollinated species pollen
grains are covered by mucilage :
Identify (a), (b) and (c) in given diagram :-
(1) To protect the pollen from fishes
(1) (a)-Egg cell, (b)-Polar nuclei, (c)-Synergids
(2) To prevent undesirable transfer on stigma
(2) (a)-Synergids, (b)-Polar nuclei, (c)-Egg cell of flower of other species
(3) (a)-Polar nuclei, (b)-Egg cell, (c)-Synergids (3) To prevent wetting of pollen grains from water
(4) (a)-Synergids, (b)-Egg cell, (c)-Polar nuclei (4) To prevent self pollination
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132. Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils 138. One could be free from STI by following which
because of the presence of - of the following principles ?
(1) Cellulose (2) Pectin (1) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Liquid nitrogen partners.

133. The flowers that are not very colourful and donot (2) Always try to use condoms during coitus
produce nectar are - (3) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified
(1) Wind pollinated only doctor for early detection and get complete
treatment if diagnosed with infection.
(2) Water pollinated only
(4) All of the above
(3) Insect pollinated only
139. Specialised procedure to form embryo in lab in
(4) Both wind and water pollinated which sperm is directly injected into the ovum is ?
134. Human skin colour is controlled by 3 genes. (1) AI (2) IUT
Which genotype show darkest and lightest skin
colour respectively ? (3) IUI (4) ICSI

