SỞ GDĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024 (LẦN 1)

LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Bài thi: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút.
(Đề thi gồm 04 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ........................................................................
Mã đề 101
Số báo danh: .................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1. With a good__________of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral
interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. command B. proficiency C. knowledge D. insight
Question 2. I made a decision ______ to Hanoi University because it’s famous for its great quality.
A. to apply B. applying C. apply D. applied
Question 3. Mary decided to take this course so as to ______ her interpreting skills.
A. sharp B. sharply C. sharpness D. sharpen
Question 4. My mother was disappointed after buying a smartphone ______ on Facebook.
A. advertising B. advertised
C. to advertise D. which are advertised
Question 5. She is now in her dad’s good ______ ; she helped him water his potted plants.
A. arms B. eyes C. books D. doors
Question 6. Phong tells lies, ______ ?
A. has he B. didn’t he C. does he D. doesn’t he
Question 7. My brother wants to _______ a temporary job when he enters university.
A. pick B. meet C. find D. lend
Question 8. Are you fond _______ reading detective novels?
A. with B. in C. to D. of
Question 9. Against all the_______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.
A. chances B. successes C. odds D. failures
Question 10. Before opening this restaurant, my sister had worked as ______ interpreter.
A. the B. an C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 11. Children ______ to participate in extracurricular activities.
A. should encourage B. will encourage
C. encourage D. should be encouraged
Question 12. It ______ when I stayed up this morning.
A. rains B. was raining C. has rained D. is raining
Question 13. The assistant will have activated five tracking devices _______ .
A. while his manager was coming back B. by the time his manager comes back
C. when his manager came back D. after his manager had come back
Question 14. At the conference, they ______ a new ban on imported fireworks.
A. broke off B. came across C. brought in D. got over
Question 15. My grandmother was born in 1946. Your grandmother was born in 1947. My grandmother is ______
than yours.
A. more older B. younger C. more popular D. older

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 16. The first thing the new director did to restructure the company was to remove all the dead wood.
A. unnecessary employees B. artificial plants
C. natural plants D. useful staff
Question 17. Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a decline B. a reform C. an improvement D. inflation

the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.

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Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s primary
mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when
low-lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward
through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their
latent heat is released above the condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds.
What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature
differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass
drops more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In
summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the
considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more
pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in
winter; when the temperature drops more than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds
aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.
In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat
from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely
impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold air and
warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is common
for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and
moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A
squall line, which can be hundreds of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force
of nature with incredible potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its southern end, can be found
supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as the source of tornadoes.
Question 18. The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. ferocious B. harmless C. spectacular D. beneficial
Question 19. All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they ________.
A. have circling winds B. can give birth to tornadoes
C. are of short duration D. have extraordinary power
Question 20. The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. a layer of warm and moist air B. a squall line
C. a large-scale collision D. an advancing cold front
Question 21. The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.
A. as a cluster B. in a performance
C. as a chorus D. with other musicians
Question 22. The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely ________.
A. materials B. methods C. motions D. machines
Question 23. It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, ________.
A. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter
B. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere
C. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to
occur
D. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes
Question 24. The topic of the passage is ________.
A. devastating effects of tornadoes B. the power of tornadoes
C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds D. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 25. The chef revealed the secret ingredients in his winning recipe and some of it were locally sourced.
A. it B. revealed C. winning D. sourced
Question 26. Because of his professional expertise and dedication, everyone was very respective towards him.
A. professional B. respective C. dedication D. expertise
Question 27. Both Lucy and Peter don’t attend the prom five days ago.
A. days B. don’t C. the D. and