(1) AABBCC and aabbcc 140. Which of the following factors are deterrents for
adoption of ART ?
(2) aabbcc and AABBCC
(1) Emotional (2) Social
(3) AaBbCc and AaBbCc
(3) Religious (4) All of the above
(4) AABBCc and aabbcc
141. In the given list how many could be the
135. In 1900, Mendel's work was rediscovered by :- complications of STI ?
(1) Korana, Nirenberg and Mathei PID, still birth, ectopic pregnancy, infertility,
cancer
(2) De Vries, Correns and Von Tschermak
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) Avery Mccleod and McCarty
142. Which of the following technique is highly
(4) Watson, Crick and Wilkins
effective but it's reversibility is very poor ?
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I ) (1) Multiload 375 (2) Vaults
136. Which of the following is available for both (3) Saheli (4) Sterilisation
males and females ? 143. Possible ill effects of contraceptives could be ?
(1) Multiload-375 (2) Saheli (A) Nausea
(B) Break through bleeding
(3) Condoms (4) LNG-20
(C) Abdominal pain
137. In the given list how many are included in (D) Breast cancer
barrier method ? (E) Irregular menstrual bleeding
Progestasert, vaults, condoms, cervical caps, Choose the correct answer from given options :-
diaphragms
(1) A, B, C only (2) A, B, C, D, E
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) A, B, C, E only (4) B, E only
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144. Which of the following statement is false ?
(1) Saheli was developed by scientists at CDRI
in Lucknow.
(2) Barrier method prevents gametogenesis.
(3) Cervical caps are reusable.
(4) IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses
145. Which pair is not matched correctly ?
(1) Hormone releasing IUD → LNG-20
(2) RCH → 1951
(3) Withdrawal method → Natural method
(4) Tubectomy → Sterilisation
146. Identify the correct set of statements :-
(a) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous
(b) Pollination by water is more common
amongst abiotic pollinations
(c) Often flowers of animal pollinated plants are
specifically adapted for a particular species of
animal
(d) Self incompatibility is a out breeding device
which prevent inbreeding (self pollination)
(e) In most of the water pollinated species,
pollen grains are protected from wetting by a
mucilaginous covering.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :-
(1) (a) and (d) only
(2) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
147. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct option.
(a) Proximal end of filament is attached to the
thalamus or petal.
(b) Tapetum helps in dehiscence of anther.
(c) In wheat, pollen grains maintain viability for
months.
(d) Two anther lobes are attached together with
the help of a region, called connective.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
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148. Statement-A :- Embryo sac is diploid in nature.
Statement-B :- Sec. nucleus is diploid in nature.
(1) Both statement-A and statement-B are
incorrect.
(2) Statement-A is incorrect, statement-B is
correct.
(3) Statement-A is correct, statement-B is
incorrect.
(4) Both statement-A and statement-B are
correct.
149. Statement-A :- Diameter of pollen grains are
generally about 25-50 micrometer.
Statement-B :- Intine is made up of pectin and
cellulose.
(1) Both statement-A and B are incorrect.
(2) Statement-A is correct, B is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-A and B are correct.
(4) Statement-A is incorrect, B is correct.
150. Given below are two statement :
Statement-I : Majority of flowering plants
produce hermaphrodite (bisexual) flowers.
Statement-II : Monoecious plant prevents
autogamy but not geitonogamy.
In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer from the option given below :
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
correct.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct.
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Topic : PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE, ECOLOGY (TILL COMPLETED), REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING
PLANTS (UPTO POLLINATION) [BACK UNIT] : HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 156. When a pea plant with intermediate sized starch
grain in seed is crossed with other plant having
151. Gregor Mendel conducted hybridization experiment
on garden pea from small sized starch grain in seed, the total number
(1) Seven years - 1956 to 1963 of seeds obtained in progeny is 700. What is
(2) Seven years - 1856 to 1863 correct of this progeny?
(3) Eight years - 1856 to 1863 (1) 350 (large size), 350 (small size)
(4) Nine years - 1856 to 1864
(2) 330 (small size), 630 (medium size)
152. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci,
how many types of gametes can be produced (3) 350 (intermediate size), 350 (small size)
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32 (4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size),
314 (intermediate size)
153. Theoretically, a normal phenotype is expressed
when a particular substrate transforms in to 157. Which of the following condition is true for co-
product but in which of following conditions the dominance ?
normal phenotype may be affected ?
(1) Phenotype of F1 didn't resemble either of
(1) When the modified allele produces
two parents.
normal enzyme.
(2) When the modified allele produces a (2) Phenotype of F1 resemble both parents.
non functional enzyme. (3) Phenotype of F1 resembled either of two
(3) When the modified allele produces an parents.
enzyme with less efficiency. (4) Some blended phenotype appear in F1
(4) When the modified allele is equivalant to generation.
unmodified allele
158. Identify A, B and C :-
154. In case of inheritance of one gene 3 : 1 phenotypic
ratio can be explained on the basis of :-
(i) Incomplete dominance
(ii) Segregation
(iii) Dominance
(iv) Independent assortment
(1) i, ii (2) i, ii, iii (3) ii, iii (4) ii, iii, iv
155. Which one of the following is not correct
regarding Mendelian dihybrid cross ?
(1) The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) Law of independent assortment can be
explained on the basis of this dihybrid cross (1) A – CAC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(3) Mendelian dihybrid cross always explained (2) A – CAC ; Y – GAG ; C – Val
the linkage (3) A – CTC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(4) The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4
types in 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio (4) A – CTC ; B – GAG ; C – Glu
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159. In sickle cell anaemia – 163. With respect to flower colour and plant height
(1) The mutant haemoglobin molecule genotype of garden pea plant is WwTt. It cross
undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen with WWTt genotypic pea plant. Find out
tension causing the change in the shape of RBC percentage of offspring with violet flower with
tallness phenotype?
(2) Substitution of Glutamic acid by valine at
(1) 50% (2) 25%
the sixth position of the α-chain of haemoglobin
(3) 75% (4) 12.5%
(3) The mutant haemoglobin undergoes
polymerization under high oxygen 164. Match List-I with List-II
tension causing the change in shape of RBC List-I List-II
(4) The six codon of the beta globin gene is Two or more alternative Back
A. I.
change from AUG to UAA forms of a gene cross
160. Statement-I : Sickle cell anaemia and phenylketonuria Cross of F1 progeny with
both are autosomal dominant disease. B. homozygous recessive II. Ploidy
Statement-II : In affected individual of parent
phenylketonuria lacks an enzyme that converts, Cross of F1 progeny with
phenylalanine into tyrosine. C. III. Allele
any of the parents
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Number of chromosome Test
D. IV.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is sets in plant cross
incorrect Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is given below :
correct (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
161. Which of the following law is used to explain the (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
expression of only one of the parental characters
in a Mendelian monohybrid cross in the F1 :- (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) Law os segregation 165. A cross between tall plants was made resulting
(2) Law of dominance offsprings of tall and dwarf plants with 3 : 1. The
genotype (s) of both the parents are :
(3) Law of independence assortment
(1) Tt and tt (2) Tt and Tt
(4) Law of linkage
(3) tt and tt (4) TT and TT
162. On selfish of a plant with genotype AABbdd,
what phenotypic ratio will be obtain :- 166. The phenomenon where a single gene
exhibiting multiple phenotypic expressions is called :
(1) 3 : 1
(1) Pleiotropy
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(2) Multiple alleles
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) Co-dominance
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167. Which of the following is not a correct statement 171. Which of the following is not a correct statement :-
with respect to ABO blood group:- (1) A true-breeding line shows the stable trait
(1) ABO blood groups are controlled by the inheritance
gene I (2) Mendel experiments had a large sampling
(2) IA IB
and alleles are completely dominant size
over i allele (3) A recessive character is expressed only in
A B
(3) The alleles I and I produce a similar heterozygous conditon
form of the sugar (4) The characters never blend in heterozygous
(4) allele i does not produce any sugar condition
168. Blood group of father is AB and mother is 172. It was found that sometimes the F1 had a
heterozygous for B. Which blood group phenotype that did not resemble either of the two
is possible in children ? parents and was in between the two.
(1) Only AB (2) only B and O It was a case of :-

(3) A , B and AB (4) Only O (1) co dominance

169. When IA and IB alleles are present together in (2) complete dominance
red blood cell then both alleles express their own (3) Multiple alleles
types of sugars, this is because of :- (4) Incomplete dominance
(1) Incomplete dominance 173. Which of the following statement is not explain
(2) co-dominance on the basis of law of dominance?
(3) Pleiotropic gene (1) Characters are controlled by discrete units
(4) Polygenic inheritance called factors
(2) Factors occur in pairs
170. Match Column - I with Column- II :
Column - I Column- II (3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the
Complete pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive)
(a) Phenylketonuria (i)
dominance (4) The alleles do not show any blending
Trait of sickle cell Pleiotropic 174. How many of the following statements are correct
(b) (ii)
anaemia gene regarding the figures given below?
Flower colour of Incomplete
(c) (iii)
dog plant dominance
Pod colour of pea (A) Community P has maximum species diversity.
(d) (iv) Co dominance
plant (B) Community S has minimum species diversity.
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) (C) Community Q has more species diversity than
community R.
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) (D) Species diversity of community Q is greater
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) than that of community P.
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
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175. Assertion (A) : The size of population for any
species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) : Size of population depends upon
food availability, predation pressure and adverse
weather.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
176. Ecosystem properties can not be detected at how
many levels given below ?
Deme Metapopulation Biosphere
Organism Biome Communities
Species Organ system Landscape
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178. Physiological ecology tries to understand :-
(1) How different type of organisms interact
among themselves.
(2) How different type of ecosystems interact
with local abiotic factors.
(3) How different organisms are adapted to
environments in forms of not only survival
but also reproduction
(4) How different type of abiotic factors
interact among themselves and one factor
remains limiting
179. Species diversity increase as we move from :-
(1) Low altitude to high altitude and from low
latitude to high latitude
(2) High altitude to low altitude, and from high
latitude to low latitude

(1) Six (2) Five (3) High altitude to low altitude, and from
low latitude to high latitude
(3) Four (4) Three
(4) Low altitude to high altitude, and from
177. Observe the following table high latitude to low latitude
180. A table of species diversity in different area is
SECTION-A SECTION-B Interaction
given below.
+ – a=?
Taxonomic group
– – b=? Area
A B C D E
– 0 c=?
I 3 3 – 8 9
+ 0 d=?
II 10 4 3 2 –
The correct order of a, b, c, d would be : III 5 4 4 5 6
(1) Commensalism, Parasitism, Predation, Mutualism
IV 4 6 3 2 2
(2) Predation, Competition, Amensalism,
Which area is seemingly more diverse ?
Commensalism
(1) III
(3) Amensalism, predation, Commensalism,
Parasitism (2) I
(4) Parasitism, Predation, Amensalism, (3) II
Commensalism (4) IV