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 28. Paul had a terrible accident. He realised the true dangers of speeding only then.
A. Such was his terrible accident that Paul didn’t realise the true dangers of speeding.
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 B. Only when Paul had realised the true dangers of speeding did he have a terrible accident.
C. Only after Paul had had a terrible accident did he realise the true dangers of speeding.
D. Had it not been for his terrible accident, Paul wouldn’t realise the true dangers of speeding.
Question 29. Tom doesn’t have a big house. He can’t throw a party for his friends.
A. If Tom had had a big house, he could have thrown a party for his friends.
B. Provided that Tom had a big house, he couldn’t throw a party for his friends.
C. Unless Tom has a big house, he can’t throw a party for his friends.
D. If Tom had a big house, he could throw a party for his friends.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 30. A. arrange B. question C. receive D. expect
Question 31. A. committee B. decisive C. refugee D. catastrophe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 32. They are forbidden to take photos during their tour around the gallery.
A. They shouldn’t take photos during their tour around the gallery.
B. They may take photos during their tour around the gallery
C. They can take photos during their tour around the gallery.
D. They mustn’t take photos during their tour around the gallery.
Question 33. “I have some work to do tonight,” said Lan.
A. Lan said that she had some work to do that night.
B. Lan said that she had had some work to do that night.
C. Lan said that she has some work to do that night.
D. Lan said that she has had some work to do that night.
Question 34. He last went out with his friends a month ago.
A. He hasn’t gone out with his friends for a month.
B. He didn’t go out with his friends a month ago.
C. He has a month to go out with his friends.
D. He has gone out with his friends for a month.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
There is nothing to suggest that Evelyn Glennie is profoundly deaf. She insists that her deafness is irrelevant to her
musicianship, but there is no doubt that her obvious handicap has turned a remarkable career into a miraculous one.
Glennie was eight when her hearing began to fail; by twelve she had lost it completely and feared she would have
to give up the music she loved. But a doctor’s suggestion that she should become an accountant rather than follow
a hopeless musical career strengthened her will to succeed.
As it turned out, music was one of the most advantageous careers she could have chosen and is one reason why
her speech remains so extraordinarily correct, despite her deafness. Occasionally she listens to recordings by holding
a cassette player between her knees, interpreting the vibrations and the shaking movements. Her deafness is one
of the reasons for her unique style, for she cannot listen and be influenced by other performances and she has often
declared that getting her hearing back would be the worst thing that could happentoher.
As a result of her devotion to her music and her determination to succeed, she has doubled the range of works
available for percussion music in Europe and introduced instruments previously unheard of in the west. She has also
asked composers to write more than fifty new pieces of music for these instruments, and has set up a library of three
hundred works for other musicians to use.
(Adapted from Richmond FCE Practice Tests)
Question 35. According to paragraph 4, Glennie has ______.
A. written over fifty new pieces of music by herself
B. refused to introduce new instruments to the west
C. given up the hope to succeed in her musical career
D. established a library to support other musicians
Question 36. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. handicap B. music C. hearing D. career
Question 37. The word unique in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. boring B. common C. healthy D. special
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Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Glennie’s deafness turns out to be an advantage to her career.
B. Glennie wishes she could hear clearly like a normal person.
C. Glennie’s doctor encouraged her to become a musician.
D. People can easily tell that Glennie is completely deaf.
Question 39. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Disadvantages of Deafness B. Developing Musical Skills at School
C. Overcoming a Severe Disability D. How to be a Successful Singer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 40. A. chore B. church C. scholar D. cheap
Question 41. A. same B. tall C. late D. safe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 42. Two students, Anna and Linda, are talking about cyberbullying.
Anna: “I believe that children should be provided guidance on how to deal with cyberbullying.”
Linda: “ _______. This can help them have more enjoyable experiences on the Internet.”
A. Actually, I quite agree anymore. B. I don’t think you’re correct.
C. Sorry, but you’re right. D. No doubt.
Question 43. Tim: “Would you mind sending those flowers to Mr. Brown?” - Tan: “_______”
A. No, I can handle it myself B. Sure, I’ll do it now.
C. I would if I were you D. He wouldn’t mind

the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Earthquakes are amongst the most destructive natural disasters. They usually strike without any warning and result
in a great loss of life and an enormous demolition of buildings. Additionally, they may cause devastating landslides
or create gigantic tidal waves (44) _____, in fact, are collosal walls of water smashing into seashores with such force
that they are (4 5 )_____of destroying coastal cities. (46) ______, the vast majority of fatalities and serious injuries
come about when buildings collapse.
Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to (47)____ the mortal upshot
once the shaking starts. The savage forces of an earthquake trigger off a complex chain reaction in the building's
structure when it is shaken, lifted, pushed or pulled. A building's height, its shape and (48)_______factors such as
construction materials are the most significant factors deciding about the survival or collapse of the structure and,
consequently, about the life or death of its inhabitants.
Question 44. A. which B. When C. who D. where
Question 45. A. capable B. potential C. conceivable D. possible
Question 46. A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
Question 47. A. evade B. restrain C. avert D. abstain
Question 48. A. other B. another C. every D. one

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word in each of the following questions.
Question 49. According to preliminary results, the new approach is generally efficient, requiring less labour and
fewer inputs.
A. disappointing B. interesting C. final D. initial
Question 50. I feel more comfortable and confident when I am left alone.
A. tired B. nervous C. stressful D. relaxed

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