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181.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
In above diagram four areas are given. In which
Area has maximum species diversity
(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) D
182. Choose the correct order of ecological interactions
from most detrimental to most beneficial.
(1) Competition > Amensalism > Protocooperation
> Parasitism > Commensalism > Mutualism
(2) Competition > Amensalism > Predation ≥
Parasitism > Commensalism > Mutualism
(3) Competition > Commensalism > Predation
≥ Parasitism > Amensalism
(4) Mutualism > Commensalism > Parasitism
≥ Predation > Amensalism > Competition
183. If there are 300 earthworm in a cropfield and
within a year their number increases by 3000 by
reproduction. What should be the birth rate per
earthworm per year ?
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 15
184. Statement-I : If a new habitat is just being
colonized, natality contribute significantly to
population growth.
Statement-II : The size of a population for any
species is a static parameter and tell us a lot
about its status in the habitat.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
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185. Statement-I : A population with limited
resources show initially a lag phase, followed by
phases of deceleration and acceleration and
finally an asymptote, when the population
density reaches the carrying capacity.
Statement-II : No population of any species in
nature has its disposal unlimited resources to
permit logistic growth.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )
186. Assertion (A) :- In a polygenic trait inheritance
the effect of each dominant allele is additive.
Reason (R) :- Human skin colour is a classic
example of polygenic inheritance.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
187. Given below are two statements:
Statement I:Mendel studied seven pairs of
contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the
Laws of Inheritance
Statement II: Seven characters examined by
Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were
seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape
and colour, flower position and stem height
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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188. If the genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB
and IAIO : Among the blood types of their
children, how many different genotypes and
phenotypes are possible?
(1) 2 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
(2) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(4) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
189. When a violet coloured flower cross with white
coloured flower of pea plant half of the flowers
obtained was violet and half of the flowers are
white. which of the following option is true
regarding this cross
(1) Violet parental plant was homozygous
recessive
(2) White parental plant was heterozygous
(3) Violet parental plant was heterozygous
(4) Violet parental plant was homozygous
dominant.
190. Which of the following law is based on the fact
that the alleles do not show any blending and
that both the characters are recovered as such
in the F2 generation
(1) Law os segregation
(2) Law of dominance
(3) Law of independence assortment
(4) Law of linkage
191. ABO blood group is an example of :-
(1) Incomplete dominance
(2) Linkage
(3) Pleiotropic gene
(4) Multiple alleles
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192. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Not all characters show true dominance
Statement-II : The dominant characters are expressed
when factors are in homozygous condition or in
heterozygous condition.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
193. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
disease in human. A normal male has affected
father. This male is married with normal female,
her father is also affected. Find out percent of
their child to be carrier of phenylketonuria ?
(1) 50% (2) 25%
(3) 75% (4) 100%
194. Read the following statements and choose the
correct set of statements:
(a) multiple alleles can be found only when
population studies are made
(b) dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene
(c) Punnett square is used to calculate the
probability of all possible genotypes of offspring
in a genetic cross
(d) Mendel applied statistical analysis and
mathematical logic to solve problems in biology
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:-
(1) (a),(c) and (d) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a),(b),(c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
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195. The formula for growth curve when resources 198. Mobile radiations has significantly affected the
are unlimited is migratory path of many migratory birds. So
dN study of effect of mobile radiations on migratory
(1) = rN
dt birds will be studied under :-
(2) Nt = N0ert (1) Autecology
dN
= rN (
K−N (2) Synecology
(3) )
dt K
(3) Demecology
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Population ecology
196. Vertical distribution of different species
199. How many of the following attributes are not
occupying different levels is called ___A___;
shown by population ?
and it can be clearly seen in ___B___ area. Here
(A) Birth rate (B) Death rate
A and B are respectively. (C) Sex ratio (D) Stratification
(1) A – Species diversity, B – Tropical rain forest (E) Age-sex pyramid (F) Species diversity
(2) A – Stratification, B – Tropical rain forest (1) One (2) Two
(3) A – Species diversity, B – Coniferous forest (3) Three (4) Four
(4) A – Stratification, B – Coniferous forest 200. Which of the following technique are used for
197. Ecology is study of inter-relationship between tiger census ?
organism and its environment. So, at which (A) Pug marks (B) Dry weight
ecological level you can't detect the properties of (C) Percent cover (D) Biomass
physical environmental factors? (E) Fecal pellets
(1) Ecosystem (2) Biome (1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) Community (4) Ecosphere (3) A, B and D (4) A and E

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2024 - 2025)
ENTHUSE ADV. COURSE I(A) : MEA & MEPS
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE

P CURRENT ELECTRICITY & SHM

SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
05
30-06-2024
03-06-2024 C ELECTROCHEMISTRY
TO
29-06-2024

B ORIGIN & EVOLUTION

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